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334 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
quantity of drug or chemical that remains or accumulates in cells is called what?
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tissue residue
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concentration of a drug or chemical that will be permitted in feed or food is called what?
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tolerance
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concentration of a drug or chemical that will not cause any adverse effect is called what?
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no effect level
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time requires for a drug or chemical to be metabolized or excreted from body systems before slaughter or consumption to reach tolerance levels is called what?
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withdrawal time
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any drug in cells above the acceptable level would be called what?
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tissue residue
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define "tissue residue"
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quantity of drug or chemical that remains or accumulates in cells
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define "tolerance" (with respect to residues)
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concentration of a drug or chemical that will be permitted in feed or food
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define "no effect level"
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concentration of a drug or chemical that will not cause any adverse effect
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define "withdrawal time"
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time requires for a drug or chemical to be metabolized or excreted from body systems before slaughter or consumption to reach tolerance levels
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what are six classes of drugs that could be found in animal-derived food
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1. antimicrobials and antibiotics
2. insecticides, herbicides, and fungicides 3. industrial or environmental pollutants 4. heavy metals 5. growth promotants, coccidiostats, and feed efficiency enhancers 6. hormones |
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what are five reasons why we are concerned about antibiotic residue?
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1. allergic reactions - 10% public allergic to penicillin
2. adulterated product - public perception 3. loss of market - residue = nobody's going to buy your animal 4. inhibition of dairy processing - milk cultures; curdling to make cheese 5. removal of approved drugs / extra-label drug usage |
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what are the top three reasons why residues are found in meat or milk?
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1. failure to observe withdrawal time (51% of the time)
2. unapproved drugs (18%) 3. poor medical records (12%) |
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what are 3 reasons why there would be failure to observe withdrawal time and thus have a residue?
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1. more than one person treating or making culling or sale decisions
2. forced sale of sick and treated animals 3. withdrawal time not known |
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what are four reasons why unapproved drugs may cause a residue problem in meat or milk?
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1. label directions not followed - different dose or route of administration
2. vet's directions not followed 3. improper feed mixing 4. extra-label drug usage |
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what are three reasons why poor medical records may lead to drug residues in meat and milk?
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1. animal not identified properly
2. withdraw date not written down 3. treatment dates not recorded |
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what are the top 3 parites responsible for residue occurrence?
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1. producers (76%)
2. unidentified (22%) - (probably the mayor's/sheriff's cousin and you can't fire him or rat him out because of that thing you did a few years ago, and you owe him) 3. veterinarians (1%) - (tell me it ain't so, Dr. Pelzer! Tell me it ain't so!) |
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how does FSIS determine how many animals to test for residues?
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to detect a 1-3% prevalence of violations
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what things are submitted to the lab to be tested for residues in meat animals?
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- organs of excretion - liver and kidney
- organs of storage - fat - edible products - meat, liver, kidney |
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what are four subsets of the animal population that are tested for residues?
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1. animals suspected of being treated prior to marketing
2. animals originating from a farm that has had residue problems 3. random sample of loads of "normal" animals 4. high risk types of animals (cull cows, veal calves, swine) |
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what are the top 3 animals commonly tested for residues because they are considered "high risk"?
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1. cull cows (45%)
2. veal calves (40%) 3. swine (6%) |
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what are the three basic methodologies used to detect residues?
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1. bacteriologic testing - based on inhibition of bacterial growth
2. chemical tests - thin layer chromatography 3. immunologic tests |
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what are the top 3 routes of administration that have led to drug residue violations?
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1. injected drugs (46%)
2. oral (29%) 3. intramammary (18%) |
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what are 13 ways (yes, thirteen) to avoid having residues?
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1. proper usage of antibiotics and feed additives
2. designate one person responsible for treatment of animals 3. follow label directions 4. observe recommended withdrawal times 5. identification of treated animals 6. keep an accurate record 7. purchased animals should be regarded as treated until proven otherwise 8. flush feeding systems, mixers, and clean holding facilities 9. be aware of recycled feed - manure 10. discard milk from all quarters (i.e., if treating only one quarter for mastitis) 11. dry cow treatment preparations should be used only in dry cows and withdrawal recommendations followed 12. do not sell treated animals until withdrawal period has occurred 13. have animals tested prior to marketing |
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what are two basic types of hormones used in animal production to increase yield?
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1. BST
2. hormonal growth implants |
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what type of molecule is BST hormone?
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protein
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what is the mode of action of BST when injected into a cow?
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stimulates the liver to produce IGF-1, which regulates the conversion of dietary nutrients to milk.
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rBST:
- how is it produced? - where and when is it administered to dairy cows? - how much does it increas milk production? - what is the drug vehicle? |
- produced by fermentation with scary genetically modified bacteria
- injected into tailhead of cows after 63 days in milk q 14 days - 10% ↑ in milk production - this is a depository, which is gradually released into the cow's bloodstream over time |
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Milk from rBST-treated cows:
- how does the milk differ from non-BST cows' milk? - how do you tell the difference between rBST and natural BST in cows' milk? |
- milk is identical except slight increase in IGF-1 levels
- you cannot tell the difference because they are identical molecules |
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what is the public health significance of the use of BST to increase milk production in cows?
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none
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what are 3 hormones that are implanted into food animals as growth promotants?
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1. estrogen
2. progesterone 3. testosterone |
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what is the delivery vehicle and route of administration of steroid hormones to be used as growth promotants in food animals?
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- implantable pellets
- implanted into the middle-third of the ear and the ears are discarded after slaughter |
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how does the concentration of steroid hormones differ in meat from an animal treated with a hormonal growth implant versus one that is not treated?
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no difference
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what is the meat withdrawal time for animals treated with a steroid hormonal growth implant?
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none
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what are three synthetic growth hormones used in meat production?
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1. trenbolone acetate
2. zeranol 3. melengesterol |
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what is the only legal way to administer steroidal growth hormones to a food anima?
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in the form of implants, with a specific dosage, and very specific route of administration (e.g., in the ear)
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name 8 drugs prohibited for extralabel use in food animals
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1. chloramphenicol
2. clenbuteral (a muscle enhancer) 3. diethylstilbesterol (synthetic esterogen; ↑ cervical cancer in women) 4. ipronidazole and other nitroimidazoles 5. furazolidone and nitrofurazone (antibacterials) 6. fluoroquinolones 7. glycopeptides (such as vancomycin, which is used in humans to treat MRSA) 8. phenylbutazone in female dairy cattle 20 months of age and older |
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what are 9 animal record requirements for food animals, to document for food residues?
