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179 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
How many zoonotic diseases are known?
> 200
Percent of emerging diseases that are zoonotic?
75%
How many of the emerging pathogens have wildlife origins?
71%
Of the emerging diseases, what is the most common pathogen type?
Viruses
Define agriculture associated diseases
Any disease related to the agri-food chain
- From production by seller to preparation by consumer
4 types of agriculture associated diseases
- Zoonoses and emerging infectious diseases
- Food associated diseases
- Water associated diseases
- Occupational diseases and drug resistance
What are diseases directly related to in poor countries?
Agriculture
What is a Disability Adjusted Life Years (DALY)
Sum of years of potential life lost due to premature mortality and the years of productive life lost due disability
7 of the most common DALYs
- Echinococcis
- Rabies
- Sleeping sickness
- Leishmaniasis
- Cysticercosis
- Brucellosis
- Leptospirosis
Poor people are more likely to contract diseases and least likely to seek help for disease.
Impact on poor people is worse too due to physical health of workers and animals being source of income
Zoonoses account for at least X% of total disease burden in least developed countries
7%
Two basic premises of reservoir mechanisms
- Agent and environmental factors influence the entire mechanism
- Mechanism is necessary for the continued transmission of pathogens
5 factors of reservoir mechanisms
- Reservoir
- Portal of exit
- Mode of transfer
- Portal of entry
- Susceptible host
Reservoir
Site where an etiologic agent propagates and is responsible for pathogens survival
Source
Object, item, or place where the pathogen was when it entered by way of portal of entry
Anthropozoonoses
Reservoir species are lower vertebrate animal species
- Animal --> Human transmission
Zooanthroponoses
Humans are reservoirs
- Human --> animal transmission
Reservoir is either human or animal
- Human <--> animal
Amphixenoses
Xenozonoses
Disease transmitted after transplantation of an animal organ
Example of a zoonoses spread from humans to animals
Human -- H1N1 --> Cats
Example of a amphixenoses
Human <-- Plague --> Cats
Example of an anthropozoonoses
Bat -- Rabies --> Human
Carriers
Individuals who aren't showing clinical signs when they are shedding pathogens
Three main pillars of prevention
- Surveillance and bio-security
- Stamping out and disinfection
- Vaccination
Three types of influenza virus
- A
- B
- C
Two surface antigens of influenza virus
- H (hemaglutinin)
- N (neuraminidase)
Current strain of avian influenza
H5N1
Current strain of swine influenza
H1N1
Primary methods of how H5N1 reaches Europe (4)
- Poultry production methods (*)
- Virus eco-epidemiology
- Human behavior
- Migrating birds
4 driving forces promoting the increased numbers of epidemics in 21st century
- Accelerated globing trading and tourism
- Speed of transportation
- Exposure to new pathogens through ecosystem disruption
- Intensification and monoculture farming
How long is a dog, cat, or ferret observed for rabies signs?
10 days
How long are 'other species' observed for rabies?
30 days
How long are 'low-risk species' observed for rabies signs?
Depends on LRCA
How long are 'high-risk species' observed for rabies signs?
Immediately destroyed and tested
How should you store the head for rabies inspection?
Refrigerate
- Don't freeze
Definition of an emerging zoonosis
A disease that is newly recognized or is newly evolved, or shows an increase in incidence or expansion in geographic host or vector range
An emerging zoonosis is not necessarily a new disease, but rather one that has changed genetically so as to appear new to the human immune system
An emerging zoonosis is not necessarily a new disease, but rather one that has changed genetically so as to appear new to the human immune system
Four emerging zoonoses
- SARS
- Monkey Pox
- Nipah Encephalitis
- Hendra
First known case of SARS
- Guangdong, China, 2002
Common symptom of SARS
Fever > 100.4
Spread of SARS (2)
- Inhalation
- Fomites
What do you use to treat SARS?
No evidence of any drugs working against SARS
4 methods of controlling an outbreak
- Frequent temperature monitoring for early detection
- Early case identification/isolation of patients
- Home quarantine of contacts of infected patient
- Incoming and outgoing travelers from SARS affected areas
Pathogen of Monkeypox
Orthopoxvirus
Transmission of Monkeypox (3)
- Bites
- Inhalation
- DC
When was smallpox eradicated?
