Vet Assisting Clinical Sciences

Front 1

short wavelength equals frequency sound, patient penetration, and image resolution

Back 1

high; lower; increased

Front 2

the cathode is

Back 2

negatively charged and the site of electron production

Front 3

in an xray tube, electrons are boiled and then accelerate rapidly toward the

Back 3

positively charged anode

Front 4

the smaller the focal spot, the____ the image

Back 4

more distinct

Front 5

the x-ray beam is

Back 5

stronger toward the cathode side

Front 6

the milliamperage (mA) selector controls the

Back 6

volume of electrons

Front 7

the peak kilovoltage (kVp) selector controls the

Back 7

speed of the electrons

Front 8

while taking an x-ray, to decrease patient motion blur, you want the milliamperage and time settings required to arrive at the desired milliampere seconds (mAs)

Back 8

highest; shortest

Front 9

having a short exposure time does all of the following except

Back 9

decrease the milliamperage requirement

Front 10

all of the following are examples of acceptable means of labeling a radiograph except

Back 10

a permanent marker on film after developing

Front 11

what is the average life span of an intesifying screen

Back 11

10 to 12 years

Front 12

what is the yearly maximum exposure dose for occupationally exposed individuals

Back 12

5 rem

Front 13

what is the quality factor for diagnostic radiation

Back 13

1

Front 14

what percent of sound is reflected when ultrasound beams intersect air

Back 14

100

Front 15

you need to administer radionuclides to a large dog. you wisely choose the route as primary route of administration

Back 15

IV

Front 16

as you prepare star, a german shepherd, for a computed tomography (CT) scan, you arrange him in which position

Back 16

ventrodorsal or dorsoventral recumbent position

Front 17

you have been asked to keep track of how often and for what purpose CT scanning is used in your veterinary hospital. at the end of the year, you are most likely to discover that it has been most frequently used for

Back 17

head and spinal examination

Front 18

you use less concentrated contrast media when performing CT scanning (as opposed to standard radiography) because

Back 18

CT scanning is more contrast sensitive

Front 19

when is it safe to bring ferromagentic metal into or near a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) unit

Back 19

it is never safe

Front 20

radiographic density is controlled primarily by

Back 20

milliamperage

Front 21

radiographic contrast is controlled primarily by

Back 21

peak kilovoltage

Front 22

the change in an x-ray beam's strength as a result of passing through matter is called

Back 22

attenuation

Front 23

fast-speed films produce x-rays with detail

Back 23

increased

Front 24

in digital radiography systems, "ghost" images or artifacts

Back 24

occur when one is imaging objects that require a very high exposure

Front 25

the apperance of linear striations, or planking, in the background of a digital radiographic image is

Back 25

due to plate saturation

Front 26

when compared with film radiography systems, both computed radiography (CR) and DR

Back 26

use the same principles of radiation protection

Front 27

which of the following is not a characteristic of portable radiographic units

Back 27

they all use a grid

Front 28

scatter radiation can be described as

Back 28

lower-energy x-ray photons that have undergone a change in direction after interacting with structure in the patient's body

Front 29

which of the following describes the potter-bucky diaphragm gril

Back 29

the movement of the diaphragm is timed to suit a particular exposure, and the grid moves across the film during the exposure so that the grid lines are not visible on the resulting film

Front 30

barium sulfate is an example of a

Back 30

insoluble inert radiopaque medium

Front 31

which of the following statements is true of mechanical restraints for use in imaging

Back 31

once the animal is in the proper position, the images must be taken rapidly because mechanical restraints cannot keep the animal still for more than a few seconds

Front 32

the standard format for digital imaging and communications in medicine, called, makes it possible to send an image to another location electronically even though the two locations don't possess the same imaging equipment or software

Back 32

DICOM

Front 33

the is a grid whose movement is timed to suit a particular exposure, moving across the film in such a way that the grid lines are not visible on the resulting film

Back 33

potter-bucky diaphragm

Front 34

pathogensis is

Back 34

a sequence of events that leads to or underlies a disease

Front 35

which of the following tissues breaks down fastest after death

Back 35

retina

Front 36

the first step in performing a necropsy should be to

Back 36

review the signalment and history

Front 37

in order to remove the tongue, larynx, and associated structures, which bones must be cut

