Utmb Anatomy Test 3

Front 1

1. Major cranial nerve with only motor functions, found in the posterior triangle of the neck?

2. Which muscles does it innervate?

Back 1

1. CN XI – the spinal accessory nerve

2. It innervates the SCM and the trapezius

Front 2

Which vascular structure in the anterior neck functions as a baroreceptor?

Back 2

the carotid sinus

Front 3

Which structure in the anterior neck functions as a chemoreceptor?

Back 3

the carotid body

Front 4

Which nerve runs down the anterior border of the anterior scalene muscle?

Back 4

the phrenic nerve

Front 5

What are the 3 major components found within the carotid sheath?

Back 5

carotid artery
internal jugular vein
vagus nerve (CN X)

Front 6

What are the 2 major thyroid arteries and from where do they arise?

Back 6

1. Superior thyroid artery - external carotid

2. inferior thyroid artery - thyrocervical trunk off the subclavian

Front 7

The isthmus of the thyroid gland usually lies anterior to what structure?

Back 7

Proximal trachea (below the cricoid cartilage, anterior to the second and third tracheal rings)

Front 8

What percentage of people have a pyramidal lobe found on the thyroid gland?

Back 8

~50%

Front 9

Which nerve is endangered during surgical removal of the thyroid gland?

Back 9

the recurrent laryngeal nerve

Front 10

What are the common names for the first and second cervical vertebrae?

Back 10

atlas (C1)
axis (C2)

Front 11

What artery travels through the foramina of the transverse processes of the cervical vertebrae?

Back 11

the vertebral artery

Front 12

Damage to what structure in the neck will produce Horner’s syndrome?

Back 12

Damage to the sympathetic nerves or sympathetic chain will cause Horner’s syndrome.

Front 13

Name of the space between the prevertebral fascia and the buccopharyngeal fascia (behind the pharynx)?

Back 13

the retropharyngeal space

Front 14

Thoracic outlet syndrome refers to compression of the ________ and/or __________.

Back 14

brachial plexus
subclavian artery

Front 15

Where is the anterior fontanelle located?

Back 15

At the junction of the sagittal , coronal, and metopic sutures

(the metopic suture is the temporary suture between the two frontal bones which remain paired for a short period after birth).

Front 16

The mastoid process is a feature of which cranial bone?

Back 16

temporal bone

Front 17

The styloid process is a feature of which cranial bone?

Back 17

temporal bone

Front 18

muscles of facial expression or mastication:

Platysma

Back 18

facial expression

Front 19

muscles of facial expression or mastication:

Orbicularis oris

Back 19

facial expression

Front 20

muscles of facial expression or mastication:

Buccinator

Back 20

facial expression

Front 21

muscles of facial expression or mastication:

Medial pterygoid

Back 21

mastication

Front 22

muscles of facial expression or mastication:

masseter

Back 22

mastication

Front 23

muscles of facial expression or mastication:

Zygomatic major

Back 23

facial expression

Front 24

muscles of facial expression or mastication:

temporalis

Back 24

mastication

Front 25

Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression?

Back 25

CN VII- facial

Front 26

which cranial nerve innervates the muscles of mastication?

Back 26

CN V- trigeminal

Front 27

Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the face?

Back 27

CN V- trigeminal

Front 28

Which cranial nerve is damaged in the condition known as Bell’s palsy?

Back 28

CN VII- facial

Front 29

Which of the following arteries are not branches of the external carotid artery?

Facial, lingual, retromandibular, occipital, maxillary, superior thyroid, inferior thyroid

Back 29

retromandibular- name of facial vein

inferior thyroid

Front 30

By convention, how many layers of tissue make up the scalp?

Which of these constitute the scalp proper?

Back 30

The scalp is composed of 5 layers;

1. Skin,

2. Connective Tissue,

3. Aponeurosis (Galea),

4. Loose connective tissue,

5. Periosteum

The scalp proper is 1-3

Front 31

In which layer of the scalp are the nerves and vessels located?

Back 31

Connective tissue

Front 32

Which layer of the scalp is known as the dangerous area?

Back 32

Loose connective tissue

Front 33

In what anatomical region would you find the origin of the branches of the maxillary artery?

Back 33

infratemporal fossa

Front 34

In what anatomical region would you find the origin of the branches of the mandibular nerve (V3)?

Back 34

infratemporal fossa

Front 35

The parasympathetic fibers from the otic ganglion travel to which gland?

Back 35

parotid gland

(nerve is responsible for salivation)

Front 36

Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles that cause movement at the TemporoMandibular joint?