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1. Identify the animal
2. Animal species treated 3. Number of animals 4. Condition being treated 5. Name of drug and active ingredient 6. Dosage prescribed or used 7. Duration of treatment 8. Specified withdrawal, withholding or discard 9. Keep records for 2 years |
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what are four major methods by which meat and poultry inspection provide consumer protection?
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1. eliminating diseased meat
2. esthetic factors - eliminate objectionable/undesirable meat 3. clean equipment and environment - strict hygiene protocols 4. labeling - prevent adulteration and misrepresentation of products |
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what is contained in the Wholesome Meat Inspection Act of 1967?
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1. antemortem inspection of all slaughtered animals
2. disposition: passed, condemned, suspect 3. postmortem exam of viscera and carcass 4. destroy condemned carcasses 5. Secretary of Agriculture could destroy all unfit products 6. No deception of sales 7. sanitary regulations of the plant 8. applies to interstate and intrastate commerce 9. imported meat: same standards of inspection 10. state inspection must be at least equal to federal inspection 11. if states have their own inspection service, federal pays for half 12. interstate commerce of poultry is federal 13. inspection of processing plants that do not slaughter, but make products, such as sausage or boxed beef |
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what is the definition of "custom slaughter"?
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privately owned animals that are slaughtered for the owner and owner's personal use
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comment on custom slaughter:
- who gets the meat? - inspection - labeling |
- owner must get the meat and cannot sell it
- the plant is still subject to sanitation and equipment inspection - meat must be stamped with "not for sale" on the package |
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comment on the exemption for small poultry farmers in the Wholesome Meat Act of 1967
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- farmers can market up to 250 turkeys or 1000 chickens or combinations thereof to sell uninspected, dressed birds directly to consumers
- small processors can handle up to 5000 turkeys or 10,000 chickens per year - the plant is inspected, but each bird is not inspected |
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what animals are not covered by the Humans Slaughter Act of 1978
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poultry
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what are three basic laws set forth in the Humane Slaughter act of 1978
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1. animals had to be slaughtered humanely
2. animals had to be handled humanely 3. imported animals had to be slaughtered humanely |
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what are the 5 methods of humane slaughter?
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1. captive bolt
2. gunshot 3. carbon dioxide 4. electrical stunning 5. Kosher slaughter (shechita) |
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slaughter by gunshot to head:
- types of bullets - what head parts must be thrown away? |
- hollow points; frangible iron plastic composition bullets
- brains, cheek meat, and head meat are inedible |
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stunning by carbon dioxide:
- concentration in air mixture - time - disadvantage |
- 60% CO2 with air
- 15 seconds - expensive |
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what is a complication of electrical stunning when used for slaughter?
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need to regulate voltage and amperage to avoid broken backs and hemorrhages
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electrical slaughter
- how does it work? - what 3 typed of animals can you use it on? |
- stops heart
- hogs, sheep, calves |
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how does Kosher slaughter work?
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a single, instantaneous cut to sever carotid and jugular vessels; blood cannot touch the carcass according to Kosher law
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inspection of the live animal prior to slaughter is called what?
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antemortem inspection
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the ultimate handling of an animal/carcass or its parts after it has been inspected is called what?
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disposition
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animal is deemed fit for slaughter (appears normal) is called what?
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passed for slaughter
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an animal possibly affected by a condition or disease that requires condemnation of the carcass, either wholly or in part, when slaughtered is called what?
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suspect animal
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animal that may not go to slaughter, judged as unfit for food at the antemortem inspection is called what?
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condemned animal
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when the seller (the farmer) and the buyer (the slaughter plant) agree on payment for that portion of the animal that passes inspection, thus the animal is purchased “subject” to passing inspection is called what?
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subject to inspection
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animals that are dead, dying, or drugged is called what?
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3D
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Define antemortem inspection
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inspection of the live animal prior to slaughter
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Define disposition
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the ultimate handling of an animal/carcass or its parts after it has been inspected
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Define passed for slaughter
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animal is deemed fit for slaughter (appears normal)
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Define suspect animal
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an animal possibly affected by a condition or disease that requires condemnation of the carcass, either wholly or in part, when slaughtered
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condemned animal
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animal that may not go to slaughter, judged as unfit for food at the antemortem inspection
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Define subject to inspection
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when the seller (the farmer) and the buyer (the slaughter plant) agree on payment for that portion of the animal that passes inspection, thus the animal is purchased “subject” to passing inspection
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Define 3D
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animals that are dead, dying, or drugged
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besides dead, dying, and drugged, what other condition of an animal is immediately condemned?
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down (recumbent and can't get up)
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what are five objectives of antemortem inspection?
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1. Remove animals having conditions undetectable on routine postmortem inspection.
2. Prevent unnecessary contamination of the slaughtering facility. 3. Obtain information on suspect animals for better PM disposition 4. Withhold animals exhibiting abnormal conditions that make them unfit for human food. 5. Cooperation with animal disease control agencies. |
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what are the 3 types of Final Disposition of an animal for slaughter?
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1. Release for slaughter - Passed
2. U.S. Suspect 3. U.S. Condemned |
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antemortem inspection procedures:
1. when must the animal be inspected 2. where shall the animal be inspected (if not poultry) 3. where shall poultry be inspected? 4. what should the animal be doing when it is inspected? 5. how do you make sure suspects and condemned are identified? 6. when are suspects killed? 7. what do you do with condemned animals 8. what if the farmer wants the animal back? |
1. Inspection must be made of all animals presented for slaughter on the day of slaughter.
2. Inspections are made in the animal’s holding pens or specially designed pens. 3. Poultry are inspected on the truck. 4. Animals are examined both at rest and in motion - horses are viewed from a 48 inch walk way for fistulous withers. 5. Suspects and condemned animals are tagged. 6. Suspects are killed at the end of the day and separately from the healthy animals. 7. Condemned animals are destroyed 8. Animals cannot go back home. |
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how do you dispose of an animal with a localized lesion that is not indicative of a generalized condition?
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released for slaughter (passed)
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suspects
- when are they slaughtered? - how must they be handled after slaughtered? - how are they disposed? |
- tagged and killed at the end of the day
- these animals are subject to a PM inspection - may be passed, may have a portion of the carcass rejected, or condemned entirely |
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what is done with condemned animals?
