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94 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. Which of the following statements about edema is true; (P122)
A. Microscopically, edema fluid manifests as subtle cell swelling with clearing and separation of the extracellular matrix elements.
B. Impaired lymphatic drainage and consequent lymphedema is usually generalized.
C. Edema of the dependent parts of the body is a prominent feature of the left ventricle.
D. Cardiac edema is generally severer than edema due to renal dysfunction.
E. Pulmonary edema is most typically seen in the right ventricular failure.
(1:A)
2. Which of the following molecules are preventing platelet aggregation in uninjured endothelium; (P125)
1.Heparin-like molecules 2. Thrombomodulin 3. Adenosine diphosphatase
4. PGI2 5. NO
A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3
C. 3,4,5
D. 4,5
E. All of above
(2:C)
3. Which of the following statement about prothrombotic and antithrombotic properties is true; (P124~130)
A. After vascular injury, local secretion of tissue factor by endothelial cell cause a transient vasoconstriction.
B. Endothelial cells augment the catalytic activities of coagulating factors IXa and Xa by binding them.
C. After vascular injury, vWF is synthesized and released for platelet adhesion.
D. Thrombin binding to protease-activated receptors end up with proteolysis of factors Va and VIIIa.
E. Endothelial cells synthesize u-PA and promote fibrinolytic activity to clear fibrin deposits from endothelial surfaces.
(3:B)
4. Which of the following is the thrombotic mechanism of homocysteine;     (P131)
A. Form local pockets of stasis
B. Cause endothelial injury
C. Reduce PGI2 release from endothelial cells
D. Create resistance to protein C-mediated inactivation of factor Va
E. Inhibit antithrombin III and endothelial thrombomodulin
(4:E)
5. Which of the following statement about fibrinolytic cascade is true;    (P130)
A. t-PA is primarily secreted by macrophages.
B. u-PA function largely in circulation rather than in tissue.
C. u-PA increase plasminogen activator activity in the presence of fibrin.
D. Plasmin converts the inactive pro-urokinase precursor to the active u-PA.
E. α2-plasmin inhibitor block fibrinolysis by inhibiting t-PA binding to fibrin.
(5:D)
6. All of the following are the site or condition that red infarcts occur EXCEPT; (P138)
A. Arterial occlusion in solid organs with end-arterial circulation
B. In loose tissues, which allow blood to collect in the infracted zone
C. In tissues with dual circulations
D. In tissues that were previously congested because of sluggish venous outflow
E. When flow is re-established to a site of previous arterial occlusion and necrosis
(6:A)
7. Which of the following is a correct order of cytokine induction in sepsis; (P141)
A. IL-1 → TNF → IL-6/IL-8
B. IL-1 → IL-6/IL-8 → TNF
C. TNF → IL-1 → IL-6/IL-8
D. TNF → IL-6/IL-8 → IL-1
E. IL-6/IL-8 → IL-1 → TNF
(7:C)
8. In which of the following species, chicken-fat clot is commonly seen at necropsy; (P89)
A. Dog
B. Horse
C. Cattle
D. Pig
E. Chicken
(8:B)
9. All of the following statements about hemostasis are true EXCEPT; (P92~96)
A. When vessels are injured, vWF bind to exposed subendothelial collagen type IV for platelet adhesion.
B. Activation of factor XII in intrinsic pathway is inhibited by C1 esterase inhibitor.
C. Activated factor IXa can cleave factor X by itself.
D. Factor Xa can cleave factor II by itself.
E. Clot formation by means of the extrinsic pathway is more rapid than it is by intrinsic pathway.
(9:A)
10. Which of the following statement about fibrin formation is true; (P96, 97)
A. Thrombin cleaves the amino terminal region of the Aα and Bβ chains, but not the γ chain.
B. Fibrin polymers are broken down to fibrin monomer nonenzymatically in the process of fibrin formation.
C. Fibrinopeptides A and B are assembled into fibrin polymers.
D. Urea-insoluble fibrin is cross-linked to urea-soluble fibrin.
E. Fibrin stabilization is mediated by factor XIII which is activated to XIIIa by prothrombin, factor IV and activated factor Xa.
