Kant's Universal Moral Law

If any rule can apply universally, it is the universal moral law. It does not necessarily be appropriate or inappropriate as long as the rules are applied in accordance with reason. In his first categorical imperative, he states, that, ‘Act in accordance with a maxim that can at the same time make itself a universal law.(GW, 4: 437/44); (Kant, 1998, p. 44). To understand Kantian moral law, one has to justify from its action, not from its consequence. For example, he says that telling lies is wrong. It is wrong because it cannot be universally accepted as the right things to follow.
Being as a human being, one is always under the influences of instinct such as hunger, feeling love, like and dislike. Despite no breaching the universal law, one’s will be perfect when he is acting from duty (an action is ought to be performed not by like or dislike, advantage or disadvantage) but …show more content…
We can use a car whenever we want to go somewhere. But to human being, we should not treat them as a means instead to respect them because they have their own purpose to exercise their own way. In this way, Kant raises his second categorical imperative. So act that you use humanity, whether in your own person or in the person of any other, always at the same time as an end, never merely as a means. (GW, 4: 429/38); (Kant, 1998, p. 38). To respect according to humanity to every human being is to maintain dignity, the rule that should be implied at any situation. It is due to the ‘idea of the will of every rational being as a will giving universal law. (GW, 4:431/39); (Kant, 1998, p. 39). Student can ask questions from teacher whatever doubt they have for the acquisition of knowledge. But in order to learn something from the teacher, student should not be treated him inhumanly as a result it will be undignified to the teacher. It is the, ‘rationality [that helps to] commit[s] us to willing the means to our ends. (Kant, 1998, p.