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287 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what is the causative agent of stomach flu in people?
norovirus
what agent causes Typhoid in people?
Salmonella typhi
what are the top 5 pathogens that cause food-borne illness in people?
1. Norovirus (stomach flu)
2. Salmonella (non-typhoidal)
3. Clostridium perfringens
4. Campylobacter
5. Staphylococcus aureus
What are the top 5 food-borne pathogens that cause hospitalization in people?
1. Salmonella (non-typhoidal)
2. Norovirus
3. Campylobacter
4. Toxoplasma gondii (usually from undercooked meat)
5. E. coli (STEC) O:157
what is the main source of toxoplasma gondii infection in people?
undercooked meat
where are Vibrio species that cause food-borne illness found?
shellfish
What are some human demographic contributors to food-borne illness?
- ↑ immunocompromised people: age (chronic dz), HIV, chemotherapy, organ transplants
- eating habits: convenience, fresh produce, where food is eaten, food safety instruction
what percent of:
- meals are consumed outside the home?
- food-borne illness outbreaks occurred outside the home?
- 40% meals outside home
- 80% of outbreaks outside the home
what are three changes in industry that have contributed to food safety concerns?
1. ↑ geographic distribution of products from large, centralized food processors
2. ↑ ability to detect organisms
3. changes in food processing and production technologies (large plants, larger farms, integration)
what are four changes in travel and commerce that have contributed to food safety concerns?
1. foods brought into the country
2. food eaten in a foreign country or plane during international travel
3. internationally distributed foods - not as good QA/QC
4. ethnic groups that have immigrated to the US (e.g. Mexican immigrants eating unpasteurized Mexican cheese)
what are two ways that microbes have adapted that cause concern and an increase in the number of food-borne illness cases?
1. bacteria developing resistance to natural control methods, heat, or acid
2. some bacteria have adapted to specific hosts (e.g. S. enteritidis in eggs)
what are three changes in economic development and land use that have impacted food-borne illness?
1. ↑ manure use (1.6 billion tons)
2. fecal runoff
3. shift from cold season harvesting of oysters to year round harvesting
what is the major cause of outbreaks of food-borne illness
improper handling of food
what are the top 5 ways that food is improperly handled as to cause food-borne illness
1. improper holding temperature
2. inadequate cooking
3. poor personal hygiene
4. contaminated equipment
5. food from an unsafe source
what are five factors essential for food-borne bacterial disease to occur?
1. presence of pathogenic bacteria or bacterial toxin
2. source of contamination
3. a medium for the bacteria to grow in
4. proper environmental relationships
5. consumption of sufficient quantity (toxic dose)
what are the proper holding temperatures to prevent food-borne illness
< 40 °F and > 140 °F
adequate cooking of food:
- to kill bacteria
- to kill spores
- pasteurization temp and times
- cook at 145°F and higher
- spores: cook at 212 °F for 30 minutes
- pasteurize: 145 °F for 30 minutes or 161 °F for 15 seconds
what is the definition of "food borne infection?"
replication of organisms AFTER ingestion
what is the definition of "food borne intoxication?"
ingestion of pre-formed toxins (e.g. bacteria grows BEFORE ingestion)
what does HACCP stand for?
Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point system
what is the purpose of a Hazard Analyses and Critical Control Point system (HACCP)?
determine the food safety hazards reasonably likely to occur and identify the preventative measures the plant/production unit can apply to control the hazards
what are the seven steps of a Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point system (HACCP)?
1. conduct hazard analysis - find where hazards could occur
2. identify critical control points
3. establish critical limits for each control point
4. monitor these control points
5. establish corrective actions of control points are not performed
6. establish record keeping procedures
7. establish procedures to verify HACCP is working
what are three ways to prevent contamination of food?
1. proper personal hygiene
2. clean equipment
3. unadulterated ingredients
what is the most common Salmonella isolate in food? From where is the contamination thought to originate?
- S. typhimurium
- fecal contamination at time of harvesting
- rodents thought to be a source
which Salmonella isolate is associated with milk? How does this bacteria affect dairy cows?
- S. dublin
- host-adapted to cattle
- infected cows asymptomatic, but periodically shed in milk and feces
which Salmonella isolate is associated with poultry and eggs?
- S. enteritidis
In what type of gourmet setting are Salmonella enteritidis outbreaks associated?
In cafeterias where large amounts of eggs are pooled together
what is the incubation period for Salmonellosis in humans?
8-72 hours
what is the most common infectious agent from bite wounds that requires hospitalization?
Pasteurella multocida
what are human patient risk factors for hospitalization from a bite wound? (7)
1. > 50 years old
2. puncture wounds that cannot be thoroughly cleansed
3. bites on the hands (hands are avascular → anaerobes)
4. delay in > 24 hours before seeking treatment
5. inadequate wound care
6. diabetes
7. splenectomy
as a vet, what are 5 things to do if a person is bitten by an animal?
1. wash wound thoroughly
2. check rabies status of animal involved
3. suggest medical attention, especially if pain and redness becomes worse
4. call health department - required in some localities
5. high risk individuals instructed to seek medical attention
DF-2?
- what is it?
- genus and species
- where found
- virulence
- how is it acquired?
- "Dysgonic Fermentor" - a Gram-negative thin rod
- Capnocytophaga canimorsus
- found in oral cavity of dogs, cats, and ruminants
- virulent to immunosuppressed individuals, alcoholics, splenectomized individuals
- acquired by dog bites
what are symptoms of DF-2 (Capnocytophaga canimorsus)? How do you prevent a bite wound from becoming infected in immunocompromised individuals?
