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74 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

What types of solids are reduced in a digester?




A) Soluble and insoluble


B) Volatile and nonvolatile


C) Volatile and BOD


D) None of the above

C) Volatile and BOD

What does the zoogleal mass in a trickling filter do?




A) Accumulates and removes solids and phosphorous in wastewater


B) Accumulates and nitrifies organic matter in wastewater


C) Accumulates and oxidizes organic matter in wastewater


D) Accumulates and sloughs off pluggine media

C) Accumulates and oxidizes organic matter in wastewater

The best way to accurately sample for BOD and suspended solids is:




A) Composite sampling


B) Grab sampling


C) Flow proportional composite sampling


D) Flow proportional grab sampling


E) None of the above

C) Flow proportional composite sampling

You have a high suspended solids in the effluent of your secondary clarifier, to reduce the SVI you should:




A) Increase return activated sludge and watch pH


B) Increase return activated sludge and watch DO


C) Increase waste activated sludge and watch pH


D) Increase waste activated sludge and watch DO

D) Increase waste activated sludge and watch DO

If the sludge volume index increases the volatile solids would:




A) Increase


B) Decrease


C) Stay the same

A) Increase

If nitrification slows, what other effects would you see?




A) Decrease in ammonia and alkalinity, increase in acidity and DO


B) Decrease in ammonia and acidity, increase in alkalinity and DO


C) Increase in ammonia and alkalinity, decrease in acidity and DO


D) Increase in ammonia and acidity, decrease in alkalinity and DO

C) Increase in ammonia and alkalinity, decrease in acidity and DO

What is the total kjeldahl nitrogen consist of?




A) Ammonia, nitrates, and nitrites


B) Organic nitrogen and ammonia


C) Inorganic nitrogen and ammonia


D) None of the above

B) Organic nitrogen and ammonia

What is lost when denitrification takes place?




A) Alkalinity


B) Ammonia


C) Organic nitrogen


D) Nothing

B) Ammonia

In severe cold weather in an activated sludge plant the biological activity in the aeration tanks will decrease. What should an operator do to correct this situation?




A) Decrease sludge age


B) Increase MLSS


C) Decrease blower output


D) None of the above

B) Increase MLSS

A dark scummy foam has developed on your aeration tank, you should:




A) Call EPA before any changes


B) Increase waste activated sludge rate


C) Increase return activated sludge rate


D) Nothing. It is normal



B) Increase waste activated sludge rate

Why are phosphorous and nitrogen important concerns?




A) Down stream oxygen uptake


B) They promote algae growth


C) They are toxic to fish


D) Because the EPA thinks so

B) They promote algae growth

A good settling sludge contains:




A) Nocardia, amoeba, stalked ciliates


B) Amoeba, stalked ciliates, rotifers


C) Rotifers, stalked ciliates, free swimmers


D) Rotifers, stalked ciliates, free swimmers, nematodes

C) Rotifers, stalked ciliates, free swimmers

Which of the following would you not use to determine wasting rate?




A) MCRT


B) Sludge Condition


C) SRT


D) Sludge Age

B) Sludge Condition

Along with nitrates, what else is removed during denitrification?




A) Phosphorous


B) Alkalinity


C) Oil and grease


D) Nocardia


E) None of the above

A) Phosphorous

How does carbon dioxide affect an aerobic digester's sludge?




A) No change


B) Raises pH


C) Lowers pH


D) Reduces volatile solids



C) Lowers pH

Residual ammonia remaining after biological treatment can be removed by:




A) Re-carbonation and air stripping


B) Ion exchange and re-carbonation


C) Activated carbon and filtration


D) Breakpoint chlorination and air stripping

D) Breakpoint chlorination and air stripping

Which group of elements are necessary to achieve the BOD demand in wastewater?




A) C - N - O


B) Ca - NH3 - H2SO4


C) O - N - P


D) H - N - O

C) O - N - P

Before free chlorine residual can exist as a residual:




A) The temperature of the water must be stabilized


B) All direct chemical reactions must be satisfied


C) Microorganism kill must be complete


D) The water temperature must be lowered

B) All direct chemical reactions must be satisfied

Methane would be produced what what is decomposed?




A) Starches and fats


B) Ammonia and carbohydrates


C) Grease and carbohydrates


D) Nitrates and starches

C) Grease and carbohydrates

The discharge of a piston pump:




A) Decreases with an increase in head


B) Increases with an increase in head


C) Decreases with an increase in head only to the shut off head


D) Is independent of head

D) Is independent of head

When organic wastes are discharged to receiving waters oxygen is depleted by:




A) Algae during the day


B) Bacteria


C) Chemical reactions


D) Wildlife

B) Bacteria

If nitrification is inhibited what will happen to the effluent?




