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109 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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what is the study of blood and blood forming tissues?
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hematology
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what is blood cell production called?
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hematopoiesis
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where does hematopoiesis occur?
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in red bone marrow
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what is the soft material that fills the central core of bones?
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bone marrow
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in the adult, where is red marrow found primarily?
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flat and irregular bones
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what is a nondifferentiated immature blood cell found in the bone marrow?
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stem cell
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what are the three major functions of blood?
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transportation, regulation, and protection
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what are the two major components of blood?
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plasma and blood cells
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approx. how much of blood is plasma?
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55 %
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what does the word serum refer to?
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plasma minus clotting factor
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what are red blood cells called?
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erythrocytes
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what are white blood cells called?
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leukocytes
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what are platelets called?
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thrombocytes
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what are the primary function of RBCs?
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oxygen transportation
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what are the primary function of WBCs?
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protect body from infection
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what are the primary function of platelets?
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promote blood coagulation
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erythrocytes are primarily composed of molecules called what?
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hemoglobin
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this functions to combined with oxygen and carbon dioxide
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hemoglobin
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the process of RBC production is called?
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Erythropoiesis
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what is erythropoiesis stimulated by?
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hypoxia
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an immune erythrocyte
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reticuloctye
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destruction of RBCs
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hemolysis
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what is the result of hemolysis of RBCs?
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increased bilirubin
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what is the normal life span of an erythrocyte?
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120 days
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what is the primary function of granulocytes?
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phagocytosis
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what is a process by which WBCs ingest or engulf any unwanted organism and then digest and kill it?
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phagocytosis
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what is the most common type of granulocyte?
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neutrophil
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________ are the primary phagocytic cells involved in the acute inflammatory responses
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neutrophils
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an immature neutrophil is called a _____
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band
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a mature neutrophil is called what?
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a segmented neutrophil or "seg" or polysegmented neutrophil
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these account for 2-4% of all WBCs
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eosinophils
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these have a similar but reduced ability for phagocytosis like the neutrophils
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eosinophils
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one of their primary functions is to engulf antigen-antibody complexes formed during an allergic response; they also are able to defend against parasitic infections
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eosinophils
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these make up less than 2% of all leukocytes
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basophils
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this is synthesized in the liver and serves as a carrier plasma protein
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transferrin
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a term used to describe the blood clotting process
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hemostasis
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a process resulting in a the dissolution of the fibrin clot
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fibrinolysis
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this produces all the procoagulants that are essential to hemostasis and blood coagulation
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liver
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stores excess iron
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liver
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this is produced by the liver and is a key regulator of iron balance
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hepcidin
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where does iron absorption occur?
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duodenum
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excessive RBCs
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polycythemia
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blood in the joint
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hemarthrosis
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marked decrease in the number of RBCs, WBCs, and platelets
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pancytopenia
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the shape and appearance of cells is called what?
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morphology
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excessive platelets
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thrombocytosis
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______ is a measurement of the amount of protein bound iron circulating in the serum
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serum iron
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_______ is the deficiency on the number of erythrocytes, the quantity of hemoglobin, and/or the volume of packed RBCs
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anemia
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volume of packed red blood cells is what value?
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hematocrit
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what is the most accurate means of classifying anemia
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morphologic system
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_______ levels are often used to determine the severity of anemia
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hemoglobin
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what causes pallor?
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reduced amounts of hemoglobin and reduced blood flow to skin
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where does iron absorption occur?
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duodenum
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where is iron absorbed best from?
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duodenum and proximal jejunum
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FYI...
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enteric-coated or sustained released iron supplements are counterproductive bc iron is best absorbed in the duodenum
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when you increase your iron intake (alot) what color will stool be?
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black
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________ has a genetic basis involving inadequate production of normal hemoglobin due to absent or reduced globulin protein
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thalassemia
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a person who is heterozygous for the thalassemic gene is said to have ______
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thalassemia minor
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a person who is homozygous for the thalassemic gene is said to be________
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thalassemic major
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what does this patient have?
- physical and mental growth often retarded, pale, symptoms develop by 2 yrs of age, splenomegaly and hepatomegaly , jaundice, thickening of cranium and maxillary cavity |
thalassemia major
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__________ are caused by impaired DNA synthesis and characterized by the presence of large RBCs
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megaloblastic anemias
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large and abnormal RBCs are called what?
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megaloblasts
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a type of megaloblastic anemia caused by cobalamin deficiency
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cobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency
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the most common cause of cobalamin deficiency, in which the gastric mucosa is not secreting IF bc of antibodies being directed against the gastric parietal cells and/or IF itself
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pernicious anemia
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this type of anemia is primarily immune driven and is associated with an underproduction of RBCs and mild shortening of RBC survival
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anemia of chronic disease
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FYI...