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they never enter the abattoir. They are euthanized and either tanked or rendered
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antemortem inspection clinical signs:
- what is required to pass? - what is declared a suspect? - what two things condemn? |
- pass: nothing observable that will keep animal's carcass from being passed on PM exam
- suspect: localized or chronic pathological condition which may affect carcass being passed on PM exam - (1) animals with signs that are injurious to human health; (2) animals showing signs of systemic illness |
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on an antemortem exam, what disposition is given to an animal that has multiple abscesses?
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multiple abscesses indicates a generalized condition - condemn
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on an antemortem exam, what disposition is given to an animal that has an epithelioma or ocular SCC?
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- extensive and/or 2ndary infection, spread to LNN, or cachexia, condemn
- confined to eye, suspect |
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on an antemortem exam, what disposition is given to an animal that has lumpy jaw (Actinomycosis)?
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- usually localized, suspect
- if cachectic, condemn |
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on an antemortem exam, what disposition is given to an animal that is a downer cow?
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condemn. BSE risk
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on an antemortem exam, what disposition is given to an animal that has pneumonia?
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- if advanced and generalized, condemn
- if less severe (e.g. runny nose, but no fever), suspect |
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on an antemortem exam, what disposition is given to an animal that has CNS damage?
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- active CNS infection, condemn
- chronic (e.g. head tilt), suspect |
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on an antemortem exam, what disposition is given to an animal that has a retained placenta?
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slaughter after passage of placenta
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at what fever temperature do you condemn the following animals:
- cattle? - swine? - sheep? - what needs to be taken into account with fever? |
- cattle: > 105 °F
- swine: > 106 °F - sheep: > 105 °F - need to take into account if there is high ambient temperature |
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at antemortem inspection, what do you do with tuberculosis reactors?
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- classify as suspect; if no lesions, pass as restricted for cooking
- suspects with lesions postmortem, condemn - animals with fever and/or dying antemortem, condemn and given a postmortem examination |
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at antemortem inspection, what do you do with brucella reactors?
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- ID by ear tag and treat like any other animal
- goats are condemned because of B. melitensis |
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at antemortem inspection, what do you do when you have an animal suspected to have a reportable disease?
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- notify state vet and they will advise
- if a FAD, animals are condemned and facility will be quarantined |
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what are the four final postmortem dispositions?
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1. U.S. Passed
2. U.S. Condemned 3. U.S. Retained 4. Passed with restriction = cooking, refrigeration |
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what are five basic reasons how a carcass or part of a carcass will be condemned at postmortem inspection?
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1. removal and condemn diseased abnormal tissue if lesion is local and minor
2. generalized lesions are condemned 3. body function abnormalities that are local, but produce a systemic effect (e.g. round worms → jaundice; worn teeth → emaciation) are condemned 4. conditions injurious to public health (e.g. drug residues) are condemned 5. offensive and repugnant odors (e.g. tumors, boar odor, bruises) are rejected for esthetic quality |
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unwholesome products because of disease or severe contamination are called what?
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condemned products
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unwholesome products because they are usually not eaten and are not expected in food are called what?
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inedible products
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any substance that will change the appearance, taste, or smell of a product and thus destroy the product for food purposes is called what?
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denaturant
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changing the physical appearance of a product in order to discourage its use as human food is called what?
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decharacterize
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products that may not be sold without further processing such as cooking or freezing are called what?
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restricted products
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Define condemned products
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unwholesome products because of disease or severe contamination
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Define inedible products
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unwholesome products because they are usually not eaten and are not expected in food
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Define denaturant
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any substance that will change the appearance, taste, or smell of a product and thus destroy the product for food purposes
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Define decharacterize
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changing the physical appearance of a product in order to discourage its use as human food
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Define restricted products
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products that may not be sold without further processing such as cooking or freezing
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what is the purpose of decharacterization of meat? What are three things used to decharacterize meat?
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- used for products that are condemned for human consumption but could be used as an ingredient in animal food
- approved red and green dyes, charcoal |
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what are four methods used to destroy inedible and condemned product?
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1. hashing
2. rendering 3. incineration 4. denaturing - application of a denaturing agent such as cresylic disinfectant |
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what are three generalized diseases characterized by congestion, hyperemia, petechial hemorrhages, tissue edema, or lymphadenopathy that would cause a carcass to be condemned?
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1. septicemia
2. pyemia 3. toxemia |
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what are the lesions post-mortem associated with septicemia, pyemia, or toxemia, that would cause condemnation of a carcass?
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congestion, hyperemia, petechial hemorrhages, tissue edema, lymphadenopathy
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tuberculosis:
- what tissues are examined post-mortem for this disease? - what is the lesion? - what body system is affected by this disease? |
- lymph nodes
- granulomatous inflammation - respiratory |
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what Mycobacterium species of bacteria most commonly infect swine? What system is affected? When can a carcass pass with granulomatous lymph nodes? When it is passed restricted for cooking?
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- M. avium serovars are most common
- this disease is associated with the digestive system (as opposed to respiratory with TB in cattle) - if localized (e.g. only in mesenteric and cervical lymph nodes), carcass is passed and the GI tissues are condemned - if diffuse (e.g., mesenteric and femoral lymph nodes), it is passed as restricted and must be cooked at standardized time and temperature |
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what is the standardized temperature and time for cooking restricted passed meat (e.g., swine with granulomatous lymphadenitis)?
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170 °F for 30 minutes
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what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has arthritis?
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not condemned unless there are associated systemic changes
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what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has pneumonia
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if active (acute), determined by examining lymph nodes, condemn. Chronic passes
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what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has pericarditis?
|
- if localized, trim lesion and pass carcass
- if systemic (e.g. edema, organ congestion; and antemortem conditions such as congestive heart failure, cachexia), condemn |
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what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has caseous lymphadenitis?
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depending on degree of involvement, affect part or whole carcass is condemned
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what are three parasitic conditions that may cause condemnation or restricted passed in a postmortem inspection?