- inapparent in dogs, humans develop a Gram-negative sepsis; bacterium has tropism for endocardium and vascular endothelium
- prophylactic antibiotics for dog bites in at risk individuals
what causes Cat Scratch Fever? What is the pathogen's morphology?
- Bartonella henselae
- small, pleomorphic gram-negative bacillus
how common is Bartonella henselae in normal cats?
25-41%
how is Bartonella henselae (cat scratch fever) acquired by humans? (4)
- cat bites
- cat scratches
- cat licking your wounds
- possibly dog bites
what age group of human primates are most susceptible to bite wounds?
children
describe the symptoms of cat scratch fever (Bartonella henselae) in immunocompetent people.
- usually benign, self-limiting disease; lasts for several months
- tender regional lymphadenopathy without lymphangitis
- skin pustule/papule → lymphadenitis
- if lymphadenitis, usually unilateral and suppurative
- < 30% develop malaise, fever, headache, sore throat, splenomegaly, vomiting, stomach cramps.
what is a potential serious sequela to cat scratch fever in immunocompromised individuals?
Bacillary Angiomatosis - proliferation of small blood vessels in skin and visceral organs in immunocompromised individuals

Atypical manifestations: tonsillitis, encephalitis, cerebral arteritis, granulomatous hepatitis, pneumonia, thrombocytopenic purpura
what is an atypical complication of cat scratch fever?
(Bartonella henselae)
chronic fistulous tracts
how is cat scratch fever treated in people?
(Bartonella henselae)
- aspiration of lymph nodes
- doxycycline, erythromycin, and rifampin
- cull
how is cat scratch fever diagnosed?
- rule out lymphadenopathies
- serology and PCR for definitive Dx
what are four ways to prevent cat scratch fever?
1. clean all scratches or bite wounds thoroughly
2. avoid cat saliva, especially on open wounds
3. flea control
4. wash hands after handling cats
sporotrichosis
- species in cats
- how do cats get it?
- how do humans get it?
- Sporothrix schenckii
- cats: penetrating wound or (rarely) inhalation from soil
- humans: from draining lesions and feces of infected cats. No skin barrier compromise is necessary
sporotrichosis:
- lesions in cats
- lesions in humans
- cats: extremities, head, and base of tail: small, draining puncture wounds, proceeding to cavitated ulcers with seropurulent exudate. ± lymph node involvement
- humans: ulcerated skin nodules and painful lymphadenopathy
how is sporotrichosis treated? (3)
1. iodides
2. ketoconazole
3. Amphotericin B
how is zoonotic transmission of sporotrichosis from cats prevented?
- wear exam gloves when draining lesions in cats
- proper cleaning of hands and equipment
where is there currently an epidemic of Mycobacterium bovis?
in Michigan white-tailed deer, which has spilled over into the cattle population
what are four wild carriers of Mycobacterium bovis?
1. white-tailed deer (Michigan)
2. bear
3. coyote
4. raccoon
which tuberculosis agent is prevalent in AIDS patients?
Mycobacterium avium/intracellulare complex (MAC), which includes M. avium ss paratuberculosis.
which bacteria may have a link with Crohn's Disease?
Mycobacterium paratuberculosis
in what things that people routinely handle is Mycobacterium paratuberculosis found?
1. pasteurized milk
2. muscle of infected animals
- i.e., humans may acquire from milk and meat
why do we care about Mycobacterium marinum?
immunocompromised individuals can get it from aquariums and fish
where is Mycobacterium tuberculosis most commonly found?
prisons
what are symptoms of tuberculosis in humans? (3)
- papules → non-healing painless ulcer with lymphadenopathy ("tuberculous chancre")
- pulmonary lesions: chronic pneumonia, wasting, cervical lymphadenitis (Mozart died of this)
- disseminated TB: genitourinary infection, bone and joint involvement, meningitis
what is the histopathology of Mycobacterium lesions? Why?
granulomatous, because they are intracellular pathogens
how is Mycobacterium infection diagnosed?
intradermal tuberculin test
what are two drugs used to treat tuberculosis?
isoniazid and rifampin
what are 3 ways to prevent zoonotic spread of Mycobacteria?
1. pasteurize milk
2. TB testing of animal populations and cull
3. wear gloves when handling infected animals
what are 4 other names for brucellosis?
1. Undulant Fever
2. Malta Fever
3. Gibraltar Fever
4. Bangs disease
what are 6 species of Brucella, their animal hosts, and zoonotic potential?
1. B. abortus - cow; zoonotic
2. B. suis - pigs, reindeer; zoonotic
3. B. canis - dogs; ??
4. B. melitensis - small ruminants; zoonotic and nasty
4. B. ovis - sheep; not zoonotic
5. B. neotomae - ??; not zoonotic
what are two ways to get brucellosis in the US?
1. eat non-pasteurized Mexican cheese (especially goat milk)
2. from bison in Yellowstone
what are four basic ways for people to acquire brucellosis?
1. directly: contact with fetal fluids and aborted tissue
2. indirectly: ingestion of animal products (e.g., milk inhalation during slaughter procedure)
3. accidental injection with strain 19 vaccine (RB51??)
4. marine
what are symptoms of brucellosis in people?
- septicemia with sudden or insidious onset with continuous, intermittent, or irregular fever
- Chills, profuse sweating, high temperatures
- irritable, nervous, depressed
- muscular weakness and exercise intolerance
- lymph node enlargement, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly
what are 5 complications from brucellosis in people?
