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191 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
a good rule of thumb to follow when restraining animals for veterinary care is:
A) apply the maximum amount of restraint possible to ensure safety of all involved
B) Apply the minimum effective amount of restraint that will keep the animal and personnel safe
C) Always apply the same amount of restraint: that which is usually tolerated by a member of the specied being handled
D) never use ropes when restraining animals
B) apply the minimum effective amount of restraint that will keep the animal and personnel safe
the veterinarian and associated personnel are legally responsible for any injuries to the client while performing a veterinary procedure: true or false?
true
the ____, ____, and ____ will pin their ears back when upset or aggressive, while the ____ will prick its ears forward.
A) dog, cat, llama; horse
B) dog, horse, llama; cat
C) cat, dog, horse; llama
D) horse, llama, cat; dog
D) horse, llama, cat; dog
concerning the punishment of a dog by hanging it or shaking it by the scruff of the neck, which statement is most accurate?
A) this method of punishment is ineffective in dogs
B) this method of punishment should bever be used because of the risk of injury to the dog.
C) this method of punishment is particularly potent because it resembles the wat a dominant dog will demonstrate its control over a submissive one
D) this method of punishment should be used frequently when trying to win the trust of a submissive dog that is terrified of humans.`
C) this method of punishment is particularly potnet because it resembles the way a dominant dog will demonstrate its control over a submissive one.
An otherwise docile female animal is most likely to become aggressive toward her human handler when the handler:
A) feeds her in a new location
B) appears to be a threat to her suckling young
C) moves her to a new location
D) places a restraint device, such as a collor or halter, on her
B) appears to be a threat to her suckling young
which type of aggression rarely poses a risk to veterinary hospital personnel during their workday?
A) pain-induced aggression
B) predatory aggression
C) territorial aggression
D) dominance aggression
B) predatory aggression
the most commonly encountered type of attack in veterinary facilities is:
A) canine dominiance-aggression biting
B) equine dominance-aggression biting
C) female rabbit territorial-aggression biting
D) canine fear biting
D) canine fear biting
the most dangerous animal of all the species that veterinary personnel are asked to restrain is the:
A) dairy breed bull
B) adult, male rottweiler
C) thoroughbred stallion
D) adult, female python
A) dairy breed bull
A duck hunter brings "Duke", his intact, adult, male, 100-ob Labrador Retriever, in for a heartworm test. He has trained and worked closely with Duke since the dog was 6 weeks old. you take the otherwise docile dog back to the treatment room, where he suddenly begins to growl, glare, and resist restraint. he will not allow you to place a muzzle. what action will most likely result in the most rapid, safe, and successul sample collection?
A) return Duke to his owner and tell him to bring the dog back in a few days to try again
B) bring the hunter into the treatment room; Duke will probably calm down in the prescence of his owner and trainer
C) place Duke in a cage and try again in a couple of hours
D) resort to whatever technique will restrain Duke, be it a cable snare, choke rope, or sedation. This dog must be taught a lesson to make future visits manageable.
B) bring the hunter into the treatment room
horses display aggression by:
A) biting
B) head butting
C) kicking
D) A and C
D) biting and kicking (a and c)
a fight between two large pigs is usually handled by:
A) lassoing each pig and pulling them apart
B) shooting each pig with a dart gun loaded with a sedative
C) placing a solid panel of plywood between them
D) making a very load noice to scare the pigs so they seperate
C) placing a solid piece of plywood between them
the best way to approach a horse is:
A) quickly and directly from the front
B) slowly and directly from the front
C) quickly and from the front and left side
D) slowly and from the front and left side
D) slowly and from the front and left slide
a handler is less likely to be seriously injured by a kick if she stands vert close to (up against) a horse's hind quarters rather than 3 feet behind the horse. true or false?
true
you are standing alongside the withers of a stalled horse attempting to place a rope around its neck. the best action to take if the horse moves away from you is to:
A) yell "No!" and slap its neck quickly
B) let it move away, leave the stall, then try again
C) attempt to stay with the horse by moving along side and holding onto the mane
D) kick the horse in the belly
C) attempt to stay with the horse by moving along side and holding onto the mane
a foal is best restrained by:
A) placing one arm under the foal's neck and one hand grasping the base of the tail
B) placing both arms around the neck
C) placing a rope around its neck
D) picking it up off the ground
A) placing one arm under the foal's neck and one hand grasping the base of the tail
the position if a chain lead attached to a halter that will best control most horses without being too severe is:
A) over the poll (behind the ears)
B) under the jaw
C) over the nose
D) under the upper lip against the gums
C) over the nose
concerning tying a horsem whichs tatement is most accurate?
A) most of the time, it is necessart to tie a horse while performing a procedure
B) tie a horse to an object at its shoulder level or higher
C) tie the horse long; leave at least 3 feet of rope between the halter and the object to which it is ties
D) a tied horse that becomes frightened will tend to run forward into or over the object to which it is ties
B) tie a horse to an object at its shoulder level or higher
under any circumstances, a handler should stand on the same side of the horse as the veterinarian working on the horse: true or false?
true
which method is acceptable for the restraint of a haltered horwse that will not stand still for a minor procedure or examination?
A) grabbing the skin of the neck just cranial to the shoulder and rolling it around the clenched fist
B) twisting the horse's ear
C) tying up one leg up off the ground
D) casting the horse
A) grabbing the skin of the neck just cranial to the shoulder and rolling it around the clenched fist
when a lifted foreleg if used as a means of equine restraint, the person holding the leg should:
A) face the rear of the horse
B) face the front of the horse
C) place the hoof between this thighs just above the knees to free both hands
D) none of the abocel a lifted forelef is not a safe means of restraining a horse
B) face the front of the horse
the first thing that should be done after leading a horse into the stocks is:
A) Place hobbles on the rear legs
B) tie the horse's lead rope to the stocks with a slipknot
C) remove the horse's halter
D) close and latch the rear gate
D) close and latch the rear gate
before performing an obstetric procedure, the clinician wraps a mare's tail up in gauze, ties a quick-release know just below the fleshy portion, and runs off to answer her cellular phone. she calls to you to tie the tail up out of the way while she's gone. you should:
A) tie the free end of the gauze to the stocks with the tail pulled high above level of the horse's rump
B) tie the free end of the gauze to the stocks with the tail hanging low and just lateral to its normal position
C) tie the free end of the gauze around the neck of the horse
D) any of the above are acceptable methods of tying the tail
C) tie the free end of the gauze around the neck of the horse
Which statement regarding chemical restraint of the equine is true?
