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47 Cards in this Set
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During a breeding soundness exam of a bull, preputial wash samples are typically cultured for which two organisms?
A - Chlamydophila abortus, Leptospira hardjo B - Brucella abortus,Mycoplasma bovis C - Toxoplasma gondii,Neosporosis D - Campylobacteriosis, Tritrichomonas (Trichomonas) foetus E - Ureaplasma diversum, Coxiella burnetii |
D - Campylobacteriosis, Tritrichomonas (Trichomonas) foetus
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A breeding soundness exam preputial wash samples may be cultured for two venereal diseases of cattle, bovine genital campylobacteriosis (Campylobacter fetus sp. venerealis) and bovine trichomoniasis (Tritrichomonas (Trichomonas) foetus).
Both organisms can cause cause early embryonic loss in cattle and have similar presentations. |
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Several piglets in a group weaned 10 days ago in the nursery facility of a large commercial swine operation were found dead. On evaluation, some weaners have swelling around the eyes and forehead.
Some are in lateral recumbency and dyspneic. Necropsy of the dead piglets reveals subcutaneous and submucosal edema. The most likely causative organism is... A - Lawsonia intracellularis B - Streptococcus suis C - Brachyspira hyodysenteriae D - Escherichia coli E - Clostridium septicum |
D - Escherichia coli
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E. coli causes the characteristic lesions of Edema disease in recently weaned piglets. Marked swelling of the periocular region, forehead and submandibular area follow infection. Piglets may die peracutely. Usually only a few piglets in a group are affected, but affected piglets perish rapidly (within 12 hours). Hemolytic E. coli that produce F18 pili and Shiga toxin 2e are implicated in edema disease. To make a definitive diagnosis, E. coli must be first isolated and then characterized as an edema disease strain (that is, producing F18 pili and Shiga toxin 2e).The course is so rapid that treatment is ineffective. Antibiotics may be administered to unaffected pigs in the group.
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae causes Swine dysentery also called bloody scours. Lawsonia intracellularis causes Porcine proliferative enteritis (diarrhea, often with fibronecrotic casts). Clostridium septicum is the agent of Malignant edema in many species. Infection occurs through contaminated wounds and turns affected muscle dark brown or black. Streptococcus suis causes septicemia and meningitis in weaners and growing pigs. |
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On a cold February day in the Northeastern U.S., the cow shown below is examined for pruritus and crusts around the perineum.
A skin scrape shows some kind of mite with long legs and short unsegmented pedicles. What should be done next? |
D - Topical 0.25% crotoxyfos spray
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Use Topical 0.25% crotoxyfos spray. This is Chorioptic mange. Look for winter presentation in the U.S. NE of crusty, pruritic skin disease around the perineum, caudal upper thigh is most likely to be the most common cattle mange. Also called "Leg Mange". 0.25% Crotoxyfos spray, Lime-sulfur dips weekly for 4-6 weeks or an Ivermectin pour-on are 3 treatment options.
On skin scrape, look for long legs and short UNsegmented pedicles in chorioptes (Merck image). In CONTRAST to the short legs and long UNsegmented pedicles of sarcoptes (Merck images, all). NOTE: There are conflicting references about reporting Chorioptic mange. Sarcoptic and psoroptic manges are REPORTABLE in cattle. Although the Merck says chorioptic mange is also reportable, our board-certified large animal editor, and several other references disagree. This is where clinical and legal overlap, and laws vary state to state and province to province. On standardized tests like the NAVLE, BCSE and QE, you will NOT be required to know differences between regulations of different states and provinces, and you should NOT see questions where the answer is equivocal (ie: debatable, confusing). |
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Two calves aged 8 weeks are presented that are both down and extremely weak. They are depressed and lying in pools of foul-smelling brown diarrhea with a small amount of blood. One other calf died suddenly the night before with no signs at all.
They are found to be dehydrated, with rectal temperatures of 105.2 and 105.6 F (40.7 – 40.9 C)..[N=101.5-103.5F], respectively. Based on the condition at the top of the differential diagnosis list, what is the treatment plan? A - Cull sick calves, Disinfect feeding areas, Prophylactic ABX for well B - NSAIDS, ABX in feed & water C - Immunize well and sick with MLV vaccine, ABX for sick calves D - Cull sick calves, Daily PE on well calves E - NSAIDS, IV Fluids, Frequent milk feeding, ABX if septic |
E - NSAIDS, IV Fluids, Frequent milk feeding, ABX if septic
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NSAIDS, IV Fluids, Frequent milk feeding, ABX if septic. FEVER + DIARRHEA says systemic, and sudden death in another calf the night before suggests SEPTIC. 8 weeks old suggests SALMONELLA.
ISOLATE sick calves. Valuable animals may be treated with IV Banamine ®, IV fluids, oral fluids and frequent feedings of milk. Use of antibiotics is controversial. ABX may prolong recovery and shedding and yield a carrier calf. There is risk of developing antimicrobial resistance. If the animal is septic though, need ABX. According to Pasquini's, prognosis is POOR with neonatal salmonella and deaths can approach 100% in affected calves. In adults, ABX may yield clinical cure, but Salmonellae can establish in biliary system and intermittently shed into GI system, leading to environmental contamination. |
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A 2 year-old Hereford cow is presented with a 1-week history of blepharospasm, lacrimation and corneal opacity. There is a large central corneal abscess secondary to suspected infectious keratoconjunctivitis (pinkeye). What is an appropriate treatment plan?
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C - Systemic oxytetracyline, Subconjunctival penicillin
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Ampicillin, penicillin and kanamycin can be injected subconjunctivally; best results are obtained with injection into the bulbar conjunctiva. In the past, veterinarians used gentamicin subconjunctivally, but this is now a gray area of off-label use, because gentamicin is not FDA-approved for systemic use in cattle.
Oxytetracycline is generally considered the drug of choice for systemic therapy because it is concentrated in corneal tissue. Oxytetracycline cannot be injected in the subconjunctiva because it will cause conjunctival necrosis. Two injections (20 mg/kg, IM) of a long-acting oxytetracycline formulation (200 mg/mL) at 72-hr intervals is the systemic treatment of choice. |
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Which diseases are classically associated with a high anion gap (AG)?
