V3 Comptia A+ Completestudyguide Wk2

Front 1

You have been asked to set up a workstation for a new graphic designer at your company. Which of the following is not a requirement for a graphic design workstation?

A. Fast hard drive

B. Maximum RAM

C. Powerful CPU

D. High-end video

Back 1

Fast hard drive

Front 2

You have been hired as a consultant for a video editing company that needs all new workstations for its six editors. Which of the following is required when constructing an A/V editing workstation?

A. Gigabit NIC

B. Powerful processor

C. Maximum RAM

D. Fast hard drive

Back 2

Fast hard drive

Front 3

Danielle has been asked to configure virtualization at her company. She recommends that her manager buy multicore processors. What justification should she give as to why virtualization workstations require as many CPU cores as possible?

A. Each virtual machine has one or more cores installed directly in it.

B. Each virtual machine makes use of actual CPU resources for processing instructions and data.

C. Fault tolerance dictates that if one CPU core fails, there should be one or more in line to take its place.

D. Because each guest operating system runs in its own space, multiple cores are required to store the collective data.

Back 3

Each virtual machine has one or more cores installed directly in it.

Front 4

Your friend Joe plays video game tournaments online, and he read in an online forum that he should overclock his CPU for better speed. You tell him that if he does that, he needs better cooling. Why is high-end cooling a requirement for gaming PCs?

A. Gaming PCs tend to overclock their CPUs and run multiple high-performance GPUs.

B. Gaming controllers have components for tactile realism that generate copious amounts of heat.

C. Digital sound cards generate more heat than analog sound cards.

D. Placing that many hard drives in such a small space generates too much heat.

Back 4

Gaming PCs tend to overclock their CPUs and run multiple high-performance GPUs.

Front 5

Marcus, a network technician, has been asked to build an HTPC for his manager. Which of the following is not a common requirement that Marcus should consider for this custom configuration?

A. Surround sound

B. HDMI

C. Micro-ATX case

D. TV tuner

Back 5

Micro-ATX case

Front 6

Which type of system simply needs to run standard versions of Windows and desktop applications?

A. Thin client

B. Thick client

C. Home server PC

D. Virtualization workstation

Back 6

Thick client

Front 7

Which of the following description most closely matches that of a thin client?

A. A high-resolution monitor, keyboard, and mouse

B. A computer with a low-profile case

C. A laptop

D. A dumb terminal with a NIC

Back 7

A dumb terminal with a NIC

Front 8

You have recently installed a home server PC in your home so that all of your family members can share media. You have a router and network cabling that supports Gigabit Ethernet.Why should you equip a home server PC with a gigabit NIC?

A. All systems, including the server, should communicate at the same speed.

B. The server should not be allowed to communicate at the higher speeds of the rest of the network or it will be overused.

C. The server should exceed the communication speed of the clients to avoid a bottleneck.

D. The operating system that home servers run is not compatible with Gigabit Ethernet.

Back 8

The server should exceed the communication speed of the clients to avoid a bottleneck.

Front 9

An engineer on your network is complaining that his CAD workstation is slow and he wants a processor upgrade. Which of the following reasons is justification for having a powerful processor in a CAD/CAM workstation?

A. Only powerful processors can stream graphical information efficiently.

B. Manufacturing equipment is generally faster than design equipment, which needs faster processors to keep up.

C. Graphics adapters used in CAD/CAM do not have their own processors, so the CPU performs this job as well.

D. The algorithms used in rendering graphics can be processor intensive.

Back 9

The algorithms used in rendering graphics can be processor intensive.

Front 10

A video editor at your company wants a second monitor, claiming that only having one monitor limits her ability to work. Why do A/V editing workstations benefit from more than one monitor?

A. Their software often has enough controls across their width that one monitor seems cramped.

B. While one graphics adapter works on one rendering project, the other can simply display a normal desktop.

C. Once the editing is complete, the second monitor is used to present the results to others on the team.

D. Additional monitors are used for remote collaboration among other editors.

Back 10

Their software often has enough controls across their width that one monitor seems cramped.