(10:D)
11. All of the following factors are often elevated during pregnancy EXCEPT; (P106)
A. Fibrinogen
B. Prothrombin
C. Proconvertin
D. Antihemophiliac factor
E. Stuart-Power factor
(11:B)
12. Which of the following is the mechanism of platelet factor 4 to promote coagulation; (P110)
A. Induce factor IV, which is required for successful adhesion of platelets to the subendothelium.
B. Provide phospholipid on the surface of platelets to promote clot formation.
C. Neutralize the anticoagulant properties of FDPs.
D. Induce exposure of fibrinogen binding site, GPIIb-IIIa on the surface of platelets.
E. Facilitate OCS (open canalicular system) for release of platelet granular content.
(12:C)
13. In which of the specie, platelet’s granular content secretion occurs by direct fusion of the granule membranes with the plasma membrane.           (P110)
A. Dog
B. Cat
C. Horse
D. Cattle
E. Human
(13:D)
14. All of the following enzymes can be released from platelets after activation EXCEPT; (P109)
A. Adenosine diphosphate
B. β-glucuronidase
C. Acid cathepsins
D. β-N-acetylglucosaminidase
E. Lactic dehydrogenase
(14:E)
15. All of the following statements about coagulation or fibrinolysis are true EXCEPT; (P115~117)
A. Macrophages can synthesize and express factor VII and tissue factor.
B. All plasminogen activators are serine proteases.
C. Streptokinase and staphylokinase from microorganisms promote coagulation by inhibiting plasminogen activators.
D. t-PA increases its resistance to inhibitor by binding to fibrin.
E. Macrophage can degrade fibrin by direct contact of plasminogen incorporated in the fibrin clot with membrane-bound u-PA.
(15:C)
16. All of the following statements about degradation product of fibrin or fibrinogen are true; (P119)
A. Cross-linked fibrin is degraded more quickly than non-cross linked one by plasmin.
B. The cross-linking of fibrin is caused by polymerization by plasmin.
C. FDPs facilitate clotting action of thrombin on fibrinogen substrates.
D. Some fragments cause smooth muscle contraction, increase capillary permeability, and induce the chemotaxis of granulocytes.
E. D-dimers are the degradation products only of fibrinogen, but not of fibrin.
(16:D)
1. Match following types of endothelium lining capillaries:
A. Continuous capillary
B. Fenestrated capillary
C. Discontinuous capillary
a. Spleen
b. Renal glomerular capillaries
c. Muscle, brain, thymus, bone, lung
d. Intestinal villi
e. Chroid plexus
f. Sinusoids of liver
g. Ciliary process of eye
(1:A-c; B-b,d,e,g; C-a,f; p.66)
2. Which is responsible for the majority of the difference in osmotic pressure between the plasma and interstitium:
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Chloride
D. Albumin
E. Globulin
(2:D, p.67)
3. All followings are antihemostatic substances from endothelial cells EXCEPT:
A. Prostacyclin (PGI2)
B. Endothelial cell protein C receptor
C. ADPase
D. Plasminogen activator inhibitor-1 (PAI-1)
E. Protein S
(3:D, p.70)
4. Annexin II, an endothelial product, is:
A. Antihemostatic substance
B. Prohemostatic substance
C. Fibrinolysis
D. Inflammatory mediator
E. Growth factor
(4:C, p.70)
5. All of followings are correct regarding endothelial mediators of anticoagulant EXCEPT:
A. Thrombomodulin binds thrombin to initiate activation protein C
B. Protein S inhibits activation of factors IV and X
C. Heparin sulfate proteoglycans bind and concentrate antithrombin III on the endothelial surface
D. Annexin V binds negatively charged phospholipids and calcium to displace phospholipid-dependent coagulation factors on the endothelial surface to inhibit formation of thrombin and factor Xa
E. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor-1 (TFPI-1) is a direct inhibitor of the TF:VIIa complex
(5:B, p.75; Protein S inhibits activation of factors VIII and X)
6. All of followings are platelet mediators in vascular repair EXCEPT:
A. Fibroblast growth factor (FGF)
B. Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
C. Transforming growth factor-β (TGF-β)
D. β-thromboglobulin
E. Epidermal growth factor (EGF)
(6:A, p76; Both endothelial and platelet mediators-PDGF, TGF-β; Only endothelial mediator-FGF; Only platelet mediators-β-thromboglobulin, VEGF)
7. Match the following coagulation groups and factors:
A. A structurally related and functionally interdependent contact group
B. A vitamin K-dependent group
C. A highly labile fibrinogen group
a. Prekallikrein
b. Factor VIII
c. Factor IX
d. Factor XI
e. Factor XIII
(7:A-a,d; B-c; C-b,e; p.74; A-prekallikrein, HMWK, factors XI and XII; B-factors II, VII, IX, and X; C-factors I, V, VIII, and XIII)
8. Followings are cleaved and activated by kallikrein:
a. Factor XII
b. HMWK
c. Factor IX
d. Factor VII
e. Plasminogen
f. Complement fragment C5
A. a, b
B. a, b, c
C. a, b, c, d
D. a, b, c, d, e
E. All of them
(8:E, p.79)
