Vol 1 B Set

Front 1

Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?

Back 1

Pathogen

Front 2

Which classification of organisms is responsible for the disease malaria?

Back 2

Sporozoa

Front 3

Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of sx of the particular disease?

Back 3

Incubation

Front 4

The mucous membrane filters and traps foreign bodies through

Back 4

cilia

Front 5

Which of the following is not a type of transmission-based precaution?

Back 5

Enteric

Front 6

Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored, negative air pressure?

Back 6

Droplet

Front 7

What is the most serious type of meningitis?

Back 7

Bacterial

Front 8

One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is:

Back 8

Pelvic inflammatory disease.

Front 9

Which medical term refers to practices designed to elminate all micro-organisms?

Back 9

Surgical Asepsis

Front 10

Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue?

Back 10

Antiseptic.

Front 11

What type of isolation are patients highly susceptible to infection placed in?

Back 11

Reverse

Front 12

What procedures are followed when transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department?

Back 12

Give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport.

Front 13

An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is:

Back 13

An isoloation cart.

Front 14

When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on:

Back 14

before entering, and take it off before leaving.

Front 15

What is the first step in preparing objects for sterilization?

Back 15

Cleaning.

Front 16

How long is an item immersed in the sterilant during the sterilization cycle of a peracetic acid sterilizer?

Back 16

12 minutes.

Front 17

Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?

Back 17

Phenolics

Front 18

how often do you clean and inspect steam sterilizers?

Back 18

daily and weekly.

Front 19

Diagnostic tests should be run on a peracetic acid sterilizer every:

Back 19

24 hours.

Front 20

How often should biological testing be conducted and documented for hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers?

Back 20

At least once per day.

Front 21

Which basic human need category is rest included in?

Back 21

Physiological.

Front 22

Which vitamins are necessary for the production of red blood cells?

Back 22

B-complex vitamins

Front 23

What substance is necessary for hemmoglobin synthesis?

Back 23

Iron

Front 24

Plasma lipids include what three substances?

Back 24

Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol.

Front 25

What two actions are included in the physiological need of rest?

Back 25

Pain free and rest.

Front 26

What reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs?

Back 26

Moro.

Front 27

A toddler is expected to weight four times the birth weight at age:

Back 27

24 months.

Front 28

Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?

Back 28

Blood pressure screenings.

Front 29

What substance does the body need in order to absorb B12?

Back 29

Intrinsic factor.

Front 30

B12 deficiency are first noted by:

Back 30

Pernicious anemia.

Front 31

Vitamin B6 concentration in food sources is lost through:

Back 31

Freezing.

Front 32

large doses of vitamin C cause all of the following except:

Back 32

Constipation.

Front 33

Vitamin D interacts with all of the following except:

Back 33

calcium.

Front 34

A primary sign of a vitamin E overdose is readily seen through the disease process of:

Back 34

Prolonged clotting times.

Front 35

Vitamin K is not used to treat which of the following ailments?

Back 35

Heparin overdose.

Front 36

Which of the following vitamins is not fat-soluable?

Back 36

Vitamin C

Front 37

Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen:

Back 37

through an excessive amount of fluid loss.

Front 38

Half-normal saline solution is represented by:

Back 38

.45%

Front 39

Potassium helps to maintain:

Back 39

Hearbeat regulation

Front 40

Caution must be taken when administering potassium to individuals with all of the following except:

Back 40

Diabetes

Front 41

Oral iron supplements should not be taken with:

Back 41

Tea, milk or coffee.

Front 42

Which route is injectable iron administered?

Back 42

Z-track.

Front 43

When larger molecules are constructed from smaller molecules, this is known as:

Back 43

anabolism.

Front 44

Cellular metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of:

Back 44

Enzyme

Front 45

Electrolytes that erelease hydrogen ions in water are called:

Back 45

acids

Front 46

When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, it can be noted by:

Back 46

Acetone in the breath and urine.

Front 47

Which of the following is an accurate definition of leukocytes?

Back 47

Protect against disease at the cellular level.

Front 48

The two main categories of leukocytes are:

Back 48

granulocytes and agranulocytes.

Front 49

Neutrophils are also known as:

Back 49

polymorphonuclear leukocytes.

Front 50

The life span of lymphocytes is:

Back 50

years.

Front 51

What cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms?

Back 51

Lymphocytes and macrophages.

Front 52

When a child scrapes his or her hands and infection results, which lymph nodes will become enlarged?

Back 52

Supratrochlear.

Front 53

Children who receive routine childhood immunizations are protected by

Back 53

Artificially acquired active immunity.

Front 54

The body's first step in the healing process is:

Back 54

Inflammation.

Front 55

During which stage of healing are immature fiber cells and capillaries formed?

Back 55

Inflammation.

Front 56

The fibrous structural protein collagen is found in all connective tissue during which stage of healing?

Back 56

Reconstruction.

Front 57

Full maturation of a wound is evident when:

Back 57

the scaring is white and glossy.