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1. Bovine tapeworms (taeniasis): Taenia saginata
2. Swine tapeworms (taeniasis): Taenia solium 3. Swine roundworms (trichinosis): Trichina |
|
Bovine taeniasis postmortem:
- 3 other names - which muscles is it found - disposition |
(Taenia saginata)
- cysticercus bovis, cysticercosis, measly beef - heart and masseter muscles - carcasses without extensive involvement are treated by excising apparent cysts and holding at -15 °F for 15 days or cooked at 140 °F |
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Porcine taeniasis postmortem:
- 2 other names - why is it a public health concern? - disposition |
(Taenia solium)
- cysticercosis, measly pork - humans are definitive host - if not extensive, passed restricted for cooking or freezing |
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all pork should be considered infected with what unless cooked or frozen at a very low temperature? Why do we consider all pork as infected?
|
- Trichina; roundworms
- because they are not readily detected on PM exam |
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how is Trichina in pork killed?
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- heating to 131 °F in pork meat
- processed pork: 137 °F - can freeze to -40 °F |
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besides pork, what other meat can contain Trichina (roundworms)?
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bear meat
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what are 8 liver conditions that may be found on a postmortem examination?
|
1. milk spots - Ascaris suum
2. Cirrhosis 3. Carotenosis - enlarged yellow friable liver 4. Sawdust Liver - cattle - small areas of necrosis 5. Telangiectasis - young, well fattened beef - small purplish-black to blue areas on surface and throughout liver (associated with high grain diet) 6. pale liver 7. abscess(es) 8. fluke damage and/or presence of flukes |
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liver postmortem examination: what do you do if you find milk spots?
|
condemn the liver (esthetics)
|
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liver postmortem examination: what do you do if you find cirrhosis?
|
condemn the liver; condemn the carcass if systemic changes present
|
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liver postmortem examination: what do you do if you find a sawdust liver (cattle)?
|
condemn carcass
|
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liver postmortem examination: what do you do if you find carotenosis?
|
condemn carcass
|
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liver postmortem examination: what do you do if you find pale liver
|
pass if just fatty and from a near-term cow
|
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liver postmortem examination: what do you do if you find telangiectasis (young, well-fattened beef)
|
condemn liver
|
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liver postmortem examination: what do you do if you find abscesses?
|
- if ≤ 2 abscesses, trim out and pass the rest of the liver
- usually not done because liver is not worth much money |
|
liver postmortem examination: what do you do if you find fluke damage/flukes?
|
condemn carcass
|
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why are animals with jaundice condemned?
|
because jaundice usually indicates uremia. When uremic meat is cooked, it smells like urine
|
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what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has skin conditions?
|
- if localized, trim
- if systemic, condemn carcass |
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what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has abscesses?
|
- usually are local and are trimmed out
|
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what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has eosinophilic myositis?
|
- usually seen in well-fattened cattle and has an unknown etiology
- lesions may be mistaken for sarcosporidiosis - (like cysticercosis) carcasses without extensive involvement are treated by excising apparent cysts and holding at -15 °F for 15 days or cooked at 140 °F |
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what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has emaciation?
|
condemned
|
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what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has cachexia?
|
usually antemortem, but regardless, condemned
|
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what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has melanosis (aberrant melanin deposits)?
|
- trim and pass
- must differentiate from melanoma |
|
on what tissues would you normally find melanosis?
|
skin, brain, tongue, palate
|
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on what tissues do you detect icterus?
|
- tissues that are normally white
- intima of large vessels, sclera, tendons, joint surfaces, connective tissue |
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what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has malignant melanoma?
|
condemned
|
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what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has epithelioma or SCC?
|
- if there are mets, condemn (look at parotid lymph nodes)
- if tumor extends behind eye, condemn - otherwise, can pass |
|
what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has embryonal nephroma?
|
- well-circumscribed, benign tumor commonly seen in swine
- if local, trim and pass carcass - if secondary changes, condemn |
|
what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has bruises
|
trim off bruises and pass the carcass
|
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what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has pale soft exudative pork (PSE)?
|
pass
|
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what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has nephrosis?
|
depending on severity of lesions, may be a cause of uremia and therefore condemned
|
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what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has chemical residues
|
- hold and test; condemn if contaminated
|
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what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has sexual odors (i.e. boar odor)
|
can't be used as food, but can be used as part of comminuted product such as sausage
|
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what final disposition is given to an animal, on postmortem exam, that has bone taint
|
condemn the affected area (e.g., condemn the taint)
|
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what is bone taint/sour bone/sour round/ham taint/sour ham?
|
occurring in July and August, putrefactive bacteria that spoil heavily muscled areas due to improper slaughter and/or refrigeration
|
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which lymph nodes are inspected postmortem in the head?
|
1. parotid
2. retropharyngeal (suprapharyngeal) 3. mandibular 4. atlantooccipital |
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what is the order of a postmortem exam, with regards to the part of the body? (3)
|
1. head
2. viscera 3. carcass |
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on an antemortem exam, what disposition is given to an animal that has signs of mastitis?
|
suspect animal
|
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on an antemortem exam, what disposition is given to an animal that has injected sclera?
|
condemn
|
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on an antemortem exam, what disposition is given to an animal that has a prolapsed vagina?
|
suspect animal
|
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swelling on the ventrum of a boar antemortem - disposition?
|
suspect
|
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down cow that recently calved; farmer wants to send to market. What do you tell the farmer?
|
wait until cow is ambulatory, then send to market
|
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bull sitting like a dog antemortem - disposition?
|
condemn
|
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SCC on the eye of a cow antemortem - disposition?
|
suspect - if evidence of metathesis (parotid lymph node) or tumor grows behind the eye
|
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sheep that is lambing, can you sell her?
|
do nothing until she lambs; don't bring her to slaughter
|
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cow that has lumps on the dorsum and lymphoma of the eye antemortem - disposition?
|
condemn; esthetics
|
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sow with a head tilt antemortem - disposition?
|
suspect
|
|
sow with a head tilt and a fever antemortem - disposition?
|
condemn
|
|
pig carcass with diamond skin lesions PM - disposition?
|
condemn (NB, acute systemic disease)
|
|
cow with lumpy jaw on postmortem - disposition?
|
- if just confined to head, condemn head and pass the rest
- if carcass is cachectic (lack of pericardial fat, or fat that is edematous, watery, and gray, in the coronary groove of the heart; also lack of fat/serous atrophy of fat around kidney), condemn |
|
lungs with disperse pneumonia on PM - disposition?
|
- if hemorrhagic lymph nodes condemn
- if chronic pneumonia, pass |
|
lungs with petechial hemorrhages on a young animal on PM - disposition?