9. All of the followings regarding antithrombin III (ATIII) are correct EXCEPT:
A. ATIII is the most potent and clinically significant of the coagulation inhibitors.
B. ATIII is a circulating serine protease produced by endothelium and hepatocytes.
C. Most important action of ATIII is the neutralization of thrombin and factor Xa.
D. ATIII can degrade all activated coagulation factors.
E. ATIII can bind heparan sulfate present on the surface of normal endothelium and platelets.
(9:D p.81, ATIII can degrade all activated coagulation factors except for factor VIIa)
10. Antithrombin III inhibits:
a. Thrombosis
b. Fibrinolysis
c. Kinin formation
d. Complement activation
A. a
B. a,b
C. a,b,c
D. a,b,c,d
E. None of above
(10:D p.81)
11. Protein S, a nonenzymatic cofactor with protein C, can also independently inhibit
a. Factor Va
b. Factor VIIa
c. Factor VIIIa
d. Factor IXa
e. Factor Xa
A. a,b
B. a,b,c
C. a,c
D. a,c,d
E. a,c,e
(11:E p.81, Protein C-dependent: factors Va and VIIIa; Independent: factors Va, VIIIa, and Xa)
12. All of the followings regarding tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI) are correct EXCEPT:
A. TFPI is a significant inhibitor of extrinsic coagulation.
B. TFPI is a plasma protein derived mainly from endothelium and hepatocytes.
C. TFPI forms a complex with factor Xa on the endothelial-bound TF:VIIa molecule to subsequent factor X activation.
D. TFPI can interact factor VIIa without factor Xa, but at a slow rate.
E. TFPI inactivates factors VIIa and Xa.
(12:B p.81, TFPI is derived mainly from endothelium and smooth muscle cells. ATIII is produced by endothelium and hepatocytes.)
13. All of the followings regarding thrombin are correct EXCEPT:
A. Thrombin has a major procoagulant role to cleave factor I to yield fibrin monomers.
B. Thrombin activates factors V, VIII, XI, and XIII,
C. Thrombin is a potent activator of platelets.
D. High concentrations of thrombin activate factors V and VIII.
E. Thrombin is a potent anticoagulant.
(13:D p.82, High concentrations of thrombin destroy factors V and VIII. When thrombin binds to thrombomodulin on endothelial surfaces, it activates protein C, a potent anticoagulant.)
14. Most common hereditary coagulation problem in cattle is:
A. Factor I deficiency
B. Factor VII deficiency
C. Factor XI deficiency
D. Von Willebrand’s disease
E. Hemophilia A
(14:C p.84, Factor XI deficiency - Holstein and Japanese black cattle. Hemophilia A also present in cattle)
15. All of the followings are causes of hypercoagulability EXCEPT:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Uremia
C. Glomerular amyloidosis
D. Hyperadrenocorticism
E. Hyperthyroidism
(15:E p87, Hypothyroidism)
16. All of the followings regarding thrombin are correct EXCEPT:
A. Thrombin causes platelet aggregation and activation of coagulation factors V, VIII, and I to form fibrin.
B. High levels of thrombin stimulate clot dissolution.
C. Thrombin binds to thrombomodulin to activate protein C.
D. Thrombin converts plasminogen into plasmin.
E. Thrombin binds to antithrombin III to become activated.
(16:E p.91, Thrombin binds to ATIII to become inactivated.)