Front 11

You are configuring a virtualization workstation for your home use. Which of the following is required for your new system?

A. Multiple host operating systems

B. Maximum RAM allowed

C. File sharing services

D. Multiple NICs

Back 11

Maximum RAM allowed

Front 12

Robin has been asked to lead training for new technicians at a local PC distributor specializing in gaming PCs. For which one of the following should she not recommend upgraded parts?

A. High-end cooling

B. A RAID array

C. High-end video

D. Better sound card

Back 12

A RAID array

Front 13

Which of the following system types does not require a CPU enhancement of any sort?

A. A/V editing workstation

B. Gaming PC

C. Graphic design workstation

D. Virtualization workstation

Back 13

A/V editing workstation

Front 14

Maria is setting up an HTPC and wants to know which type of video cables to purchase. Which of the following is the recommended video output technology for home theater PCs?

A. DVI

B. WUXGA

C. HDMI

D. YCbCr

Back 14

HDMI

Front 15

Which of the following is a common feature of a standard thick client?

A. Has enhanced video capabilities

B. Has a high-performance hard drive

C. Has as much RAM installed as is possible

D. Can run a full version of Windows

Back 15

Can run a full version of Windows

Front 16

Your network uses thin clients. A new technician is amazed that the computers have no hard drives and asks, “If the operating system is not resident on the client, where is it found?”

A. On a DVD inserted at bootup

B. On a USB flash drive

C. On the server for session-by-session client use

D. Embedded in a flash module on the motherboard

Back 16

On the server for session-by-session client use

Front 17

Peter is configuring a home server PC. Which of the following should be his least-important priority to include in his home server PC?

A. File and print sharing

B. Maximum RAM

C. Gigabit NIC

D. Media streaming

E. RAID array

Back 17

Maximum RAM

Front 18

All of the following systems benefit from increased RAM except _____ .(Choose two.)

A. Home theater PC

B. Virtualization workstation

C. Graphic design workstation

D. Gaming PC

Back 18

Home theater PC

Gaming PC

Front 19

Which of the following uses would not require a custom configuration for a PC?

A. A computer running Windows 7 Ultimate with 1TB of data and 250GB of applications installed

B. A computer running WHS 2011

C. A design computer used to drive a lathe that makes automotive rims

D. A computer to replace a BD player and DVR

Back 19

A computer running Windows 7 Ultimate with 1TB of data and 250GB of applications installed

Front 20

Which of the following system types does not benefit from video enhancements?

A. CAD/CAM design workstation

B. Home server PC

C. A/V editing workstation

D. Home theater PC

Back 20

Home server PC

Front 21

____________________ is immune to electromagnetic or radio–frequency interference.
A. Twisted–pair cabling
B. CSMA/CD
C. Broadband coaxial cabling
D. Fiber–optic cabling

Back 21

Fiber–optic cabling

Front 22

Which IEEE 802 standard defines a bus topology using coaxial base band cable and is able to transmit at 10Mbps?
A. 802.1
B. 802.2
C. 802.3
D. 802.5

Back 22

802.3

Front 23

Which OSI layer signals “all clear” by making sure the data segments are error free?
A. Application layer
B. Session layer
C. Transport layer
D. Network layer

Back 23

Transport layer

Front 24

___________________ is the type of media access method used by NICs that listen to or sense the cable to check for traffic and send only when they hear that no one else is transmitting.
A. Token passing
B. CSMA/CD
C. CSMA/CA
D. Demand priority

Back 24

CSMA/CD

Front 25

What model is used to provide a common way to describe network protocols?
A. OSI
B. ISO
C. IEEE
D. CSMA/CD

Back 25

OSI

Front 26

A physical star topology consists of several workstations that branch off a central device called a ____________________ .
A. NIC
B. Bridge
C. Router
D. Hub