A) a newly anesthetized cold should be slapped prior to beginning castration to ensure he won't be aroused by the initial incision
B) it is safe to stand close to a tranquilized horse that tends to kick when not sedated.
C) chemical restrain is used only as a last resort in the horse
D) chemical restraint is used primarily to facilitate safe casting of the horse
A) a newly anesthetized colt should be slapped prior to beginning castration to ensure he won't be aroused by the initial incision
a cow in a narrow chute will avoid a human, so generally it is safe to move in and about chutes when driving cattle. true or false?
false
which technique can be used to move cattle down an alleyway?
A) "tailing"
B) cattle prods
C) wiffle paddles
D) all of the above
D) all of the above
a ____ is often found at the end of a series of pens and alleyways and is the final capture and restraining device for cattle.
A) stocks
B) stall
C) corral
D) chute and head catch
D) chute and head catch
generally, the greatest danger to a handler working in close proximity to a ties cow's head is:
A) getting bitten
B) receiving a blow on the legs from the cow striking out with its foreleg
C) getting hit in the face when the animal throws its head
D) getting run over by the animal
C) getting hit in the face when the animal throws its head
a cow restrained by a halter tied to a fence becomes fidgety during an ear examination. the clinician asks you to "jack" her tail, i.e.,
A) grasp one third of the way down the tail and push it straight up and forward until it is vertical
B) grasp one third of the way down the tail and give three quick jerks downward.
C) pinch the very tip of the fleshy part of the tail with a haemostatic forceps until she stands still
D) wrap the tail in brown gauze and tie the free end to her halter
A) grasp one third of the way down the tail and push it straight up and forward until it is vertical
which species, when made very nervous or excited, is most prone to panicking and injuring itself as it attempts to escape an enclosure?
A) dog
B) horse
C) cat
D)cow
B) horse
while horses generally kick straight to the rear, cattle usually kick forward and to the side with a hooking action. true or false?
true
the most prudent way to capture a mohair goat is:
A) by roping it
B) by grabbing its wool
C) with a shephard's hook
D) by grabbing its tail
C) with a shephards hook
_____ are essential for the safety of veterinary personnel restraining pigs
A) heavy leather gloves
B) durable work boots
C) head plastic forearm covers
D) ear plugs
D) ear plugs
the first step to take when attempting to handle a large, aggressive dog is:
A) put on heavy leather gloves and grab the scruff of the neck
B) place a muzzle
C) catch the dog by the neck using a snare or a lead rope with a slip knot
D) throw a towel over the dog's head
C) catch the dog by the neck using a snare or a lead rope with a slip knot
which species can usually be restraine for minor procedures by one handler setting it up on its rump?
A) goat
B) sheep
C) cat
D) rabbit
B) sheep
if a dog is too large for you to life onto the examination table by yourself, you should:
A) leave him on the floor to be examines there
B) get help so two of you can lift him
C) try to get him to jump up onto the table
D) either A or B
D) either A or B
you are restraining a Basenji dog for cephalic venipuncture. when the person performing the injection has placed the needle and is ready to inject the drug, he says to you, "okay." he is most likely asking you to:
A) let go of the dog's foreleg
B) lift the thumb that is occluding the vein
C) talk softly to the dog
D) gently push down to encourage him to lie down
B) lift the thumb that is occluding the vein
which statement about muzzling dogs is true?
A) brachycephalic breeds should not be muzzled with gauze due to its potential interference with their breathing.
B) gauze rool bandage should not be used as a muzzling material because it can easily break
C) some dogs' mouths can be restrained manually with the handler's hands.
D) altho commercially made muzzles are available , they should not be used because they seldom fit properly.
C) some dogs' mouths can be restrained manually with the handler's hands
heavy tranquilization is the msot foolproof method of keeping a snappy dog from biting and an agitated horse from kicking. true or false?
false
one of the most effective ways to capture and restrain an agitated cat is to:
A) gently grasp both front legs
B) place one hand over its back and one hand under its belly
C) grasp the scruff of the neck
D) talk softly to the cat
C) grasp the scruff of the neck
the feline's first line of defense is its teeth. true or false?
false
above all else, the handling of exotic species must be performed?
A) rapidly and aggressivley
B) gently and tentatively
C) slowly and carefully
D) efficiently and confidently
D) efficiently and confidently
which species is most likely to seek out a hiding place if it escapes its enclosure?
A) cat
B) dog
C) horse
D) bird
A) cat
which statemnt about bird capture and restraint is true?
A) in raptors (birds of prey), the greatest source of injury to the handler is the beak
B) always wear leather gloves when handling psittacines (parrots and parakeets).
C) pressure with the hand or fingers on the breast of a passerine (songbird) can cause suffocation
D) the psittacine bird's primary weapon is its claws
C) pressure with the hand or finders on the breast of a passerine (songbird) can cause suffocation
which statement concerning rabbit restraint is most accurate?