1. encephalitis
2. meningitis
3. spondylitis
4. arthritis
5. vegetative endocarditis
how do you test for Brucellosis in humans?
- blood culture
- serology (cross-reacts with Yersinia enterocolitica)
how is brucellosis treated in humans?
- tetracycline, TMS, or doxycycline and rifampin
- 6 weeks (intracellular organism)
what are four ways to prevent brucellosis in people?
1. pasteurize milk
2. wear obstetrics attire
3. gloves for vaccine administration
4. test and slaughter animals
what causes pseudotuberculosis in humans?
Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
how is Yersinia pseudotuberculosis acquired in humans?
- contact with infected animals
- ingestion of food contaminated with feces and/or urine from infected animals
what are the zoonotic carriers of Yersinia pseudotuberculosis?
- fowl and rodents: reservoir hosts
- lagomorphs and fowl: amplifying hosts
- cats and dogs may be infected from eating rodents and infected feed
what are symptoms of pseudotuberculosis in people? (3)
- acute mesenteric lymphadenopathy
- appendicitis
- inflamed ileocecal nodes
which people are at most risk of acquiring Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
males between 5-20 years old
what are clinical signs of Yersinia pseudotuberculosis in cats? (5)
1. anorexia
2. gastroenteritis
3. jaundice
4. palpable mesenteric lymph nodes
5. hepatosplenomegaly
what are clinical signs of Yersinia pseudotuberculosis in Guinea pigs?
1. enlarged mesenteric lymph nodes
2. nodular abscesses in intestinal wall, spleen, and liver
3. rapid weight loss and diarrhea
how do you control Yersinia paratuberculosis? (2)
- hygiene
- cook meat properly
which zoonotic bacteria produces a toxin similar to that of E. coli heat stable toxin?
Yersinia enterocolitica
how is a person infected with Yersinia enterocolitica?
ingestion of organism
which animals are thought to be associated with zoonotic transmission of Yersinia enterocolitica?
pigs, puppies, and kittens
who is most susceptible to Yersinia enterocolitica
kids and very old people
what are symptoms of Yersinia enterocolitica in humans? (3)
1. appendicitis-like symptoms
2. diarrhea
3. tummy ache
what is the major way to prevent zoonotic transmission of Yersinia enterocolitica
safe handling and proper cooking of pork
what are 7 CDC recommendations for preventing salmonella transmission from reptiles to humans?
1. provide info to owners and potential owners about risk
2. wash hands after handling reptiles
3. persons at risk (children < 5 and immunocompromised) should avoid contact
4. no reptiles in households with kids < 5 years and get rid of the reptile before mama-to-be pops
5. no reptiles in child care centers (DUH!)
6. don't let reptile roam free in house
7. keep reptile our of kitchen, food prep area; don't wash their equipment in these areas and if done in bath tub, disinfect the bathtub with bleach
what is a weird bacteria, similar to salmonella, that kids can get from reptiles, and uncooked eggs and turkey?
Arizona hinshawii
what is the morphology of Campylobacter jejuni?
- S-shaped bacteria (seagull wings)
- motile, gram-negative rods
what are three symptoms of Campylobacter jejuni food poisoning in people (as well as other mammals)? How long does the disease take to run its course?
1. gastroenteritis
2. diarrhea ± blood
3. abdominal pain
- recover in 7-10 days
what antibiotic is used to treat Campylobacter infection?
erythromycin
what are three ways to control Campylobacter zoonotic infection?
1. proper food preparation
2. avoid fecal-oral transmission (boy… tempting. How will I stop?)
3. general hygiene, you nasty disgusting person!
Campylobacter fetus fetus (intestinalis)
- source other than food?
- symptoms in people? (2)
- pregnant and aborting sheep and the birthing fluids
- abortion (miscarriage) in women; septicemia in immunocompromised people
what are 4 names given to the disease caused by Yersinia pestis?
1. Plague
2. Bubonic Plague
3. Black Death
4. Pest
where in the US is plague most commonly found? (2)
- the 4 corner states: NM, AZ, UT, CO
- state parks in California
how is plague acquired?
1. flea bites
2. exposure to the agent through abrasions in the skin or bites from infected animals
3. infected cats with draining abscesses and/or pneumonia
why are fleas so efficient at transmitting plague?
because Yersinia pestis multiplies in the proventriculus of the flea. When it feeds, it cannot swallow the blood, and instead regurgitates it back into its victim. The flea is still hungry, so it bites more people and animals
what are the three syndromes of plague?
1. Bubonic form - lymphadenopathy
2. septicemia - nervous and cerebral systems
3. pneumonic form - secondary to bubonic or septicemic, or primary if inhaled
which type of plague has the highest mortality rate?
pneumonic
how do you control plague?
1. insecticides
2. rodenticides - but depopulate slowly do fleas don't abandon rodents and go straight to humans
3. proper handling (PPE) of pneumonic cats and cats with lymphadenopathy
what are four other names for tularemia?
1. Deer Fly Fever
2. Rabbit Fever
3. Ohara's Disease
4. Francis' Disease
what two agents are responsible for tularemia? Which is the most virulent?
- Francisella tularensis types A and B
- type A is more virulent in humans and rabbits
what are two bacterial bioterrorism agents that we have learned for this exam?
1. Yersinia pestis
2. Francisella tularensis
what are the main reservoir hosts for tularemia?