Back 36

CN V- trigeminal
muscles that move the TMJ are the muscles of mastication

Front 37

Which cranial nerve can be found dividing into several branches inside the parotid gland?

Back 37

CN VII facial

Front 38

Which small space inside the skull is situated between the nasal cavity and the infratemporal fossa?

Back 38

pterygopalatine fossa

Front 39

Where would you find the palpebral portion of the orbicularis oculi muscles?

Back 39

on the eyelids

Front 40

1. which muscle (of mastication) does the parotid duct cross

2. which muscle (of facial expression) does it pierce?

Back 40

1. the duct crosses the masseter

2. pierces the buccinator

Front 41

What is the calvaria?

Back 41

The calvaria is the upper domelike portion of the bony skull (the skullcap).

Front 42

Where is the coronal suture?

Back 42

lies between the frontal bone and the two parietal bones.

Front 43

Where is the sagittal suture?

Back 43

The sagittal suture is on the top of the skull between the two parietal bones.

Front 44

1. Where is the pterion?

2. Why is it a clinically important landmark?

Back 44

1. The pterion is an “H”-shaped sutural junction located on the lateral aspect of the skull. (where the greater wing of the sphenoid, the squamous temporal, the frontal, and the parietal bones come together)

2. It lies over the course a branch of the middle meningeal artery branch. Fractures across the pterion can lead to epidural hematomas.

Front 45

1. Where would one find the middle meningeal artery?

2. From what artery does it arise?

Back 45

1. Its branches travel between the inside of the skull bones and the dura mater.

2. It arises from the maxillary artery and enters the cranial cavity through the foramen spinosum.

Front 46

What type of hematoma typically results from tearing the middle meningeal artery?

Back 46

Epidural hematomas

Front 47

What cranial fossa contains the foramen magnum?

Back 47

Posterior cranial fossa

Front 48

What cranial fossa contains the superior orbital fissure?

Back 48

middle cranial fossa

Front 49

1. What is the sella turcica?

2. What important glandular structure is associated with it?

Back 49

1. The sella turcica is a saddle-like prominence on the upper surface of the sphenoid bone (middle cranial fossa)

2. It contains the pituitary gland

Front 50

1. What is a gyrus?

2. What is a sulcus?

Back 50

1. one of the prominent rounded elevations that form the cerebral hemispheres.

2. The grooves on cerebrum that separate the gyri

Front 51

Where is the pons located?

Back 51

Ventral surface of the brainstem

(between the midbrain and the medulla oblongata, & inferior to the cerebellum.)

Front 52

Where is the medulla oblongata located?

Back 52

Between the pons and the spinal cord.

It is continuous with the spinal cord at the foramen magnum

Front 53

What is the falx cerebri?

Back 53

The sickle-shaped fold of dura mater in the longitudinal fissure (LF) between the two cerebral hemispheres.

(the LF is the groove that separates the 2 hemispheres)

Front 54

What would one find within the superior sagittal sinus?

Back 54

It contains venous blood & arachnoid granulations (protrude into the sinus from beneath as the CSF pressure rises)

Front 55

How does cerebral blood drain from the cranial cavity?

Back 55

1. first collects in larger cerebral veins

2. these drain into the dural venous sinuses.

3. Which drain into the internal jugular vein.

Front 56

1. What are emissary veins?

2. Why are they clinically important?

Back 56

1. Connect the venous sinuses of the dura mater and the veins of the diploë and the scalp.

2. Potential passage for the spread of infection between the scalp and the intracranial venous sinuses.

Front 57

Where is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) produced?

Back 57

By the choroid plexus

(in the ventricles of the brain)

Front 58

How does the CSF eventually drain into the venous system?

Back 58

Through the arachnoid granulations and into the superior sagittal sinus.

Front 59

What is hydrocephalus?

Back 59

Excessive accumulation of CSF within the cranial cavity.

(a congenital blockage of the cerebral aqueduct, results in dilation of the cerebral ventricles, thinning of the brain tissues and separation of cranial bones)

Front 60

Which two pairs of major arteries enter the cranial cavity to supply blood to the brain?

Back 60

Internal carotid arteries and the vertebral arteries.

Front 61

What is the major unpaired artery that is formed from the two vertebral arteries within the cranial cavity?

Back 61

The basilar artery.

Front 62

How do the anterior, middle, and posterior cerebral arteries arise?

Back 62

Internal carotid arteries divide into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries.

The single basilar artery divides into two posterior cerebral arteries.