|
may be ascarids; condemn lungs and if milk spots on the liver, condemn the liver
|
|
guts with fibrin tags on the serosa, with hemorrhages on PM - disposition?
|
- Salmonella
- condemn |
|
on PM, muscles are dark, have a butyric acid smell on PM - disposition?
|
blackleg; condemn
|
|
sow on PM with a shattered femur on postmortem; was able to walk in antemortem - disposition?
|
pass rest of carcass and condemn or trim hind quarter - bone fragments can cause injury
|
|
lungs with multiple large masses in lungs PM exam - disposition?
|
- if tumors, mets, condemn (esthetic)
|
|
pig with parasitic cysts PM - disposition?
|
- Taenia solium (tapeworms) - (Taenia saginata in Brazil)
- humans are definitive host; trim out cysts if there are only a few and freeze or cook (pass restricted); if too many cysts, condemn |
|
heart with vegetative endocarditis PM exam - disposition?
|
systemic - condemn the cow
- cow would have intermittent fevers; because of breaking off of emboli; cows would have a murmur |
|
pig with a huge abscess on the leg postmortem - disposition?
|
- condemn the leg
- if no CHACHEXIA and lymph nodes ok, pass the rest |
|
bull with swollen prepuce on antemortem - disposition?
|
"water belly" = rupture of the urethra
- suspect - burn the fat. If it smells like urine, condemn |
|
PM kidneys are hemorrhagic - disposition?
|
- condemn kidneys
- check if uremic (burn fat) |
|
cow with fatty liver on PM - disposition?
|
condemn liver
|
|
in which geographical locations in the US have Hantavirus occurred? (4)
|
- SW US
- 4 corner states - Northwest - VA on Appalachian Trail |
|
how is hantavirus transmitted to humans
|
inhalation of aerosolized rodent excreta
|
|
hantavirus:
- reservoir hosts? - by what routes is the virus shed? |
- deer mouse, rodents
- feces, urine, and saliva |
|
what is the morbidity and mortality of hantavirus in humans?
|
- low morbidity
- high mortality (50%) in humans |
|
how do humans die of hantavirus?
|
acute respiratory failure
|
|
what are symptoms of hantavirus infections in people?
|
- flu-like → viral pneumonia
- fever, fatigue, chills, myalgia, headache - cough that leads to rapidly progressive bilateral pneumonia and respiratory failure |
|
what are the clinical signs of hantavirus in animals?
|
none
|
|
what is the incubation period for hantavirus?
|
2 weeks or more
|
|
how do you control the risk of contracting hantavirus? (3)
|
- eliminate rodents inside of homes
- reduce rodent shelter and food sources around homes - when cleaning rodent-infested areas, spray area with water to reduce dust aerosolization |
|
what are six zoonotic arboviral infections?
|
1. St. Louis encephalitis
2. West Nile Virus 3. EEE 4. WEE 5. VEE 6. LaCrosse Encephalitis |
|
what type of virus is St. Louis encephalitis?
|
flavivirus
|
|
St. Louis encephalitis:
- where in the US? - what time of year? |
- endemic in rural west, clusters in low socioeconomic and older neighborhoods, which promote breeding areas for mosquitos
- occurs in 2nd half of summer and early autumn (- man is accidental host) |
|
how is St. Louis encephalitis transmitted to humans?
|
mosquito bite
|
|
what are the reservoir hosts for St. Louis encephalitis?
|
passerine birds (e.g. sparrows)
|
|
what are symptoms of clinical St. Louis encephalitis?
|
- fever, headache, aseptic meningitis, encephalitis
|
|
comment on the morbidity and mortality of St. Louis encephalitis?
|
- morbidity: only 1% of infections are symptomatic
- mortality: 7% of symptomatic cases are fatal |
|
which people are most susceptible to die from St. Louis encephalitis?
|
older people
|
|
how do you control the risk of contracting St. Louis encephalitis?
- surveillance - at home |
- serological monitoring with sentinel chickens
- eliminate mosquito breeding areas - mosquito control - put goldfish in water troughs and bird baths |
|
what type of virus is West Nile Virus?
|
flavivirus
|
|
what environmental conditions lead to bigger outbreaks of west nile virus?
|
drought conditions, when mosquito populations are more concentrated, especially in areas where people leave sources of standing water
|
|
how is west nile virus transmitted to people? (3)
|
- mosquito bite
- blood transfusions - infected mother breastfeeding → child |
|
what are the reservoir hosts for west nile virus?
|
birds
|
|
west nile virus:
- what % of infections are symptomatic - what proportion of infection become severe? - what is the name of the severe form? |
- 20% of infections result in mild symptoms
- 1:150 infections become severe - severe form is called the "neuro-invasive form" |
|
what are the symptoms of the mild form of west nile virus in people?
|
fever, headache, sore throat, backache, myalgia, lymphadenopathy
|
|
what are the symptoms of the severe "neuro-invasive form" of west nile virus?
|
high fever, stiff neck, headache, muscle weakness, disorientation, coma, tremors, vision loss, numbness, and paralysis; symptoms last several weeks and may be permanent
|
|
what are clinical signs of west nile virus in horses?
|
fever and encephalitis
|
|
what type of birds are susceptible to west nile virus disease?
|
crows
|
|
how do you prevent west nile virus?
|
- serological surveillance
- mosquito control - insect repellant and stay indoors at night - fans in barns |
|
what type of viruses are EEE, WEE, and VEE?
|
alphaviruses
|
|
what is the normal life cycle of EEE virus
|
cycle occurs between passerine birds (e.g., sparrows) and mosquitos; humans and horses are accidental hosts
|
|
what type of environment is associated with EEE?
|
fresh water swamps
|
|
what is the mortality rate for
- EEE? - WEE? - VEE? |
- EEE: 35%
- WEE: 3-14% - VEE: < 1% |
|
what are the common clinical signs of EEE, WEE, and VEE?
|
- fever, headache, vomiting, lethargy, encephalitis
- severe cases: mental retardation, paralysis, death |
|
in what two basic ways are EEE and WEE controlled?
|
1. serological monitoring of sentinel chickens
2. mosquito control |
|
what age groups of people are most susceptible to:
- EEE? - WEE? |
- EEE: < 15 years; > 50 years
- WEE: < 1 year and young adults |
|
Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis
- vectors - reservoir hosts |
- vectors: mosquitos and biting flies
- reservoir hosts: rodents |
|
how is VEE transmitted to humans?