1. wild rabbits
2. hares
3. beavers
4. muskrats
5. microtine mice
(and their Ixodes and Dermacentor ticks)
what are three domestic animals that may transmit tularemia to humans?
1. rabbits
2. sheep
3. cats
how are people infected with Francisella tularensis? (5)
1. skin via scratches or cuts
2. conjunctiva (e.g., nuzzling your infected rabbit)
3. oral: contaminated water or improperly cooked meat (especially rabbit meat)
4. dust or wool (sheep)
5. handling cats that have been in contact with diseased animals
what are clinical signs of tularemia in cats? (3)
1. malaise
2. oral ulcers
3. lymphadenopathy
what are the four syndromes of tularemia in humans? Which is most fatal?
1. ulceroglandular form - necrotic ulceration and local lymphadenopathy
2. oculoglandular form - ulcerated conjunctiva
3. pneumonic form - most fatal
4. typhoid form - gastroenteritis
what are 3 clinical signs of tularemia in rabbits?
1. swollen lymph nodes
2. splenic abscesses
3. liver necrosis and abscesses
what two antibiotics are used to treat tularemia?
streptomycin or gentamycin (aminoglycosides)
what are four ways to prevent tularemia in people?
1. necropsy or dress animals with gloves
2. properly cook game
3. disinfect water
4. insect repellant (i.e., to repel ticks that bite reservoir hosts)
what are three other names for leptospirosis?
1. Weil's disease
2. Swine herder's disease
3. Stuttgart disease
why are we seeing a resurgence of leptospirosis in urban areas?
Resurgence in urban areas because of raccoons. People feed their cats outside and raccoons contaminate
what are the three most common serovars of Leptospira interrogans that infect dogs, what are two older ones that have been reduced by vaccination?
- current: pomona, grippotyphosa, bratislava
- older: canicola and icterohemorrhagica
what are five Leptospira interrogans serovars that infect humans?
1. pomona
2. hardjo
3. icterohemorrhagica
4. canicola
5. grippotyphosa
Leptospira
- what environment does it prefer?
- what is required for it to reproduce?
- high humidity, neutral or slightly basic soil, warm temperatures
- must be in host to reproduce
how do people acquire leptospirosis?
through contact with:
- infected urine or materials contaminated with infected urine (e.g. ponds)
- milk
- placental material and fetuses
how does Leptospira get into the body? (3)
1. penetration of mucous membranes
2. abrasions in the skin
3. skin softened by prolonged immersion in water
what are thought to be the highly persistent shedders of Leptospira?
rodents
besides dogs and rodents, what other animals carry Leptospira? (8)
- deer
- opossum
- raccoons
- skunks
- foxes
- rabbits
- swine
- cattle
what are the two basic syndromes of leptospirosis in humans?
1. Anicteric form
2. Icteric form
describe the symptoms of the anicteric form of leptospirosis in humans
- fever, chills, malaise, myalgia, stiff neck, vomiting
- i.e., flu-like symptoms
describe the symptoms of the icteric form of leptospirosis in humans
septic meningitis with jaundice, petechia of the skin, renal insufficiency, and hepatomegaly
what are three diagnostic tests for leptospirosis?
1. microscopic agglutination test
2. blood culture first week
3. urine culture after first week
how is leptospirosis vertically transmitted in humans?
from mother's milk to child
how do you control leptospirosis? (4)
- proper clothing and personal hygiene
- rodent control
- environmental control
- vaccination of animals
what causes psittacosis/ornithosis in humans?
Chlamydiophila psittaci
what is the source of Chlamydiophila psittaci?
parrots, parakeets (aka budgies), love birds, pigeons; also occupational with turkeys
what are symptoms of psittacosis in humans?
respiratory illness, cough, chest pain, pharyngitis, pleurisy (pleuritis), pneumonia
what are the clinical signs of Chlamydiophila psittaci in birds?
- mainly GI signs
- occasionally conjunctivitis, pneumonitis
which antibiotics are used to treat psittacosis in humans?
tetracyclines, doxycycline
what are four ways to prevent psittacosis in humans?
1. avoid aerosolizing bird droplets (e.g., wet droppings before cleaning)
2. quarantine and treatment of birds
3. 0.5% chlortetracycline in birds' feed for 45 days
4. test birds with an elementary body agglutination test (IgM)
chlamydiosis in sheep:
- causative agent?
- how do people get infected?
- symptoms in humans?
- Chlamydiophila abortus
- fetal and uterine fluids of infected ewes
- abortions in humans
chlamydiosis in cats
- causative agent?
- symptoms in humans?
- Chlamydiophila felis
- not zoonotic
what causes Q fever?
Coxiella burnetii
what are the sources of Coxiella burnetii (Q fever) infection in humans? (8)
- uterine discharges
- urine
- feces
- milk
- wool in slaughterhouses
- zoo animals
- air conditioner ducts in common with animal quarters
- queening cats and kindling rabbits, from uterine discharges
what are symptoms of Q fever in humans?
- most common: fever, chills, sweating, malaise, and sinus headache
- less common: dry cough, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, pneumonitis, endocarditis, and splenomegaly
- many cases go unnoticed because of mild condition
- no rash
what is the most tell-tale sign that Q fever may be on the farm?
sheep and goats are aborting
what is the causative agent of Lyme disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi
what are the reservoir hosts of Lyme disease?
- white-footed mouse, deer mouse, chipmunks, house mouse, Norway rat, rabbits
- Lizards?
- birds carry but don't transfer organism to humans effectively
how is a person infected with Lyme disease?