A) a rabbit being carried with its hind legs unrestrained can kick out with enough force to permanently damage its spinal cord
B) rabbits, like ferrets, should be hung by the scruff of the neck during restraint for a SQ injection
C) altho infrequently performed, carrying the patient by the ears is an effective way to subdue an aggressive rabbit
D) rabbits prefer slick surfaces, so the stainless steel examining table is an ideal surgace on which to place them
A) a rabbit being carried with its hind legs unrestrained can kick out with enough force to permanently damage its spinal cord
most dogs and cats don't need tranquilizers when shipped on airlines, because they feel secure in their shipping containers if accustomed to them before the trip. true or false?
true
a "twitch" is:
A) the large piece of lywood used to restrain pigs
B) the ring sometimes placed in the nasal septum of a bull
C) a nerve-stimulating restraint device often applied to the upper lip of horses
D) wat happens to your left eyebrow jsut prior to taking an exam
C) a nerve-stimulating restraint device often applied to the upper lip of horses
Buccal:
A) is a term that refers to a metal fitting used to attach two straps of leather together
B) is a term that means "directed toward the cheek"
C) is a term applied to a horse that escaped from stocks frequnetly
D) was the name of Roy Roger's famous mount
B) is a term that means "directed toward the cheek"
when you are performing venipuncture, always use the ___ needle possible for the vein chosen and direct the bevel ___.
A) largest; upward
B) smallest; upward
C) largest; downward
D) smallest; downward
A) largest; upward
why is the skin wiped with 70% isopropyl alcohol before venipuncture?
A) it removes some superficial skin contaminants
B) it causes vasodilation
C) it improves visualization of the vein
D) all of the above
D) all of the above
you are drawing blood from a cat's medial saphenous vein using a 23-gauge needle on a 3-mL syringe. The blood begins to fill the syringe then stops flowing. One likely cause of this problem is:
A) the syringe is too large
B) you have applied too much suction, causing the vein to collapse
C) the needle is too large
D) the needle is too small
B) you have applied too much suction, causing the vein to collapse
the easiest vein from which to draw 10 ml of blood from an 11 kg dog is the:
A) lateral saphenous vein
B) cephalic vein
C) jugular vein
D) marginal ear vein
C) jugular
When might the lateral saphenous bein be preferred to the cephalic vein for canine venipuncture?
A) when an animal is especially sensitive to pain
B) when a dog is very aggressive
C) when a larger amount of blood is needed
D) all of the above
B)when a dog is very aggressive
how does arterial blood collection differ from venous blood collection?
A) it is not necessary to occlude an artery to obtain a blood sample
B) venous blood will rapidly fill a syringe in a pulsatile manner, while arterial blood must be aspirated using manual pressure on the plunger
C) for all venous blood samples, "heparinize" the syringe, and promptly cap the needle with a rubber stopper.
D) veins are much more likely to form hematomas, so they require firm digital pressure for several minutes after phlebotomy
A) it is necessary to occlude an artery to obtain a blood sample
which urine-collection technique will produce a sample suitable for bacterial culture?
A) urinary catheterization
B) cystocentesis
C) manual bladder expression
D) A and B
D) A and B
if attempting to manually express urine by bladder compression and moderate pressure does not induce urination:
A)exert finger pressure until the pet urinates
B) use an alternate method of emptying the bladder
C) repeat the technique every hour until successful
D) place the animal in alternate position and repeat the technique until successful
B) use an alternate method of emptying the bladder
which statement concerning the placement and maintenance of an indwelling urinary catheter is most accurate?
A) urinary catheters should be inspected for occlusion (blockage) and adequate urine production every 4 to 6 hours
B) twice daily, gently cleanse the prepuce or vulva with a warm antimicrobial solution, rinse with water, and then dry.
C) a normal, healthy patient will produce 1 to 2 ml urine/kg body weight/hr.
D) all of the above
D) all the above
a canine urinary catheter is advanced:
A) until resistance is met at the os penis
B) until resistance is met at the urethral flexure around the pelvis
C) 1 cm past the point where urine initially flows
D) 5 cm past the pointwhere urine initially flows in dogs less than 20 kg and 10 cm past this point in dogs weighing 20 kg or more
C) 1 cm past the point where urine initially flows
always prevent contact of the catheter with non-sterile items when placing urinary catheters: true or false?
true
dogs usually require anesthesia or heavy sedation for urinary catheterization, while cats can be catheterized fullty awake: true or false?
false
to perform cystocentesis on a dog or cat, restrain the animal while it is:
A) standing
B) in lateral recumbency
C) in dorsal recumbency
D) in the position preferred by the person collecting the urine
D) in the position preferred by the person collecting the urine
if blood flows into the syringe when cystocentesis is attempted:
A) continue filling the syringe with as much sample as can be collected
B) reposition the needle without withdrawing it from the abdominal cavity and re-aspirate
C) withdraw the needle immediatelty and try again witha clean syringe and needle.
D) withdraw the needle immediately and use an alternative method of urine collection
C) withdraw the needle immediately and try again with a clean syringe and needle
fecal samples intended for parasitology examination are usually placed in ____ and can be refrigerated for up to ____.
A) aluminum foil; 3 days
B) aluminum foil; 5 days
C) a sealed, air-tight plastic bag; 3 days
D) a paper towel; 5 days
C) a sealed, air-tight plastic bag
drawing fluids from the abdominal cavity
abdominocentesis
obtaining fluid samples from the lower respiratory tract (bronchi and lungs) for culture or cytology (microscopic examination of the cells present)
transtracheal wash
drawing gas and fluid froma distended stomach in animals with gastric dilation
gastrocentesis
removing fluid or air from the pleural space
thoracocentesis
the viscosity (thickness) of a joint-filled sample is determined by:
A) stretching a fluid drop betwen the thumb and forfinger
B) pouring 1 ml of sample onto a slide and recording how fast it spreads to the edges
C) shaking the sample and recording how much foam develops
D) recording the time it takes to expel 1 ml of sample through a 25-guage needle out of a 6-ml syringe
A) stetching a fluid drop between the thumb and forefinger
preventing serious complications when obtaining any bone marrow aspirate requires:
A) exact site selection
B) precise needle length
C) strict sterile and aseptic (noncontaminating) technique
D) not obtaining more than 5 ml of bone marrow
C) strict sterile and aseptic (noncontaminating) technique
how are bone mattow samples prepared for examination?