A - Grain overload, Ethylene glycol toxicity, Renal insufficiency B - Eosinophilic enteritis, Hypothyroidism, Gastrinoma C - Hypercalcemia of malignancy, Hypoadrenocorticism, Displaced abomasum D - Prostatic adenocarcinoma, Pleural effusion, Lymphangiectasia E - Diabetes mellitus, Pancreatitis, Proliferative enteritis |
- Grain overload, Ethylene glycol toxicity, Renal insufficiency
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Typically see increased anion gap with:
Diabetic ketoacidosis Renal insufficiency Ethylene glycol toxicity Lactic acidosis from grain overload or strenuous exercise Anion gap is typically measured as positive cations (Na+, K+) minus negative anions (TotalCO2-, Cl-). You can also calculate AG using HCO3- in place of TCO2 Anion gap =(Sodium + Potassium) - (TCO2 + Chloride) Decreased anion gap is UNcommon. Think hemodilution, hypoalbuminemia, hypercalcemia. |
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A farmer reports that recently, one of his cattle was was staggering and sick, with blood and black material seeping from the nose and anus. The cow died out in the pasture.
A stray dog was caught chewing on the carcass several days ago. Today he looks like the image below. What is the next step? A - Euthanize the dog- Systemic nocardiosis not treatable B - Report a suspected case of Foot and Mouth disease C - Report a suspected case of anthrax D - Treat suspected Clostridium novyi with Penicillin, Gentamicin E - Report a suspected case of plague |
C - Report a suspected case of anthrax
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Report a suspected case of anthrax. This is a dog with Oropharyngeal anthrax characterized by rapidly progressive swelling of the throat, which may cause death by suffocation. Anthrax is REPORTABLE, because of zoonotic potential and especially because it is a Category A bioterrorism agent along with Botulism, Plague, Tularemia, Smallpox and viral hemorrhagic fevers (like Ebola).
Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis (note: "Boxcars" appearance). Typically a problem of sheep and cattle, followed in susceptibility by horses and goats. See depression, respiratory or cardiac distress, staggering, sudden death. Temp can hit 107‚°F (41.5‚°C). May see bloody discharges from natural body openings. Some infections characterized by localized, subcutaneous, edematous swellings on ventral neck, thorax, and shoulders. Pigs, dogs, cats (carnivores) are relatively resistant. |
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A pig farm reports a problem in weaning-age piglets.
The affected piglets are depressed and anorexic with slight fevers. A few of the more severely-affected piglets look like this: Click here to see image. Which one of the following choices is the best action to take? A - Vaccinate herd with modified live vaccine B - High-dose antibiotics for sick piglets C - Cull affected piglets D - Report to state vet E - Topical Coumaphos/ disinfectant combination dip |
B - High-dose antibiotics for sick piglets
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Use High-dose antibiotics for sick piglets.
This is Exudative dermatitis ("greasy pig disease"), caused by Staph hyicus. Responds to most antibiotics (pen, amoxi, TMS, erythromycin, lincomycin, tylosin, AGs, cephs) at high dose 7-10 days, plus topical antiseptic. In severe outbreaks, ABX for contact pigs recommended for a few days. Disinfection, good environmental hygiene important. In chronically affected herds, autogenous bacterins have been used with some success to decrease incidence. |
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Last Fall several malformed calves, that looked like the image below, were born on this ranch. This Spring, the owner could not deliver feed to the back pasture for 3 days. Now, 14 days later, heifers on this pasture are losing weight, off feed and lethargic. Physical exam is unremarkable except for large linear cracks extending to the dermis on muzzles of affected cows.
Blood chemistry and urinalysis results from a sick cow are below Na=122 mEq/l...................[N=135-148], K=2.2 mEq/l..[N=4.3-7.8] Ca=6 mg/dl......................[N=8.4-11.0], ALT=70 u/l..[N=6.9-35] CK=150 u/l.......................[N=14-107], SDH=82 u/l..[N=6.1-18] Bilirubin (total)=0.6 mg/dl..[N=0.0-0.8], BUN=140 mg/dl..[N=6-22] Creatinine=4.0 mg/dl.........[N=0.6-1.8], Glob=4.4 g/dl..[N=2.9-4.9] Alb=2.2 g/dl......................[N=2.8-3.9] USp.G= 1.010...................[N=1.030-1.045] protein +++, blood +++, numerous granular and hyaline casts What should be done next? A - Analyze the ration mix for lysine deficiency B - Check the pasture for pigweed or lamb's quarter C - Analyze the ration mix for selenium/vitamin E content D - Do serum titers for cytopathic bovine virus diarrhea virus E - Check the pasture for oak trees and acorns |
E - Check the pasture for oak trees and acorns
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Check the pasture for oak trees and acorns. This is a classic case of acorn/oak bud toxicosis (Quercus spp). The sick animals have tubular nephritis evidenced by high urinary protein, casts, low urine specific gravity, and high BUN and creatinine. The nephritis is caused by hungry heifers eating green oak leaves that would have sprouted in the Spring.
The deformed calf is called an "acorn" calf. These calves are the result of a cows on a low protein diet coupled with acorn ingestion in mid to late pregnancy (in the Fall). Pigweed (Amaranthus spp) and lamb's quarter (chenopodium) are sources of nitrate toxicity. Look for a presentation involving hypoxia (muscular tremors, weakness, brown cyanotic mucous membranes) due to methemoglobinemia. Lysine deficiency may contribute to necrotic ear syndrome in pigs. Selenium or vitamin E deficiency is associated with white muscle disease. Look for stiffness and sudden death due to myocardial lesions in newborn calves. Think of cerebellar hypoplasia or weak calves born with congenital BVD. |
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A tourniquet was placed at mid cannon bone on this cow's leg. Lidocaine is being injected in the dorsal pedal vein. What is expected to happen?