|
- horse → mosquito → human
- human → mosquito → human - ± direct human to human |
|
in what two basic ways is VEE controlled?
|
1. mosquito control
2. vaccination of horses |
|
what type of virus is LaCrosse Encephalitis/California Encephalitis?
|
bunyavirus
|
|
what age groups of people are most susceptible to LaCrosse/California Encephalitis?
|
children and adolescents
|
|
what time of year do outbreaks of LaCrosse/California Encephalitis occur?
|
July-End of September; associated with chipmunks and squirrels eating acorns and other shit from the trees
|
|
what type of environment is associated with California/LaCrosse Encephalitis?
|
oak forests
|
|
how does mosquito transmission of LaCrosse/California Encephalitis virus differ from that of EEE, WEE, VEE, and West Nile?
|
the mosquito associated with this virus feeds in the day time
(the little bastards. I hate mosquitos) |
|
what are the two types of reservoir hosts of LaCrosse/California encephalitis?
|
1. mosquitos: they have transovarian transmission
2. chipmunks and squirrels |
|
what are the symptoms of LaCrosse/California encephalitis in humans?
|
mild fever, headache, stiff neck, nausea, diarrhea, encephalitis
|
|
how do you control LaCrosse/California encephalitis?
|
mosquito control when in the woods
|
|
what type of virus is Orf?
|
parapox virus
|
|
comment on the environmental stability of parapox virus (Orf)
|
resistant to desiccation and can survive in a scab (on the animal) for months
|
|
what are the two major ways people get Orf?
|
1. virus enters through broken skin or abrasions
2. iatrogenic accidental inoculation with the live vaccine |
|
what is the reservoir host for Orf?
|
small ruminants and camelids
|
|
what are the symptoms of Orf in humans?
|
painful pustules and dark scab lesions on fingers, or wherever fingers touched
|
|
what is the incubation period for Orf?
|
3-7 days
|
|
what are the lesions of Orf on animals?
|
proliferative lesions (thick brown scabs) on the lips, eyes, chin, teats, udder, and vulva
|
|
what are two ways to control Orf?
|
1. wear gloves
2. vaccinate animals |
|
what type of virus is Newcastle Disease?
|
paramyxovirus
|
|
what is the major clinical sign of Newcastle Disease in people?
|
conjunctivitis
|
|
what are clinical signs of Newcastle Disease in birds?
|
respiratory and GI disease
|
|
which people are at most risk of contracting Newcastle Disease?
|
- poultry slaughterhouse workers
- people vaccinating chicks with Newcastle vaccine |
|
how is Newcastle Disease transmitted to humans? Route of transmission?
|
contact with infected animals; enters through the conjunctiva
|
|
how do you control Newcastle Disease?
|
- good hygiene
- vaccination |
|
what is Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis?
- type of virus - hosts - CS in humans - severity |
an arenavirus contracted from mice, hamsters, and guinea pigs, that causes inapparent to fatal cases of influenza-like symptoms and meningitis
|
|
what are the reservoir hosts of Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis?
|
mice
|
|
what are the clinical signs of Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis in mice?
|
generally, no clinical signs
|
|
describe the epidemiology of Lymphocytic choriomeningitis in mice.
|
- generally no clinical signs
- endemic via PI mice that contract the virus transovarially and congenitally |
|
why should pregnant women not keep/care for pet mice?
|
because the wild mice in the house visit their buddies (pet mice) and transmit Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis to women. Can cause encephalitis, hydrocephaly, and chorioretinitis in the fetus
|
|
what is an endemic viral disease of mice that can cause severe neurological defects in the unborn fetuses of women?
|
Lymphocytic choriomeningitis
|
|
what is a deadly disease associated with rhesus monkeys?
|
Macacine herpesvirus 1 (Herpes B virus)
|
|
how is Macacine herpesvirus 1 (Herpes B virus) transmitted to humans?
|
- bites or abrasions contaminated with monkey saliva
- possibly by aerosols entering conjunctiva, nose, or pharynx - when they fling their poop and it hits you in the eye, nose, or mouth, or you wipe your eyes, nose, or mouth after having flung poop on your hands |
|
Macacine herpesvirus 1:
- case fatality rate - incubation period - clinical signs in humans |
- CFR: 15%
- incubation 1-5 weeks - fever, headache, abdominal cramps and diarrhea, muscular pain, vertigo, diaphragmatic spasms, and flaccid paralysis of the penis and respiratory muscles |
|
what are clinical signs of Macacine herpesvirus 1 in monkeys?
|
like herpes simplex in humans: cold sores, fever blisters
|
|
what are four ways to control Macacine herpesvirus 1?
|
1. Quarantine monkeys for 6-8 weeks
2. Monkeys with herpetiform lesions should be culled 3. House monkeys in small groups to ↓ chances of transmission 4. wear gloves, protective clothing, clean bites and scratches thoroughly, and become proficient at dodging projectile feces |
|
what are the two forms of BSE and the N. American/European countries where outbreaks have been found?
|
1. spontaneous form: USA
2. Infectious form: Canada and England |
|
what is the "incubation period" of BSE (in cattle)?
|
2-8 years; 3-5 years on average
|
|
name some prion diseases and their associated hosts (5)
|
- vCJD and Kuru in humans
- BSE in cattle - scrapie in sheep - CWD in elk and deer - feline spongiform encephalopathy in cats (England and Norway) |
|
how do humans get prion diseases?
|
1. eating brains of other humans
2. eating BSE infected beef 3. blood transfusions |
|
how much infected blood does it take to cause vCJD in humans (e.g. in a transfusion)?
|
0.2 mL; a freaking small amount. DON'T GET A BLOOD TRANSFUSION UNDER ANY CIRCUMSTANCE FROM A PERSON THAT LIKES TO EAT OTHER PEOPLE'S BRAINS!!
|
|
how are prion diseases prevented from entering the food supply?
|
1. Ban on offal feeding
2. restriction of imports from countries with outbreaks 3. surveillance (cattle brains) 4. ban on feeding of all mammalian derived protein to ruminants 5. downer animals not allowed in food chain (or cosmetics) 6. remove specified risk materials (SRMs) from all animal feed, pet food |
|
what are SRMs?