Ixodes tick bites; takes 48 hours for transfer of organism
what is the medical name of the target rash associated with Lyme disease?
erythema chronicum migrans
what are clinical signs of Lyme disease in dogs?
1. arthritis that responds to antibiotic treatment
2. shifting leg lameness
3. fever
4. anorexia
5. lymphadenopathy
6. renal disease
how long after a tick bite do humans get Lyme disease?
3 days - 1 month
what is the tell-tale sign of Lyme disease in humans?
erythema chronicum migrans: painless, non-pruritic rash that looks like a "target"
what are the typical initial symptoms of Lyme disease in humans?
1. malaise
2. fever
3. fatigue
4. arthralgia
5. myalgia
6. cephalgia (headache)
what are some chronic symptoms of Lyme disease in humans?
1. meningitis, encephalitis, facial paralysis
2. AV block and tachycardia
3. polyarthritis
how is Lyme disease treated in humans?
- full-blown disease: doxycycline (in children, amoxicillin) for 10-30 days
- if caught early: oral antibiotics such as tetracycline or penicillin
what are 6 ways to prevent Lyme disease in humans?
1. avoid tick infested areas (thick grass/vegetation)
2. mow your lawn
3. wear light colored clothing so you can see ticks and remove them
4. tuck pant legs into boots and wear long-sleeved shirts, buttoned at the wrists
5. tick checks q 4-6 hours
6. DEET on skin; permethrin on clothing
what is the genetics of methicillin resistance in MRSA?
a mutated mecA gene, which encodes an altered penicillin-binding protein; does not allow binding of β-lactams
what are the two most common types of MRSA in humans?
1. community-associated MRSA
2. nosocomial- or hospital-associated MRSA
community-associated MRSA
- who gets it?
- symptoms
- risk factors
- otherwise healthy people without recent hospitalization or anything like that
- skin and soft tissue infection
- crowding, frequent contact, compromised skin, contaminated surfaces (the gym), shared items, poor hygiene
nosocomial- or hospital-associated MRSA
- who gets it?
- risk factors
- immunocompromised individuals in hospitals and healthcare centers
- risk factors: hospitalization, surgery, dialysis, long-term care, indwelling devices, previous Hx of MRSA
what type of MRSA is thought to be a major factor in the rise of MRSA infection in companion animals?
community-associated MRSA
name the bacterial strain for:
- CA-MRSA
- HA-MRSA
- MRSA in large animals
- predominant strain in small animals
- CA-MRSA: USA300
- HA-MRSA: USA100
- large animals: USA500
- small animals: USA100 (also nasal passages in horses)
which antibiotic is used to treat MRSA in humans?
vancomycin
what are 5 precautions that owners treating a pet infected with MRSA should take?
1. wear disposable gloves when changing bandages and treating open wounds
2. disinfect contaminated hard surfaces
3. avoid touching nose, face, eyes when caring for or cleaning up after infected animal
4. wash hands frequently with soapy water or use hand sanitizer
5. wash animal bedding in hot water, use laundry detergent, and dry hot
how do fiber and grain affect milk fat content?
- higher fiber diets have higher fat content
- high grain diets suppress fat content
what is the fat content of
- whole milk?
- 2% milk?
- skim milk?
- whole: 3.5%
- 2%: 2%
- skim: 0.1%
what are the three major constituents of milk?
1. water
2. butter fat
3. solids non-fat (SNF)
what percent of milk is SNF?
8-9%
what is used to make sure water has not been added to milk?
cryoscope
what is transitional milk?
milk in between colostrum and milk; discarded for 5-6 milkings
what are 5 requirements for USDA Grade A milk?
1. no objectionable odors
2. bacterial count < 100,000 cells/mL
3. no drug residues
4. somatic cell count < 750,000 cells/mL
5. bulk tank temp of 40 °C or less within 2 hours of milking and remain at or below this temperature during storage
why is transitional milk discarded?
it contains residues of antibiotic therapy
what is the technique called to measure bacteria quantity in milk to attain Grade A status?
standard plate count
what are common sources of feed and weed flavors in milk?
- wild onion or garlic
- strong flavored feedstuffs such as alfalfa silage
what causes "cow-barny" flavors in milk?
when milk is obtained from unclean or poorly ventilated environments and/or improperly sanitized milk equipment
what causes rancid flavors in milk?
- presence of free fatty acids from
- excessive agitation of milk during collection or transport
- breakdown of milk fat component by proteolytic and lipolytic enzymes present in raw milk
what are the two basic laboratory tests performed to assess milk quality?
1. Standard Plate Count test (SPC)
2. Preliminary Incubation count (PI)
Standard Plate Count test for milk:
- how often is it performed?
- incubation conditions
- tolerance levels
- monthly
- incubated at 32 °C (about 90 °F) for 48 hours
- 100,000 bacteria/mL is the legal maximum; most farms are under 10,000
Preliminary Incubation (PI) count for milk:
- what does this test tell you about the milk?
- incubation conditions
- tolerance levels
- information about shelf life and correlate with the sanitary conditions on farms
- 55 °F for 18 hours
- 100,000 bacteria/mL is acceptable; goal is 20,000 or less
what type of bacteria in milk survive pasteurization? What are two genera?
- thermoduric bacteria
- Lactobacilli and Enterococci
what type of bacteria are most responsible for producing the off-flavors in milk?
psychrotrophic bacteria
if psychrotrophic bacteria are killed during pasteurization, why is it still important to keep their levels in milk low?
because their lipolytic and proteolytic enzymes survive pasteurization
psychrotrophic bacteria:
- percent of total microflora in sanitary conditions
- percent of total microflora in unsanitary conditions
- how are they detected in analysis?