A - Anesthesia distal to tourniquet B - Anesthesia only of skin in the region of the injection C - Anesthesia only from mid-pastern to the toe D - Cessation of atrial fibrillation after tourniquet removal E - Bradycardia with gradual tourniquet removal |
A - Anesthesia distal to tourniquet
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Anesthesia distal to tourniquet. This is an example of intravenous regional anesthesia, the anesthetic method of choice for most bovine digital surgical procedures. It has similar results to a nerve block, but is easier to do with reliable results. You need only one injection and no special knowledge of anatomy. 2% Lidocaine infuses down the venous system and anesthetizes the entire lower limb distal to the tourniquet within about 10 minutes.
The amount of lidocaine needed is typically 10-30 ml and should not exceed a total dose of 9 mg/kg. Click here to see tourniquet sites and veins for intravenous regional anesthesia of the distal bovine hindlimb. Do not keep a tourniquet in place more than one hour. When surgery is complete, slowly release the tourniquet and then retighten it. If antibiotics are indicated, infuse them now then release the tourniquet after a few more minutes. Some references call this a "Bier" block, after the pioneering German physician August Bier, who reported on this form of anesthesia in 1908. Lidocaine (and procainamide) are used to treat arrhythmias, but more for ventricular fibrillation in small animals and not administered from the foot. Think of quinidine sulfate to treat atrial fibrillation in symptomatic horses. |
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A multiparous cow that calved two months ago is presented with a history of blood-stained urine for the last week. Today, the cow is off-feed and colicky, switching her tail restlessly and urinating frequently.
T=103.8 F (39.9 C)..[N=101.5-103.5 F] HR=70 bpm.............[N=55-80] RR=32 brpm............[N=10-30] A cowside dipstick test shows hematuria and proteinuria. The bladder, ureters and left kidney feel grossly normal on rectal exam. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? A - Polycystic kidney disease B - Pyelonephritis C - Leptospirosis D - Pyometra E - Dioctophyma renale |
B - Pyelonephritis
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This is the clinical picture of a cow with early signs of pyelonephritis. Onset is typically insidious. The first clinical sign may be passage of blood-stained urine (hematuria) in an otherwise normal animal.
As infection (usually Corynebacterium spp or E. coli) ascends up the ureters into the kidney, the cow may display frequent attempts to urinate, anorexia, a slight fever, loss of production, colic, restlessness, tail switching, polyuria, more hematuria or pyuria. Early in the disease, enlarged ureters and involvement of the kidney may not be detectable on rectal palpation. In chronic cases, the left kidney may be enlarged, with loss of lobulation and pain. The cow may show colic, diarrhea, polyuria, polydipsia, stranguria, and anemia. |
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Several sheep are sick at a petting-zoo that has cows, horses, pigs, bison and white-tailed deer. One of the deer is also affected. Affected sheep are listless and off-feed, with serous or mucopurulent nasal discharge and rectal temperatures ranging from 105-107.5°F (40.5-42°C).
Physical exam shows swollen muzzles with edema and congestion of the lips, nose and face with small hemorrhages and ulcers on the mucous membranes. The ulcers appear where the teeth contact the swollen lips and tongue. Two affected sheep are lame. What is the diagnosis? A - Caprine arthritis encephalitis B - Contagious ecthyma (soremouth) C - Peste des petits ruminants (PPR) D - Foot-and-mouth disease (FMD) E - Bluetongue |
E - Bluetongue
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Swollen sore muzzles with mucous membrane erosions, high fevers and lameness suggests infection with Bluetongue virus. Bluetongue is almost exclusively seen in sheep, though white-tailed deer, pronghorn antelope and desert bighorn sheep in North America can be severely affected. Rare in cows. REPORTABLE.
Bluetongue is indistinguishable from Foot and Mouth disease (FMD), so that is a good second choice. But FMD is unlikely in the scenario above because FMD mainly affects pigs and cattle. |
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Several younger sheep in a large herd have died suddenly with a diagnosis of infectious necrotic hepatitis secondary to fluke infestation.
Which one of the following choices is the most practical and effective control measure? A - Clorsulon antihelmintic for whole herd B - High-dose penicillin for clinical cases C - Treat ponds with copper sulfate molluscicide against lymnaeid snails D - Vaccinate all animals with Clostridium novyi toxoid E - Clostridium hemolyticum bacterin for animals under 3 years |
D - Vaccinate all animals with Clostridium novyi toxoid
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Active immunization with Clostridium novyi toxoid before the late summer is the most effective way to control and prevent Infectious necrotic hepatitis (Black disease) in sheep.
Because vaccinated sheep have long-term immunity after only one shot, only new introductions to the flock (lambs and sheep brought in from other areas) need to be vaccinated. Reducing the number of snails (intermediate hosts for fluke cercaria) with molluscicides or by fencing off wet areas is may not be practical due to expense or amount of pasture lost. Likewise, use of flukicides is complicated by the need for careful timing and long withdrawal times for meat and milk. |
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When a foal is being treated with erythromycin (for Rhodococcus equi for example), the mare is at risk of developing enterocolitis due to which one of the following organisms?
A - Lawsonia intracellularis B - Clostridium difficile C - Rhodococcus equi D - Escherechia coli E - Clostridium novyi |
B - Clostridium difficile
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A history of recent antimicrobial therapy is common in cases of Clostridium difficile associated diarrhea. Adult horses exposed to erythromycin are particularly at risk for C. difficile enterocolitis.
Clostridium novyi is the cause of infectious necrotic hepatitis, which is primarily seen in sheep but can also be seen in cattle, hogs, and horses. Lawsonia intracellularis is the cause of proliferative enteropathy, resulting in diarrhea and hypoproteinemia in foals and swine. Rhodococcus equi is a notable cause of pneumonia in older foals characterized by pulmonary abscessation as well as some extrapulmonary manifestations. Escherechia coli can be a cause of septicemia and diarrhea in foals and calves. |
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Which one of the following antibiotics is the treatment of choice in the face of a vibriosis abortion storm?
A - Tetracycline B - Fluoroquinolone C - Chloramphenicol D - Cephalosporin E - Aminoglycoside |
A - Tetracycline
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Tetracycline.
Long acting oxytetracyclines are effective against Campylobacter jejuni and C. fetus subsp fetus, the organisms that cause vibriosis. Daily dihydrostreptomycin or penicillin can also be used but is more labor intensive. Chloramphenicol is prohibited in food animals. |
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Among mixed-sex twins in cows (ie: a male twin and a female twin), what % of female twins are sterile freemartins?