|
- specified risk materials (of prion disease)
- brain, skull, eyes, and spinal cord of cattle ≥ 30 months - a portion of the SI and tonsils from all cattle regardless of age |
|
what are two ways to check for jaundice on a postmortem at slaughter?
|
1. look for yellow discoloration in arteries, sclera, and other white surfaces
2. boil a piece of meat or fat in water; if it turns yellow, it is jaundice |
|
which type of influenza is Avian Influenza
|
H5N1
|
|
which type of influenza is The Swine Flu
|
H1N1
|
|
what types of influenza are most common in humans? (3)
|
H1N1, H1N2, H3N2
|
|
H5N1 Avian Influenza zoonotic transmission to humans:
- morbidity - mortality |
- low morbidity
- high (50%) mortality |
|
where have most H5N1 Avian Influenza human deaths occurred?
|
Asia, Africa, Middle East
|
|
how is H5N1 Avian Influenza acquired in humans?
|
contact with infected animals or objects contaminated with secretions/excretions from infected birds
|
|
how is H5N1 Avian Influenza transmitted between birds?
|
saliva, nasal secretions, feces
|
|
if morbidity is so low, why are we concerned with H5N1 Avian Influenza?
|
if it mutates to become more virulent in humans, it wipe out civilization as we know it.
|
|
how is H5N1 Avian Influenza controlled?
|
1. restrict movement of poultry
2. slaughter surveillance |
|
comment on the reassortment that took place to cause the virulent H1N1 swine flu in 2009-2010.
|
- 2 genes from swine
- 1 gene from avian - 1 gene rom human - this was a quadruple reassortment |
|
H1N1 Swine Flu of 2009-2010:
- morbidity - mortality |
- high morbidity
- low mortality |
|
who was most susceptible to the H1N1 Swine Flu of 2009-2010?
|
immunocompromised/sick people, young children, pregnant women
|
|
comment on the transmission of the H1N1 Swine Flu of 2009-2010
|
- people to people major route of transmission
- swine were probably infected by humans - swine do not appear to have infected humans |
|
how do you control H1N1 influenza?
|
personal hygiene: wash hands frequently
|
|
what type of virus is monkeypox?
|
Orthopox virus
|
|
2003 outbreak of Monkey Pox in the US:
- primary case - location in the US - reservoir host |
- primary case was a sick Gambian rat, distributed through an animal dealer, that came into contact with prairie dogs
- Midwest - prairie dogs |
|
how is monkeypox transmitted to humans?
|
- contact with infected animals (prairie dogs)
- human-to-human, but did not occur in the 2003 US outbreak |
|
what are the symptoms of Monkey pox in humans?
|
- vesicular and pustular rash similar to smallpox
- prior to lesions, fever, headaches, non-productive cough - pustular rash → vesicle → pustule → crust |
|
what are symptoms of monkey pox in prairie dogs and other animals?
|
cough, fever, blepharoconjunctivitis, lymphadenopathy, nodular rash
|
|
how do you control monkey pox?
|
- vaccinate people with smallpox vaccine
- wash hands after handling animals - import restrictions and good record-keeping of sales of imported animals |
|
what type of virus is Equine Hendra Virus?
|
Henipavirus (paramyxovirus)
|
|
what is the reservoir host of Equine Hendra Virus?
|
bats
|
|
where did a zoonotic transmission of Equine Hendra Virus occur?
|
Australia
|
|
public health significance of Equine Hendra Virus:
- reservoir host and epidemiology - why do horses get it? - how do humans get it? |
- endemic in bats
- horses are accidental hosts - humans get it from horses, not bats or other humans |
|
what is a really nasty Hendra-like virus?
|
Nipah Virus (Henipavirus)
|
|
what type of virus is Nipah Virus?
|
Henipavirus (Hendra-like virus)
|
|
Nipah Virus in humans
- symptoms - mortality |
- fever, headache, myalgia, and encephalitis
- high mortality: CFR = 40% |
|
where did a major outbreak of Nipah Virus occur in 1999?
|
Malaysia and Singapore
|
|
how is Nipah Virus transmitted to humans?
|
- from swine with respiratory disease
- no human-to-human was reported |
|
in which animals has Nipah virus caused a public health risk and by what routes of transmission does this virus occur between them and to humans?
|
- pigs with respiratory disease
- bodily fluids of pigs; aerosol transmission or urinary secretions |
|
how is Nipah Virus controlled?
|
eliminate infected swine populations
|
|
what type of virus is Rabies?
|
rhabdovirus
|
|
what is the incubation of rabies in humans?
|
2-8 weeks, but up to a year
|
|
after the onset of symptoms, how long does it take a person to die from rabies?
|
2-6 days
|
|
what are symptoms of rabies in humans?
|
anxiety, headache, hyperesthesia, photophobia, can't swallow, spasms of respiratory muscles, generalized convulsions
|
|
what are symptoms of rabies in cattle?
|
persistent straining and urination, prolapsed vagina, abnormal bellowing
|
|
what are symptoms of rabies in horses?
|
signs of encephalitis, neurologic deficits
|
|
what are symptoms of rabies in dogs and cats?
|
aggression, incoordination, CNS signs
|
|
what are four wild reservoir hosts for rabies, each of which can carry different strains of the virus?
|
fox, skunk, raccoon, bat
|
|
what is the reservoir host for rabies in:
- Texas? - New York? - Atlantic Coast? - Central US? - all of US? |
- Texas: fox
- New York: fox - Atlantic Coast: raccoon - Central US: skunk - all of US: bats |
|
what geographic locations in the US do you find the rabies strains associated with:
- bats? - foxes? - raccoons? - skunks? |
- bats: all of US
- foxes: TX and NY - raccoons: Atlantic Coast - skunks: Central US |
|
what is the quarantine period for an animal that has bitten, but does not show clinical signs of rabies? Why this specific length of time?
|
- 10 days
- because virus can be shed for 10 days prior to the animal showing clinical signs |
|
how long is the viremic phase of rabies?
|
there is no viremia in rabies
|
|
how is rabies acquired? What are routes of transmission?
|
- contact with infected saliva; contact with CNS and peripheral nervous tissue
- transmitted through bites, cuts, or conjunctival membranes |
|
what are four ways to control rabies?
|
1. vaccinate domestic animals
2. control of stray animals 3. vaccination of veterinary health providers 4. caution of animals with neurologic signs |
|
how is exposure to bats, when considering rabies, different than other animals?