- 10% in good sanitation
- > 75% in poor sanitation
- detected in the PI count
what are two spore-forming bacteria that survive milk pasteurization?
Clostridium and Bacillus
what are four basic ways to control the amount of bacteria in milk at the farm level?
1. cow cleanliness
2. clean milking practices
3. cleaning of milking equipment and storage tanks
4. proper storage conditions in the bulk tank
what are two ways to improve cow cleanliness to keep milk bacterial counts low?
1. cow housing: design and maintenance
2. clip or singe the hair off the cow's udder and switch (once per year by law)
what are four milking practices that can keep milk bacterial counts low?
1. wash and disinfect teats (but not udders) before each milking
2. use disinfectants in wash water
3. dry with individual towels
4. avoid common wash buckets, rags
what are 5 things you can do in the cleaning of milk equipment and bulk tanks to keep milk bacterial counts low?
1. hand washing, automatic washing, or a combination
2. hot water
3. alkaline or chlorinated cleaners for organic soils
4. acidified rinses for mineral (thermoduric bacteria live in milk stone)
5. pre-milking sanitizing to kill organisms not killed in the cleaning process
what type of bacteria are associated with:
- hair on the cow?
- high bulk tank temperature?
- milk stone?
- improper cleaning of equipment?
- hair: all types, including psychrotrophs
- bulk tank: coliforms
- milk stone: thermoduric bacteria
- improper cleaning of equipment: all types, including psychrotrophs (high PI counts)
what are four specifications of a good bulk milk tank?
1. cools to 40 °F within 2 hours of milking; tank must be able to cool 1/4 capacity from 90 °F to 40 °F in 2 hours and then hold below 40 °F
2. 24-hour temperature recording
3. dual compressors
4. in-line heat exchangers
typically, what fraction of bacteria in milk is killed during the pasteurization process?
85-95%
how were the temperatures and times of pasteurization determined?
set to kill Coxiella burnetii (Q fever)
how can you tell if milk has been pasteurized or not?
pasteurization denatures alkaline phosphatase. If AP activity is positive, inadequate pasteurization
pasteurization time and temp for milk:
- traditional method
- high-temperature, short time method
- UHT method
- traditional: 145 °F for 30 minutes
- HTST: 161 °F for 15 seconds
- UHT: 280 °F for 2 seconds
pasteurization time and temp for cream:
- traditional method
- high-temperature, short time method
- traditional: 150 °F for 30 minutes
- HTST: 166 °F for 15 seconds
pasteurization time and temp for ice cream and eggnog:
- traditional method
- high-temperature, short time method
- traditional: 155 °F for 30 minutes
- HTST: 175 °F for 25 seconds
in milk, what somatic cell count indicates
- no infection?
- possible infection?
- probable infection?
- no infection: ≤ 150,000
- possible infection: 150,000 - 500,000
- probable infection: ≥ 500,000
when do legal tolerance limits of somatic cell count in milk apply?
interstate commerce
what are somatic cell count tolerance levels set by
- the USDA?
- fancy European countries?
- USDA: < 750,000 /mL
- fancy European countries: < 400,000 /mL
what is the name of the 1960 law passed by Congress that provided for "zero tolerance" for foreign substances in human foods?
Delaney Clause
what is the biggest residue concern in milk?
antibiotics
what is the most commonly tested-for residue in milk?
β-lactams
what type of tests are most antibiotic residue tests?
they are based on inhibition of bacterial growth
what drug has been routinely tested for in milk since 2011?
Banamine (flunixin)
what is used to detect foreign materials (e.g., rat droppings, maggots) in milk?
sedimentation test
describe the course of milk from the teat end to the cup
1. teat end
2. inflation
3. bowl
4. long milk tube
5. milk line
6. receiver jar
7. milk sock
8. bulk tank
9. milk hose
10. milk truck
11. milk silo
12. processing equipment
13. product truck
14. store
15. home refrigerator
16. cup
name 7 zoonotic bacteria that can be found in raw milk.
1. Brucella
2. Campylobacter
3. Coxiella
4. E. coli O157:H7
5. Listeria
6. Salmonella
7. Tuberculosis
what are symptoms associated with food-borne salmonellosis?
- incubation of 8-72 hours
- fever, malaise, abrupt onset of nausea, abdominal pain, diarrhea, vomiting
- generally a self-limiting disease
- may not feel normal for 2-3 weeks after diarrheal episode
- has been associated with reactive arthritis
how is food-borne salmonellosis diagnosed?
culture and serotyping
how can you detect salmonella in your food?
you can't
epidemiology of salmonellosis:
- routes of transmission
- what type of food is it most commonly found in?
- fecal-oral: direct and indirect (e.g., on food)
- ground beef (7.5% prevalence)
what are 5 ways that Salmonella is transmitted to food?
1. contaminated during processing
2. contaminated raw food that receives no further treatment (e.g. beef tartar)
3. workers with poor personal hygiene (e.g., don't wipe their asses)
4. contamination of properly cooked food from unclean equipment, counter-tops, etc.
5. eggs: transovarially or checked eggs
what are 5 ways to prevent food-borne salmonellosis?