A) centrifuge, pipette blood off the sample, and submit remaining bone marrow to a reference lab in a sterile tube
B) centrifuge and submit the entire sample in a sterile tube
C) place a drop of sample on a microscope slide, lie the slide flat, allow to air dry, stain, and submit
D) place a drop of sample on a slide, tilt the slide to separate blood from marrow, remove blood, make two "pull" slides of the remaining bone marrow sample, and submit
D) place a drop of sample on a slide, tilt the slide to separate blood from marrow, remove blood, make two "pull" slides of the remaining bone marrow sample, and submit
For which technique is it acceptable to carefully redirect or move the needle without removing it from the body cavity (select all that apply)
A) cystocentesis
B) fine needle aspiration
C) bone marrow aspiration
D) thoracocentesis
B, C, and D (fine needle aspiration, bone marrow aspiration, and thoracocentesis)
when you are performing a transtracheal wash, it is important to remove at least 90% of the fluid infused to prevent "drowning" of the animal: true or flase?
false
for which technique is it only necessary to wipe the area with alcohol before performing the procedure? (slect all the apply)
A) bone marrow aspiration
B) fine needle aspiration
C) arthrocentesis
D) IV catheter placement
B) fine needle aspiration
A(n) ____ catheter is used to infuse small volumes of fluid into a vein and is usually in place for only a few minites
A) butterfly
B) over-the-needle
C) through-the-needle
D) guide-wire
A) butterfly
why is an IV catheter flushed with heparinized saline after placement?
A) to ensure proper placement in the vein
B) to help prevent blood from clotting in the catheter
C) to help prevent phlebitis (vein inflammation)
D) A and B
D) A and B
what must be absolutely avoided when placing a long through-the-needle catheter into a jugular vein?
A) aspiration of blood back through the catheter once it is placed
B) repositioning the anima;s head once the catheter is placed
C) backing the catheter out through the introducer needle during placement
D) securing the catheter to the neck after placement
C) backing the catheter out through the introducer needle during placement
medications and fluids, with the exception of small boluses of heparinized saline, are never administered via an arterial catheter. true or false?
true
what must be absolutely avoided when placing a long through-the-needle catheter into a jugular vein?
A) aspiration of blood back thru the catheter once it is placed
B) repositioning the animal's head once the catheter is placed
C) backing the catheter out through the introducer needle during placement
D) securing the catheter to the neck after placement
C) backing the catheter out through the introducer needle during placement
medications and fluids, with the exception of small boluses of heparinized saline, are never administered via an arterial catheter. true or false?
true
if pain, redness, swelling, and discharge are noted at an IV catheter site:
A) rewrap the catheter more loosely
B) tell the vet, remove the catheter and save it in a sterile location for possible bacterial culture, and place a new one in a different vein
C) flush the catheter with heparinized saline, place antibiotic ointment over the site of entry into the skin, and rewrap with clean gauze and tape
D) remove the catheter, rescrub the limb, and place a smaller-diameter catheter more proximally in the same vein
B) tell the vet, remove the catheter and save it in a sterile location for possible bacterial culture, and palce a new one in a different vein
in addition to during placement, when is an IV catheter flushed with heparinized saline?
A) before administering IV meds
B) after administering IV meds
C) every 4 to 6 hours in a catheter not recieving a continuous infusion of fluids
D) all the above
D) all the above
vocalization and signs of discomfort by a patient receiving meds IV are:
A) normal, as most IV meds are slightly irritating
B) abnormal, and injection should be immediately stopped if they occur
C) abnormal and may indicate leakage of the drug
D) B adn C
D) B and C
concerning SQ administration of fluids and meds, which statement is most accurate?
A) aspiration to check for needle placement into a vein is not necessary before administering agents SQ.
B) the ideal location for SQ administration in dogs and cats is between the shoulder blades
C) if multiple vaccinations or medications are to be administered, space injection sites several centimeters apart
D) all of the above
C) if multiple vaccinations or meds are to be administered, space injection sites several cm apart
to avoid penetrating the sciatic nerve during IM injection into the hend leg of a dog, cat, or goat, place the needle:
A) proximal to the femur into the gluteal muscles and direct it caudally
B) just causal to the midshaft of the femur bone and direct it cranial
C) just caudal to the midshaft of the femur bone and direct it caudally
D) into the lateral semimembranosus or semitendinosus muscles and direct it caudally
D) into the lateral semimembranosus or semitendinosus musckes and direct it caudally
fluid administration into a tiny kitty
intraosseous
administration of some vaccines
intranasal
administration of emergency cardiopulmonary resuscitative drugs
intratracheal and intraosseous
to place an intraosseous catheter into the femur, the ___is shaved and aseptically prepared
A) hip region
B) lateral midfemur region
C) medial midfemur region
D) lateral stifle region
A) hip region
what helps prevent the introduction of skin bacteria into the bone during intraosseous-catheter placement?
A) a careful surgical scrub of the area to be penetrated
B) a stab incision made thru the skin with a scalpel before catheter penetration
C) avoiding the use of a bone that has been penetrated multiple times in an attempt to place a catheter
D) A and B
D) A and B
if you must administer an ophthalmic solution and ointment to the same patient, always administer the ointment first then wait 3 minutes before applying the solution. true or false?
false
always wear gloves when administering medication
A) into the eyes
B) into the ears
C) that will be absorbed into the skin (transdermally)
D) A and B
C) that will be absorbed into the skin (transdermally)
if you aspirate food from a gastrotomy tube before feeding, you should:
A) consult the vet
B) administer 5 ml of water before and after feeding
C) withdraw as much of the previous meal as possible from the stomach before feeding
D) feed as scheduled, as this is a normal and expected finding
A) consult the vet
how might you administer an antiseizure drug to a convulsing animal in which u are unable to access a vein?
A) intrarectally
B) intranasally
C) intraperitoneally
D) A and B
oral medications are best adminstered to cats by:
A) hiding the pill in a bit of canned food
B) pulverizing the pill and mixing it with a bit of canned food
C) placing the pill at the back of the cat's pharynx and holding the mouth closed until the patient swallows
D) A or B
C) placing the pill at the back of the cat's pharynx and holding the mouth closed until the patient swallows
in a feline, how is a nasogastric tube best secured?