A) Ammonia decrease, nitrates increase


Alkalinity decrease, oxygen increase


B) Ammonia increase, nitrates decrease


Alkalinity increase, oxygen decrease


C) Ammonia increase, nitrates increase


Alkalinity increase, oxygen increase


D) Ammonia decrease, nitrates decrease


Alkalinity decrease, oxygen decrease

B) Ammonia increase, nitrates decrease


Alkalinity increase, oxygen decrease

Your anaerobic digester has a high pH, what chemical do you add to lower it?




A) Lime


B) Alum


C) Sodium bicarbonate


D) Sodium hydroxide


E) Aluminum sulfate

D) Sodium hydroxide

In the 40 CFR 503 regulations, the vector attraction reduction not approved is:




A) 38% volatile reduction of solids


B) 12 pH for 2hrs and hold above 11.5 for 22hrs


C) 1.5mg/l Sow = or < 1.5ml oxygen/hr/gm of total solids at a temperature of 20° C


E) All are applicable

C) 1.5mg/l Sow = or < 1.5ml oxygen/hr/gm of total solids at a temperature of 20° C

How much alkalinity is removed for each 1mg/l of ammonia?




A) 3.3mg/l


B) 8.4mg/l


C) 8.2mg/l


D) 7.9mg/l


E) 7.1mg/l

E) 7.1mg/l

What chemical will remove solids in the wastewater effluent without affecting the pH level in the effluent?




A) Lime


B) Alum


C) Ferric chloride


D) Polymer


E) CaCO

D) Polymer

Which of the following groups of microorganisms are found in s good settling mixed liquor?




A) Nematodes, , flagellates, and stalked ciliates


B) Flagellates, free swimming ciliates, and stalked ciliates


C) Staled ciliates, rotifers, and flagellates


D) Rotifers, stalked ciliates, and and crawling ciliates

D) Rotifers, stalked ciliates, and and crawling ciliates

According to the Recommended Standards for Wastewater Facilities, what is meant by the invert of a pipe?




A) The bottom inside edge


B) The pipe when it is turned over


C) The bottom of the pipe


D) The pipe turned 180°

A) The bottom inside edge

Which of the following is not a biological treatment?




A) Secondary clarifier


B) Sequential batch reactor


C) Primary clarifier


D) Rotating biological contactor

C) Primary clarifier

The ash content is the same as which of the following?




A) Difference in raw sludge and the sludge after air drying


B) Inorganic solids


C) Organic solids


D) Volatile solids

B) Inorganic solids

Turbidity in wastewater is caused by:




A) Color


B) Dissolved calcium


C) Hardness


D) Finely divided suspended material

D) Finely divided suspended material

The BOD in an aeration tank is oxidized in what order?




A) Nitrogenous then carbonaceous


B) Solid then soluble


C) Notrosomonas then nitrobacter


D) Carbonaceous then nitrogenous

D) Carbonaceous then nitrogenous

What is the valid number of colonies on petri plates when calculating fecal colonies?




A) 20-60 colonies


B) 20-80 colonies


C) 10-20 colonies


D) 80-100 colonies

A) 20-60 colonies

TKN is the total of:




A) Ammonia nitrogen plus organic nitrogen


B) Organic nitrogen minus ammonia nitrogen


C) Ammonia nitrogen minus organic nitrogen


D) None of the above

A) Ammonia nitrogen plus organic nitrogen

Your activated sludge plant has excessive brown foam on the aeration tanks. What should you do to correct the problem?




A) Stop wasting sludge immediately


B) Increase the wasting of sludge immediately


C) Increase the return activated sludge


D) Nothing, it's just a phase it's going through

B) Increase the wasting of sludge immediately

What is the explosive range of sewer gas?




A) 21.3-28.9%


B) 5.9-19.3%


C) 74.3-83.7%


D) 34.0-41.5%

A) 21.3-28.9%

The reaction of chlorine and ammonia in wastewater produces a compound called:




A) Ammonium chloride


B) Chloral hydrate


C) Chloramine


D) Hydrazine

C) Chloramine

The quality of volatile solids in the content of the incoming sludge is an indirect measure of what?




A) The amount of the sample that will evaporate when settling


B) The food available for the bacteria in the digester


C) The number of bacteria in the digester


D) The primary effluent suspended solids

B) The food available for the bacteria in the digester

What is the proper interpretation of an SVI of 120?