A - More than 90% B - Less than 10% C - 30-50% D - 60-80% E - 10-30% |
A - More than 90%
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Freemartins are sterile female calves, born twin to a male in up to roughly 92% of mixed twin calvings.
In twin pregnancy, the male fetus differentiates first, and transfers XY antigens across chorionic placental blood vessels, which inhibits development of the ovaries in the female twin. THINK SMALL: May have small vulva, small stature. Look for a short vagina, no cervix, anestrus, On rectal feel HYPOPLASIA of uterus (small). Can sometimes detect 2 bloodtypes in single animal CULL FREEMARTINS. |
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Oxalate is the toxic agent found in which one of the following plants?
A - Hordeum spp (Foxtail) B - Solanum spp (Nightshade) C - Delphinium spp (Larkspur) D - Hypericum perforatum (Klamathweed) E - Sarcobatus vermiculatus (Greasewood) |
E - Sarcobatus vermiculatus (Greasewood)
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Oxalates are found in Sarcobatus vermiculatus (Greasewood). Greasewood toxicity is seen primarily in sheep, sometimes in cattle, usually when large amounts are consumed over a short period of time.
Oxalates occur in plants as salts of calcium, sodium, and potassium. Calcium oxalate is insoluble and is lost through the GI tract. Sodium and potassium oxalates are soluble and either 1) bind to calcium in the rumen and lost through the GI tract, or 2) are absorbed and react with calcium in body fluids. Death is attributed to hypocalcemia and/or kidney failure caused by calcium oxalate crystals in the renal tubules. Signs of oxalate toxicity include: dullness, lowering of the head, loss of appetite, separation from the herd; followed by excessive salivation with frothing, progressive incoordination; and finally, coma, irregular breathing, and death. Oxalate containing plants include: Sarcobatus (greasewood), Oxalis (sorrel), Rumex (dock), Halogeton, Amaranthus (pigweed), and Chenopodium (lambsquarter.) Oxalates are also produced by molds (Aspergillus niger) in contaminated feeds. Delphinium spp (Larkspur) contain alkaloids. Hypericum perforatum (Klamathweed) contain hypericin. Hordeum spp (Foxtail) cause physical injury. Solanum spp (Nightshade) contain alkaloids. Click here to see an image of Greasewood. Click Here to see the Merck Table of Poisonous Range Plants of Temperate North America. |
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This heifer has walked with an increasingly stiff and extended hock and stifle since 2 months of age. The gastrocnemius muscle is contracted, and the animal walks with short pendulum-like steps.
Click here to see image What advice should be given to the owner? A - Cull B - Vitamin E supplements C - Radial neurectomy D - Deep bedding, pectineus tenotomy E - Quadriceps tenotomy |
A - Cull
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This is the typical presentation of spastic paresis, also known as Elso heel. Because spastic paresis is heritable, it is generally best to cull breeding animals.
Look for an animal with a stiff hind leg in full extension, whether walking or standing. Affected animals (especially breeding bulls) should be eliminated. Palliative surgical treatments (gastrocnemius tenotomy, tibial neurectomy) are sometimes done to give relief and salvage the animal long enough to gain weight for slaughter. |
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Which one of the following neonatal calf diarrheas has public health/zoonotic significance?
A - Colibacillosis, Ostertagiasis B - Colibacillosis, Rotavirus C - Cryptosporidiosis, Salmonella D - Salmonella, Coccidiosis E - Clostridium perfringens, Coronavirus |
C - Cryptosporidiosis, Salmonella
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Cryptosporidiosis is caused by a protozoa implicated in drinking water-associated outbreaks of diarrhea in humans; Salmonellae can infect humans from a number of different sources (turtles, chickens, eggs)
E. Coli can cause human disease, but Ostertagia and bovine rotavirus do not. (There IS a human version of rotavirus, however) C. perfringens can be found in soil and in the normal gut flora and is not contagious. |
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A 3-month old calf is presented for necropsy. The calf collapsed and suddenly died this morning after she escaped and was chased around the back pasture for 45 minutes by her owner.
Among other things, endocardial plaques in the left ventricle of this calf's heart are discovered. What advice should be given the farmer? A - Treat the other calves with vitamin E/Selenium B - Check the mother for bovine leukosis by AGID C - Take all the calves off ionophore-containing feed D - Start the other calves on Ceftiofur (Naxcel ®) E - Search the calf barn for sources of lead |
A - Treat the other calves with vitamin E/Selenium
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Treat the other calves with vitamin E/Selenium. Think White Muscle Disease when you see SUDDEN DEATH and endocardial PLAQUES in a young calf, lamb or kid with a history of recent VIGOROUS EXERCISE. Follow this link to a Merck image of pale ventricular myocardium.
Typically seen in young, fast-growing animals (ie: calves 2 weeks-6 mos) Clinical signs may include dyspnea (due to myocardial disease), stiff gait, arched back, weakness, recumbent but BAR (bright, alert, responsive). Sudden death may resemble enterotoxemia, should see acute bloody diarrhea, convulsions, opisthotonos in first days of life with enterotoxemia. |
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A cow is presented on emergency with urea/non-protein nitrogen toxicity.
What is the treatment of choice? A - Atropine, Protopam chloride IV q 4-6 hours B - Rumenal infusion 2-8 liters vinegar,3-10 gallons cold water C - Rumenotomy D - IV Fluids with MgSO4, Na thiosulfate PO E - Relieve bloat, drench with 2-8 liters sodium bicarbonate |
B - Rumenal infusion 2-8 liters vinegar,3-10 gallons cold water
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Treat Urea/non-protein nitrogen (NPN) toxicity with a rumenal infusion 2-8 liters 5% acetic acid (vinegar) and 3-10 gallons of cold water. The vinegar decreases rumenal pH which slows absorption of un-ionized ammonia. Repeat Q 6 hours up to 48 hours. Best results if animal is still ambulatory.