1. hygienic slaughter, processing and handling of meat
2. pasteurization of milk and eggs
3. proper cooking of prepared foods
4. prevent cross-contamination
5. personal hygiene (you nasty, nasty gross person)
proper cooking of food to prevent salmonellosis:
- fried eggs
- boiled eggs
- meat (e.g. ground beef)
- fry eggs until yolks are solid
- boil eggs for at least 9 minutes
- meat should be cooked to 165 °F and juices run clear
what is the etiologic agent for Staphylococcal food poisoning?
Staphylococcus aureus - toxins A-E
Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning
- what type of toxin?
- how much toxin to make you sick?
- what concentration of bacteria is necessary to produce this level of toxin?
- a heat-stabile enterotoxin
- < 1 μg can make you sick
- ≥ 100,000 bacteria/gram of food to reach this level
what are the two most common reservoirs for Staphylococcus aureus that causes food poisoning?
1. humans (skin and respiratory tract)
2. cow mammary glands
what is the incubation period for Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning?
30 minutes - 8 hours (usually 2-4 hours)
what are symptoms of Staphylococcal food poisoning?
- nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, intestinal cramps
- severe cases: headache, fever, hypotension, and blood in vomitus and stools
- recovery within 24 hours
what is the recovery time for Salmonella food poisoning?
may not feel normal for 2-3 weeks after diarrhea
what is the recovery time for Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning?
24 hours
how is Staphylococcal food poisoning diagnosed?
culture and/or demonstration of enterotoxin in food by serological or biological tests. Only toxin needs to be present
what foods are commonly associated with Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning outbreaks? (5)
- high-salt content ham
- processed poultry products
- cured meats
- salads (e.g., potato salad with mayo, mixed with hands)
- cream filled pastries
- raw milk/cheese
how to you detect Staphylococcus in your food
you can't
how do you control Staphylococcus aureus outbreaks in food?
- high or low temperature storage
- educate food handlers that their hands are disgusting, germ-ridden, cesspools of disease
which agent causes Clostridium perfringens food poisoning in people?
C. perfringens type A-toxin
where is Clostridium perfringens type A toxin, which causes food poisoning, formed by the bacteria?
in the food and the host
what are the reservoirs for Clostridium perfringens type A, which causes food poisoning in people?
soil, water, and intestinal tracts of people and animals
what is the incubation period for Clostridium perfringens food poisoning?
8-24 hours
what is the recovery time for Clostridium perfringens food poisoning?
8-24 hours
what are the symptoms of Clostridium perfringens type A food poisoning?
watery diarrhea, intestinal gas, cramps, and nausea (usually no vomiting or fever)
how is Clostridium perfringens food poisoning diagnosed?
culture organism
epidemiology of Clostridium perfringens type A food poisoning:
- where does it grow
- when does it produce toxin?
- what types of food is it associated with?
- grows in anaerobic environments in the environment, intestinal tract, and cooked food
- produced toxin when it sporulates
- improper storage of food, left-overs that had not been cooled down properly, reheated food allowed to sit before eating; common at banquets and holiday meals, where food is prepared and it sits awhile
how do you inactivate Clostridium perfringens type A enterotoxin and spores?
boil for 3 minutes
how do you detect Clostridium perfringens in your food?
you can't
how do you control Clostridium perfringens outbreaks in food?
- adequate heating to inactivate spores and toxin
- eat food hot
- refrigerate leftovers quickly
- separate broth/gravy from meat to prevent anaerobic environment
what causes botulism in humans?
Clostridium botulinum types A - G toxins
where are Clostridium botulinum toxins formed
in food or host
what serovars (types) of Clostridium botulinum are found in
- humans?
- improperly canned foods?
- mammals other than humans?
- fowl?
- smoked fish?
- humans: A, B, E, F
- improperly canned foods: A, B
- mammals other than humans: C, D
- fowl: A, C
- smoked fish: G
what are reservoirs for Clostridium botulinum?
soil, water, intestinal tracts of people, animals, and fish
what is the incubation period for botulism?
2 hours - 8 days (usually 1-2 days) after consumption
what is the recovery time for botulism?
may take 6-8 months
what are symptoms of botulism in adult humans?
- nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, followed by impaired vision
- difficulty swallowing and in speech, muscular weakness and paralysis
what are symptoms of botulism in infant humans?
constipation → weakness → poor feeding → loss of head control
what is an infamous source of botulism in babies?
honey
how is botulism diagnosed?
ID of toxin in serum or stools
what are three causes of botulism?
1. improper canning
2. improper food storage
3. honey
preventing botulism:
- time and temp to kill spores when canning
- time and temp to cook food to destroy toxin
- canning: ≥ 250 °F for 20 minutes
- cook at 176 °F for 30 minutes or boil for 10 minutes to destroy toxin
what is the most common cause of enteritis in humans?
Campylobacter jejuni
what are reservoirs for Campylobacter jejuni, which can contaminate food?
cattle, poultry, shellfish, produce
what is the incubation period for Campylobacter jejuni food poisoning?
2-5 days
what are symptoms of Campylobacter jejuni food poisoning?
- diarrhea, abdominal cramps, headache, and fever
- associated with Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome and Guillain Barré Syndrome
what age groups of people are predisposed to Campylobacter jejuni food poisoning?
- children < 5
- 15-29 year olds
how is Campylobacter jejuni food poisoning diagnosed?
culture
why is it relevant for food safety that the infectious dose of Campylobacter jejuni is about 500 cells (low dose)?
because cross-contamination is a problem
what are the two major sources of Campylobacter jejuni in food?
- raw dairy
- POULTRY (up to 80% of carcasses are infected)
what are 3 ways to control Campylobacter jejuni food-borne outbreaks?