1980
Importance of Monkeypox
Potential bioweapon
Treatment of Monkeypox
Supportive care
Control of Monkeypox (5)
- Vaccination
- Infection control
- Embargo
- Euthanasia of animals
- Quarantine (6 weeks)
What is a natural reservoir of orthopox (monkeypox)?
Small rodents
Agent of Nipah virus
Henipavirus
What does Nipah virus produce in humans?
Severe, rapidly progressive encephalitis
- High mortality rate
What animal is Nipah virus closely associated with?
Pigs
What does Nipah virus produce in pigs?
Severe respiratory disease
Where did Nipah virus first appear?
Malaysia
Reservoir of Nipah virus
Fruit bats (flying foxes)
3 sources of Nipah virus
- Urine of fruit bats
- Partially eaten fruit
- Contaminated fruit-juice
Transmission of Nipah virus
In pigs: DC, contact with bodily fluids, inhalation

No person-to-person transmission
No direct bat-to-human transmission
Case fatality ratio of first Nipah virus outbreak
40%
Incubation period of Nipah virus
3 - 14 days
5 symptoms of Nipah virus in humans
- Fever
- Encephalitis
- Respiratory difficulties
- Hypertension
- Tachycardia
Three primary complications associated with Nipah virus
- Septicemia (24%)
- GI Bleeding (5%)
- Renal impairment (4%)
Treatment of Nipah virus (2)
- Supportive
- Ribavirin
Characteristic symptom of Nipah virus in pigs
Harsh, barking cough
Which animal is Nipah virus contagious in?
Pigs
Four animals Nipah virus affects
- Pigs
- Horses
- Dogs
- Cats
5 diseases that Nipah virus is similar to
- Swine fever
- PRRS (arterivirus)
- Pseudorabies
- Swine enzootic pneumonia
- Porcine pleuropneumonia
Prevention of Nipah virus
- Avoid all contact with potentially infected pigs
- Immediately contact state authorities
3 bodies to report Nipah virus to in Texas
- State Veterinarian (TAHC)
- USDA-APHIS-VS Veterinarian in Charge for Texas
- State public Health Veterinarian (DSHS)
Causative agent of Hendra virus
Family: Paramyxoviridae
- Genus: Henipavirus
Baltimore classification of Hendra virus
ssRNA
4 other diseases included in family Paramyxoviridae
- Mumps and measles
- Rinderpest
- Human parainfluenza virus
- Canine distemper virus
First recognized outbreak of Hendra virus
Hendra, Australia, 1994
3 new viruses carried by fruit bats
- Hendra
- Nipah
- Menangle
Transmission of Hendra virus in humans
Direct contact with fluids from infected horses
Transmission of Hendra virus
Bat --> horse
Incubation of Hendra virus in humans
4 - 18 days
6 symptoms of Hendra virus in humans
- Meningoencephalitis
- Fever
- Myalgia
- Headaches
- Vertigo
- Pneumonitis
2 treatment methods of Hendra virus
- Intensive support and care
- Ribavirin
Incubation of Hendra virus in Horses
6 - 18 days
5 early symptoms of Hendra virus in horses
- Initial nasal discharge
- Depression
- Pyrexia
- Dyspnea
- Tachycardia
Two naturally affected species of animals with Hendra virus
- Horses
- Humans
6 late symptoms of hendra virus
- Frothy nasal discharge
- Injected mucous cyanotic border
- Dependent edema
- Head pressing
- Ataxia
- Sudden death 1 - 3 days after onset
Two species that can be experimentally infected with Hendra virus
- Cats
- Guinea pigs
What should you avoid handling in suspected Hendra virus cases? (3)
- Tissues
- Blood
- Urine
4 ways to prevent and control Hendra virus
- Heat and chemical disinfection
- Autoclave or boil contaminated objects
- 1% Sodium hypochlorite
- NaDCC granules (Sodium dichloroisocyanurate)
Neglected zoonoses definition
Diseases that share symptoms with other common diseases and thus are poorly reported
What causes Chagas?
Trypanosoma cruzi
What is the vector for Trypanosoma cruzi?
Triatoma bugs
- Kissing bugs, assassin bugs
Who discovered Chagas Disease?
Carlos Chagos, 1911
Where is Chagas endemic? (3)
- Mexcio
- Central America
- South America
5 states that Chagas is endemic in
- TX
- LA
- OK
- SC
- VA
5 methods of infection of Chagas
- Rubbing bug into wound
- Mother-to-baby
- Contaminated blood products
- Organ transplants
- Laboratory accidents
Which animal reservoir shows symptoms?
