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50 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
If a patient in her first trimester of
pregnancy requires the immediate replacement of a large MOD amalgam restoration with extensive recurrent caries and thermal sensitivity, the indicated treatment is to A. delay treatment until after the baby is born. B. restore with reinforced zoe. C. restore with amalgam. D. restore with a posterior composite resin. |
B. restore with reinforced zoe.
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The initiation of cemental caries differs
from enamel caries because A. dental plaque is not involved. B. the age of onset is younger. C. it is usually associated with abrasion. D. it progresses more quickly. |
D. it progresses more quickly.
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A direct or indirect pulp cap has the
greatest chance of clinical success when there is a A. history of spontaneous pain. B. prolonged response to cold stimulus. C. apical lesion. D. vital pulp. |
D. vital pulp.
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A bite wing radiograph of tooth 1.4
reveals caries penetrating two thirds into the mesial enamel. The correct management of tooth 1.4 is to A. place an amalgam restoration. B. place a porcelain inlay. C. place a direct composite restoration. D. apply topical fluoride and monitor. |
D. apply topical fluoride and monitor
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The layer of intermingled collagen and
resin located beneath a restoration is called the A. smear layer. B. hybrid layer. C. Weil layer. D. decalcification layer. |
B. hybrid layer.
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Which of the following structures lies
inferior to the mylohyoid muscle at the level of the mandibular second molar? A. Lingual artery. B. Lingual vein. C. Lingual nerve. D. Submandibular duct. |
B. Lingual vein.
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In an acute periapical abscess, which of
the following teeth is most likely to spread infection to the submandibular space? A. Mandibular second bicuspid. B. Maxillary third molar. C. Mandibular first molar. D. Mandibular third molar. E. Mandibular lateral incisor. |
D. Mandibular third molar.
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Which of the following isare (an)
indication(s) for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars? 1. Recurrent pericoronitis. 2. Prevention of crowding of mandibular incisors. 3. Pain. 4. They are impacted. |
1. Recurrent pericoronitis.
3. Pain. |
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When performing an intraoral incision and
drainage of a dentoalveolar abscess, which of the following is/are true? 1. The scalpel incision should be made superficially through mucosa. 2. The incision should be only large enough to allow placement of a drain. 3. The underlying tissue dissection is performed bluntly. 4. The purpose of a drain is to keep the incision open. |
E. All of the above.
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The presurgical assessment of a permanent
maxillary first molar reveals roots which are trifurcated and widely divergent. The maxillary antrum encroaches into the area of trifurcation. Which of the following should be done during extraction of this tooth? 1. Reflect a flap. 2. Reduce the palatal bone to the level of the trifurcation. 3. Reduce the buccal bone to the level of the trifurcation. 4. Amputate the crown and section the roots. |
4. Amputate the crown and section the
roots. |
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Immediately following a left posterior
superior alveolar nerve block injection, the patient’s face becomes quickly and visibly swollen on the left side. The immediate treatment should be to 1. apply a cold compress. 2. administer 0.3mg epinepherine (sublingually). 3. apply pressure. 4. refer for immediate medical treatment. |
1. apply a cold compress.
3. apply pressure. |
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The beaks of extract forceps
1. can lead to tooth fracture, slippage and injury to adjacent teeth if placed incorrectly. 2. should be placed at the cervical line of the tooth. 3. be pushed apically during extraction movements. 4. should fit the crown of the tooth. |
E. All of the above.
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Management of a “dry socket” should
include 1. saline irrigation of socket. 2. vigorous curettage of the socket. 3. placement of a dressing in the socket. 4. a prescription for antibiotics. |
1. saline irrigation of socket.
3. placement of a dressing in the socket. |
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If a patient loses a permanent maxillary
first molar before the age of 11, the 1. premolar drifts distally. 2. maxillary second molar erupts and moves mesially. 3. opposing tooth erupts into the space created. 4. overbite increases. |
E. All of the above.
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Which drug(s) control(s) pain and
reduce(s) inflammation? 1. Acetylsalicylic acid. 2. Acetaminophen. 3. Ibuprofen. 4. Meperidine HCl. |
1. Acetylsalicylic acid.
3. Ibuprofen |
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Which of the following procedures should
be used to reduce the risk of exposure to mercury vapour? 1. Staff education. 2. Rubber dam. 3. High velocity suction. 4. Surgical mask. |