1. cleanliness in milk handling and slaughter of poultry
2. proper cooking and pasteurization
3. prevent cross-contamination of food (e.g., don’t prepare the salad on the cutting board where you just had the raw chicken)
what is the major reservoir for E. coli O157:H7?
cattle
what are the clinical signs of E. coli O157:H7 in cattle?
- older cattle are asymptomatic
- calves 1-4 months may have bloody diarrhea
what is the incubation period for E. coli O157:H7 food poisoning?
48 hours
what are symptoms of E. coli O157:H7 food poisoning?
- enteritis, blood in feces
- ± hemolytic uremic syndrome
- most common cause of acute renal failure in children
why is E. coli O157:H7 very dangerous to children?
it can cause acute renal failure
how is E. coli O157:H7 food poisoning diagnosed?
culture of stool, food product
where in the US is E. coli O157:H7 most prevalent?
Northwest
what is the infectious dose of E. coli O157:H7?
as low as 10 organisms
in what foods has E. coli O157:H7 been found?
- milk
- meat (especially ground beef)
- vegetables (e.g., spinach)
- alfalfa sprouts
- unpasteurized apple cider
what are venues where E. coli O157:H7 can be transmitted to humans?
1. fecal contamination of food
2. person-to person (e.g. day care facilities)
3. petting zoos and fairs
4. rafters of barns
what are 5 ways to control E. coli O157:H7
1. pasteurize
2. cook meat to 160 °F and until juices run clear
3. wash vegetables
4. wash hands after handling or being exposed to animals
5. don't eat in areas where animals are being housed or exhibited
what is the toxin produced by EHEC (enterohemorrhagic E. coli) that brings on the hurt?
Shigella toxin type 1 or 2
how is EHEC food poisoning diagnosed?
culture of stool, food product
what are four foods in which EHEC food poisoning outbreaks have been found?
1. Romaine lettuce
2. ground beef
3. bear jerky
4. sprouts (in Europe)
if EHEC is found in beef during routine inspection at a meat processing plant, what is done with the meat?
- can't be sold raw to the public
- it is either destroyed, or is heavily cooked for things like chili, stews, etc.
in what foods can you find Listeria monocytogenes?
milk, vegetables, poultry, processed meats (e.g. hot dogs, lunch meats)
who is most at risk of food poisoning from Listeria? (5)
- children
- immunocompromised individuals
- pregnant women
- people on antacids
- people older than 60
what is the incubation period for Listeriosis?
3-47 days
what are symptoms of Listeriosis in people?
- chills, fever, headache
- septicemia
- abortion (miscarriage) in pregnant women
which food-borne bacteria is a psychrophile?
Listeria monocytogenes
how do you control Listeria in food?
pasteurization and proper cooking
what food is associated with Vibrio parahaemolyticus?
shellfish
what is the incubation period for Vibrio parahaemolyticus?
4 hours - 4 days
what are symptoms of Vibrio parahaemolyticus food poisoning from shellfish?
after 4 hours - 4 days, acute gastroenteritis, vomiting, fever, diarrhea. Lasts for 3 days.
what is the recovery time for Vibrio parahaemolyticus?
3 days
how do you diagnose a Vibrio parahaemolyticus food poisoning from shellfish?
culture seafood
under what conditions are shellfish likely to be contaminated by Vibrio parahaemolyticus?
- uncooked/improperly cooked and/or refrigerated shellfish
- if they have been harvested in warm waters (e.g. Gulf of Mexico in months that do not have the letter "R" in their name)
how do you detect Vibrio parahaemolyticus in shellfish?
you can't
how do you detect Clostridium botulinum in your food?
bulging cans, gassy contents, malodorous and obviously spoiled
which bacteria causes food poisoning in shellfish, contact with the marine environment (e.g. drinking pond water), and raw fish?
Vibrio vulnificus
what are symptoms of food poisoning from fish or shellfish caused by Vibrio vulnificus?
fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain
who is at greatest risk of contracting Vibrio vulnificus food poisoning from shellfish or fish?
- people with chronic illnesses such as liver disease
- immunocompromised
if you have liver disease and eat raw oysters, what are you asking to get?
Vibrio vulnificus septicemia, and if you get it, you have a 50% chance that you will die
how is seafood poisoning from Vibriosis treated?
tetracyclines
what is scromboid toxicity?
when proteus and/or Klebsiella act on fish muscle with high tryptophan content (tuna, bluefish, mackerel, Mahi-Mahi), they produce a histamine like substance, which causes misery.
what are symptoms of scromboid toxicity?
- histamine release type reaction
- nausea, vomiting, facial flushing, labial edema, oral burning sensation
how do you prevent scromboid toxicity?
proper refrigeration of fish so that proteus and Klebsiella don't start breaking down the meat
what causes paralytic shellfish poisoning?
caused by a dinoflagellate (Gymnodium breve) that causes red tide.
what are four syndromes associated with paralytic shellfish poisoning?
1. paralysis - after 30 minutes
2. erythema
3. GI - nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
4. respiratory - allergy type reaction
Ciguatoxin:
- what produces it?
- in what foods do you find it?
- how is it inactivated in food
- dinoflagellates
- fish high up in the food chain such as barracuda, grouper, red snapper
- cooking doesn't inactivate it.
what are symptoms of ciguatoxin poisoning from eating contaminated barracuda, grouper, or red snapper?
GI, followed by burning or prickling sensations, muscle aches, cramping, weakness, ataxia, and death from respiratory paralysis