Back 37

hyoid bones

Front 38

you are extracting tissue sample for possible virus isolation. ideal specimens for this purpose should come from all of the following except

Back 38

muscle

Front 39

according to the author, which of the following chambers of the heart should be opened first

Back 39

right auricle

Front 40

ruminants are necropsied with their body in which position

Back 40

left lateral recumbent

Front 41

which of the following joints is the most difficult to access in the necropsy of the horse

Back 41

coffin

Front 42

which of the following animals should be rinsed in warm soapy water before starting the necropsy

Back 42

a bird suspected of having psittacosis

Front 43

the advantages of freezing a body prior to the necropsy is that it

Back 43

has no advantage and is contraindicated

Front 44

when fixing tissues for histopathologic examination, what should be the ratio between the volume of the tissue and the fixative

Back 44

1:10

Front 45

which of the following fixatives is used when preserving whole brains for hisopathologic examination

Back 45

50% formalin

Front 46

which of the following techniques should be used when performing a necropsy on very small birds

Back 46

after opening body cavities, fix the entire carcass

Front 47

you are performing necropsy on a cat and need to inflate the lungs to achieve fine fixation. which of the following substances will you use for this

Back 47

formalin

Front 48

which of the following is the most common fixative used in histopathologic examination

Back 48

10% buffered formalin

Front 49

which of the following is not an important step before performing a necropsy

Back 49

keep the body frozen until the necropsy can be performed to prevent rapid decay

Front 50

which of the following nerves must be avoided when giving intramuscular injection in a cat or dog

Back 50

sciatic

Front 51

which of the following urine collection techniques is most suitable for bacterial culture

Back 51

cystocentesis

Front 52

you are about to administer fluid to a newborn piglet; your best choice for administration is usually via the route

Back 52

IP

Front 53

generally speaking, which of the following types of catheters is most commonly used for peripheral vein catheterization

Back 53

over the needle

Front 54

you warn a coworker that using the vein route to administer a particularly irritating drug can cause thrombosis and sloughing of the tail

Back 54

coccygeal

Front 55

to prevent pharyngeal or esophageal trauma when using a balling gun to administer a bolus, you should

Back 55

insert it into mouth and work it gently back to the pharynx, keeping the animal's head down

Front 56

while drawing a small volume of blood from a dog, you place the dog in the lateral recumbent position and grasp the lower leg, applying circumferential pressure to occlude and distend the vein

Back 56

medial saphenous

Front 57

large-volume samples of blood are commonly collected from the cranial vena cava in which animal

Back 57

commercial pig

Front 58

when liquids must be administered with a syringe or dropper, the tip of the syringe or dropper is placed

Back 58

between the cheek and the gums and the muzzle is held at a neutral angle

Front 59

a neonate puppy has a bloated stomach that needs decompression. before inserting an orogastric (OGT) tube, determine the correct length by measuring from the

Back 59

tip of the nose to the 13th rib

Front 60

you are trying to insert an OGT tube into a dog when the animal coughs. this means the tube

Back 60

may have entered the trachea and should be removed

Front 61

which of the following sites is not ideal for applying transdermal medications

Back 61

the back of the untrimmed neck

Front 62

will increase the rate of drug delivery of a fentanyl patch

Back 62

contact with an external heat source

Front 63

eyedrops should be administered, where as ointment forms are administered

Back 63

onto the sclera, onto the upper sclera of the lower palperbral border

Front 64

a veterinarian has prescribed both an opthalmic solution and an ophthamic ointment for your pet at this time. you should

Back 64

apply the solution to the eye 3 to 5 minutes before the ointment

Front 65

to accurately administer medication into a dog's ear canal

Back 65

grasp pinna and pull it upward and slightly out laterally and insert tip of dispenser

Front 66

intrarectal drugs administration

Back 66

may have both local and systemic effects

Front 67

lactulose has been added to your patient's enema solution. you will

Back 67

hold the rectum closed with a gloved hand for the allotted time and then remove the catheter and let the intestine evacuate

Front 68

in intranasal vaccine administration, you should

Back 68

do either a or b, depending on the method chosen

Front 69

the most common route for administering vaccines is the route

Back 69

SC

Front 70

you are responding to a critically ill patient in an emergency situation. you will administer the small-volume, but critically needed, medication via the route for fast absorption