E. All of the above.
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The principal internal retention for a Class
V amalgam cavity preparation is established at the A. occluso-axial and gingivo-axial line angles. B. mesio-axial and disto-axial line angles. C. mesio-gingival and disto-gingival line angles. D. None of the above. |
A. occluso-axial and gingivo-axial line
angles. |
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The principal microorganism in aggressive
periodontitis (juvenile periodontitis) is A. porphyromonas gingivalis. B. fusobacterium vincenti. C. actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans. D. prevotella intermedia. |
C. actinobacillus
actinomycetemcomitans. |
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Which of the following impression
materials has the best dimensional stability? A. Polysulfide rubber. B. Condensation silicone. C. Polyvinylsiloxane. D. Irreversible hydrocolloid. |
C. Polyvinylsiloxane.
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Which one of the following is NOT a
contraindication to ibuprofen? A. Concurrent use of alcohol. B. Asthmatic reaction to acetylsalicylic acid. C. An allergy to acetaminophen. D. A gastric ulcer. |
C. An allergy to acetaminophen.
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Local anesthetic toxicity
A. is more likely to occur with the addition of epinephrine. B. is more likely to occur in adults. C. may manifest as a seizure. |
C. may manifest as a seizure.
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A vertical cross-section of a smooth
surface carious lesion in enamel appears as a triangle with the A. base at the dentino-enamel junction. B. base facing toward the pulp. C. apex pointing to the enamel surface D. apex pointing to the dentino-enamel junction. |
D. apex pointing to the dentino-enamel
junction. |
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The major advantage of glass ionomer
cement as a restorative material is that it is A. highly translucent. B. a fluoride releasing material. C. highly esthetic. D. unaffected by moisture during the setting reaction. |
B. a fluoride releasing material.
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The objective of scaling and root planing
during periodontal therapy is to remove A. plaque, calculus, contaminated cementum and junctional epithelium. B. plaque and calculus exclusively. C. plaque, calculus and crevicular epithelium. D. plaque, calculus and contaminated cementum. E. all cementum associated with periodontitis. |
D. plaque, calculus and contaminated
cementum. |
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After placement of the rubber dam you
notice that the interdental papilla is protruding from beneath the rubber dam. The reason for this is that A. a rubber dam frame was used. B. the holes were placed too far apart. C. a light weight dam was used. D. the holes were placed too close together. E. the teeth were not individually ligated. |
D. the holes were placed too close
together. |
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Which of the following mucosae is
normally keratinized? A. Soft palate. B. Hard palate. C. Lateral tongue. D. Ventral tongue. |
B. Hard palate.
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Periapical cemental dysplasia is
A. painful. B. expansile. C. associated with vital teeth. D. premalignant. |
C. associated with vital teeth.
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Epinephrine is added to local anesthetic
formulations in order to 1. increase duration of anesthesia. 2. increase depth of anesthesia. 3. reduce likelihood of systemic toxicity. 4. reduce likelihood of allergic reaction. |
1. increase duration of anesthesia.
2. increase depth of anesthesia. 3. reduce likelihood of systemic toxicity. |
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A 45 year old patient has 32 unrestored
teeth. The only defects are deeply stained grooves in the posterior teeth. Clinical examination reveals no evidence of caries in the grooves. The treatment of choice is A. application of cyanoacrylate pit and fissure sealants. B. application of BIS-GMA pit and fissure sealants. C. conservative Class I amalgams. D. prophylactic odontotomy. E. no treatment. |
E. no treatment.
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A laboratory-fabricated composite resin
inlay compared to a direct composite resin restoration has increased A. colour stability. B. surface smoothness. C. control of polymerization shrinkage. D. bondability to tooth structure. |
C. control of polymerization shrinkage.
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Direct pulp capping of permanent teeth in
children under the age of 12 years is most likely to be successful for A. teeth that are symptomatic. B. necrotic pulps. C. teeth with open apices. D. pulp exposures 3-5mm in size. |
C. teeth with open apices.
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Oral signs and/or symptoms of vitamin B2
(riboflavin) deficiency may include 1. glossitis. 2. angular cheilitis. 3. pain. 4. bluish purple discolouration of the oral mucosa. |
1. glossitis.
2. angular cheilitis. 3. pain. |
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A Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) deficiency
usually arises in patients 1. who are elderly. 2. with acute infection. 3. consuming a high protein or fat diet. 4. taking systemic antibiotics. |
E. All of the above.
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Oral signs and/or symptoms of advanced
vitamin C deficiency include 1. pain. 2. angular cheilitis. 3. spontaneous hemorrhage of the gingiva. 4. xerostomia. |
1. pain.