|
since bat bites are easily missed, anybody that has had direct contact with a bat is potentially infected; or if you can't tell if a person has been exposed or not (e.g. infant, senile person, unconscious adult), you should consider them exposed
|
|
what are 3 non-carnivorous high-risk animals for rabies?
|
1. opossums
2. groundhogs (woodchucks) 3. beavers |
|
what type of domestic animals are considered high-risk animals for carrying rabies?
|
the direct offspring of subsequent generations of domestic animals bred to wild animals (e.g., wolf hybrids, Savannah and Bengal cats)
|
|
what are two types of mammals that are low risk of having rabies?
|
1. small rodents (mice, rats, chipmunks, voles, guinea pigs, gerbils, hamsters)
2. lagomorphs (rabbits, hares) |
|
define "potentially rabid animal"
|
A potentially rabid animal is a mammal that is considered high risk for rabies with or without compatible signs or a low risk mammal with compatible signs.
|
|
what are six diseases in people associated with exposure to inhalent anesthetics?
|
1. premature delivery in pregnant women
2. hepatic disease 3. renal disease 4. cancer 5. depression 6. headache |
|
in what are two ways that long exposure of low-dose radiation can affect women?
|
1. menstrual irregularities
2. spontaneous miscarriages |
|
how does chronic low-dose radiation exposure affect the skin?
|
epithelialization of exposed areas as well as dry, thickened skin, which may lead to SQ fibrosis and neoplasia
|
|
how does chronic low-dose radiation exposure affect the eyes?
|
cataracts (with the old hand-held fluoroscopes)
|
|
how does chronic low-dose radiation exposure affect the blood?
|
leukemia
|
|
limits of radiation exposure in the work environment:
- minimum age - max yearly dosage - max dosage for pregnant women |
- must be 18 years or older
- 5 rem/year for whole body - pregnant women < 500 mrem |
|
how must pregnant women working with x-rays wear badges?
|
one on the waist and one on the neck
|
|
what are five practical ways to limit radiation exposure?
|
1. invest in high-quality x-ray equipment
2. check for scatter radiation periodically 3. limit number of retakes 4. body and hand shields; radiation badge 5. don't fold gowns or else the lead may crack |
|
in modern times, what type of pesticide residues are most common? What were the most common ones in the past?
|
- today: pyrethrins
- past: OP and carbamates |
|
burning sensation and numbness are associated with what type of pesticide?
|
pyrethrins
|
|
what are side effects of OP/carbamate occupational exposure?
|
- GI distress
- salivation - peripheral and central CNS dysfunction |
|
what are 3 ways to prevent occupational pesticide exposure?
|
1. use in a well-ventilated area
2. wear gloves, aprons, and protective eyewear 3. remove wet clothes and wash skin with water and mild soap |
|
what are the two most common biologic occupational exposures?
|
1. needle sticks
2. exposure to foreign bacteria |
|
how to you avoid sticking yourself with a needle? (sigh… yes, this is a real flashcard)
|
- properly restrain animal
- do not recap needle - dispose of needle in sharps container |
|
how do killed vaccines pose an occupational hazard?
|
accidental sticks have potential for anaphylaxis, but reaction is usually local due to adjuvants or dirty needle
|
|
why don't you want to get accidentally injected with Blackleg vaccine?
|
because it contains formalin
|
|
new castle disease vaccine accidentally injected into a person can cause what conditions?
|
conjunctivitis
|
|
ovine ecthyma vaccine accidentally injected into a person can cause what conditions?
|
localized reaction progressing to papules, vesicular, and pustular stages
|
|
measles vaccine accidentally injected into a person can cause what conditions?
|
not thought to be a health risk, but probably should not be used during pregnancy
|
|
feline chlamydial vaccine accidentally injected into a person can cause what conditions?
|
none
|
|
bordatella vaccine accidentally injected into a person can cause what conditions?
|
may infect immunocompromised individuals
|
|
brucella strain 19 vaccine accidentally injected into a person can cause what conditions?
|
severe cellulitis at site of injection
|
|
RB 51 vaccine accidentally injected into a person can cause what conditions?
|
may cause cellulitis, but not thought to be as pathogenic as Strain 19 vaccine
|
|
what antiseptic is considered to be potentially teratogenic, mutagenic, or carcinogenic?
|
ethyl alcohol
|
|
what agent used in chemical sterilization is considered to be potentially teratogenic, mutagenic, or carcinogenic?
|
ethylene oxide
|
|
what preservative used in the veterinary lab is considered to be potentially teratogenic, mutagenic, or carcinogenic?
|
formaldehyde
|
|
what disinfectant used in the veterinary hospital is considered to be potentially teratogenic, mutagenic, or carcinogenic?
|
hexachlorophene
|
|
what chemotherapeutics are considered to be potentially teratogenic, mutagenic, or carcinogenic?
|
vincristine, vinblastine, and others
|
|
what chemical dyes used in the veterinary lab are considered to be potentially teratogenic, mutagenic, or carcinogenic?
|
magenta, aniline red
|
|
what two types of antibiotics are known to cause anaphylaxis?
|
1. penicillin
2. sulfa |
|
which antibiotic, commonly used in poultry operations, is cardiotoxic in humans?
|
tilmicosin (Micotil™)
|
|
by what mechanism of action is the commonly used poultry antibiotic, tilmicosin, cardiotoxic in humans (and other mammals)?
|
- calcium channel blockade
- induces tachycardia and negative inotropy - can be exacerbated by β-adrenergics such as epinephrine |
|
which antibiotic causes aplastic anemia in humans?
|
chloramphenicol
|
|
what are two ways in which prostaglandins, used as veterinary meds, can be hazardous to humans?
|
1. potentiate asthma attacks
2. abortifacients in pregnant women |
|
how do long work hours affect pregnant women?
|
women working > 45 hours per week were at increased for early delivery
|
|
what are five confinement housing gases and their sources?
|
1. ammonia - urine
2. hydrogen sulfide - manure pits 3. nitrogen oxide - silos 4. carbon monoxide - heaters 5. hog dust - endotoxins (headaches and nausea) |
|
what two neoplastic diseases are linked to working in the sun?
|
1. melanoma
2. SCC |
|
at what ambient temperatures do workers typically get hypothermia?
|
30 - 50 °F
|