Back 70

IO

Front 71

the preferred site for most SC injection is the

Back 71

dorsolateral region from the neck to the hips

Front 72

the most frequent used sites for IV injections in dogs are the __ vein and ___ vein

Back 72

cephalic; lateral saphenous

Front 73

which of the following veins is less commonly used for IV injection in a cat

Back 73

lateral saphenous

Front 74

fluids or drugs that have an osmolality greater than 600mOsm/L should be administered through a vein

Back 74

jugular

Front 75

the required distance for a jugular catheter insertion is estimated by measureing the distance from the intended insertion site to the caudal edge of the muscle

Back 75

triceps

Front 76

you are monitoring a patient receiving IV chemotherapy when you notice that the patient is whimpering. you check the catheter and notice redness and swelling near the injection site. you should

Back 76

aspirate 5ml of blood back through the catheter, infuse the tissue surrounding the site with 2% lidocaine, and add either cold or warm compresses

Front 77

urine samples degrade rapidly, so they should be analyzed promptly or refrigerated for no more than

Back 77

2 days

Front 78

in camelids, the urethral orifice is most easily located as

Back 78

a palpable groove on the floor of the vulva

Front 79

if san colic is suspected in a horse, a may be used as a diagnostic test

Back 79

fecal sedimentation test

Front 80

in bovine rumen fluid collection, the placement of the tube within the rumen can be confirmed by blowing into the tube and

Back 80

listening for gurgling

Front 81

bronchoalveolar lavage

Back 81

provides lung fluid samples that are better for a cytologic assessment than samples obtained by transtracheal aspiration

Front 82

abdominocentesis performed on the reduces the likelihood of tapping the spleen (in horses) or the rumen (in ruminant)

Back 82

paramedian site to the right of the midline

Front 83

which of the following is not an indication for bone marrow aspiration

Back 83

patients with severe thrombocytopenia

Front 84

which of the following describes the process of thoracocentesis

Back 84

after surgical prep, clipping, and lidocaine injection into and around the site, don gloves and insert the catheter into the caudal aspect of the intercostal space and cranial to the anterior edge of rib. using gentle pressure, apirate until a slight negative pressure is achieved or the patient's condition improves

Front 85

which of the follwing is not true of diagnostic peritoneal lavage

Back 85

it has the same indications as abdominocentesis, but is less effective and should be used only when the former is not possible

Front 86

which of the following statements about the process of arthrocentesis is true

Back 86

joint fluid can be drawn from distal joint without anesthetic or sedation if it will not cause the patient pain and if the patient is not currently experiencing pain

Front 87

when performing a bone marrow aspiration on a small animal, what factors play into site selection when deciding between the ilium, humerus and femur

Back 87

patient's age, size and conformation

Front 88

which of the following statements regaurding methods of oral medication administration in large animas is false

Back 88

while it may seem like an intuitive solution to administering the medication, when using a syringe, never add sweeteners like molasses, maple syrup, or applesauce to the medication, as the viscosity can significantly change the absorption time

Front 89

which of the following is true of nasogastric intubation (NGT)

Back 89

NGT is a procedure commonly used in equine patients

Front 90

which of the following statements regarding the intramuscular (IM) route of drug administration is false

Back 90

when injecting into the semimembranous or semitendosus muscles, the needle should enter the dorsal aspect of the muscle and be directed caudally

Front 91

when collecting a milk sample from a dairy animal, for which of the following methods is not important to clean the teat end before collecting the sample

Back 91

none of the above; the teats should always be cleaned before collecting a milk sample

Front 92

how does the queen or bitch stimulate urination or defecation of the newborn

Back 92

by licking the urogenital area

Front 93

a client is excited because she now owns her very first pregnant mare. she asks you how soon the foal will be born. you tell her that the average gestation in horses lasts day

Back 93

340

Front 94

a new client whose mare recently delivered a foal complains that he believes his previous veterinarian charged him for an unnecessary number of rectal examinations and transrectal examination and transrectal ultrasound imaging

Back 94

around 15 days, 30 days, and then 90 days

Front 95

a pregnant mare in your clinic's care begins exhibiting a vaginal discharge you had not noticed before. this may indicate