Back 26

Hub

Front 27

Of all network cabling options, ___________________ offers the longest possible segment length.
A. Unshielded twisted–pair
B. Coaxial
C. Fiber–optic
D. Shielded twisted–pair

Back 27

Fiber–optic

Front 28

What devices transfer packets across multiple networks and use tables to store network addresses to determine the best destination?
A. Routers
B. Bridges
C. Hubs
D. Switches

Back 28

Routers

Front 29

In which network design do users access resources from other workstations rather than from a central location?
A. Client–server
B. Star
C. Ring
D. Peer–to–peer

Back 29

Peer–to–peer

Front 30

Which of the following wireless communication standards is often described in terms of a wireless personal area network?
A. Bluetooth
B. Infrared
C. Cellular
D. Ethernet

Back 30

Bluetooth

Front 31

Which of the following statements are not associated with a star network? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A single cable break can cause complete network disruption.
B. All devices connect to a central device.
C. It uses a single backbone computer to connect all network devices.
D. It uses a dual–ring configuration.

Back 31

A single cable break can cause complete network disruption.
It uses a single backbone computer to connect all network devices.
It uses a dual–ring configuration.

Front 32

If you are going to run a network cable in the space above the drop ceiling in your office, which type of cable should you use?
A. Plenum
B. PVC
C. Coaxial
D. Fiber–optic

Back 32

Plenum

Front 33

Which of the following connector types is an MFF connector?
A. BNC
B. ST
C. SC
D. LC

Back 33

LC

Front 34

What Ethernet specification would you be running if you needed to make a connection of 10Gbps over a distance of five kilometers?
A. 10GBaseER
B. 10GBaseT
C. 10GBaseSR
D. 10GBaseLR

Back 34

10GBaseER

Front 35

You have been asked to configure a full mesh network with seven computers. How many connections will this require?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 21
D. 42

Back 35

21

Front 36

Which tool is used by technicians to connect an RJ–45 connector to the end of a cable?
A. Punch–down tool
B. Crimper
C. Cable tester
D. Loopback plug

Back 36

Crimper

Front 37

What type of device will block unwanted traffic from your network using a set of rules called an ACL?
A. Router
B. Firewall
C. Internet appliance
D. NAS

Back 37

Firewall

Front 38

What type of coaxial cable is recommended for digital television cable signals?
A. RG–6
B. RG–8
C. RG–58
D. RG–59

Back 38

RG–6

Front 39

Which of the following devices work at Layer 2 of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
A. Hub
B. Router
C. Bridge
D. Switch

Back 39

Bridge & Switch

Front 40

Transmitting at 10Gbps, how far can signals on an MMF cable travel?
A. 100 meters
B. 550 meters
C. 1 kilometer
D. 40 kilometers

Back 40

550 meters

Front 41

You have just set up a network that will use the TCP/IP protocol, and you want client computers to obtain IP configuration information automatically. Which type of server do you need for this?

A. DNS

B. DHCP

C. Domain controller

D. IP configuration server

Back 41

DHCP

Front 42

You have a computer with the IP address 171.226.18.1. What class is this address?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Not a valid IP address

Back 42

Class B

Front 43

Which TCP/IP protocol uses port 80?

A. HTTP

B. HTTPS

C. Telnet

D. POP3

Back 43

HTTP

Front 44

What is the maximum number of IPv6 addresses that can be assigned to one IPv6 interface?

A. One (unicast)

B. Two (unicast and anycast)

C. Three (unicast, anycast, and multicast)

D. None of the above

Back 44

None of the above

Front 45

Which of the following are valid examples of IPv6 addresses? (Choose all that apply.)