Front 63

How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?

Back 63

12

Front 64

What is the name of the seventh cranial nerve?

Back 64

facial

Front 65

What is the name of the tenth cranial nerve?

Back 65

vagus

Front 66

What is the cranial nerve number of the glossopharyngeal nerve?

Back 66

CN IX

Front 67

Which cranial nerves travel through a foramen associated with the internal jugular vein?

Back 67

CNs IX, X, and XI

Front 68

Which cranial nerves travel through the cribriform plate openings?

Back 68

CN I

Front 69

Which cranial nerves travel through the superior orbital fissure?

Back 69

CNs III, IV, V1, VI

Front 70

1. In which cranial fossa is the internal auditory meatus located?

2. Which cranial nerves travel through it?

Back 70

1. posterior cranial fossa

2. CNs VII and VIII

Front 71

Which cranial nerve has a component that travels through the foramen magnum?

Back 71

CN XI (spinal accessory nerve)

Front 72

How do postganglionic sympathetic nerves get into the cranial cavity?

Back 72

Enter via a plexus (travel along with the internal carotid arteries)

Front 73

What glandular structure lies immediately inferior to the optic chiasm?

Back 73

pituitary gland

Front 74

Which cranial nerve structure lies within the Circle of Willis?

Back 74

The optic chiasm of CN II lies within the Circle of Willis.

Front 75

Where is the cavernous sinus located?

Back 75

located on either side of the sella turcica (middle cranial fossae)

Front 76

Which artery travels directly through the cavernous sinus?

Back 76

The internal carotid arteries

Front 77

How is the eyelid elevated and closed?
What nerves are responsible for this movement?

Back 77

The levator palpebrae superioris muscle elevates the eyelid (attached to tarsal plate)

CN III

Orbicularis oculi muscle closes eyelid

CN VII

Front 78

Where are tears produced

how do they travel to the nasal cavity?

What structures do they pass through?

Back 78

1. By the lacrimal gland (parasympathetic fibers from facial) that

2. Flow medially to the puncta in the lacrimal papillae of the eyelids. T

3.

A. Pass through the canaliculi

B. to the lacrimal sac

C. to the nasolacrimal duct

D. into the inferior meatus of the nose.

Front 79

What are the conjunctiva of the eye?

Back 79

The mucous covering of the eyeball and inner surface of the eyelid.

Front 80

1. What are the sclera?

2. the cornea of the eye?

Back 80

1. White of eye (connective tissue layer)

2. Clear layer through which light enters the bulb.

Front 81

What muscles move the eye up (elevate)?

Back 81

1. superior rectus

2. inferior oblique muscles

Front 82

1. What are the iris?

2. The lens of the eye?

Back 82

1. The iris is the diaphragm at the front of the eyeball

2. The lens sits just behind and changes shape to focus the light on the retina.

Front 83

What muscles move the eye down (depress)?

Back 83

1. inferior rectus

2. superior oblique

Front 84

What is the pupil of the eye?

Back 84

The pupil is the opening adjusted by movement of the iris.

Front 85

What muscle moves the eye medially (adduct)?

Innervation

Back 85

medial rectus muscle

Front 86

What muscle moves the eye laterally (abduct)?

Back 86

lateral rectus muscle

Front 87

What nerves innervate the Superior oblique

Back 87

trochlear (CN IV)

Front 88

What nerves innervate the Lateral rectus

Back 88

abducens (CN VI)

Front 89

What nerves innervate all the other oculomotor muscles

Back 89

(CN III)

Front 90

What are the layers of the eyeball?

Back 90

1. outer fibrous layer (sclera & cornea)

2. middle vascular layer (choroids, ciliary body, ciliary processes, and iris).

3. inner layer (retina)

Front 91

What is the ciliary body?

Back 91

1. the muscles which control the shape of the iris

2. point of attachment for suspensory ligaments of the lens (also controls shape)

Front 92

What is the function of the retina?

Back 92

Translates light into neural impulses for transmission through the optic nerve

Front 93

Where vision is the most acute?

Back 93

The fovea centralis of the macula lutea

Front 94

What is the blind spot?

Back 94

The optic disc

(where the optic nerve and ophthalmic vessels enter the eyeball - not covered with a sensory layer)

Front 95

How the blood is distributed to the orbit and eyeball?

Back 95

1. Blood enters back of eye via the ophthalmic artery (branch of the internal carotid)

2. It also gives off the central artery of the retina (this travels through the center of the optic nerve to the optic disc)

Front 96

Major branches of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve?