Front 58

For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is:

Back 58

Shock and disorientation.

Front 59

What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?

Back 59

Hyperkalemia

Front 60

What acid-base imbalance is likely to occur when a patient has excessive vomiting, excessive suctioning or ingested too many antacids?

Back 60

Metabolic alkalosis

Front 61

Which acid-base imbalance is caused by hyperventilating?

Back 61

Respiratory Alkalosis

Front 62

Deficiency is respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called:

Back 62

respiratory acidosis

Front 63

To avoid infections, you should change a patient's hyperalimentation solution bag and tubing daily and not allow the container to hang longer than

Back 63

8 hours

Front 64

When selecting an IV solution, what size IV bags in cubic centimeters would you possibly be able to select from?

Back 64

100 to 2,000 cc

Front 65

Normally, how high above patients should you hang an IV solution bag?

Back 65

24 to 36 inches.

Front 66

If a patient exhibits a mild allergic response to an IV solution, what should you do?

Back 66

Slow the infusion.

Front 67

How much fecal material should you collect to send to the laboratory for a stool specimen?

Back 67

2 tablespoons.

Front 68

After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for:

Back 68

2 to 3 minutes.

Front 69

During a skin puncture, why is the first drop of blood wiped away?

Back 69

It contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with test results.

Front 70

What step should you take before operating a glucose meter?

Back 70

Read the operating instructions.

Front 71

the normal fasting blood glucose level in milligrams/deciliter is:

Back 71

70 to 115 mg/dl.

Front 72

In the subjective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's:

Back 72

complaint of a headache

Front 73

A proctoscopy is an inspection of the:

Back 73

rectum.

Front 74

What position would you normally place a patient in for a sigmoidoscopy?

Back 74

Sims.

Front 75

When educating the patient with psuedofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following except shaving:

Back 75

in the direction of hair growth.

Front 76

How do you measuer the visual field?

Back 76

Determine degrees away from fixation.

Front 77

When asking th epatient if he or she wears glasses, contact lenses or if he or she has ever had eye problems prior to conducting an Optec 2300 Vision Tester exam, the patient's responses will determine

Back 77

sequence of test performance

Front 78

How many test slides are included in the standard test category of the Optec 2300 Vision tester (OVT)?

Back 78

Seven.

Front 79

How many inches from the test plate mus tthe examinee be sittting for the pseudoisochromatic plate set (PIP) test?

Back 79

30.

Front 80

When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forced expiratory volume at 1 second (FEV1) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than?

Back 80

80.

Front 81

During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are:

Back 81

2;3.

Front 82

Where does the electrical stimulation of the heart muscle initiate?

Back 82

Sinoatrial node.

Front 83

Where is the Purkinje fiber network the most elaborate?

Back 83

Left ventricle.

Front 84

Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called:

Back 84

artifacts.

Front 85

If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the:

Back 85

US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library.

Front 86

For orthostatic vital sign measurements, what is the correct sequence to take the blood pressure and pulse; and what is the correct time interval between readings?

Back 86

Lying, sitting, standing; 3 minutes.

Front 87

notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below:

Back 87

97 percent.

Front 88

When checking the eyes during a neruological exam, the pupils should:

Back 88

constrict quicky and simultaneously.

Front 89

When can the minor surgery procedure begin:

Back 89

After the consent form is signed.

Front 90

When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step?

Back 90

Flush the wound.

Front 91

After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment, what should you do next?

Back 91

Assess sensory awareness.

Front 92

In the Air Force, how often should you check emergency equipment and supplies int he crash ambulance?

Back 92

Daily.

Front 93

How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped?

Back 93

300 mm Hg.

Front 94

Which emergency response refers to an emergency, responding with lights and sirens on?

Back 94

Code 3, Hot.

Front 95

When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast?

Back 95

Name.

Front 96

In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only:

Back 96

when local protocol authorizes it.

Front 97

The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the EMT is called:

Back 97

Scene sizeup.

Front 98

If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide:

Back 98

ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen.

Front 99

A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with:

Back 99

a significant MOI, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are.

Front 100

When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questionin gabout:

Back 100

provocation.

Front 101

While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine?

Back 101

Time.

Front 102

When preparing to unload a patient from an ambulance, what should you do first?

Back 102

Ensure all straps are secured on the patient.

Front 103

If you see clear fluid running out the ears, you should:

Back 103

not block the fluid from draining.

Front 104

While examining a patient that fell from a ladder, you notice a bruise behind the ear, what injury should you suspect?

Back 104

Basal skull fracture.

Front 105

Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians (EMT) in the field to describe a possible fracture?

Back 105

Painful, swollen deformity (PSD).

Front 106

While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he has splashed a chemical in his eye, what should you determine first?

Back 106

If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type.

Front 107

In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temporary external pulse generator system?

Back 107

Right atrium.

Front 108

When setting up a cardiac monitor, the legal document you should pay particular attention to and fix if it is not correct is the:

Back 108

Electrocardiogram tracing date and time.