17. All of the following regarding blood vessel receptors are correct EXCEPT:
A. Blood vessel α-receptors induce vasodilation.
B. Blood vessel β2-receptors induce vasodilation.
C. Blood vessel α-receptors are absent in the brain.
D. Blood vessel β2-receptors are most abundant in cardiac and skeletal muscle.
E. Blood vessel α- and β2-receptors are stimulated by norepinephrine and epinephrine, respectively.
(17:A p.91, Blood vessel α-receptors induce vasoconstriction.)
1) All of the following are true; vit K dependent clotting factor, EXCEPT
A) IX
B) VII
C) X
D) II
E) III
(1:E p.85)
2) Which is a cause of Vit K deficiency in the cattle?
A) Warfarin toxicity
B) Rodenticied toxicity
C) Sweet clover poisoning
D) Hepatic disease
E) Malabsorption
(2:C p.85)
3) All of the following are true; factors are assembled and activation of the intrinsic enzyme cascade?
A) High-molecular-weight kininogen
B) Hargeman factor
C) Factor XI
D) Prekallikrein
E) Factor III
(3:E p.93 Fig3-11)
4) Which factor is major initiator of extrinsic pathway?
A) Collagen type 1
B) Collagen type 3
C) Negative charge surface
D) Tissue thromboplastin (III)
E) Hargenman factor (XII)
(4:D p.93 Fig3-11, p.94)
5) Which factor; the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways join and into a final common pathway?
A) Factor II
B) Factor III
C) Factor V
D) Factor X
E) Factor XI
(5:D p.94 Fig3-12, Factor X = Stuart-Prower factor)
6) Which one does Protein C activate?
A) Plasmin
B) Thrombin-thrombomodulin complex
C) Plasminogen activator
D) Factor V (proaccelerin)
E) Factor VIII (antihemophilic facor)
(6:B p.92, p.99 Fig3-17)
7) Von Willebrand disease has been extensively studied in which animal?
A) Dog
B) Cat
C) Pig
D) Cattle
E) Horse
(7:C p.91)
8) Which factor deficiency is hemophilia A?
A) Factor II
B) Factor III
C) Factor V
D) Factor VIII
E) Factor XII
(8:D p.91)
9) Which coagulation time is increased hemophilia A?
A) APTT
B) OSPT
C) TCT
D) BT
E) BMBT
(9:A Clin Path)
10) Which coagulation time is increased Vit K deficiency? CHOOSE ALL
A) APTT
B) OSPT
C) TCT
D) BT
E) ACT
(10:A,B,E Clin Path)
11) Name the Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors.
(11:II, VII, IX, X p.85)
12) Dicumarol, which may cause a hemorrhagic disorder in cattle, is present in which plant:
A) Cocklebur
B) Sweet potato
C) Sweet clover
D) Yellow Jessamine
E) Pigweed
(12:C p.85)
13) Protein C inhibits which 2 factors:
A) II
B) IV
C) V
D) VI
E) VII
F) VIII
G) IX
H) X
(13:C,F p.98)
14) All of the following are prothrombotic EXCEPT:
A) Von Willebrand factor
B) Tissue factor
C) Inhibitors of plasminogen activator (PAIs)
D) Collagen
E) Tissue plasminogen activator
(14:E p.115, p.116 Fig3-29)
15) All of the following are antithrombotic EXCEPT:
A) Protein S
B) Thrombomodulin
C) Thromboxin A2 (TXA2)
D) ADP
E) Protein C
(15:C p.109, TXA2: the most potent platelet-aggregating agent known)
16) ______________ is a platelet receptor that binds von Willebrand’s factor.