Dogs
Reservoirs of Chagas
- Humans
- Dogs
- Cats
- Rodents and small critters
3 manifestations of acute Chagas
- Acute
- Mild/asymptommatic
- Severe inflammation of heart and brain
Pathognomonic sign of Chagas
Romana's Sign
- Swelling eyelid
3 complications of chronic Chagas
- Heart rhythym abnormalities
- Dilated heart
- Dilated esophagus or colon
Dx of Chagas
See Trypanosoma cruzi in blood smear
Px of Chagas (2)
- Improve living conditions
- Screen blood donations
Which part of south America has been certified free of vector-borne diseases?
Southern Cone of South America
What is used to treat Chagas?
Benznidazole
Two ways that canines are exposed to Chagas
- Fecal inoculation
- Ingestion of bug or infected prey
6 symptoms of Chagas in dogs
- CHF
- Diarrhea
- Seizures
- Swollen LN
- Tachycardia
- Depression
What's a potential source of infection to Chagas for vets?
Blood samples from infected dogs
What causes Q-fever?
Coxiella burnetii
Where was Q fever first found?
Brisbane, Australia
Who isolated Coxiella burnetii?
Davis and Cox
Where was Q-fever isolated?
Nine Mile Creek, Montana
Who named the organism responsible for Q-fever?
Edward Derrick
Who differentiated Coxiella burnetii from Rickettsia?
Cox
During what period of history was Q fever outbreaks common?
WWII
When and where was the first naturally acquired US case of Q fever?
Montana, 1941
Gram staining of Coxiella burnetii
G-
Atmospheric environment of Coxiella burnetii
Obligate anaerobe
Two phases of Coxiella burnetii
- Phase I: natural phase in infected animals (highly infectious)
- Phase II: obtained only in labs (not very infections)
Two target cells of Coxiella burnetii
- Monocytes
- Macrophages
Two forms of Coxiella burnetii in persistently infected host cells
- SCV
- LCV
Characteristics of SCV (3)
Small cell variant
- Metabolically inactive
- EC form of organism
- Phagolysosomal fusion leads to formation of LCV
Characteristics of LCV (3)
Large cell variant
- Metabolically active
- IC form
- Differentiates into resistant spore-like form
What do the spore-like Coxiella burnetii forms develop into?
SCVs
- Released from infected host by cell lysis
pH that Coxiella burnetii is enhanced at
4.7 - 5.4
What are SCVs and spore-like Coxiella burnetii forms resistant to? (4)
- Dessication/heat
- pH variation
- Chemicals/disinfectants
- UV radiation
What protects Coxiella burnetii from immune response?
LPS
Temperature and time for pasteurization of milk against M. bovis
142 F

30 min
Temperature and time for pasteurization of milk against C. burnetii
145 F

30 min
Temperature and time for pasteurization of milk against C. burnetii using High Temp - Short Time method
163 F

15 sec
Temperature and time for pasteurization of milk against M. bovis using High Temp - Short Time method
161 F

15 sec
Three primary reservoirs of Coxiella burnetii infection in humans
- Sheep (40%)
- Goats (16%)
- Cattle (3%)
Four sources of Coxiella burnetii infection in humans from reservoirs
- Urine
- Feces
- Milk
- Birth products
Two pets that may shed Coxiella burnetii
- Cats
- Dogs
4 vectors of Coxiella burnetii
- Ticks (multiplies in midgut)
- Chiggers
- Lice
- Fleas
Transmission of Coxiella burnetii (2)
- Tick dependent cycle
- Tick independent cycle (inhalation, DC)
Where does Coxiella burnetii localize in tick independent cycle? (2)
- Genital tract
- Udder
Transmission of Coxiella burnetii to dogs and cats (2)
- Inhalation
- Ingestion
Transmission of Coxiella burnetii to humans (3)
- Inhalation
- Ingestion
- Person-to-person contact (rare)
What's the only country Coxiella burnetii hasn't been reported in?
New Zealand
When is Q fever most likely to occur in Europe?
Spring - Early Summer
Where has the most recent outbreak of Q fever occurred?
Germany
Where is Q fever a current problem?
