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64 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the diaphysis?
Central shaft of long bone
What is the epiphysis?
End of long bone
What is the metaphysis?
Bone between epiphysis (end of bone) and diaphysis (central shaft)
Most bones are formed from _____ via _______.
Most bones formed from cartilage via endochonral ossificaiton
Cranial bones are formed from _____ via ______.
Cranial bones formed from embryonic mesenchyme (without intermediate cartilage) via intramembranous ossificaiton.
Role of osteoblasts
Synthesize type I collagen, proteoglycans, glycoprots for bone matrix

New bone laid down is called osteoid and is then calcified
Role of osteocytes

Where are they found?
Osteocytes maintain bone matrix

Found in lacunae; one osteocyte per lacuna!
Role of osteoclasts
Secrete substances to digest collagen and dissolve Ca2+ crystals
What cells must osteoclasts be differentiated from?
Megakaryocyte (also multinuc'd)
Where are osteoclasts derived from?
Derived from monocyte precursors in BM
What is periosteum?

Role?
Outer layer of collagen and fibroblasts; has potential to form bone during growth/fracture healing.
What is endosteum?
Vascular membrane of bone lining marrow; contains osteoblasts/clasts, fibroblasts
What is an osteon?
Basic unit of bone: central ore (Haversian Canal) with BV's and nerves surrounded by lamellae
What is woven bone?

When is it seen?
Primary bone; temporary

Either replaced by lamellar bone or resorbed to form marrow cavity

Found in growing skeletons and in adults during fracture repair
Spongy bone aka?
Cancellour bone
Cortical bone aka?
Compact bone
What is micromelia?
Shortening of one or more limbs
What is rhizomelia?
Shortening of proximal segment of limbs
What is acromelia?
Shortening of distal segment of limbs
Osteogenesis imperfecta:
Pathophys
Presentation
Mutation-->defective alpha1/2 chains in type I collagen

Subject to fractures (live normal lifespan)
Blue sclerae
Hearing loss, misshapen teeth
Osteogenesis Imperfecta Type II:
Pathophys
Mutation in COL1A1/2 gene-->faulty collagen I formation; fetus suffers fractuers in utero

Results in pulmonary hypoplasia as a result of chest compression

NEONATAL FATAL
Achondrolplasia:
Homozygote vs Heterozygote effects
Common form of dwarfism (may arise de novo)

Homozygote-->fetal/neonatal death

Heterozygote-->ambulatory
FGFR3
FGFR3 mutation inhibits chondrocyte proliferation-->disorganized growth plates-->ACHONDROLPLASIA

Also seen in THANATOPHORIC dysplasia
Thanatophoric Dysplasia:
What is it?
Chest underdeveloped due to homozygous achondroplasia-->fetus dies of pulmonary hypoplasia
Telephone receiver femur
Thanatophoric dysplasia
Osteopetrosis:
Pathophys
AKA marble bone dz

Malfunction of osteoclasts result in improper bone remodeling (osteoclasts may be normal numerically)

Bones are solid but fracture readily

Can tx w/BM transplant
Paget Disease:
What is it?
Osteoclast dysfn in elderly

Involved bone subject to many tumors (benign and malignant)
Effect of hyperparathyroidism on bone.
Inc'd osteoclastic activity

Bone resorption-->cortical bone more than cancellous bone

Leads to microfractures-->brown tumors (result of hemorrhage and hemosiderin)
Fracture pathology:
Steps in repair
1) form hematoma
2) firbin mesh
3) inflammatory cells (granulation tissue)
4) Soft-tissue callus formed
5) new cartilage formed along fracture lines
6) bony callus formed after 2-3 weeks via endochondral ossificaiton
What is a pseudoarthrosis and how does it arise?
Nonunion of fracture repair; synovial cells may line nonunited surfaces nad prode pseudoarthrosis (false joint)
Avascular necrosis:
Medullary vs Subchondral
Medullary: clinically silent, but may be large and clinically evident in sickle cell anemia/Gaucher dz

Subchondral (at the joint)--can cause severe osteoarhtritis when collapse occurs
Osteomyelitis:
Pathophys
Most common cause
Related to infection (viruses, protozoa, fungi, bacteria)

Most common cause = staph aureus
How does the location of osteomyelitis differ based on age?
Neonate-->metaphysis and/or epiphysis

