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100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) is developed when the Air Force |
will have a permanent presence, developed in collaboration with other functional areas within a limited time frame. |
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What process is based on a site being selected as a potential operating location? |
. Site selection |
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What process allows information obtained by the survey to be accessible to the commander and planners |
Storage and access |
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Civil engineers are responsible for all of the following except |
. erecting temporary shelters for other deployed personnel. |
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What does a well planned and executed deployment depend upon? |
Planner’s ability to produce a comprehensive site layout. |
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Wartime planning factors that dictate the scope of facilities are provided by whom? |
Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS). |
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The primary mission of a base dictates the initial requirements. Is this all you consider when developing your requirements? Why? |
No, you must consider all present and planned missions. |
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) During the planning process, which key item dictates facility hardening requirements? |
. The anticipated threat conditions |
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Which process is the most critical in the pre-deployment planning process? |
Aircraft parking. |
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There are no standard apron sizes because they are designed |
individually to meet the mission. |
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What is the recommended degree angle of the tactical/fighter aircraft parking arrangement? |
45 |
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Regarding planning principles, what does redundancy refer to? |
Providing alternate locations for command and control centers |
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Of the 10 planning principles, which one describes a facility as being able to be used for multiple purposes? |
Resiliency |
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During Desert Storm, generators were unable to receive normal maintenance due to a lack of parts. The fact that these generators were able to continue operating under those conditions is an example of applying which principle |
Reliability and maintainability |
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Of the planning principles, which one lends itself to individuals to perform to the best of their abilities? |
Planning for people. |
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What planning factors are used to determine your facility and utility requirements |
Base lines used in determining facility and utility requirements. |
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What precautionary step do you take prior to applying the planning factors? |
Review your data with the wing command’s staff. |
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What is a bare base |
A site that has a usable runway, taxiway, parking areas, and a source of water that is or can be made potable. |
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Who are the members of a two-man site planning team deployed ahead of the team with the command and control force module |
. Field grade officer and an engineering professional |
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What team deploys with the open the airbase force module? |
Airborne RED HORSE |
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Who has a vested interest in and responsibility for the flow of bare base assets? |
Civil engineers |
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What basic expeditionary airfield resource (BEAR) set is generally transported in first? |
Housekeeping set |
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Which assets would be used to upgrade an initial standard airbase |
BEAR force module kits |
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Temporary standard airbases are expected last up to a |
24 months and where MILCON permanent facilities are not required. |
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How are enduring presence construction standards designed? |
Designed with finishes, materials and systems for moderate energy efficiency, maintenance and life cycle costs |
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Who provides the initial bare base airfield evaluation? |
AFCESA. |
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How many additional feet of paved or compacted overrun should be provided at the end of each runway |
1,000 |
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Why should long utility runs be avoided? |
They are inefficient and lead to problems |
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What key decision has a significant impact on the design and layout of utility systems? |
The type and sources of materials to be used |
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Which bare base layout provides a passive defense? |
. Dispersed layout. |
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When planning your bare base layout, what should you consider? |
Functional grouping, base population, natural concealment, level site, adequate drainage, and adequate site drainage. |
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Why do we have spacing requirements for functional groups facilities? |
To provide for survivability and reduce asset requirements for utility systems. |
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Which spacing criteria are correct for non-dispersed billeting layout? |
60 feet between groups, 30 feet between rows, and 12 feet between billets in a row. |
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When and how can the distances stated as minimums be modified? |
Distances may be increased/decreased by 20 feet in any direction to take advantage of natural cover and concealment |
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You can orient the shelters to reduce the effects of solar radiation and wind by the |
short dimension towards the sun and prevailing winds |
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Why should you orient and site facilities to reduce shadows? |
Prevent enemy recognition of site. |
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) Locally constructed revetments are not used around aircraft because |
jet engines may ingest loose material. |
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The purpose of revetments is to |
protect parked aircraft and essential facilities. |
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Why should revetment cells never be arranged with their open ends facing each other? |
Easily accessible to an enemy attack. |
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How can the effects of an enemy attack be minimized? |
Through passive defense measures. |
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Which of these airbase operability assessment (ABO) elements would medical care fall under |
Recover |
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Using the five airbase operability elements as a guide, airbase operability assessment (ABO) assessment’s main focus is on |
direct combat capabilitieS |
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As an engineering professional assigned to the emergency operation center (EOC), which search recovery center (SRC) functions would you be most involved in? |
Determine scope of damage and track base recovery. |
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Who heads the damage control center |
The chief of operations |
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What is a function of the damage control center (DCC)? |
Deploy and monitor civil engineer response teams and determine impact of damage on the base’s mission. |
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Which team must determine how much airfield pavement damage and unexploded ordnance remains after an attack |
Airfield damage assessment team (DAT). |
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What other specialty will you be working with on the minimum operating strip (MOS) marking team? |
3E3X1, Structural Specialists. |
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) Which team does not work within or for the damage control center (DCC) |
Airfield damage assessment team. |
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The keys in your ability to survive and operate is |