It is often impossible to treat these cases before they die because of rapid progression to death. If possible, Rx with IV fluids. If necessary, relieve bloat. Urea/NPN toxicity is related to ammoniated feed toxicity which causes so-called "Bovine bonkers". Manage ammoniated feed toxicity by removing the ammoniated feed and treating severe cases with anticonvulsants like diazepam, pentobarbital. |
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Abortions due to brucellosis tend to occur at what stage of pregnancy?
A - Third trimester B - At any time during pregnancy C - Second trimester D - Last half of pregnancy E - First trimester |
D - Last half of pregnancy
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Typically, Brucellosis causes abortion in the LAST HALF of pregnancy, for the 5th month onwards. Last trimester is also a good answer, though not entirely correct. You might remember "Bruce is always late".
Expect STILLBORN calves. Cows only abort ONCE. Brucellosis is REPORTABLE. The vaccines used are the Brucella abortus strain 19 vaccine or the RB51 vaccine, given to heifer calves 4-12 months old, along with a USDA tattoo in the right ear. Remember: "The right ear is the RIGHT EAR". BVD and Trichomoniasis (occasionally) can cause early abortion in cows, but MOST things cause abortion late, like 3rd trimester. Listeriosis and Arcanobacterium pyogenes can cause abortion at any time during pregnancy. |
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Zearalenone intoxication is primarily associated with which clinical signs?
A - Leukoencephalomalacia, hypertension B - Estrogenism, vulvovaginitis C - Immunosuppression, Hemorrhagic diathesis D - Terminal necrosis of extremities, gangrene E - Salivation, vomiting |
B - Estrogenism, vulvovaginitis
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Think of reproductive dysfunction (estrogenism, vulvovaginitis) with zearalenone, the only known mycotoxin with primarily estrogenic effects. Zearalenone is produced by Fusarium spp molds on plants and common feed grains like corn, barley and wheat. Often a second mycotoxin called deoxynivalenol is also prduced which causes decreased feed intake. The presence of deoxynivalenol may limit exposure to zearalenone if the animal eats less.
Fumonisin is another Fusarium spp mycotoxin associated with moldy corn. In equids, look for CNS disease (Equine leukoencephalomalacia). In pigs, see hypertension and pulmonary edema (porcine pulmonary edema-PPE). Ergotism is caused by ingestion of alkaloids in a parasitic fungus, Claviceps purpurea, that infects small grains (rye, wheat) and forage plants like bromes, bluegrass and ryegrass. Look for vasoconstriction with terminal necrosis of the extremities due to thrombosis-affected animals are predisposed to frostbite and gangrene. May have CNS effects, potent oxytocic action or pituitary effects (decreased prolactin leading to agalactia). Slaframine toxicosis causes profuse salivation, primarily in horses and occsionally in cattle. Due to the fungus Rhizoctonia leguminocola (black patch disease) on red clover (Trifolium pratense) especially in wet, cool years. Trichothecenes are a group of related cytotoxic mycotoxins associated with many fungi. Think of vomitoxin (and vomiting) and also of immunosuppression. Refusal to eat contaminated feed is a typical sign, due to taste aversion. Macrocyclic trichothecene-related diseases have several specific names, including the best known, stachybotryotoxicosis. Click here to see a table of Mycotoxicoses in Domestic Animals. |
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A seven-month-old feedlot calf presents with a bilateral mucopurulent nasal discharge, high fever, coughing, and anorexia.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? A - Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis B - Husk C - Acute bovine pulmonary emphysema and edema D - Bovine herpesvirus 5 E - Bovine enzootic nasal granuloma |
A - Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis
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Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR) is caused by bovine herpesvirus 1. Diagnosis can be based on the clinical signs alone or performed with virus isolation.
Bovine herpesvirus 5 is associated with fatal necrotizing encephalitis in calves. Acute bovine pulmonary emphysema and edema (ABPEE) is more an adult cow disease, characterized by sudden onset, minimal coughing, and a course that ends fatally or improves dramatically within a few days. Expect a more febrile and purulent presentation from IBR, compared to ABPEE. |
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An 8-year-old Hereford cow presents with the eye lesion shown below. Impression smear cytology confirms that it is a squamous cell carcinoma. It is the 11th case in this herd this year.
Which one of the following recommendation topics should be discussed with the client? A - Vaccination for Mycobacterium bovis B - Intralesional cyclosporine therapy C - Heritability D - Vitamin A supplementation E - Face fly control |
C - Heritability
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The etiology of ocular squamous cell carcinoma is multifactorial and includes heritability, sunlight, nutrition, and eyelid pigmentation.
Affected animals and their offspring should be culled, as well as affected breeding bulls. Eyelid and conjunctival pigmentation are also highly inheritable and can increase the frequency of lid squamous cell carcinomas. |
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Two hours after parturition, a Holstein cow presents in sternal recumbency.
The head and neck are extended into an S-shaped curve. The pupils are sluggish and she appears to have flaccid tetraparesis. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? A - Hypermagnesemia B - Hypocalcemia C - Thiamine deficiency D - Calving paralysis syndrome E - Tetanus |
B - Hypocalcemia
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Hypocalcemia (milk fever, parturient paresis) is an acute afebrile, flaccid tetraparesis of mature dairy cows, usually at or soon after parturition.
A diet high in calcium prior to calving predisposes the cow to milk fever because of the relative hypoparathyroid status that is induced. Calving paralysis syndrome is characterized by flaccid paraparesis and would not have the characteristic S-shaped curve to head and neck. |
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A group of Holstein calves are presented with periocular crusty patches with hair loss that appear to be nonpruritic.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? A - Dermatophytosis B - Contagious ecthyma C - Photosensitization D - Infectious keratoconjunctivitis E - Exudative epidermitis |
A - Dermatophytosis
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Dermatophytosis (ringworm) in cattle is common among younger animals and non-pruritic. It is most commonly seen in calves as periocular lesions although it can become generalized.
Face flies feed on saliva, tears, and mucus of cattle and can enhance transmission of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis (IBK, pinkeye). Click here to see pinkeye in a cow. Photosensitization typically occurs on white skin - these calves show lesions on black skin. Click here to see photosensitization, muzzle of a horse. |
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Which one of the following opportunistic pathogens causes necrotic laryngitis?
