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69 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
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T/F All viruses are dependent upon the host for protein synthesis?
true
In which step is the viral genome removed from the capsid?
a. entry
b. assembly
c. penetration
d. uncoating
d. uncoating
T/F DNA viruses usually replicate their genomes in the cytoplasm utilizing the host cell enzymes?
false
T/F All viruses in the same family have capsids with the same number of capsomeres
True
T/F inhalation is the most common route of viral infection
true
what is the most rapid and most effective vehicle for the spread of an infectious agent within a host?
a. lungs
b lymph
c blood
d scratching
c. blood
which of the following causes chronic, persistent infections?
a .herpes
b. prions
c. HIV
d. HBV
d. HBV
what signal from a viral infection typically activates an interferon response?
a. double stranded RNA
b. capsid proteins
c. chemokines
d. fusion
a. double stranded RNA
T/F Interferons are a type of cytokine?
True
T/F Interferon is used to treat some viruses and cancers
True
T/F some viruses inhibit apoptosis to prolong cellular existence as virus-creating factories
true
T/F if apoptosis is induced early during viral replication there is increased viral release and dissemination
false
Which of the following is NOT part of the nonspecific host defenses?
a. complement
b. interferon
c. phagocytosis
d. B lymphocytes
e. all of the above
d. B lymphocytes
which of the following is NOT true about natural killer cells?
a. phagocytic
b. immediately respond to viral infections
c. activated by interferon and other cytokines
d. express receptors for the Fc region of the antibodies
e. all of the above are true
a. phagocytic
How do natural killer cells recognize infected host cells?
a. presence of viral antigen on cell surface
b lack of MHC-1 on cell surface
c. antibodies on cell surface
d all of the above
e. none of the above
d all of the above
which of the following is NOT characteristic of complement?
a more than 30 proteins
b inactive forms are present in the bloodstream
c effective in destroying enveloped and nonenveloped viruses
d one complement protein activates another
e all of the above are true
c. effective in destroying enveloped and nonenveloped viruses
T/F T cells recognize viruses and destroy them before they can infect cells
false
some viruses evade host defenses by...
a. producing cytokine/cytokine receptor homologs, blocking immune signals
b making excessive amounts of soluble viral antigens
c. producing antigens similar to host antigens
d all of the above are true
d all of the above are true
T/F One mechanism of immune evasion by viruses is latency
true
which type of vaccine is NOT appropriate to give to immunocompromised individuals?
a. live attenuated viruses
b recombinant subunit vaccines
c peptide vaccines
d killed or inactivated viruses
e all of the above can be used in anyone
a live attenuated viruses
which cell type is the immediate precursor of a macrophage?
a natural killer cell
b monocyte
c dendrite cell
d neutrophil
b monocyte
which group of cells contains only phagocytes?
a. neutrophils, macrophages, dendritic cells
b. basophils, dendritic cells, monocytes
c. monocytes, macrophages, natural killer cells
d. T cells, B cells, macrophages
a. neutrophils, macrophages and dendritic cells
what molecule, which interacts with receptors on helper T cells, is expressed on the surface of all antigen presenting cells?
a. MHC-II
b. antibodies
c. MHC-I
d. T cell receptors
a. MHC-II
T/F influenza and Hepatitis A are the most common vaccine preventable diseases of travelers
true
T/F All countries now have safe blood for transfusions
False
T/F Environmental changes have an effect on disease patterns
true
which period of disease refers to the first appearance of mild or nonspecific symptoms of an illness?
a. incubation period
b communicable period
c prodromal period
d period of illness
e convalescence
c prodromal
_______ is based on the premise that if the majority of the population is mostly protected from disease, a major epidemic is unlikely
a. herd immunity
b. barrier protection
c majority rule
d. cohort theory
a herd immunity
which of the following conditions would NOT facilitate the beginning of an epidemic?
a. increased exposure between host and pathogen
b. increase in a particular pathogen
c. pathogen enters the host via a new portal of entry
d most of the population has previously been exposed to the pathogen
e the pathogen enters a new environmental setting
d. most of the population has previously been exposed to the pathogen
what adjective describes an infection that has no pattern of occurrence?
a endemic
b sporadic
c epidemic
d pandemic
b sporadic
what is the disease that is transmissible from animals to humans?
a communicable
b contagious
c zoonosis
d epidemic
c zoonosis
which organization is responsible for worldwide disease surveillance?
a NIH
b CDC
c WHO
d UNICEF
c. WHO
T/F viruses may be used to deliver genes to cells
true
T/F more than 25% of patients on waiting lists die before receiving an organ
true
T/F zoonosis refers to a disease transmitted from an animal to a human recipient after a transplant
false
which of the following viruses is NOT commonly used in gene therapy trials?
a. herpes simplex virus
b adenoviruses
c adeno-associated viruses
d retroviruses
e polioviruses
e. polioviruses
which of the following techniques are used when a good copy of the gene will not correct the cell's problem?