A) glue the tape to the skin just lateral to the nostril
B) tape the tube to shaved skin just lateral to the nostril, ont he bridge of the nose, and onto the forehead.
C) glue or suture the tube to the skin just lateral to the nostril, on the bridge of the nose, and on the forehead
D) none of the above; a feline nasogastric tube is not secured, becuase it is only used for one-time administration
C) glue or suture the tube to the skin just lateral to the nostril, on the bridge of the nose, and on the forehead
which statement concerning pharyngostomy (PG) versus eosphagostomy (EG) tube is most accurate?
A) red rubber feeding tubes or silicone tubes are used for pegs, while only silicone tubes are used for EGs
B) PGs and EGs are secured in the same manner
C) general anesthesia (rendering the animal unconscious) is only required for placement of EGs
D) a commercially made applicator may be necessary to perform a PG in a very large dog
B) PGs and EGs are secured in the same manner
from where is blood routinely collected in cattle?
A) jugular vein
B) ventral coccygeal vein
C) facial vein
D) A and B
D) A and B
what side is commonly used to collect blood from pigs?
A) left anterior vena cava
B) right anterior vena cava
C) left or right anterior vena cava
D) ventral coccygeal vein
B) right anterior vena cava
the transverse facial artery should NOT be used for arterial sample collection in the conscious horse because of the painful nature of a needle sticl at this site. true or false?
false
ideally, the ___ portion of a voided urine sample is collected.
A) initial
B) midstream
C) final
D) A and B
B) midstream
how is urine collected from a cow? (select all that apply)
A) stimulate her to void urine by stroking the perineal area
B) stimulate her to void urine by opening and closing the vulvar lips
C) stimulate her to void urine by obstructing her nost and lips until she struggles
D) place a urinary catheter
E) perform cystocentesis
A, B, and C
you are attempting to obtain urine from a mare by catheterization. you repeatedly insert the catheter the recommended 10 cm into the vaginal canal but are not entering the urethra. what may be the problem?
A) you are sliding the catheter over the transverse fold, which overlies the urethral orifice
B) you need to durect the catheter along the dorsal vaginal vault to enter the urethra
C) you did not properly lubricate the catheter
D) you are entering the cervix, which lies caudal to the urethral orifice
A) you are sliding the catheter over the transverse fold, which overlies the urethral orifice
in the private-practive setting, bovine rumen fluid is commonly collected by:
A) rumen trocahrization
B) abdominocentesis
C) orogastic intubation
D) esophagostomy tube
C) orogastric intubation
in addition to an 18-gauge, 3.75cm needle, what can be used to perform abdominocentesis in large animals?
A) teat cannula
B) spinal needle
C) stainless steel bitch urinary catheter
D) all of the above
D) all the above
if fluid does not flow from the needle during large-animal abdominocentesis:
A) attach a syringe and apply negative pressure
B) insert another needle several centemiters away from the initial one
C) try another area
D) all of the above
D) all the above
what structure must the technician take care to avoid during equine thoracocentesis?
A) the mediastinum, found just ventral to the costochondral junction of the right sixth and seventh ribs
B) the caudal vena cava, found at the dorsal aspect of the thoracic cavity
C) the lateral thoracic vein, coursing SQly over the ventral thorax
D) A and C
C) the lateral thoracic vein, coursing subcutaneously over the ventral thorax
for which procedure is it necessary to anesthetize the area by injecting 1 to 2 ml of 2% lidocaine before sampline?
A) cystocentesis
B) transtracheal wash
C) placement of an IV catheter in a feline cephalic vein
D) obtaining blood from an equine carotid artery
B) transtracheal wash
proper placement of a needle or catheter into a vein is best confirmed by:
A) feeling it "pop" thru the vein's wall
B) a mild pain reaction by the patient
C) visualizing the needle going into the vein
D) blood flowing into the syringe hub or out of the catheter
D) blood flowing into the syringe hub or out of the catheter
how is intraarterial injection avoided when administering meds into the jugular vein in large animals?
A) by using the right jugular vein only
B) by using the proximal one third of the neck only
C) by placing the needle first without the syringe attached and observing the nature oif the blood emerging
D) all the above
C) by placing the needle first without the syringe attached and observing the nature of the blood emerging
IV catheters are routinely placed in the ___ vein in hogs
A) jugular
B) auricular
C) orbital
D) brachiocephalic
B) auricular
concerning IM injections, which statment is most accurate?
A) it is critical to aspirate before injecting meds IM to ensure the needle is not in a vein
B) when administering meds into the semi-membranosus/semitendinosis muscles of horses, inject the leg that is not on the same side that you are standing
C) IM injections are best made into the dorsal gluteal muscles in bovines
D) in large animals, the area to be injected can be struck several times before needle insertion to cause vasodilation, which enhances medication absorption
A) it is critical to aspirate before injecting meds IM to ensure the needle is not in a vein
"Little Bo", the clinic's resident sheep, is due for her IM tetanus vaccine. where can u administer this to her?
A) semimembranosus/semitendinosus muscles
B) neck muscles
C) triceps muscles
D) all the above
D) all the above
when administering IM injections to pigs, it is important to use a needle at least ___ long to avoid an intrafat injection.
A) 1.25 cm
B) 2.50 cm
C) 3.75 cm
D) 7.50 cm
C) 3.75 cm
to prevent pharyngeal or esophageal trauma when using a balling gun to administer tablets:
A) place it as deeply into the mouth as possible, until resistance is met
B) forcefully eject the tablet
C) elevate the patinet's muzzle during administration
D) place the tip gently over the base of the tongue, not too deepy in the mouth
D) place the tip gently over the base of the tongue, not too deeply in the mouth
rehydration of vomiting baby pigs is usually accomplished with ___ fluids
A) oral
B) SQ
C) IV
D) intraperitoneal
D) intraperitoneal
what precaution will help avoid aspiration pneumonia (due to gastric or rumen fluid entering the lungs) when performing nasogastric or orogastric intubation?
