What Is The Uncertainty Of Experience Kant

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The Uncertainty of Experience. When Kant justifies the possibility of a priori in sense perception, he uses the notion of time and space to argue that the sense perception already contains a priori and the time and space are underlying the experience. Then, Kant believes the certainty of experience based on the time and space. “Time and space are, therefore, two sources of knowledge, from which, a priori, various synthetical cognitions can be drawn”, and “The sphere of phenomena is the only sphere of their validity, and if we venture out of this, no further objective use can be made of them” (SS8). However, today it becomes a general scientific theory that the time and space are not absolute but relative one another by Special relativity. Because …show more content…
Kant describes a priori statement as “adding nothing to the content” (sect.2),that is the meaning of statement itself. However, Frame introduces in his book that the decision of the meaning of the words is empirical (200) by Quine’s paper. Willard V.O. Quine claims that Kant’s understanding of analytic statement should be restated: “[A] statement is analytic when it is true by virtue of meanings and independently of fact” (1). This re-statement refutes that Kant’s understanding of a priori ‘an analytic statement is true and fact to contain the meanings of the words’. Quine argues that the analytic statement cannot independently convey the meaning of the words because the concept of meaning need to be presupposed by someone. It is hugely crucial to distinguish meaning and naming at the level of abstract terms, someone consequently needs to define a meaning in a word. Consequently, the lexicographer is an empirical scientist who have influence his belief into a term (4). Therefore, according to Quine, the analytic statement itself could not have its own meaning, rather analytic statement becomes empirical knowledge not purely …show more content…
Terminologically, the philosophical science may be an improper word because nobody uses this term, but it can be a proper classification that social sciences after Hegel and post-modern philosophies could be included into the category of philosophical science. The reason for that is the social science and philosophy of today are working exactly under the argument of Hegel about modern philosophy: “It thus appears that modern philosophy derives its materials from our own personal observations and perceptions of the external and internal world, from nature as well as from the mind and heart of man, when both stand in the immediate presence of the observer” (para.7). After Hegel, the social science and philosophy have been working based on the consciousness of man, so naturally they investigate only what they can conceive and consider what they cannot conceive irrational or useless from the phenomenal world. Therefore, the only certain thing to judge for the philosophical science is a consciousness of man because what the science understands from the level of consciousness is not judgment about a fact but an interpretation about the world. Consequently, the interpretation of philosophical science is an

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