A - Mycoplasma haemophilus B - Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus C - Fusobacterium necrophorum D - Actinobacillis sp. E - Parainfluenza-3 virus |
C - Fusobacterium necrophorum
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Fusobacterium necrophorum is a normal inhabitant of the respiratory tract of animals.
Initially it causes a moist, painful cough which progresses to inspiratory dyspnea, ptyalism, swallowing motions, purulent nasal discharge and high fever. These clinical signs are usually sufficient to establish a diagnosis. |
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A group of calves have profuse watery diarrhea, anorexia, weight loss, weakness, and a rough coat. Fecal exam is negative and bloodwork reveals a hypoproteinemia.
Necropsy of one of the calves shows petechia, edema, and small umbilicated nodules in the abomasum. The pH of the abomasal contents is 7. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? A - Ostertagia B - Cooperia C - Oesophagostomum D - Strongyloides E - Chabertia |
A - Ostertagia
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Ostertagia ostertagi, (stomach worms) live in nodules in the abomasum and heavy infestations cause the pH in the abomasum to rise from 2 to more than 6. This pH change leads to a protein-losing gastropathy causing weight loss.
Type I ostertagiosis is usually in calves 7-15 mos old. Mostly adult worms are present and it responds well to anthelmintics. Type II ostertagiosis is when large numbers of dormant larvae emerge from the abomasal glands. This is usually seen in cattle 12-20 mos old. Oesophagostomum adults and nodules are found in the lower small intestine and sometimes the cecum and colon. |
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A farmer presents some of his cows that have horseshoe-shaped scabs on the teats. He also has some itchy purplish-red nodules on his hand.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? A - Contagious Ecthyma B - Papillar stomatitis C - Contagious pustular dermatitis D - Cowpox E - Pseudocowpox |
E - Pseudocowpox
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Pseudocowpox lesions heal from the center and leave a characteristic horseshoe or ring of scabs.
This is a common, but mild infection and can be very difficult to control within a herd. It is also contagious to humans, but the lesions are mild and disappear after several weeks. Cowpox was once common but is now extremely rare. It is characterized by papules on the teats and udders that rupture and leave raw ulcerations that scab over. Milkers may become febrile and have lesions on hands and arms. |
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A farmer is concerned about a lesion on the end of his cow's teat.
Which one of the following risk factors should he avoid? A - Inadequate massage during milking B - All of these C - Exposure of wet teats to cold weather D - Overmilking E - Inadequate milk letdown |
B - All of these
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All of these. This is teat-end hyperkeratosis. The cause is multifactorial and is often associated with cold weather (possibly because of changes in peripheral circulation).
Teat-end hyperkeratosis may not affect milking or it may be so severe that sanitation of teat ends before milking may be compromised. Another risk factor is incorrect use of teat sanitizers. |
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On a farm visit, a calf is noted to have its head lowered and extended forward.
Which one of the following conditions is suggested by this appearance? A - Otitis media/interna B - Polioencephalomalacia C - Pneumonia D - Cryptosporidiosis E - Tetanus |
C - Pneumonia
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A calf with its head held low and extended is a typical posture of a calf with pneumonia. Pneumonia can be viral, bacterial, or multifactorial (as in shipping fever).
Otitis media/interna would cause the head to tilt toward the side of the lesion. |
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A Holstein cow presents with acute onset of right thoracic limb lameness. When she stands, the right limb is crossed over her left.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? A - Fractured P3 B - Humeroscapular luxation C - Ulnar nerve paralysis D - Radial nerve paralysis E - Bog Spavin |
A - Fractured P3
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Fractured P3. If the medial digit is involved the cow will often cross its legs to seek relief. Fracture of the distal phalanx is relatively common in adult cattle.
Bog spavin (serous tarsitis, puffy hock) is characterized by puffy swellings between the ligaments of the tibiotarsal joint. It does not cause pain or lameness. |
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Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis in the image below?
A - Bilateral obturator nerve paralysis B - Bilateral cranial cruciate ligament rupture C - Bilateral peroneal nerve paralysis D - Bilateral gastrocnemius rupture E - Normal postpartum posture |
D - Bilateral gastrocnemius rupture
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This is bilateral gastrocnemius rupture, most likely associated with calcium, phosphorus, and vitamin D deficiencies.
Bilateral ruptured Achilles tendons can produce an identical gait. Peroneal nerve paralysis results in paralysis of hock flexors and digit extensors. |
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A Holstein that just gave birth has difficulty getting her feet underneath her and standing.
She was found with both pelvic limbs splayed out to the sides. Voluntary movement is present and flexor tone is normal. Assuming that there are no pelvic fractures and normal serum calcium levels, which one of the following nerves is most obviously damaged? A - Obturator B - Cranial gluteal C - Peroneal D - Femoral E - Tibial |
A - Obturator
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This is the picture of damage to the ischiatic nerve or the obturator nerve seen most often in post-partum cows (and sometimes horses) living on slippery surfaces. (The ischiatic nerve originates near the obturator nerve, complicating diagnosis.)
Need to arrange for a bedded stall with better footing, sometimes NSAIDs, turn recumbent animals 6-8 times per day. With unilateral obturator nerve paralysis, the cow should be able to walk on surfaces that give her good footing, however, with bilateral obturator paralysis, both pelvic limbs are totally abducted and the cow is unable to stand. Peroneal nerve paralysis results in an inability to flex the hock and extend the digits. Because of its location across the lateral surface of the tibia, it is at risk of injury in recumbent adult cattle. |
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This Holstein cow has submandibular edema, slightly pale mucus membranes, and reduced milk yield. CBC shows mild anemia.
GGT is elevated. Fecal examination shows a few oval, operculated, golden brown eggs. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? A - High-mountain disease B - Fasciolosis C - Liver abscesses D - Traumatic reticuloperitonitis E - Paramphistomosis |
B - Fasciolosis
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Fasciolosis. Fasciola hepatica may be subclinical in cattle or show the above clinical signs.