A) using a tube of sufficiently small diameter to fit in the ventral nasal meatus
B) kinking the tube during removal
C) raising the animal's head before and during removal
D) removing the entire tube in a single, slow sweep
B) kinking the tube during removal
concerning the administration of oral medications to horses, which statement is most accurate?
A) liquid or paste medications can often be administered with a syringe, whose tip is placed into the interdental space at the side of the mouth and contents empties onto the base of the tongue
B) after medicating a horse orally with a syringe, allow it to drink water immediately to help wash the medication down before the animal spits it out
C) tablets are usually administered to horses, as to ruminants, with a balling gun
D) all of the above
A) liquid or paste medications can often be administered with a syringe, whose tip is placed into the interdental space at the side of the mouth and contents empties onto the base of the tongue
when aseptically preparing and infusing medication into mammary glands, clean the ___ side of the udder first and infuse the ___ side first.
A) far; near
B) far; far
C) near; far
D) near; near
A) far; near
a transtracheal wash is performed and the veterinarian leaves the trachea and skin unsutured. how can the veterinary technician best manage the site?
A) do not clean or bandage it
B) leave it unbandaged and clean the skin surgace every 4 to 6 hrsfor the first 3 days
C) leave it unbandaged and flush inside the would with a dilute antiseptic solutin over 12 hrs for the first 3 days
D) cover the area with antibiotic-coated sterile gauze and a bandage for 24 hrs.
D) cover the area with antibiotic-coated sterile gauze and a bandage for 24 hrs
due to anatomic obstacles, ___ males are NOT routinely catheterized to obtain uring.
A) equne
B) ovine and caprine
C) canine
D) feline
B) ovine and caprine
the "three-syringe technique" is used to:
A) obtain blood samples from very long catheters
B) obtain a urine sample from a urinary catheter
C) administer an irritating substance IM
D) perform thoracocentesis
A) obtaining blood samples from very long catheters
the marginal ear vein may be used to obtain blood samples for all of the following procedure except to:
A) sample for the erythoparasite Babesia spp.
B) sample for the erythroparasite Hemobartonella spp.
C) measure blood glucose
D) perform a CBC and serum chemistry panel
D) perform a CBC and serum chemistry panel
FLASHBACK is a term most often applied to:
A) urine entering a urinary catheter during catheter placement
B) blood entering a needle hub or catheter during IV procedures
C) fluid flowing out of a nasogastric tube spontaneously
D) a vet tech's memory of a procedure learned in school that is recalled while at her first job
B) blood entering a needle hub or catheter during IV procedures
the term CLEAN STICK is applied to:
A) an IM injection in which no blood is aspirated before medication administration
B) an IM injection in a food animal that does not reduce the value of the carcass
C) a vessel being punctured only once during an IV procedure
D) a tree branch before you and your dog play fetch with it
C) a vessel being punctured only once during an IV procedure
to collect blood from the cephalic vein of a dog or cat, you should place the animal in:
A) a sitting position and lift the head to expose the ventral aspect of the neck
B) lateral recumbency and steady the uppermost back leg
C) a sitting position and steady a front leg
D) lateral recumbency and lift the uppermost rear leg out of the way to expose the medial surface of the other rear leg
C) a sitting position and steady a front leg
in prolonged attempts to capture a sheep or pig in a paddock or pen, it is extremely easy to cause:
A) an abortion
B) hyperthermia
C) a limb fracture
D) death from shock
B) hyperthermia
to protect yourself if attacked by a dog, you should:
A) run
B) kick or hit at it
C) roll yourself into a ball and protect your neck and face with your arms
D) stand still and call for help
C) roll yourself into a ball and protect your neck and face with your arms
which of these is not a warning sign of an angry cat:
A) hissing and spitting
B) rubbing up against the cage bars
C) ears lowered
D) crouching low with tail lashing
B) rubbing up against the cage bars
rats can be safely and humanely picked up by:
A) the scruff of the neck
B) grasping them over the shoulders
C) grasping the tail
D) grasping the back leg
B) grasping them over the shoulders
which of the following criteria cannot be modified to affect an animal's behavior:
A) heritability
B) physical condition
C) environment
D) training
A) heritability
a family wishes to adopt a 4 month old puppy from a breeder. which question is least significant:
A) what is the puppy's choice of substance for elimination
B) has the puppy been socialized with other dogs and different people
C) has the puppy been exposed to novel environment
D) do the parents show signs of dominany aggressice behavior
A) what is the puppy's choice of substance for elimination
a 1 yr old neutered male car attacked his neutered litter mate after watching a strange cat thru the window. this is an example of:
A) intermale aggression
B) territorial aggression
C) redirected aggression
D) dominance aggression
C) redirected aggression
a 5 yr old spayed dog suddenly starts to urinate on the carpet overnight. the first step an owner should take is to:
A) punish the dog
B) confine the dog overnight
C) have the dog examined by a vet
D) enroll the dog in obedience class
C) have the dog examined by a vet
a 2 yr old dog has developed an intense fear of the vacuum cleaner. which behavior modification technique would most likely be successful:
A) punishment
B) counterconditioning & desensitization
C) confinement
D) drug therapy - tranquilize the dog
B) counterconditioning and desensitization
phenothiazine tranquilizers are contradicted in an animal with:
A) diabetes
B) epilepsy
C) glaucoma
D) hyperthyroidism
B) epilepsy
in canine and felines, all deciduous teeth are normally shed by:
A) 2-3 months of age
B) 4-5 months of age
C) 6-8 months of age
D) 9-12 months of age
C) 6-8 months of age
an osteosarcoma is a:
A) benign tumor originating in cartilage
B) benign tumor originating in bone
C) malignant tumor originating in bone
D) malignant tumor originating in cartilage
C) malignant tumor originating in bone
urine filtration occurs in which portion of the nephron?