3. spontaneous hemorrhage of the gingiva. |
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A primary molar, in the absence of its
permanent successor, A. should be treated endodontically to prevent root resorption. B. may remain for years with no significant resorption. C. will undergo normal root resorption. D. should be extracted. E. is more susceptible to dental caries. |
B. may remain for years with no
significant resorption. |
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Following root canal therapy, the most
desirable form of tissue response at the apical foramen is A. cementum deposition. B. connective tissue capsule formation. C. epithelium proliferation from the periodontal ligament. D. dentin deposition. |
A. cementum deposition.
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A patient with congestive heart failure
may have 1. epistaxis. 2. shortness of breath. 3. rhinophyma. 4. pitting edema of the ankles. |
2. shortness of breath.
4. pitting edema of the ankles. |
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Which of the following is NOT associated
with Cushing’s disease? A. Buffalo hump. B. Osteoporosis. C. Hirsutism. D. Hypertension. E. Diabetes insipidus. |
E. Diabetes insipidus.
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While the teeth are set in wax, dentures
are tried in to A. verify the maxillomandibular records. B. verify the vertical dimension of occlusion. C. evaluate esthetics. |
D. All of the above.
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The micro-organisms of dental caries are
1. streptococcus mutans. 2. staphylococcus aureus. 3. lactobacillus acidophilus. 4. B-hemolytic streptococci. |
1. streptococcus mutans
3. lactobacillus acidophilus. |
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Epinephrine in a local anesthetic solution
will 1. decrease absorption of the anesthetic. 2. assist hemostasis at the site of injection. 3. prolong the action of the anesthetic agent. 4. assist in post-operative healing. |
1. decrease absorption of the anesthetic.
2. assist hemostasis at the site of injection. 3. prolong the action of the anesthetic agent. |
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Which of the following may affect the
results of electric pulp testing? 1. Patient anxiety. 2. Pain threshold. 3. Analgesics. 4. Recent trauma. |
E. All of the above.
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Which of the following would you NOT
prescribe for a patient receiving Warfarin (Coumadin®)? 1. Acetylsalicylic acid. 2. Metronidazole. 3. Erythromycin. 4. Codeine. |
1. Acetylsalicylic acid.
2. Metronidazole. 3. Erythromycin. |
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A fistula found in association with a nonvital
tooth should be 1. cauterized to remove the epithelium. 2. traced to source with a gutta-percha point on a radiograph. 3. treated with combined surgical and nonsurgical root canal therapy. 4. treated with nonsurgical root canal therapy. |
2. traced to source with a gutta-percha
point on a radiograph. 4. treated with nonsurgical root canal therapy. |
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The most appropriate treatment of a true
combined endodontic-periodontal lesion is A. periodontal surgical therapy only. B. nonsurgical root canal therapy only. C. periodontal surgical therapy before non-surgical endodontic treatment. D. nonsurgical root canal therapy before periodontal therapy. |
D. nonsurgical root canal therapy before
periodontal therapy. |
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Which of the following procedures
requires antibiotic prophylaxis for a patient with a prosthetic heart valve? A. Inferior alveolar nerve block. B. Postoperative suture removal. C. Endodontic instrumentation beyond apex. D. Restoration of occlusal caries. E. Making an alginate impression. |
B. Postoperative suture removal.
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Following administration of a posterior
superior alveolar nerve block, a hematoma occurs. Which of the following statements is correct? A. The formation of this hematoma indicates poor injection technique. B. This nerve block is not commonly associated with hematoma formation. C. Management of this hematoma includes immediate application of heat for at least the first 6 hours. D. The patient may experience trismus the next day. |
D. The patient may experience trismus
the next day. |
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Cleidocranial dysplasia can be associated
with A. fragile bones. B. multiple supernumerary teeth. C. odontogenic keratocysts. D. high incidence of palatal clefts. |
B. multiple supernumerary teeth.
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The current recommended regimen of
antibiotic prophylaxis for a patient with a prosthetic heart valve and an allergy to penicillin is A. amoxicillin 3g orally one hour before procedure; then 1.5g six hours after initial dose. B. amoxicillin 2g orally one hour before procedure only. C. clindamycin 300mg orally one hour before procedure; then 150mg six hours after initial dose. D. clindamycin 600mg orally one hour before procedure only. E. erythromycin stearate, 2g orally two hours before procedure only. |
D. clindamycin 600mg orally one hour
before procedure only. |
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A patient presents with a 3 week history of
prolonged tooth pain to hot and cold. Three days ago the symptoms changed to moderate pain on biting combined with a dull, spontaneous ache relieved by cold. The most likely diagnosis is A. chronic apical abscess. B. a cracked tooth. C. pulpal necrosis. D. reversible pulpitis. E. a vertical root fracture. |
A. chronic apical abscess.
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