The eggs must be distinguished from those of paramphistomes (rumen flukes) which are larger and clear. High-mountain disease is a result of pulmonary arterial hypertension induced by pulmonary hypoxia. Brisket edema is a typical clinical sign. |
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A pig farm has several sick and dying adult pigs. Affected animals are febrile and depressed.
Some seem constipated and others have diarrhea. A few are ataxic. A necropsy is performed and there is widespread petechial and ecchymotic hemorrhages in the kidneys ("turkey egg kidneys"), bladder, spleen, and larynx. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? A - Swine dysentery B - Erysipelas C - Haemophilus parasuis D - Classical swine fever E - Hemagglutinating encephalomyelitis |
D - Classical swine fever
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Petechial hemorrhages on the kidneys (turkey egg) are characteristic of both African and classical swine fever. African swine fever cannot be differentiated from Classical Swine Fever based on clinical and postmortem symptoms.
Confirmation is based on either PCR or ELISA antigen testing. Both are reportable diseases. Classical swine fever was last seen in 1976 in the US and African swine fever has not been reported in the US. Erysipelas is characterized by fever, painful joints, and diamond-shaped skin lesions. Hemagglutinating encephalomyelitis (vomiting and wasting disease) and Haemophilus parasuis (Glasser's disease) both occur mainly in young piglets. |
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A herd of ewes has had an abortion storm in which 80% of animals are affected, all stages of gestation are affected, and lambs that are born are very weak. On the placentas, cotyledons have white foci of necrosis.
Which one of the following choices is the primary differential diagnosis? A - Brucella B - Histophilus ovis C - Toxoplasma gondii D - Chlamydiosis E - Listeria monocytogenes |
C - Toxoplasma gondii
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T. gondii infection can cause severe abortion storms in sheep.
Clinical signs pathognomonic of T. gondii are bright to dark red cotyledons with white foci of necrosis; the intercotyledonary areas of placenta are normal. With Brucella and Histophilus ovis the abortion rate is much lower. Abortion caused by Listeria spp is associated with the feeding of silage. |
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This calf was aborted at 7.5 months pregnancy in early fall. The dam was a primiparous beef animal housed on pasture in Northern California.
Necropsy revealed multiple petechial hemorrhages on the palate and scleral mucus membranes of the fetus, and marked lymphadenopathy. The calf was not decomposed; the cow retained the placenta. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis of the abortion in this case? A - Foothill abortion agent B - Leptospira pomona C - Pine needles D - Brucella abortus E - Neospora caninun |
A - Foothill abortion agent
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This is a typical case of foothill abortion, also called Epizootic Bovine Abortion. The condition is common in the coastal and Sierra Nevada foothills, and throughout much of the western United States. It is the most common cause of abortion in California beef cattle.
The etiologic agent has not been identified with certainty. Research suggests that it is a delta protobacteria with DNA homology to bacteria of the vibrio genus. Pregnant cattle exposed to thymic tissues from aborted fetuses can be protected from abortion by feeding tetracycline through the early stages of pregnancy. The agent is transmitted by the soft shelled Pajahuello tick (Ornithodorus coriaceus). The disease occurs predominantly in heifers. Infection develops during the first trimester of pregnancy while abortions occur later around the 5th to 9th month. Exposed cattle develop immunity, but it is not known how long protection lasts. However, abortion does not often recur in these animals. The presence of petechial hemorrhages and lymphadenopathy in a late-term aborted fetus is suggestive of foothill abortion. Neospora is another common abortifacient of beef cattle, but does not produce lymhadenopathy or petechiae in the fetus. Leptospirosis, brucellosis, and pine needles also do not produce the same pathologic lesions as the foothill agent. |
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Which one of the following conditions occurs in the Fall in temperate climates, among cattle moved from poor pasture to lush pasture?
A - Acute bovine pulmonary emphysema and edema B - Rumenal hyperkeratosis C - Verminous bronchitis (Husk) D - Vagal indigestion E - Hypocalcemic paresis |
A - Acute bovine pulmonary emphysema and edema
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Acute bovine pulmonary emphysema and edema(ABPEE) is associated with Fall onset, occurring 5-10 days after changing cattle from poorer to better, often lush, pasture.
Toxicity occurs because rumen micro-organisms convert L-tryptophan in lush pasture grasses to pneumotoxic 3-methylindole, which damages respiratory epithelial cells. |
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![This 3 year old Charolais bull weighing 2100 lbs was found at pasture walking in circles. He has been fed silage enriched with 5% dried chicken litter in addition to the winter pasture.
T = 104.6°F (40.3°C)..[N=101.5-103.5 F]
Pulse rate = 46 beats pe](https://images.cram.com/images/upload-flashcards/536999/696032_m.png)
This 3 year old Charolais bull weighing 2100 lbs was found at pasture walking in circles. He has been fed silage enriched with 5% dried chicken litter in addition to the winter pasture.
T = 104.6°F (40.3°C)..[N=101.5-103.5 F] Pulse rate = 46 beats per minute....[N=55-80bpm] Resp. rate = 21 per minute....[N=10-30 brpm] He is depressed, anorectic and drooling, with a head tilt to right. The right ear and eyelid both droop. The bull is ataxic with predominantly right sided proprioceptive deficits. A sample of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) taken at the lumbosacral space has normal color, no turbidity but has an increased mononuclear cell count and an elevated protein concentration. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis? A - Otitis media/interna B - Nervous coccidiosis C - Rabies D - Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis E - Listeriosis |
E - Listeriosis
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Listeriosis is most likely in this bull. Infection with Listeria monocytogenes usually presents with MULTIFOCAL brainstem signs as seen by dysfunction of multiple cranial nerves, most often V, VII-X, and XII.
Circling is thought to be more than just CN VIII damage because of the intensity associated - affected animals will sometimes continuously circle till they collapse. This suggests that other areas of the brain such as the basal ganglia and the descending reticular formation are also affected. Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis (TEME) causes brainstem and cerebellar signs but the CSF would be neutrophilic and xanthochromic. The xanthrochromia is due to vasculitis/thrombosis in the CNS. TEME is more common in feedlot calves; respiratory disease, septicemia, and joint disease may also be seen. Animals with otitis media/interna are alert and responsive, and have signs of vestibular dysfunction, but are not paretic. The bull could have rabies, but the multifocal nature of this bull's problem and the localization of lesions to the brainstem favor a diagnosis of listeriosis. Patients with nervous coccidiosis are usually centrally blind, and have cerebral rather than brainstem signs. It is most often seen in calves soon after the development of diarrhea. |
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Which one of the following conditions predispose a cow to metritis?