A) Fibronectin
B) GpIb
C) Bernard-Soulier factor
D) GpIIb-IIIa complex
E) GpIIa
(16:B Robbins p.123 Fig4-8; Deficiency of GpIIb-IIIa complex – Glanzmann thrombasthenia; Deficiency of Gp1b – Bernard-Soulier syndrome)
17) Which factor activates both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways:
A) XII
B) X
C) VIIa
D) V
E) IIa
(17:C Robbins p.128, A tissue factor-factor VIIa complex, in the extrinsic pathway, also activated factor IX in the intrinsic pathway)
18) Von Willebrand’s factor binds to which receptor:
A) GpIa
B) GpIIa
C) GpIIIa
D) GpIb
E) GpIIb
(18:D Robbins p.127 Fig4-8)
19) Which cofactor is needed for activation of Factor X:
A) I
B) IIa
C) Va
D) VIIIa
E) IXa
(19:D Robbins p.128 Fig4-9; I is fibrinogen, IIa is thrombin and plays a role at the end of the cascade, Va is a cofactor for Factor II, and IXa is the active enzyme needed for Factor X activation in addition to its cofactor.)
20) All of the following clotting factors are synthesized by the liver and require vitamin K EXCEPT:
A) Prothrombin (II)
B) Stuart-Prower factor (X)
C) Hageman factor (XII)
D) Proconvertin (VII)
E) Christmas factor (IX)
(20:C p.85)
21) Feeding Dicumarol (sweet clover) to cattle results in a deficiency of which of the following factors?
A) Prothrombin (II)
B) Stuart-Prower factor (X)
C) Hageman factor (XII)
D) Proconvertin (VII)
E) Christmas factor (IX)
(21:A p.85)
22) Protein C serves a regulatory role in hemostasis by inactivating which of the following factors (chose 2)?
A) Christmas Factor (IX)
B) Proconvertin (XII)
C) Proaccelerin (V)
D) Antihemophilic factor (VIII)
E) Thrombin (IIa)
(22:C,D p.98)
23) All of the following are assembled together and are important in the formation of plasma thromboplastin XI EXCEPT:
A) Tissue thromboplastin (III)
B) Hageman factor (XII)
C) Prekallikrein
D) High-molecular weight kininogen (Fitzgerald factor)
E) Plasma thromboplastin antecedent (XI)
(23:A p.93)
24) Name the most important inhibitor of activated Hageman factor (XIIa) in normal plasma?
(24: C1 esterase inhibitor (CI INH) p.93)
25) A deficiency of which of the following factors leads to a mild bleeding state?
A) Tissue thromboplastin (III)
B) Hageman factor (XII)
C) Prekallikrein
D) High-molecular weight kininogen (Fitzgerald factor)
E) Plasma thromboplastin antecedent (XI)
(25:E p.93, Deficiencies of XII, prekallikrein, or HMW kininogen do not cause bleeding)
26) The complex that is formed by the intrinsic pathway that acts on Stuart–Prower factor (X) and forms Xa includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Platelet factor 3
B) Proconvertin (VII)
C) Activated Christmas factor (IXa)
D) Antihemophiliac factor (VIII)
E) Divalent calcium (IV)
(26:B p.93 Fig3-11)
27) Which of the following factors plays a regulatory role in intrinsic pathway?
A) Platelet factor 3
B) Proconvertin (VII)
C) Activated Christmas factor (IXa)
D) Antihemophiliac factor (VIII)
E) Divalent calcium (IV)
(27:D p.95)
28) Which of the following factors can cleave X to Xa alone (but does so much faster with the other components)?
A) Platelet factor 3
B) Proconvertin (VII)
C) Activated Christmas factor (IXa)
D) Antihemophiliac factor (VIII)
E) Divalent calcium (IV)
(28:C p.95)
29) Which of the following factors is required to alter Antihemophiliac factor (VIII) so that it does not impede the intrinsic cascade (chose 2)?
A) Divalent calcium (IV)
B) Plasma thromboplastin antecedent (XI)
C) Fibrin stabilizing factor (XIII)
D) Activated Stuart-Prower factor (Xa)
E) Thrombin (II)
(29:D,E p.95)
30) Thrombin (IIa) is formed by a complex including all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Activated Stuart-Power factor (Xa)
B) Divalent calcium (IV)
C) Thromboplastin (III)
D) Proaccelerin (Va)
E) Platelet factor 3
(30:C p.96 Fig3-14; III is involved in the extrinsic activation of X)
31) Which of the following factors functions to introduce isopeptide bonds between the amino acid groups of lysine residues and the carboxyamide groups of glutamine residues to cross link soluble fibrin?