Children-->metaphysis

Adults-->epiphysis and subchondral bone

Due to differences in vasculature (hematogenous spread)
Involucrum vs Sequestrum:
Definition
Sequestrum = infected area surrounded by fibrous tissue and new bone

Involucrum = sleeve of tissue forming
Osteosarcoma:
Benign/malignant
Age distribution
Sites affected
Metastatic sites
Malignant bone forming tumor

Bimodal age distribution; biggest peak in patients under 20

50% affect knee joint

Mets to lung (20%) and other bone/brain

Note: survival rate is 80-90%!
Osteosarcoma vs Chondroblastic Osteosarcoma
Osteosarcoma = malignant tumor cells producing bone (osteoid)

If malignant cartilage is also produced = chonrdoblastic osteosarcoma
Fibrous Dysplasia:
Neoplasm vs Hamartoma (definitions)
Monostotic vs Polyostotic vs Polyostotic with syndrome
Neoplasm = malignant growth
Hamartoma = all bone elements present but bone does not develop

Monostotic (one location affected) - most common
Polyostotic = 1/4 of cases

Polyostotic w/syndrome = 3%; McCube-Albright, hyperthy, pituitary adenomas secreting GHs
This growth can develop in prior lesions such as bone infarcts, previously radieted tissue or Paget disease.
Fibrosarcoma

Can also arise in previously benign tumors; also can arise denovo.
This growth appears aggressively lytic on x-ray but behaves benignly.
Aneurysmal bone cyst
This growth comprises the majority of bone tumors.
Cartilage-forming tumors
This growth consists of cartilage capping attached to bone by a stalk.
Osteochondroma

Only in bones of enchondral origin and arise near growth plate, i.e., will not arise on skull.
This growth is an intramedullary tumor that extends through the cortex to form a soft tissue mass.
Conventional chondrosarcoma
How does a conventional chondrosarcoma differ from a chondroblastic osteosarcoma?
Conventional chondrosarcoma isn't forming any bone!
90% of SLE patients exhibit this deficiency.
C1q/C1r/C1s (complement) deficiency
SLE:
Environmental Factors (risks)
Sex
EBV (90% of pts have it)
UV exposure (exacerbation of dz)

FEMALES
Immunologic basis of SLE
Pathogenic autoAbs against nucleus

Most are IgG and consume complements
Describe apoptosis in SLE.
Apoptosis is inefficient due to phag deficiency, complement def

Excessive apoptosis in UV exposure (causes dz syx)
Role of neutrophils in SLE.
Nphil cell death impaired in pts w/SLE

Release human nphil peptide (HNP) wich act as pro-inflammatory agents
This cytokine is overexpressed in SLE.

Cell that releases it?
IFN-alpha

Released by plasmacytoid DCs; then activates TNF-alpha and IL-6
Which autoantibodies directly correlated with clinical disease? With which symptoms?
Anti-SSA: photosensitive rash, congenital heart block
Andi-dsDNA: renal dz
Role of immune complexes in SLE.
attack organs, deplete complement
What is serositis?
pleuritis, plerual effusion
pericarditis, pericardial effusion
ascites

All syx of lupus
Blood abnormalities in SLE.
Leukocytopenia
Lymphopenia
Hemolytic Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Anti-cardiolipin antibody results in _______.
Thrombosis
At what age do SLE patients present?
65% between 16 and 55
Constitutional symptoms of SLE.

Cause?
Fever, malaise, fatigue; flu-syx
Due to cytokines:
TNF-alpha
IL-6
IFN-alpha
Pathophysiology of malar rash.
Immune complex deposition at dermal-epidermal jn
Pathophysiology of photosensitivity in lupus.
UV-->apoptosis/necrosis (triggers worsening systemic disease and skin rash eruption)
Renal effects of SLE.
Proteinuria; >500mg/24h
Cellular casts
Renal pathophys of SLE.
Immune complex formation in Bowman's capsule/glomerulus

Can result in nephrotic or nephritic syndrome
Anti-SSA is associated with _____.
1) Photosensitive rash
2) Neonatal heart block

Both in SLE obvs.
What is Libman-Sacks endocarditis?
Non-bacterial thrombotic valvular lesion; most commonly in left heart valves (mitral; aortic)
What is the most common cause of death in patients with SLE?
Premature coronary atherosclerosis, age 35-40 years (CAD)
This antibody is associated with the pulmonary manifestations of SLE.
Antiphospholipid antibody