A) proximal tubule
B) glomerulus
C) collecting tubule
D) distal tubule
B) glomerulus
in the bitch, total cornification of the epithelial cells on a vaginal smear indicates:
A) anestrus
B) metestrus
C) estrus
D) proestrus
C) estrus
a lowered prothrombin level can be caused by a dietary deficiency, by impaired synthesis, or by impaired absorption of vitamin:
A) A
B) D
C) E
D) K
D) K
a veterinarian treated a cow for milk fever last evening, but this morning the owner calls and informs the technician that the cow is down again. the veterinarian is too sick to work today. the technician should:
A) go to the farm and treat the cow, since the condition was previously diagnosed
B) supply medication for the owner to administer to the cow
C) obtain authorization from the vet to go to the farm and treat the cow
D) inform the owner that the vet is sick and offer to try to obtain a referral
D) inform the owner that the vet is sick and offer to try to obtain a referral
a correct statement regarding halothane and methoxyflurane is that these anesthetics:
A) cross the placenta very slowly
B) have no affect on the fetus
C) do not cross the placenta
D) cross the placenta rapidly
D) cross the placenta rapidly
a correct statement regarding a Gram stain is that such a stain is a :
A) specific analysis on specific morphology
B) chromatic differential test of microorganisms
C) test used to differentiate viability
D) differential test of colony characteristics
B) chromatic differential test of microorganisms
which of the following is the best reversible agent for inducing anesthesia in sight hounds?
A) pentobarbital
B) oxymorphone
C) phenobarbital
D) pentothal
B) oxymorphone
which of the following tissues is MOST radiation-sensitive?
A) bone cortex
B) cartilage
C) muscle
D) bone marrow
D) bone marrow
which of the following is an example of a water-soluble vitamin?
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin B2
C) vitamin E
D) vitamin K
B) vitamin B2
when used as a preanesthetic, atropine will:
A) provide sufficient anesthesia for minor surgery
B) frequently produce vomiting
C) inhibit excessive salivary secretion
D) cause the pupils to constrict
C) inhibit excessive salivary secretion
the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi is responsible for which of the following diseases?
A) Distemper
B) Pinkeye
C) Lyme
D) Panleukopenia
C) Lyme
the soda lime in inhalation anesthesia equipment is used to absorb:
A) nitrous oxide
B) nitrogen
C) carbon dioxide
D) the anesthetic
C) carbon dioxide
from cranial to caudal, the correct order for the segments of the spine in animals is:
A) coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical
B) cervical, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, coccygeal
C) cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal
D) coccygeal, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, cervical
C) cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal
the Coggins test is used to diagnose:
A) listeriosis
B) equine encephalomyelitis
C) equine infectious anemia
D) brucellosis
C) equine infectious anemia
a disinfectant that should be used with caution around cats is:
A) zephiran
B) phenol
C) nolvasan
D) alcohol
B) phenol
an emasculator is used in:
A) orthopedics
B) dentistry
C) cardiology
D) castration
D) castration
a correct statement regarding an onychectomy is that it involves the:
A) excision of a cyst
B) amputation of the tail
C) surgical removal of the nail
D) excision of the testicles
C) surgical removal of the nail
a correct statement about the proper storage of whole blood is that is:
A) can be frozen for up to 1 yr
B) can be stored at 39.2F - 50 F
C) should be stored above 122F (50C) for up to 3 weeks
D) does not need refrigeration for the first week of storage
B) can be stored at 39.2F - 50 F (4 C - 10 C) for up to 3 weeks
in which of the following types of fracture would skin be towen, and bone and SQ tissue be exposed?
A) impacted
B) greenstick
C) compound
D) comminuted
C) compound
when using a dip on a dog to treat mange, you MUST:
A) rinse the dog thoroughly following application of the dip solution
B) place protective ointment in the dog's eyes first
C) be sure that the dog has not been bathed for at least 1 week
D) be careful that no dip solution wets the dog's face
B) place protective ointment in the dog's eyes first
an otoscope is an instrument primarily used for examining the:
A) rectum
B) throat
C) ears
D) eyes
C) ears
which of the following dog breeds is classified as brachycephalic?
A) doberman pinscher
B) springer spaniel
C) chihuahua
D) pekingese
D) pekingese
which patient information should be included on the laboratory request form when ordering a blood culture:
A) has taken monthly heartworm preventative for 1 yr
B) has a 3-yr history of a chronic skin dz
C) consumed a large meal 8 hrs before the specimen was taken
D) recieved penicillin 12 hrs before the specimen was taken
D) recieved penicillin 12 hrs before the specimen was taken
the MOST IMPORTANT reason for polishing the teeth after ultrasonic scaling is to:
A) prevent halitosis
B) improve the appearance of the teeth
C) creat smooth surfaces to prevent accumulation
D) facilitate fluoride application for prevention of dental caries
C) create smooth surfaces to prevent accumulation
the parasite Anaplasma marginale invades the:
A) WBCs in cattle
B) RBCs in horses
C) WBCs in horses
D) RBCs in cattle
D) RBCs in cattle
a general-purpose stan, such as new methylene blue is useful for:
A) deterimining the biochemical characteristics of an organism
B) studying the morphology of an organism
C) testing an organisms affinity for a stain
D) identifying Gram-positive organisms
B) studying the morphology of an organism
unused media intended for microbiology purposes should be stored:
A) in the refrigerator
B) in the freezer
C) at room temperature
D) at body temperature
A) in the refrigerator
Eimeria stiedai is associated with:
A) hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits
B) cecal coccidiosis in chickens
C) renal coccidiosis in geese
D) intestinal coccidiosis in dogs
A) hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits
the type of wound healing in which granulation tissue forms, filling the defect, is known as:
A) first intention
B) second intention
C) third intention
D) fourth intention
B) second intention
A dog that weighs 30lb (13.6kg) has had medication prescribed at a dosage of 0.01 mg/lb (0.022mg/kg). the medication is available only in tablets that contain 0.3mg each. for one dose, how many tablets should the dog recieve?