A) 120 is the level of settled mixed liquor


B) Excessive increase in volatile solids


C) One gram of sludge occupies 120 ml of space


D) The mixed liquor suspended solids are 120mg/l

C) One gram of sludge occupies 120 ml of space

What is the purpose of returned activated sludge (RAS)?




A) To keep a biological population and to aerobically digest the sludge


B) To keep the sludge blanket down in the secondary clarifier


C) To keep a biological population and re-aerate the microorganisms


D) To increase the mixed liquor suspended solids

C) To keep a biological population and re-aerate the microorganisms

Besides chlorine, which of the following chemicals can be used to control or prevent odors?




A) Chlorophenol


B) Dichloramine


C) Hydrogen peroxide


D) Arsenic

C) Hydrogen peroxide

Microorganisms that can use either molecular (atmospheric) or combined (bound) oxygen are called what?




A) Anaerobes


B) Facultative organisms


C) Obligate aerobes


D) Strictly aerobic microorganisms

B) Facultative organisms

Filamentous organisms thrive best under which of the following conditions:




A) High nutrient load


B) Low pH conditions


C) Low oxygen conditions


D) A sudden drop in temperature

C) Low oxygen conditions

According to Standard Methods, to make the BOD test valid the D.O. uptake should be at least _____mg/l and the amount of D.O. that remains should be ______mg/l.




A) 2.0 and 1.0


B) 1.0 and 2.0


C) 1.0 and 3.0


D) 3.0 and 2.0



A) 2.0 and 1.0

The key to successful process control of enhanced biological systems in:




A) BOD reduction


B) Coliform kill


C) Liquid-solids separation


D) Nutrient removal

C) Liquid-solids separation

Which of the following is the best choice as a definition of nitrification?




A) The increase of ammonia nitrogen causing nitrate ammonia to form


B) The oxidation of ammonia nitrogen to nitrate nitrogen


C) The oxidation of nitrate nitrogen to ammonia nitrogen


D) The reduction of TKN resulting in the elimination of all nitrogen

B) The oxidation of ammonia nitrogen to nitrate nitrogen

According the Standard Methods, what is the purpose of chemical additions to the BOD dilution water?




A) Drop the pH level below 5.0?


B) reduce the nitrogen level


C) Raise the pH level


D) Adjust pH and add nutrients

) Adjust pH and add nutrients

What is the purpose of the secondary clarifier in an activated sludge process?




A) To add detention time to the process


B) To remove final suspended solids


C) To separate the activated sludge from the effluent


D) To add dissolved oxygen to the effluent

C) To separate the activated sludge from the effluent

Which of the following is the best choice as a definition of de-nitrification?




A) The aerobic biological reduction of nitrate nitrogen gas causing the removal of TKN from a system


B) The oxidation of TKN that finalizes the process of nitrogen removal


C) The anaerobic biological reduction of nitrate nitrogen gas causing the removal of TKN


D) The facultative digestion of TKN causing the total removal of nitrogen from a system

C) The anaerobic biological reduction of nitrate nitrogen gas causing the removal of TKN

What is the final result when nitrification is achieved?




A) Effluent quality is improved by the removal of all suspended solids


B) A reduction in alkalinity


C) A reduction in carbon dioxide


D) An increase in alkalinity and acidity


E) An increase in alkalinity

D) An increase in alkalinity and acidity

Which of the following best describes what occurs when nitrification is lost?




A) Ammonia


B) Decreased acidity and DO and increase alkalinity and ammonia


C) Increased acidity and DO and decreased alkalinity and ammonia


D) Low pH

B) Decreased acidity and DO and increase alkalinity and ammonia

What best describes the final results of de-nitrification?




A) Ammonia is eliminated


B) Alkalinity is increased


C) pH begins to fluctuate uncontrollably


D) TKN levels increase

A) Ammonia is eliminated

Which of the following are the most important operational considerations for process control?




A) Ammonia, alkalinity, and BOD


B) Suspended solids, BOD, and pH


C) BOD, pH, and temperature


D) BOD, flow, and suspended solids

D) BOD, flow, and suspended solids

Which of the following best describes a venturi tube?