Back 96

1. Frontal (divides into supraorbital and supratrochlear)

2. Lacrimal

3. Nasociliary.

Front 97

What nerve is sensory to the cornea?

Back 97

Nasociliary nerve

Front 98

1. How does the iris open and close?

2. What muscles and nerves are responsible?

Back 98

1. Opened: dilator pupillae (by radial muscles)

via sympathetic fibers from the cervical sympathetic trunk

2. Closed: sphincter pupillae (circular sphincteric fibers)

via parasympathetic fibers from the oculomotor nerve

Front 99

How does the lens changes shape?

What muscle and nerve is responsible?

Back 99

1. Via suspensory fibers connected to the ciliary body.

2. The ciliary muscle is innervated by CN III (parasympathetic fibers)

Stretching of lens: far vision

Contraction and rounding of lens: near vision

Front 100

What structures transmit and focus light on the retina?

Back 100

1. via the cornea, lens, & vitreous humor.

2. The lens is the only one that is adjustable.

Front 101

1. How does blood drain from the eye?

2. What is relevance of the facial vein?

Back 101

1. The ophthalmic vein (OV) drains through the superior orbital fissure and into the cavernous sinus.

2. The OV has many connections with the facial vein. This allows infections to travel from the facial vein to the cavernous sinus (may lead to meningitis).

Front 102

1. What are the openings in the posterior wall of the orbit

2. What passes through them?

Back 102

1. Optic foramen:

A. optic nerve

B. ophthalmic artery

2.Superior orbital fissure:

A. oculomotor

B. trochlear

C. abducens

D. trigeminal (ophthalmic division)

E. ophthalmic vein.

Front 103

1. What cranial nerves are found in the eye and orbit?

2. what they do?

Back 103

1. Optic nerve (CN II) – vision.

2. Oculomotor nerve (CN III) – movement of muscles of the eye & parasympathetic fibers to the muscles in iris and ciliary body.

3. Trochlear nerve (CN IV) – motor nerve to the superior oblique muscle.

4. Trigeminal nerve (CN V) – ophthalmic division V1 is sensory to the skin over the orbit, the surface of the eyeball and cornea.

5. Abducens nerve (CN VI) – motor nerve to the lateral rectus muscle.

6. Facial nerve (CN VII) – parasympathetic fibers to stimulate the lacrimal gland & motor nerves to the orbicularis oculi.

Front 104

where does the auditory (Eustachian) tube open?

Back 104

It opens into the lateral wall of the nasopharynx just posterior to the nasal cavity.

Front 105

What structure surrounds this opening?

Back 105

The torus tubarius

(helps maintain patency of the auditory tube).

Front 106

where are the sinuses surrounding the nasal cavities located and where do they drain?

Back 106

1. Frontal sinuses - drain through frontonasal duct to the middle meatus at the anterior hiatus semilunaris.

2.Ethmoid sinuses - drain into the middle meatus

3. Sphenoid sinuses - drain to the space above the superior conchae (sphenoethmoidal recess).

4. Maxillary sinus - drain to the middle meatus at the posterior hiatus semilunaris.

Front 107

how is the maxillary sinus different?

Back 107

1. mucus must be directed upward by the ciliated epithelium to the opening. It is difficult to drain when the sinus is filled and the individual is upright.

2. Roots of the teeth form conical elevations that protrude into the floor of the sinus - infections at the roots can penetrate into the sinus

Front 108

what other major structures are related to the maxillary sinus?

Back 108

The orbit is separated from the sinus by a thin sheet of bone. The close proximity of teeth to the floor of the sinus is also important.

Front 109

what nerves innervate the walls of the nasal cavity?

Back 109

1. Maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V2) - supply the mucosa

2. Nasopalatine nerve - supplies the nasal septum.

3. Olfactory nerves - supply the upper part of the nasal cavity

Front 110

what nerves stimulate mucous secretion in the nasal cavity?

Back 110

Facial nerve (CN VII) via Parasympathetic fibers

Front 111

where does the blood supply to the nasal cavity originate?

Back 111

From branches of the sphenopalatine artery, which is a continuation of the maxillary artery.

Front 112

what muscles are associated with the soft palate and what do they do?

Back 112

1. Levator veli palatini - elevates the soft palate

2. Tensor veli palatini - flattens soft palate

3. Palatopharyngeus - narrows the opening between the oropharynx and nasopharynx.

Front 113

what are the three areas of the pharynx?

Back 113

nasopharynx
oropharynx
laryngopharynx

Front 114

what is the function of the 3 pharyngeal constrictors?