Back 95

placentitis or urine pooling

Front 96

by performing a transrectal ultrasound study, the veterinarian can evaluate gross fetal movement and measure the eye orbit to

Back 96

estimate fetal age

Front 97

vaginal examination in the late-term mare is not recommended unless

Back 97

delivery is imminent

Front 98

can be used in a noninvasive way to measure the heart rates of the foal and mare during labor

Back 98

telemetry

Front 99

in late-term pregnancy, the foal will have a heart rate between beats/minute

Back 99

40 to 150

Front 100

you are assessing vital signs in a late-term pregnant mare. because she is at rest, you anticipate a heart rate around beats/minute

Back 100

40 to 50

Front 101

mares often foal

Back 101

at night

Front 102

you observe an agitated pregnant mare who is pacing, nickering, lifting the tail head, turing and biting at her sides, and kicking her own abdomen. from this you deduce that she is in stage of labor

Back 102

1

Front 103

if you observe sweating around the shoulders of a mare in labor

Back 103

the mare will foal in the next half hour or so

Front 104

what stage of labor in the mare is explosive and starts when the mare's placenta ruptures and her water breaks

Back 104

stage 2

Front 105

a pregnant mare you are attending experiences an explosive rupturing of the placenta, and allantoic fluid escapes vaginally. you are aware that if the foal is not delievered within 30 minutes, the foal will experience

Back 105

hypoxemia

Front 106

a mare who has just delivered her foal lies down and begins to expel the placenta. you mark that she is now in stage of labor

Back 106

3

Front 107

you need a blood sample from a weak, hospitalized kitten. where is the best site for drawing blood

Back 107

jugular vein

Front 108

you have been directed to take a radiograph of the abdomen of a sick puppy, along with that of one of his healthy littermates. you know that for a successful image, you will need to use detail intesifying screens and emulsion film

Back 108

high; single

Front 109

if possible, you should obtain radiographs of normal littermates of a sick or weak puppy or kitten. why

Back 109

for comparison

Front 110

as long as neonates are close to their dams and the mammary glands, they can maintain

Back 110

thermal balance

Front 111

as the neonates begins to take up food, this increases its

Back 111

metabolic rate

Front 112

an owner has been keeping his cat's newborn kittens warm with extra bedding. at what age to puppies and kittens have a temperature that is similar to an adult's temperature

Back 112

6 weeks

Front 113

what two complications may occur when tube feeding a hypothermic neonates

Back 113

pneumonia and bloat

Front 114

a client calls to report that her dog has just given birth to a litter of puppies. she tells you, "im worried that they're sleeping to much. about how often should the puppies be nursing." what will you tell her

Back 114

every 2 to 4 hours

Front 115

what is the likely body temperature of a neonate that appears lethargic and uncoordinated but is responsive

Back 115

78 to 85 degree F

Front 116

by the end of what week are puppies and kittens able to stand and have good postural reflexes

Back 116

week 3

Front 117

you are working nights in an animal shelter during an unusually cold winter when a couple run into the emergency department with a litter of kittens they found in their barn. the kittens are all hypothermic. you treat them wil appropriate ambient temperature and humidity, and four of them begin to recover. how soon can you give them food and water

Back 117

when the patient has audible gut sounds and is moderately warm

Front 118

you are careful to check oral mucous membranes in a new litter or puppies because you know that any disease process, imbalance of fluid, or electrolytes in the newborn will quickly lead to

Back 118

dehydration

Front 119

a newborn puppy is dehydrated and needs low-volume fluid administraion. this can be administered

Back 119

intravenously, intraosseously, intraperitoneally, or subcutaneously

Front 120

when administering fluids intraosseously to a feline neonate, an 18 or 19 gauge needle can be placed in the __ tibia or __ femur

Back 120

proximal; proximal

Front 121

you notice that one kitten in a healthy litter has still not begun to nurse, and it has been almost 24 hours since delivery. what is this neonates at increased risk for if suckling does not occur after 24 to 36 hours

Back 121

hypoglycemia

Front 122

you notice that a coworker is preparing to administer a dextrose solution. which of the following routes should be avoid and why

Back 122

subcutaneous; to avoid tissue damage

Front 123

you are examining a litter of neonatal puppies when you notice that one puppy has irregularities, including a hairless lump and other uneven patches of hair over his dorsum. you bring this to the attention of the veterinarian because this puppy needs to be assessed for the possible presence of