completing preparation and training before hostilities begin. |
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During a contingency, good radio discipline is necessary to |
prevent unintentional jamming of each other’s transmission. |
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Why is it important for response teams to practice together? |
To learn their responsibilities and learn to work as a team. |
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What is the first priority for damage assessment? |
Takeoff and landing surface |
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Standardized reporting codes used to locate airfield damage are damage |
coordinates. |
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In addition to the text use figure 3–4. What does coordinate “C250 R26 D20” tell you about the location of the bomb crater? |
250 feet from the beginning of pavement, 26 feet right of centerline, 20-foot diameter |
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Which of these item(s) is listed on a damage assessment team DAT (damage assessment) report? |
. Item coordinates. |
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Who leads the damage assessment and response team (DART) and has decision-making responsibilities? |
DART SNCO |
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In addition to selecting the minimum operating strip (MOS), the damage plot can be used for other tasks such as |
planning haul routes |
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Which of these personnel are responsible for damage plotting? |
Emergency operations center |
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What is a unexploded ordnance’s (UXO) “radius of effect”? |
Area of potential explosion |
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How are the beginning and ending widths of a spall field plotted |
. Plotting the widths centered on the points perpendicular to the connecting line |
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) Who makes the final decision on which minimum operating strip (MOS) candidate will be used? |
Installation control center commander. |
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When should the minimum operating strip (MOS) selection team update appropriate maps to indicate the airfields current condition |
As airfield recovery progresses |
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Which of these will affect the amount of runway needed to takeoff and land? |
Weight of the aircraft. |
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How does temperature affect the length of runway needed by an aircraft |
High temperatures take more runway |
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The actual minimum operating strip (MOS) dimensions depend on aircraft type and |
environmental conditions. |
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You make sure all aircraft will be able to use the minimum operating strip (MOS) by calculating each operation’s |
length on worksheet No. 1. |
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Who is responsible for choosing the final minimum operating strip (MOS) dimensions? |
Installation control center (ICC) commander. |
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What is one of the most important considerations in crater repairs |
Availability of materials |
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Why should you avoid choosing a minimum operating strip (MOS) with large craters at both ends? |
Will be hard to lengthen or widen |
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Both time and personnel needed for crater repairs increase when craters are |
more than 100 feet apart. |
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If a repair has an assigned repair quality criteria (RQC) of 3, what does this mean |
The repair is allowed a maximum height of repair of 3”. |
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An airfield flush repair is allowed |
. zero sag |
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) During the repair quality criteria (RQC) computation, the use of technical order (TO) 35E2– 4–1 is |
. mandatory |
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“One or more craters, treated as a single rough surface” refers to a |
repair patch. |
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The location of a patch is the distance from the center of the patch to the |
operation threshold. |
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To measure repair patch length, you should |
scale from the take off and landing (TOL) map |
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What value are patches beyond the operational length given? |
Considered a flush repair. |
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What is the repair quality criteria (RQC) value of a patch with an uncorrected RQC of 3, and a correction factor of 1? |
3 |
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The repair quality criteria (RQC) value assigned to patches beyond the longest operation length is |
“F. |
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If a patch has several different repair quality criteria (RQC) values, which one should you use? |
The lowest value |
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) When or how can final repair quality criteria (RQC) values change |
By adding or deleting aircraft operations. |
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Special minimum operating strip (MOS) clear zones must be marked |
around craters |
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When each station gets closer or farther away from the centerline by the same fixed distance, this distance is called th |
angled centerline station. |
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What markers indicate the position of the runway lights |
Edge markers |
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Which of these is most likely to keep repairs to minimum operating strips (MOS) from having to be redone |
. Conduct several quality control checks. |
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Why are stanchions used during crater profile measurement (CPM) procedures? |
To form a line of site above crater |
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As an engineering professional, which emergency airfield lighting set (EALS) team will you work with |
The team installing the precision approach path indicator (PAPI) lighting system. |
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) The runway priority for aircraft during emergency airfield lighting set (EALS) installation is a. refueling. |
takeoff and land. |
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Emergency airfield lighting set (EALS) and precision approach path indicator (PAPI) installation should be completed by an engineering |
Craftsman |
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The clearance plane for the precision approach path indicator (PAPI) unit begins at |
300 ft downwind from the runway reference point (RRP). |
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What two people are required for dynamic cone penetrometer (DCP) operation |
Operator and recorder |
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The dynamic cone pentrometer (DCP) index is established |
dividing the depth of penetration by the number of blows |
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Mobile aircraft arresting system (MAAS) was specifically designed to fulfill the Air Force’s need to expedient |
aircraft recovery |
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A suitable California bearing ratio (CBR) for a site is |
7 |
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On a runway 200 feet wide the tape slope centerline projection must not exceed transverse runway slope by more than what percent? |
3 |
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Where is the fairlead beam installed and why |
The runway edge, so the MAAS can be further from the runway. |
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What light weight fairlead beam (LWFB) is anchored by deadman anchoring system |
Two and three roller beam system |
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The space between the light weight fairlead beam’s (LWFB) rear sheave housing and the mobile aircraft arresting system (MAAS) trailer’s edge sheave must not exceed what percent |
8 |
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What determines the required runway setback (RRS) distance |
The runway width. |
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How many feet from the runway centerline should the mobile aircraft arresting system (MAAS) trailers be located? |
275. |