A) 1/4
B) 1/2
C) 1
D) 1-1/2
C) 1
in cases of organophosphate poisioning, which of the following is a commonly used antagonist?
A) dexamethasone
B) disophenol
C) doxapram
D) atropine
D) atropine
the penetrating power of an Xray is controlled by the:
A) kilovoltage
B) low-energy transofrmer
C) milliampere-seconds
D) milliamperage
A) kilovoltage
a correct statement regarding doxapram hydrochloride (Dopram-V) is that it is a:
A) local anesthetic
B) narcotic antagonist
C) cardiac depressant
D) respiratory stimulant
D) respiratory stimulant
which of the following parasites is MOST LIKELY to cause eye damage to a human who becomes infected?
A) A Toxocara canis larva
B) A sarcoptes scabiei mite
C) an Ancylostoma caninum larva
D) A cheyletiella parasitivorax mite
A) a Toxocara canis larva
when the albumin value is subtracted from the total protein value, the remainder represents the concentration of:
A) bilirubin
B) phorphorus
C) globulin
D) glucose
C) globulin
which of the following is a respiratory stimulant?
A) Naloxone
B) sodium bicarbonate
C) Xylazine
D) Doxapram
D) Doxapram
Anticholinergic drugs DECREASE all of the following EXCEPT:
A) GI motility
B) salivation
C) pain
D) vagus-induced bradycardia
C) pain
which of the following methods would be an initial measure in providing first aid for epistaxis?
A) application of ice packs to the nasal passages
B) injection with vitamin K
C) administration of a tranquilizer
D) application of a pressure bandage to the affected area
A) application of ice packs to the nasal passages
treatment instructuons on a hospitalized dog read: "Administer chloramphenicol 500 mg BID PO." to comply with these instructions, the treatment is correctly interpreted as:
A) 250 mg twice a day by mouth
B) 250 mg three times a day in food
C) 500 mg three times a day in food
D) 500 mg twice a day by mouth
D) 500 mg twice a day by mouth
if an error is made on a medical record, the proper method for correcting the mistake is to:
A) white it out with correction fluid
B) draw a single line thru it and initial the correction
C) erase it
D) scratch it out so it cannot be read
B) draw a single line thru it and initial the correction
which of the following is commonly used for infiltration and epidural anesthesia?
A) proparacaine
B) lidocaine
C) pentobarbital
D) sodium pentothal
B) lidocaine
a bovine can be made recumbent by exerting pressure on muscles and nerves with a series of carefully placed and tightened ropes. This technique is called:
A) tilting squeeze
B) casting
C) haltering
D) hobbling
B) casting
a correct statement concerning guinea pigs is that they are:
A) carnivorous
B) unable to synthesize sufficient vitamin C
C) mature at birth
D) strictly monogamous
B) unable to synthesize sufficient vitamin C
a radiograph that has been developed with exhausted chemicals and increased developing time will have:
A) good contrast, with a dark grey background
B) poor contrast, with a black background
C) good contrast, with a black background
D) poor contrast, with a dark grey background
D) poor contrast, with a dark grey background
the laboratory animal that is MOST LIKELY to have an epileptiform fit when handled is the:
A) gerbil
B) guinea pig
C) hamster
D) mouse
A) gerbil
which of the following need not be considered in the timing of the autoclave cycle?
A) time required to heat up the interior of the chamber
B) time required to allow the steam to penetrate the interior of the packs
C) time required to seal the chamber
D) time required to sterilize those items in contact with the steam
C) time required to seal the chamber
which of the following surgical packs would not be considered contaminated and would not need to be reautoclaved:
A) single wrapped paper pack stored on an open shelf for 8 weeks
B) pack that was opened for a procedure but not used and needed for the next day
C) double wrapped paper pack stored in a closed cabinet for 6 weeks
D) instrument in an autoclave pouch that has a very small tear near the top of the pack
C) double wrapped paper pack stored in a closed cabinet for 6 weeks
what 3 factors determine whether a microbe will cause disease:
A) number of pathogens, host resistance, and proper use of aseptic technique
B) number of pathogens, host resistance, and virulence of the pathogen
C) type of suture involved, host resistance, and proper use of aseptic technique
D) host resistance, virulence of the pathogen, and proper use of aseptic technique
B) number of pathogens, host resistance, and virulence of the pathogen
what specifically does the strip on the autoclave tape indicate when it turns dark:
A) the correct temperature has been reached
B) the correct pressure has been reached
C) the correct temperature for the proper amount of time has been reached
D) the correct temperature, pressure, and time have been reached
A) the correct temperature has been reached
what is the significance of an autoclave that will not properly seal, but steam still rises from it:
A) as it is the sterilizing agent, it will work fine, but you must be more cautious to prevent burns to personnel
B) the pressure is what kills the microbes and this the autoclave will not work
C) it will continue to sterilize but will require more water as the steam escapes
D) the pressure will not increase, which is required to meet the minimum temperature for sterilization
D) the pressure will not increase, which is required to meet the minimum temperature for sterilization
a pack double wrapped in muslin and kept in a closed cabinet is good for how long:
A) 1 week
B) 3-4 weeks
C) 6-7 weeks
D) 6 months
C) 6-7 weeks
which of the following is not a recommended agent for patient surgical preparation:
A) chlorhexidine
B) roccal
C) alcohol
D) providone iodine
B) roccal
Why are such elaborate measures taken to maintain aseptic technique during surgery?
A) to protect personnel from pathogenic microbes encountered in the animals
B) to decrease the risk of nosocomial infections spread between the patients
C) to decrease the risk of contamination into the surgical site and interference with wound healing
D) to decrease the virulence of the microbes in the hospital
C) to decrease the risk of contamination into the surgical site and interference with wound healing
what is the pressure that must be reached in a steam autoclace in order for the temperature to reach 121.5 C
A) 1 psi
B) 10 psi
C) 15 psi
D) 45 psi
C) 15 psi
which of the following is the agent for autoclave sterilization
A) chemical disinfectant solution
B) dry heat
C) ethylene oxide gas
D) steam
D) steam