Back 123

spina bifida

Front 124

the neonatal period in puppies and kittens is defined as the period

Back 124

characterized by complete dependency on the bitch or queen for survival for nutrition, warmth, and care

Front 125

which of the following statements regarding the examination of neonatal animal is false

Back 125

to evaluate the hydration of a neonate, check the skin turgor rather than the mucous membranes, because the mucous membranes in a neonate are extremely sensitive

Front 126

which of the following would be considered abnormal in the first 24 hours of foal's life

Back 126

demonstration of menace response

Front 127

which of the following are signs of dysmaturity in foal

Back 127

all of the above

Front 128

which of the following is not mentioned in the text as being an acceptable alternative if a foal is uable to nurse directly from its mother

Back 128

all of the above are mentioned as replacements for mare's milk

Front 129

the cranial vena cava is commonly used to collect blood in which animal

Back 129

ferret

Front 130

which of the following is a marsupial

Back 130

sugar glider

Front 131

you need to collect blood from a rabbit; your site of choice will most likely be the

Back 131

lateral saphenous vein

Front 132

which of the following is the most reliable way to administer antibiotics to a pet bird

Back 132

in the pectoral muscle

Front 133

which of the following is a commonly diagnosed bacterial zoonotic disease carried by birds and spread through the respiratory route

Back 133

chlamydiosis

Front 134

which of the following is arboreal and requires a tall cage with branches

Back 134

sugar gliders

Front 135

what makes up the white part of a bird's droppings

Back 135

urates

Front 136

you are asked to conduct a stomach wash in a lizard to confrim the presence of which of the following organisms

Back 136

cryptosporidia

Front 137

which of the following zoonotic diseases is carried by many reptiles

Back 137

salmonellosis

Front 138

palperbral edema due to vitamin a deficiency is seen in which of the following

Back 138

turtle

Front 139

which of the following statements is true about descenting in ferrets

Back 139

ferrets still have a musty odor from their scent glands

Front 140

which disease can ferrets catch from their owners

Back 140

influenza

Front 141

adult rabbits often fight because they are normally

Back 141

territorial

Front 142

you are examining a rabbit for possible malocclusion. which teeth should you pay special attention to

Back 142

incisors and molars

Front 143

which of the following have cheek pouches that can be used as a transportation device

Back 143

hamsters

Front 144

hypoglycemia is a problem in which of the following

Back 144

ferrets and sugar gliders

Front 145

what is the cloacal probe used for in snakes

Back 145

determining sex

Front 146

mammary glands tumors are particularly common in which animal

Back 146

rats

Front 147

mycoplasma spp. cause what type of clinical problem in rodents

Back 147

respiratory infection

Front 148

why is it illegal to keep north american prairie dogs as pets in the united states

Back 148

they carry plague and monkeypox

Front 149

which of the following is not a rodent

Back 149

hedgehog

Front 150

you are attempting to perform a crop wash to examine a bird's upper gastrointestinal track and obtain samples for a wet-mount microscopic evaluation. the problem is, your patient has an underdevloped crop. what should you do

Back 150

pass a sterile tube through the mouth into the esophagus

Front 151

a bird's water bowl should be

Back 151

mounted on the wall of the cage or enclosure to keep it clean

Front 152

you have been asked to collect a fecal sample from a lizard. you will use a colonic wash with a volume of saline at or less of the animal's weight

Back 152

1%

Front 153

the majority of captive reptiles species can accommodate well in humidity ranges of

Back 153

50 to 70%

Front 154

you are examining a pet iguana and want a sample of gastrointestinal and urinary fluids. you realize that you can retrieve both samples from the

Back 154

cloaca

Front 155

are the only type of inflammatory cell that may be found in a cytologic evaluation via cloacal swab or crop wash

Back 155

heterophils

Front 156

when advising an owner on transporting his or her pet bird to the veterinary hospital, which of the following is not good advice

Back 156

the cage should be thoroughly cleaned and new water provided to reduce stress and injury to the bird

Front 157

which of the following is an important piece of specialized equipment for any veterinary hospital that decides to treat reptiles