A. 2001:0db8:3c4d:0012:0000:0000:1234:56ab

B. ::ffff:c0a8:173

C. 2001:db8:3c4d:12::1234:56ab

D. 2001::1ab4::5468

Back 45

A. 2001:0db8:3c4d:0012:0000:0000:1234:56ab

B. ::ffff:c0a8:173

C. 2001:db8:3c4d:12::1234:56ab

Front 46

Which of the following IP addresses would not be valid for a DNS server on the Internet?

A. 10.25.11.33

B. 18.33.66.254

C. 155.118.63.11

D. 192.186.12.2

Back 46

10.25.11.33

Front 47

The workstations on your network are configured to use a DHCP server. One of the workstations can’t communicate with other computers. Its IP address is 169.254.1.18.What could be the problem?

A. The subnet mask is wrong.

B. It has a private IP address.

C. The default gateway is wrong.

D. It can’t reach the DHCP server.

Back 47

It can’t reach the DHCP server.

Front 48

Which of the following protocols is responsible for sending email?

A. IMAP4

B. POP3

C. SMTP

D. SNMP

Back 48

SMTP

Front 49

What port does the RDP protocol work on?

A. 53

B. 143

C. 389

D. 3389

Back 49

3389

Front 50

Which two TCP/IP protocols work at the Host-to-Host layer of the DOD model?(Choose two.)

A. IP

B. ARP

C. TCP

D. UDP

Back 50

C. TCP

D. UDP

Front 51

What are two advantages that TCP has over UDP? (Choose two.)

A. Acknowledged delivery

B. Faster delivery

C. Lower overhead

D. Virtual circuits

Back 51

Acknowledged delivery

Virtual circuits

Front 52

Your friend is concerned about the security of making an online purchase. What should you tell her to look for in the address bar of the web browser?

A. HTTP

B. HTTPS

C. SSH

D. SFTP

Back 52

HTTPS

Front 53

You are manually configuring a TCP/IP host. Another administrator gives you the router’s IP address. What is the TCP/IP term for this?

A. Default gateway

B. Subnet mask

C. DNS server

D. DHCP server

Back 53

Default gateway

Front 54

Your network is running IPv4. Which of the configuration options are mandatory for your host to communicate on the network? (Choose two.)

A. IP address

B. Subnet mask

C. Default gateway

D. DNS server address

Back 54

IP address

Subnet mask

Front 55

Which of the following protocols is used for secure delivery of email?

A. SMTP

B. SNMP

C. POP3

D. IMAP4

Back 55

IMAP4

Front 56

Which protocol was developed to be a secure alternative to Telnet?

A. SMB

B. SSH

C. SNMP

D. SFTP

Back 56

SSH

Front 57

Which of the following protocols uses TCP port 23?

A. Telnet

B. SSH

C. FTP

D. DNS

Back 57

Telnet

Front 58

Which of the following is an IPv6 broadcast address?

A. ::1

B. FE80::

C. FF00::

D. ::FFFF

E. None of the above

Back 58

None of the above

Front 59

You are setting up a small network that will not connect to the Internet. You want computers to be able to locate each other by using host names. What service will do this?

A. DNS

B. DHCP

C. FTP

D. APIPA

Back 59

DNS

Front 60

Which of the following protocols is responsible for resolving IP addresses to hardware addresses?

A. DNS

B. DHCP

C. ARP

D. RARP

Back 60

ARP

Front 61

Which of the following wireless IEEE standards operate on the 2.4GHz radio frequency and are directly compatible with each other? (Choose two.)
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11d
D. 802.11g

Back 61

802.11b
802.11g

Front 62

What is the primary function of the SSID?
A. Secure communication between a web server and browser
B. Secure communication between a server and remote host
C. A type of password used to help secure a wireless connection
D. A type of password used to secure an Ethernet 802.3 connection

Back 62

A type of password used to help secure a wireless connection

Front 63

Which two of the following are features that allow 802.11ac to achieve higher data throughput? (Choose two.)