A) Thromboplastin (III)
B) Proaccelerin (V)
C) Fibrin stabilizing factor (XIII)
D) Christmas factor (IX)
E) Hageman factor (XII)
(31:C p.97 Fig3-15)
32) Activated Protein C:
A) Activates t-PA and enhances coagulation
B) Inactivates t-PA and enhances fibrinolysis
C) Activates t-PA inhibitor and enhances coagulation
D) Inactivates t-PA inhibitor and enhances fibrinolysis
E) Activates factors V and VIII and enhances coagulation
(32:D p.100, Fig3-18)
33) Which factors can cause the thrombogenic endothelial injury:
1. Trauma
2. Chemical injury
3. Inflammation
4. High dose of Vit D
5. Epinephrine
A) 1
B) 1,2
C) 1,2,3,4
D) 1,3,5
E) All above
(33:E p.101)
34) Which type of collagen is particularly thrombogenic:
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
E) Type V
(34:C p.101)
35) All of the following are true procoagulant properties, EXCEPT
A) von Willebrand factor
B) Thromboplastin III
C) Plasminogen activator inhibitors
D) Protein C
E) Platelet-activating factor
(35:D p.103 Box3-2)
36) All of the following are true anticoagulant properties, EXCEPT
A) Heparan sulfate
B) Antithrombin III
C) Protein C
D) PGI2
E) TXA2
(36:E p.103 Box3-2; Robbins p.125)
37) All of the following are true about thrombospondin, EXCEPT
A) Secreted by platelet alpha-granules
B) Bound to activated fibrin
C) One of the important factor of irreversible platelet aggregation
D) Inhibit angiogenesis
E) Expressed on surface of apoptotic bodies
(37:B p.108; Thrombospondin interacts with bound fibrinogen)
38) All of the following are containing in platelet alpha granules, EXCEPT
A) Fibronectin
B) Fibrinogen
C) vWF
D) ADP
E) Thrombospondin
(38:D p.108, p.105 Fig3-22; ADP in platelet dense granules)
39) Which factor is major stimulus for the formation of platelet aggregation, which is released from platelet dense bodies.
A) ADP
B) TXA2
C) PF3
D) Fibrinogen
E) Lysosomal enzyme
(39:A p.105 Fig3-22, p.109)
40) Which is the most potent platelet aggregating agent?
A) ADP
B) TXA2
C) PF3
D) Fibrinogen
E) Lysosomal enzyme
(40:B p.109)
41) All of the following are causing vasoconstriction, EXCEPT
A) PGI2
B) TXA2
C) LTC4
D) LTD4
E) LTE4
(41:A p.103; Robbins p.69 Fig2-16)
42) All of the following proteins participate in the Hageman factor-dependent fibrinolysis activity, EXCEPT
A) Hageman factor
B) Prekallilrein
C) High-molecular-weight kininogen
D) Plasminogen
E) Tissue plasminogen activator inhibitor
(42:E p.116)
43) Which factor is extrinsic plasminogen activator secreted by endothelial cells?
A) u-PA
B) t-PA
C) Prekallilrein
D) High-molecular-weight kininogen
E) Tissue plasminogen activator inhibitor
(43:B p.117; t-PA is secreted by many cell and tissue types, including tissue macrophages)
44) All of the following are true about t-PA, EXCEPT
A) The binding of t-PA to fibrin is specific
B) There are many inhibitors of t-PA
C) It is secreted by many cells and tissue type
D) It is one of the extrinsic plasminogen activators
E) It mediates local vascular fibrinolysis
(44: C p.117; Vascular endothelium is a rich source of t-PA)
45) All of the following are true about u-PA, EXCEPT
A) It is one of the extrinsic plasminogen activator
B) It is found in urine
C) It is important to local vascular fibrinolysis
D) It is secreted by macrophages
E) It lacks high affinity binding to fibrin
(45:C p.117; u-PA is important to certain types of tissue fibrinolysis)
46) Although plasmin-mediated lysis of both fibrin and fibrinogen produces FDPs (fibrinogen degeneration products), which the following product is fibrin-specific lysis?