Back 157

all of the above

Front 158

which of the following is true regarding the veterinary care of rodents

Back 158

isoflurane or sevoflurane are the best choices of anesthetic for rodents

Front 159

which of the following statement regarding the diet of guinea pigs is true

Back 159

all of the above

Front 160

you are unable to access a vein for intravenous IV administration in a neonate who experiences cardiovascular collapse. you must administer fluids soon. what alternative route might you use with success

Back 160

IO

Front 161

is an example of a synthetic colloid

Back 161

hetastarch

Front 162

you are administering hetastarch to a patient during resuscitation. what is the greatest risk of the administration of synthetic colloid

Back 162

coagulopathy

Front 163

during a transfusion of plasma-containing blood product, a horse begins to sweat and show piloerection. the veterinarian is most likely to

Back 163

slow the transfusion and continue monitorying: the reactions may resolve on their own

Front 164

which of the following is not true. transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)

Back 164

is rare euvolemic patients

Front 165

sodium bicarbonate can be appropriate treatment for

Back 165

extreme acidemia

Front 166

about two-thirds of the total body water (TBW) in mammals is made up of

Back 166

ICF

Front 167

all crystalloid IV solutions contain __ in water and characterized by their

Back 167

electrolytes; osmolality

Front 168

a horse needs immediate resucitation. in response, it is best to deliver

Back 168

hypertonic saline followed by isotonic crystalloids

Front 169

your patient, a large dog, has had multiple episodes of vomiting and diarrhea, and you need to calculate the fluid replacement volume for her. you have estimated ongoing losses for the past 3 hours as totaling 150mL. you will increase the administration rate by mL/hr to the fluid administration rate for the next period of time to replace these losses

Back 169

50

Front 170

you are treating a horse who, you have just discovered, has a large colon impaction. she is already receiving IV fluids. the impaction itslef will most likely be treated using which route

Back 170

enteral route via nasogastric tube

Front 171

a critically ill horse will need fluid therapy during surgery. he has been anesthertized, but which route will you most likely use for the fluid administration

Back 171

intravenous

Front 172

you have been asked to administer two medications simultaneously, but you have noticed that the two drugs may not be compatible. assuming the dr wants these administered, you will

Back 172

use a central line catheter

Front 173

if an IV catheter is being placed in the jugular vein, the vessel should be occluded at the

Back 173

thoracic inlet

Front 174

your hospitalized patient acquires a fever of unknown origin. he has an IV catheter. you will

Back 174

remove and replace the catheter in a different vein as a precaution

Front 175

in a gravity-fed IV fluid system, the rate of administration is

Back 175

largely dependent on the patient's position and manually adjusted by opening or closing a clamp

Front 176

in a volumetric pump fluid system

Back 176

the required volume of fluids can be programmed to be delivered over a set amount of time

Front 177

the route can be used to administer large volumes of fluid for slow absorption over time and gradual fluid replacement to treat mild to moderate dehydration or as a preventative in patients that are not eating or drinking

Back 177

subcutaneous

Front 178

in most cases, the single best way to track changes in hydration and body water is through

Back 178

frequent monitorying of body weight

Front 179

which of the following is a portable device that can provide ventilatory support during cardiopulmonary cerebral resucitation (CPCR), providing either room air or 100% oxygen, depending on the model

Back 179

ambu bag

Front 180

the condition in which air becomes trapped between the body wall and the lung is called

Back 180

pneumothorax

Front 181

the veterinarian is about to perform a vaginal examination on a cow with dystocia. as you prep the perineal area, which of the following is not true

Back 181

it is imperative to clean the perineal area before the rectal portion of the examination

Front 182

an animal that assumes a praying or play bowing position most likely has pain

Back 182

abdominal

Front 183

disseminated intravascular coagulation is primarily a disorder of the body's function

Back 183

clotting

Front 184

you are treating a patient that is severely hypernatremic. you realize that you must administer

Back 184

IV fluids slowly and gradually over 2 to 3 days

Front 185

in an effort to improve your patient's blood pressure, you administer, a synthetic catecholamine, in hopes of causing peripheral vasoconstriction

Back 185

dopamine

Front 186

when performing chest compressions on an animal that weighs more than 15 lb, the animal should be placed in a

Back 186

lateral recumbent position

Front 187

when performing cardiac compression on a dog that weighs 9lbs, what is the point of compression