A. MIMO

B. Beamforming

C. Channel bonding

D. Code division multiplexing

Back 63

MIMO

Channel bonding

Front 64

What is the most secure wireless encryption standard for 802.11 networks?
A. WEP
B. WPA
C. WPA2
D. SAFER+

Back 64

WPA2

Front 65

What level of QoS is designated for interactive voice and video?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Back 65

5

Front 66

You have just installed a wireless router on your home network. Which of the following should you do to make it highly secure? (Choose two.)
A. Change the default administrator name and password.
B. Change the SSID.
C. Enable WEP.
D. Configure it to channel 11.

Back 66

A. Change the default administrator name and password.
B. Change the SSID.

Front 67

You are setting up a small office network for a client. Which Internet service would you recommend to provide the best speed?
A. DSL
B. Dial–up
C. Satellite
D. BRI ISDN
E. PRI ISDN

Back 67

DSL

Front 68

Which service allows users with private IP addresses to access the Internet using a public IP address?
A. DHCP
B. DNS
C. DMZ
D. NAT

Back 68

NAT

Front 69

You are installing a single 802.11g wireless network. The office space is large enough that you need three WAPs. What channels should you configure the WAPs on to avoid communication issues?
A. 2, 5, and 7
B. 1, 8, and 14
C. 1, 6, and 11
D. 3, 6, and 9

Back 69

1, 6, and 11

Front 70

You are setting up a wireless network. Which wireless standards would give the users over 40 Mbps throughput? (Choose three.)
A. 802.11ac
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n

Back 70

A. 802.11ac
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n

Front 71

You have been asked to configure a network for a small office. The wireless router is installed, and now you need to connect the client computers. What do you enter on the client computers to connect to the router?

A. The administrator password

B. The security passphrase

C. The client’s MAC address

D. The default router password

Back 71

The security passphrase

Front 72

Which of the following wireless communication methods has an operational range of 1 meter with a viewing angle of 30 degrees?
A. Bluetooth
B. Infrared
C. WiMAX
D. Satellite

Back 72

Infrared

Front 73

Which of the following are advantages to using dial–up Internet service? (Choose two.)
A. High speed
B. Broad availability
C. Low cost
D. High security

Back 73

Broad availability
Low cost

Front 74

Which of the following security standards was the first to introduce a dynamic 128–bit per–packet security key?
A. WEP
B. TKIP
C. AES
D. CCMP

Back 74

TKIP

Front 75

You are running an 802.11g wireless router in mixed mode. You have three 802.11g wireless NICs using the router. A new user connects using an 802.11b wireless NIC. What will happen?
A. The user with 802.11b will access the network at 11Mbps while the users with 802.11g will access the network at 54 Mbps.
B. The user with 802.11b will not be able to communicate on the network.
C. The user with 802.11b will access the network at 11 Mbps. The users with 802.11g will access the network at 54 Mbps unless they are communicating with the 802.11b device,which will be at 11 Mbps.
D. All users will access the network at 11 Mbps.

Back 75

D. All users will access the network at 11Mbps.

Front 76

When enabled, which feature of a wireless router allows only specified computers to access the network?
A. Port forwarding
B. WPS
C. SSID
D. MAC filtering

Back 76

D. MAC filtering

Front 77

A firewall operates by using a set of rules known as what?
A. SLA
B. ACL
C. Default deny
D. DMZ

Back 77

B. ACL

Front 78

You have set up a wireless router on your network and configured it to use AES. What configuration option do you need to choose on the client computers?
A. WEP
B. WPA
C. WPA2
D. TKIP

Back 78

C. WPA2

Front 79

Besides 802.11 standards, which wireless communication method works in the 2.4GHz range?
A. Bluetooth
B. Infrared
C. Satellite
D. Cellular

Back 79

A. Bluetooth

Front 80

Which of the following broadband technologies provides two dedicated, digital data channels that can be combined for greater throughput?
A. DSL
B. Cable
C. Satellite
D. BRI ISDN
E. PRI ISDN

Back 80

D. BRI ISDN