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with anemia of chronic disease, you have elevated serum ferritin and increased iron stores; also have normal folate and cobalamin blood levels
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________ is a disease in which the patient has peripheral blood pancytopenia and hypocelllar bone marrow
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aplastic anemia
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anemia caused by the destruction or hemolysis of RBCs at a rate that exceeds production
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hemolytic anemia
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the ______ is the primary site of the destruction of RBCs that are old, defective, or moderately damaged
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spleen
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an increased destruction of RBCs causes what?
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jaundice due to increased bilirubin levels
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__________ is the production and presence of increased numbers of RBCs
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polycythemia
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___________ is considered a chronic myeloproliferative disorder arising from a chromosomal mutation in a single pluripotent stem cell
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polycythemia vera (primary)
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reduction of platelets
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thrombocytopenia
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a syndrome of abnormal destruction of circulating platelets
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immune thrombocytopenic purpura
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platelets are coated with anitbodies and they function noramlly, but when the platelets reach spleen they are recognized as foreign and destroyed by macrophages
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immune thrombocytopenic purpura
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what are used to treat immune thrombocytopenia?
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corticosteroids bc they suppress phagocytic response to splenic macrphages
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decrease in the total WBC count
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leukopenia
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a deficiency of granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils)
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granulocytopenia
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a reduction in neutrophils
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neutropenia
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what are the major components of pus?
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WBCs
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when a fever occurs in a neutropenic patient, it is assumed to be caused by what?
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infection
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a group of related hematologic disorders characterized by a change in the quantity and quality of bone marrow; peripheral blood cytopenias in combination with a hypercellular bone marrow exhibiting dysplastic changes
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myelodysplastic syndrome
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general term used to describe a group of malignant disorders affecting the blood and blood-forming tissues of the bone marrow, lymph system and spleen
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leukemia
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apoptpsis means what?
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cell death
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what are solid masses resulting from collection of leukemic cell called?
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chloromas
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in __________ there is no evidence of overt disease on physical examination, and the bone marrow and peripheral blood appear normal
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complete remission
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__________ disease can be defined as tumor cells that cannot be detected by morphologic examination, but can be identified by molecular testing
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minimal residual
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_________ is characterized by a lack of symptoms and a normal peripheral blood smear, but there is still evidence of disease in the bone marrow
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partial remission
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_______ is defined as less than 0.01 % blasts in bone marrow
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molecular remission
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a serious bleeding and thrombotic disorder that results from abnormally initiated and accelerated clotting
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disseminated intravascular coagulation
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_______ are malignant neoplasms originating in the bone marrow and lymphatic structures resulting in proliferation of lymphocytes
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lymphomas
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a malignant condition characterized by proliferation of abnormal giant, multinucleated cells, called Reed-Sternberg cell, which are located in the lymph nodes
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Hodgkin's Lymphoma
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in ________ the normal structure of lymph nodes are destroyed by hyperplasia of monocytes and macrophages
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Hodgkin's Lymphoma
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__________ are a heterogeneous group of malignant neoplasms of primarily B or T cell origin
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Non-Hodgkin's lymphomas
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what are B symptoms?
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fever, night sweats, weight loss (BAD)
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a condition in which neoplastic plasma cells infiltrate the bone marrow and destroy bone
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multiple myeloma
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what is M protein or myeloma protein?
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abnormal immunoglobulin produced by malignant plasma cells
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the free light chained proteins found in patients with multiple myelome are called what?
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Bence Jones proteins
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why is chemo the first treatment recommended for multiple myeloma?
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bc it reduces the number of plasma cells
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is blood component therapy a complete fix to a problem or temporary?
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temporary
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most blood product administration tubing is what?
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of "Y" type
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what gauge needle to use with blood products?
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23-16, but 19 is preferred
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what two things should not be used when transfusing a blood product?
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dextrose solutions or lactated Ringer's bc they induce hemolysis
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what do you do before administering anything through a line that has been used for administering blood products?
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clear it with saline solution
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what does the nurse do when the blood from the blood bank is obtained?
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positive identification of donor blood and recipient
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who is responsible for typing and cross matching donor blood with recipient blood?
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blood bank
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what is the maximum time to transfuse blood?
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4 hours bc of increased risk of bacterial growth
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if reaction occurs with blood transfusion, what should nurse do after stopping transfusion?
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maintain patent line with saline solution....then call doctor
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this consists of removing whole blood from a person and transfusing it back into the same person
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autotransfusion
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