Back 187

directly over the heart

Front 188

what is the treatment of choice for ventricular fibrillation

Back 188

electrical defibrillation

Front 189

what is the ideal route of drug administration during CPCR in advance life support

Back 189

intravenous route with a jugular cutdown

Front 190

which drugs can be administered safely via the endotracheal route

Back 190

atropine,lidocane, epinephrine, naloxone, vasopressin

Front 191

after performing CPCR on a dog, the animal develops opisthotonus with rigidity in all four limbs where is the lesion, and what is the prognosis

Back 191

brainstem; grave

Front 192

__provides a means to measure the expired dioxide concentration of expired air, whereas__ indicates a noninvasive measurement of the hemoglobin-oxygen saturation

Back 192

capnography;pulse oximetry

Front 193

arterial blood samples should be drawn from the or femoral artery

Back 193

dorsal metatarsal

Front 194

as a general rule of thumb, the PaO2 should be approximately times the FiO2

Back 194

5

Front 195

in dogs and cats, systolic values ranging from___mm hG and diastolic values ranging from ___ mm Hg are required to maintain adequate perfustion of vital organs, such as kidneys and brain

Back 195

80 to 140; 50 to 80

Front 196

when selecting a cuff to use to indirectly measure a cat's or dog's blood pressure, the of the cuff should be approximately of the circumference of the limb at the site of cuff placement

Back 196

width; 40%

Front 197

which of the following drugs promotes diuresis and decreases cerebral edema in a patient following cardiac arrest by drawing water from the interstitial space between cells

Back 197

mannitol

Front 198

which of the following drugs is used to treat ventricular tachycardia

Back 198

lidocaine

Front 199

which of the following drugs is classified as a loop diuretic and is typically used to treat heart failure and pulmonary edema

Back 199

furosemide

Front 200

which of the following is not part of a specialized cardiac conduction system

Back 200

QR node

Front 201

vertical measurements on an ECG paper represents

Back 201

strength of the electrical impulse expressed in millivolts

Front 202

in standard calibration on ECG paper, each vertical 1-mm box equals

Back 202

0.1mV

Front 203

the average heart rate (HR)(in beats per minutes) can be calculated by counting the numbers of

Back 203

QRS complexes in a predetermined time period and multiplying the number of complexes by a specific factor

Front 204

an abnormal P wave likely indicates

Back 204

right or left atrial enlargement

Front 205

variation in the PR interval may occur with

Back 205

atrioventricular enlargement

Front 206

in the QRS complex, a tall R wave indicates

Back 206

left ventricular enlargement

Front 207

the ST segment indicates the repolarization

Back 207

time interval from ventricular depolarization to

Front 208

the QT interval represents

Back 208

the total electrical systole

Front 209

first degree AV block occurs when

Back 209

conduction through the AV node is delayed

Front 210

a horse with a long history of severe pain prior to arrival often exhibits

Back 210

abrasion over the head, face, eyes and bony prominences of the body

Front 211

nasogastric intubation in horses

Back 211

should be performed in all patients examined for abdominal pain

Front 212

the veterinarian performs a chest tap on a horse. this is most likely indicates that

Back 212

the pleural space of a horse with pneumothorax was reduced to normal volume through thoracocentesis

Front 213

you are helping the veterinarian stabilize a midforelimb fracture on a horse. which of the following is not true

Back 213

a lateral splint extending from the ground to the hip is secured with nonelastic tape

Front 214

which method of helping a downed cow stand is the best option for supporting an animal for long periods of time

Back 214

hydrofloation

Front 215

when is it acceptable to use a rumen trocar to relieve bloat and a distended rumen

Back 215

in certain instances of severe respiratory depression

Front 216

for tracheostomy in a calf, you will use a mm ID tube

Back 216

5- to 10-

Front 217

meaning difficult birth, represents the majority of obstetric emergencies

Back 217

dystocia

Front 218

what is the first thing a technician should ascertain from a telephone triage with an owner who is worried about his or her pet

Back 218

a name and phone number where the caller can be contacted if disconnected

Front 219

which of the following is not a key aspect of recumbent care

Back 219

do not apply fluorescein stain to the corneas of a patient who is under general anesthesia

Front 220

according to the text, which of the following is not a common small animal emergency

Back 220

all of the above are common small animal emergencies