Netherlands
Dx of Q fever (4)
- Complement fixation
- Indirect immunofluorescence assay (IFA)
- ELISA
- Microagglutination
Clinical signs of Q fever (3)
- Infection in animals is subclinical
- Abortion
- Lower birth weight
When can Q fever antibiotics be detected in humans?
2 - 3 weeks post-exposure
What is diagnostic of Q fever?
Four-fold increase in antibody titers
Which phase of Q fever has higher antibody levels?
Phase II
What's indicative of Q fever endocarditis? (2)
- IgG
- IgA
Incubation period of Coxiella burnetii
2 - 3 weeks
Percentage of infected patients with Coxiella burnetii that show symptoms
50%
5 symptoms of Q Fever
- High fever
- Severe headache
- Sore throat
- Vomiting
- Diarrhea
How long do clinical symptoms of Q fever last generally?
1 - 2 weeks
Two primary clinical presentations of Q fever in humans
- Atypical pneumonia (x-rays)
- Hepatitis (increased hepatic enzyme levels)
3 symptoms that can arise from hematogenous spread of Coxiella burnetii
- Meningoencephalitis
- Myocarditis
- Pericarditis

Hematogenous spread is rare
What is chronic Q fever defined as?
Infection that persists more than 6 months
Where is chronic Q fever generally seen in?
Patients who have previous cardiac valvulopathy
Most common clinical manifestation of chronic Q fever in humans
Endocarditis
Mortality rate of chronic Q fever
65%
Tx of Q fever
- Doxycycline (*)
- Quinolone
Tx of chronic Q fever endocarditis (3)
- Doxycyclone + quinolones
- Doxycyclone + hydroxychloroquine
- Surgical removal of damaged heart valves
What do you use to disinfect surfaces against Q fever?
0.5% Hypochlorite
Incubation period of rabies
3 - 8 weeks
4 infectious materials for rabies transmission
- Saliva
- CNS tissue
- CSF
- Organ transplants
Two reasons to report when you've been bitten
- It's the law
- It's the College's procedure
Three people at risk of transmission when bats are in the room
- Sleeping person
- Unattended child
- Mentally impaired/intoxicated person
Where does the rabies virus move after the brain?
Salivary glands
When is the rabies virus infectious?
After it's moved to the salivary glands
Three clinical signs of rabies
- Behavior changes
- Unexplained paralysis
- Death
Four late signs of rabies
- Attacking horse/donkey/sheep/cat
- Self traumatizing horse
- Self traumatizing goat
- Hallucinating, aggressive dog
Ranking of Texas in total rabies cases, number of rabid wildlife, and number of rabid domestic animals.
- 1st
- 1st
- 3rd
Who do you report rabies exposure to?
Animal control
What's the law of pet owners and bitten animals?
They must submit the animal for quarantine
- Class C Misdemeanor if refused
- May need warrants
Two mandatory procedures for rabies quarantine/testing
Mandatory 10 day rabies quarantine
- or -
Euthanasia and rabies testing
Three classifications of test results that must be considered as positive for rabies
- Decomposed
- Destroyed
- Unsatisfactory
What does Rabies Rules Section 169.30 say?
An animal that's not vaccinated against rabies and then exposed must:
- Be humanely destroyed
-or-
- Vaccinated immediately and 3 - 8 weeks later
- Placed in home confinement for 90 days
Texas Department of State Health Services Zoonosis Control Branch phone number
(512) 458 - 7111
Region 7 Zoonosis Control Program phone number
(254) 778 - 6744
Who designates rabies control authority?
Commissioners court of each county and the governing body of each municipality
Three articles the local rabies control authority shall enforce
- Rules that make up the minimal standards for rabies control
- Rules of the municipality or county that the local rabies control authority serves
- Rules of Section 826.045
Which classification of animals are exempt from quarantine? (2)
- Police service animals
- Personal service animals at discretion of LRCA
Information required on a rabies vaccination certificate
(1) custodian's name, address, and telephone number;
(2) animal identification-species, sex (including neutered if applicable), approximate age, size (pounds), predominant breed, and colors;
(3) vaccine used-product name, manufacturer, and serial number;
(4) date vaccinated;
(5) revaccination due date;
(6) rabies tag number if a tag is issued;
(7) veterinarian's signature, signature stamp, or computerized signature, plus address and license number.