A) Turbine blower


B) Flow meter


C) Level indicator


D) Head pressure meter

B) Flow meter

Three water borne diseases are:




A) Mumps, measles, cold


B) Scarlet fever, pneumonia, hay fever


C) Typhoid fever, dysentery, cholera


D) Tuberculosis, diphtheria, chickenpox

C) Typhoid fever, dysentery, cholera

A major characteristic of a metal plating waste is high:




A) BOD


B) Organic matter


C) Suspended solids


D) Toxicity

D) Toxicity

Ozone is a good disinfectant because:




A) It is cheap and easy to produce


B) Small amounts can kill any bacteria


C) It forms less carcinogenic compounds when it reacts with wastewater than other disinfectants


D) It has a metallic odor

C) It forms less carcinogenic compounds when it reacts with wastewater than other disinfectants

What is the typical reduction in volume when dewatered sludge is incinerated?




A) 20-30%


B) 35-50%


C) 55-70%


D) 80-90%

D) 80-90%

Facultative ponds are:




A) Aerobic on the top and anaerobic on the bottom


B) Complete anaerobic


C) Faulty operating ponds


D) Very shallow ponds

A) Aerobic on the top and anaerobic on the bottom

An operator finds excessive organic material in the grit removed from the grit chamber. How can this situation be corrected?




A) Increase the velocity by reducing the number of channels in use


B) Decrease the velocity be increasing the number of channels in use


C) Cleaning the grit chamber more frequently

A) Increase the velocity by reducing the number of channels in use

The function of a trickling filter or biodisc is to:




A) Remove large objects and debris


B) Remove nitrates and chlorides


C) Remove dissolved and suspended solids


D) Remove pH for final clarification


E) Remove BOD

E) Remove BOD

Under which of the following circumstances should sludge wasting normally be increased?




A) Mixed liquor settles too slowly


B) Large billows of white foam start foaming on the aeration surface


C) A dark brown scummy foam appears on the aeration tank surface


D) All of the above


E) None of the above

C) A dark brown scummy foam appears on the aeration tank surface

Spraying water on a leaking container of chlorine will:




A) Slow the leak by cooling the tank


B) Neutralize the acidity of the chlorine


C) Make the leak worse


D) Allow repair personnel to approach the leak


E) None of the above

C) Make the leak worse

Microscopic examination of a biodisc showed an abundance of free swimming ciliates on the first set of discs, stalked ciliates on the middle discs, and rotifers and blood worms on the final set of discs. Which of the following is indicated?




A) Normal growth


B) Presence of toxic wastes


C) Excessive hydraulic loading


D) Excessive BOD causing low initial DO in the system

A) Normal growth

De-nirification in the secondary clarifier in an activated sludge system indicates:




A) Sludge withdrawal is too fast


B) Sludge withdrawal is too slow


C) That the clarifier is working properly

B) Sludge withdrawal is too slow

What is the normal detention time in the conventional activated sludge aeration tank?




A) 2-4hrs


B) 4-8hrs


C) 18-30hrs

B) 4-8hrs

What are the four reagents used to prepare a sample before performing a Winkler test?




A) Alkali iodide, manganese sulfate, starch, and sulfuric acid


B) Mercuric chloride, manganese sulfate, starch, and sulfuric acid


C) Borate buffer, phosphoric acid, alkali iodide, and starch


C) Alkali iodide, manganese sulfate, starch, and phosphoric acid

A) Alkali iodide, manganese sulfate, starch, and sulfuric acid

For a conventional activated sludge process the Food:Mircoorganism (F/M) ratio should be in the range of:




A) 2.0-5.0


B) 0.01 -0.07


C) 0.2-0.5


D) 0.07-0.15

C) 0.2-0.5

When collecting a fecal sample:




A) It should be a grab sample preserved with copper sulfate/sulfamic acid


B) It should be a composite sample preserved with copper sulfate/sulfamic acid


C) It should be a grab sample preserved with sodium thiosulfate


D) It should be a composite sample preserved with sodium thiosulfate



C) It should be a grab sample preserved with sodium thiosulfate

Gaseous chlorine is approximately:




A) 2.5x heavier than air


B) 2.5x lighter than air


C) The same as air

A) 2.5x heavier than air

The population equivalent factor for BOD is:




A) 0.15lbs/day/BOD/person


B) 0.17lbs/day/BOD/person


C) 0.20lbs/day/BOD/person


D) 0.22lbs/day/BOD/person

B) 0.17lbs/day/BOD/person

How much oxygen is required to oxidize one lb of ammonia to nitrate?




A) 1.0lb


B) 3.0lb


C) 4.6lb


D) 6.4lb

C) 4.6lb

Which pump is the best for pumping chemicals?




A) Positive displacement


B) Centrifugal


C) Screw


D) Airlift

A) Positive displacement

At what temperature does the muffle furnace have to remain at in the determination of the volatile solids?




A) 103° C


B) 500° C


C) 550° C


D) 600° C

C) 550° C