a. ribozymes
b. triple helix forming nucleotides
c anti-sense technology
d RNA interference systems
e all of the above
e. all of the above
The survival rates for transplant patients increased with the discovery of
a. cyclosporin
b. acyclovir
c. chloramphenicol
d. AZT
e. None of the above
a. cyclosporin
Why are pigs considered to be the ideal animal for xenotransplantation?
a. organs are about the same size as those of humans
b. pigs harbor no potentially harmful infectious agents
c. pigs have been cloned
d. a and b only
e. a and c only
e. a and c only
which of these viruses is NOT a risk for cross species transmission from pigs to humans during xenotransplantation?
a. pseudorabies virus
b. circoviruses
c hepatitis E-like swine virus
d porcine cytomegalovirus
a. pseudorabies virus
T/F About 20% of human cancers are associated with viruses
True
Which of the following viruses has NOT been shown to cause cancer?
a. Kaposi's sarcoma associated herpesviruses
b. Human papilloma virus
c. Hepatitis A virus
d. Hepatitis B virus
e Hepatitis C virus
c. Hepatitis A virus
How would one define metastasis?
A. overgrowth of cells to form a tumor
B. Movement of tumor cells from their site of origin to another site
C. prevention of tumor growth
D. The first stage of tumor formation
b. movement of tumor cells from their site of origin to another site
Which of the following is NOT a mechanism by which a retrovirus can cause cancer?
a. insertional activation of a proto-oncogene
b. Inactivation of a tumor suppressor gene
c. Intergration inro host DNA of a viral oncogene
d. Activation of cellular apoptotic genes
d. activation of cellular apoptotic genes
What does HTLV primarily cause?
a. AIDS
b. Adult T cell lukemia
c. burkitt's lymphoma
d. Kaposi's sarcoma
b. adult T cell lukemia
Which of the following are typically inactivated during viral infections that transform cells?
a. p53 and Rb
b. p21 and dT
c. RT and gB
d. Bcl-2 and c-myc
a. p53 and Rb
T/F Adenovirus replicates exclusively in the cytoplasm
False
T/F SV-40 has been proven to cause cancer in humans
false
Which 2 types of HPV are most likely to cause cervical cancer?
a. 16 and 18
b. 6 and 8
c. 18 and 26
d. 16 and 28
a. 16 and 18
Which of these families of human DNA viruses has single-stranded genomes?
a. Parvoviridae
b. polyomaviridae
c. Rhabdoviridae
d. coronaviridae
a. Parvoviridae
Which virus family does the hepatitis B virus (HBV) belong to?
a. papillomaviridae
b. herpesviridae
c. hepadnaviridae
d. retroviridae
c. hepadnaviridae
T/F The family papovaviridae no longer exists
True
T/F All human viruses with helical nucleocapsids are enveloped
True
T/F All human viruses with helical nucleocapsids have negative-sense single-stranded RNA genomes
False
The human DNA virus family with segmented genomes is ___________
a. poxviridae
b. pervoviridae
c. herpesviridae
d. none of the above
d. none of the above
Arenaviruses have _____ genome segments
a. 2
b. 3
c. 8
d. 10
a. 2
T/F Both retroviruses and Hepadnaviruses use reverse transcriptase in their replication
true
which of the following human virus families are morphologically similar to picornaviridae?
a. astroviridae
b. caliciviridae
c. hepeviridae
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
T/F there are over 70 different types of enterovirus
True
T/
T/F Enteroviruses may be shed in the feces for weeks
true
Which of the following will NOT inactivate enteroviruses?
a. aldehydes
b. chlorine
c. 5% lysol
d. hydrochloric acid
c. 5% lysol
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of poliovirus?
a. (-) sense RNA
b. contains four capsid proteins
c. icosahedral shaped
d. acid-stable
e. three antigenic types
a. (-) sense RNA
T/F Most cases of poliovirus infection are asymptomatic
true
What protein is covalently attached to the 5' end of the poliovirus genomic RNA?
a. VP0
b. VP1
c. VP4
d. VPg
d. VPg
Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons poliovirus was targeted for eradication?
a. there is no animal reservoir
b. we have 2 very effective vaccines
c. there are only three serotypes
d. The IPV is inexpensive and easy to administer orally
d. The IPV is inexpensive and easy to administer orally
Which enterovirus is primarily associated with hand, foot, and mouth disease?
a. enterovirus 70
b. enterovirus 71
c. coxsackie virus
d. echovirus 68
b. enterovirus 71
Norovirus...
a. are in the genus Sapporovirus
b. are rarely contagious
c. are probably responsible for 50% of food-borne gastroenteritis outbreaks
d. have been fully characterized by in vitro (cell culture) analysis
c. are probably responsible for 50% of food-borne gastroentiritis outbreaks
T/F Hepatitis E virus (HEV) is classified in the family Caliciviridae
false
Astroviridae is distinguished from Caliciviridae by...
a. the ability to be grown in cell culture
b. a replication strategy that includes subgenomic mRNA
c. having more than one open reading frame in the genome
d. causing acute diarrhea in humans
a. the ability to be grown in cell culture