A) Fragment X
B) Small peptide
C) D-dimer
D) Fragment Y
E) Plasmin
(46:C p.119)
47) Which extracellular matrix is highly hydrated gel-like substance?
A) Collagen
B) Elastic fiber
C) Fibronection
D) Proteoglycan
E) Laminin
(47:D p.126 Table3-2)
48) Which the following cells are susceptible to ischemia (pick 3)?
A) Neurons
B) Fibroblasts
C) Myocardiocytes
D) Adipocytes
E) Renal epithelial cells
(48:A,C,E p.122)
49) Which two following organs have a truly dual blood supply?
A) Brain
B) Kidney
C) Liver
D) Lung
E) Spleen
(49:C,D p.123; Liver – portal vein & hepatic artery; Lung – pulmonary & bronchial artery)
50) Which factor is affected in Glanzmann’s Thrombasthenia?
A) GpIb
B) Von Willebrand factor
C) E-Selectin
D) GpIIb-IIIa
E) P-selectin
(50:D p.91)
51) Which species is considered as a good animal model for the Glamzmann’s thrombasthenia?
A) Pig
B) Mouse
C) Rat
D) Gerbil
E) Dog
(51:E Vet Pathol 38: 249-260, 2001; Otterhounds and Great Pyrenees dogs; β3-KO mice – developing osteosclerosis, which not described in human’s)
52) All of the following are true about αIIbβ3 integrin, EXCEPT
A) Expressed on platelets
B) Binds fibrinogen, fibronrctin, von Willebrand and vitronectin
C) Required for platelet aggregation and clot reaction
D) Important role in platelet transmembrane signaling
E) Located in platelet δ-granules
(52:E Vet Pathol 38:249-260, 2001; distribute on the membrane surface and the remainder being bound to the inner membrane of α-granules)
53) All of the following are reduced associated with Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia, EXCEPT
A) Platelat aggregation
B) Platelet adhesion
C) Platelet fibrinogen
D) Glycoprotein llb and IIIb
E) Clot retraction
(53:B Vet Pathol 38:249-260, 2001 Table 1; Platelet adhesion is reduced in canine vWD but not in canine & human type I GT)
54) All of the following are involved in activation of fibrinolysis via the intrinsic pathway EXCEPT:
A) Factor XII
B) Kallikrein
C) Kininogen
D) Plasminogen
E) Urokinase
(54:E p.116,117; Urokinase is a part of extrinsic activation)
55) Plasmin is similar to which 2 of the following, in that it splits only lysyl and arginyl bonds in proteins:
A) Fibrin
B) Integrin
C) Laminin
D) Thrombin
E) Trypsin
(55:D,E p.116)
56) D-dimer formation is associated with fibrinogen or fibrin breakdown. (pick one)
(56:fibrin p.119)
57) The most abundant glycoprotein in the basement membrane is:
A) Collagen I
B) Fibronectin
C) Laminin
D) Tenascin
E) Elastin
(57:C p.126)
58) Which the following component of extracellular matrix has the water-attracting property?
A) Collagen
B) Fibronectin
C) Laminin
D) Glycosaminoglycan
E) Proteoglycan
(58:D p.126 Table3-2)
59) Which is the most abundant of the ECM component?
A) Collagen
B) Elastic fiber
C) Fibronectin
D) Laminin
E) Glycosaminoglycan
(59:A p.126)
60) Which following organs/tissue have an extensive network of elastic fibers? (pick 3)
A) Brain
B) Skin
C) Blood vessels
D) Lung
E) Liver
(60:B,C,D)
61) All are mechanisms of edema development EXCEPT:
A) Decreased plasma colloidal-osmotic pressure
B) Increased blood hydrostatic pressure
C) Decreased blood hydrostatic pressure
D) Impaired lymphatic drainage/obstruction
E) Increased vascular permeability
(61:C p.130)