A - Milk fever, Malnutrition, Excess dietary zinc B - Dystocia, Overfeeding in dry period, Ca-P imbalance in feed C - Contaminated calving environment, Abortion, Hypomagnesemia D - Strep. agalactiae mastitis, Retained placenta, Laminitis E - Agalactia, Milk fever, Bovine vibriosis |
B - Dystocia, Overfeeding in dry period, Ca-P imbalance in feed
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Cows are predisposed to post-parturient Bovine metritis by many things, including
-Dystocia, -Overfeeding in dry period, -Ca-P imbalance in feed. Cows are also predisposed to metritis by -Retained placenta, -Contaminated calving environment, -Abortion, -Malnutrition. Infectious causes of metritis include Brucellosis, Leptospirosis, Trichomoniasis, and Bovine campylobacter. |
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Which one of the following represent the most effective control measures in herds infected with porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS) virus?
A - Nursery depopulation, segregated early weaning 12-18 mos after outbreak B - Maintain therapeutic levels of streptomycin in feed C - Vaccinate boars in contact with sows, maximize pen ventilation D - Cull all sows after first farrowing E - Buy PRRS-negative gilts, test on arrival, segregate 45 days, retest before join herd |
A - Nursery depopulation, segregated early weaning 12-18 mos after outbreak
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12-18 months after the initial outbreak, sows are usually no longer transmitting the Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS) virus, so segregated early weaning and removal of nursery pigs (with concurrent disinfection of nursery before repopulation) may help control the virus.
Because it appears that sows generally only abort once, culling after the first farrowing not advisable. Antibiotic administration can help control secondary bacterial infections, but not the arterivirus responsible for PRRS. Adding negative gilts to a herd already infected with the virus is unlikely to result in control. |
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A 5-year old Holstein cow is presented with a 2-day history of being off feed and a precipitous drop in milk production.
T=103 F (39.4 C)..[N=101.5-103.5 F] HR=132 bpm........[N=55-80] RR=36 brpm.........[N=10-30] The cow stands with abducted elbows, an arched back and is reluctant to move. Physical exam shows intermandibular edema and bilateral jugular distention. A grunt is heard when pressure is applied to her xiphoid and there is a washing machine murmur (almost like splashing sounds) on both sides. There is little rumen activity. What is the recommendation for the farmer? A - Check the feed for excess monensin/lasalocid B - Treat with high-dose penicillin/streptomycin C - Test the herd for bovine leukosis D - Cull this cow E - Check the feed for cottonseed meal (gossypol) |
D - Cull this cow
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Cull this cow. Bilateral dilated jugulars say "Severe heart problem". A washing machine murmur and the painful stance, as well as respiratory grunting all point to hardware disease (Traumatic reticuloperitonitis).
Treatment is unrewarding- CULL. Prevent problem by making every cow swallow a small bar magnet to attract and hold nails, wire, sharp metal inside the reticulum. COOL FACT: A compass can tell you if a cow has a magnet. Hold it near the brisket. If there is a magnet, compass needle will point to the cow, even if you move the compass. Follow this link to see anatomic image of reticulum/heart proximity. Cardiac lymphosarcoma may present with heart failure signs, but less likely to have such an acute onset of agalactia, painful stance or classic "washing machine" murmur. Monensin/Lasalocid are ionophore coccidiostats associated with cardiac failure- MOST TOXIC to HORSES Cottonseed meal contains Gossypol - see cardiac toxicity/dyspnea/ sudden death in calves; sterility/decreased conception in adults. are associated with cardiac toxicity. |
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An 18 month old steer is presented that is just down from summer pasture in the mountains of Colorado with brisket edema, slight dyspnea and distended jugular veins.
What condition is at the top of the differential diagnosis list? A - Cor pulmonale B - High Mountain disease C - Cardiac lymphosarcoma D - White muscle disease E - Hardware disease |
B - High Mountain disease
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Bilateral dilated jugulars says "Heart problem". Hx of high altitude exposure and brisket / submandibular edema point towards High Mountain disease.
Remember Locoweed (Astragalus and Oxytropis) ingestion worsens disease, due to swainsonine. |
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A 7 week old Pot-bellied Pig is presented with a posterior swelling that looks like this:
Click here to see image . Which one of the following is the most likely clinical diagnosis? A - Cryptorchidism B - Testicular torsion C - Perineal hernia D - Intersex syndrome E - Inguinal hernia |
E - Inguinal hernia
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This is an Inguinal hernia in a piglet. A COMMON problem in pigs, Rx surgically: midline skin incision, cranial to scrotum; ligate and excise vas deferens, blood vessels. BOTH inguinal ring areas should be closed to prevent herniation post-surgery. Removal of tunic, cremaster muscle, extra subQ tissue, with closure to obliterate empty space helps prevent seromas.
Follow this link to a good Merck diagram of inguinal hernia anatomy in a horse. Intersex syndrome is described in pigs and goat (rare), but look for BOTH genitalia. Perineal hernia more a problem of middle-aged pure bred dogs. With Cryptorchidism a testicle is RETAINED, not protruding. |
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This cow was found recumbent and blind, with dorsomedial strabismus, in tonic-clonic seizures that led to coma and death.
On necropsy, lesions shown below light up under ultraviolet light. Click here to see image What caused this problem? A - Rabies B - Urea toxicity C - High sulfur diet D - Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis (TEME) E - Bovine spongiform encephalopathy |
C - High sulfur diet
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This is the cerebrocortical necrosis of Polioencephalomalacia (PEM), basically a nutritional disease. PEM is traditionally associated with LOW THIAMINE but increasingly associated with HIGH SULFUR diets.
PATHOGNOMONIC dorsomedial strabismus ("Stargazing"), history and cerebrocortical necrosis that lights up under UV light all suggest PEM. |