Back 114

contract involuntarily to propel food into the opening of the esophagus

Front 115

what innervates the wall of the pharynx?

Back 115

the pharyngeal plexus is formed by the vagus (CN X) and spinal accessory (CN XI)

Front 116

where are the major tonsilar structures located?

Back 116

1. pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids if inflamed) are located adjacent Eustachian tube openings (in the nasopharynx)

2. palatine tonsils are located on the lateral walls of the oropharynx

3. lingual tonsils are back of the tongue.

Front 117

1. what two bones are primarily responsible for side-to-side movement of the skull

2. and nodding of the head?

Back 117

1. atlas & axis = side to side movement

2. occipital bone of skull & atlas = nodding (flexion-extension)

Front 118

what does the alar ligament do?

Back 118

1. Connects the dens with the occipital bone

2. limits rotation of the skull on the vertebral column.

Front 119

what does the dens do and what holds it in place?

Back 119

1. Found on the atlas & Forms the point of rotation of the atlas on the axis.

2. Held in place by the cruciate ligament.

Front 120

1. what is the space between the cervical vertebral bodies and the posterior pharyngeal wall

2. its clinical significance?

Back 120

1. The retropharyngeal space
2. route for infections in the neck to the superior mediastinum.

Front 121

What is the oral vestibule?

Back 121

The space between the lateral surfaces of the teeth (and gums) and the inside of the cheeks and lips.

Front 122

1. How many permanent teeth are there?

2. deciduous (baby)teeth?

Back 122

32

20

Front 123

Which cranial nerve provides sensation to the upper and lower teeth?

Back 123

Trigeminal (CN V).
V2 supplies branches to the upper teeth
V3 branches to the lower teeth

Front 124

Which muscle of the palate is innervated by CN V?

Back 124

Tensor veli palatini m.

Front 125

Which muscle of the palate appears to emerge from the auditory tube opening in the nasopharynx?

Back 125

Levator veli palatini m

Front 126

Which cranial nerve provides taste sensation to the taste buds in the circumvallate papillae and posterior 1/3 of the tongue? general sensation?

Back 126

Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)

Front 127

Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles of the tongue?

Back 127

Hypoglossal (CN XII) innervates every tongue muscle except the palatoglossus.

Front 128

Which cranial nerve provides taste sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

Back 128

chorda tympani branch of Facial (CN VII)

Front 129

Which cranial nerve provides general sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

Back 129

Trigeminal (mandibular branch - CN V3) via the lingual nerve

Front 130

What is the major artery that supplies blood to the tongue? From what artery does it arise

Back 130

The lingual artery – a branch of the external carotid.

Front 131

Which salivary glands have ducts that pierce the buccinator muscles?

Back 131

the duct of the parotid gland pierces the buccinator m.

Front 132

Which salivary glands have ducts that open on either side of the frenulum of the tongue?

Back 132

The submandibular glands

Front 133

What structure lies between the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal folds?

Back 133

palatine tonsil

Front 134

How can you determine if the right hypoglossal nerve is damaged?

Back 134

If the right hypoglossal nerve is damaged, the protruded tongue will deviate to the right.

Front 135

where are the valleculae, vestibule, and piriform recesses located?

(places where food can become trapped)

Back 135

1. Valleculae - either side of the midline, posterior to the tongue and anterior to the epiglottis.

2. Piriform - is the space in the laryngopharynx just posterior to the larynx between the thyroid cartilage and the aryepiglottic fold.

3. Vestibule - the space posterior to the epiglottis between the aryepiglottic folds and above the false vocal folds (entryway to the respiratory tract)

Front 136

what is the narrowest part of the airway and where is it located?

Back 136

1. rima glottidis

2. found between the true vocal cords

Front 137

what nerves innervate the mucosal surface of the larynx and where do they originate?

Back 137

1. internal laryngeal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve - down to the vocal cords
2. inferior (recurrent) laryngeal nerve - mucosa up to the level of the vocal cords

3. Both laryngeal nerves derive from the vagus nerve.

Front 138

what composes the larynx cartilage?

Back 138

1. thyroid cartilage,

2. cricoid cartilage,

3. epiglottis,

4. arytenoid cartilages.

Front 139

1. what are the muscles control the vocal cords, 2. what nerve innervates them?

Back 139

1.

A. Posterior cricoarytenoid m. - Abduction of cords

B. Lateral cricoarytenoid m. - Adduction of cords
C. Cricothyroid m. - Stretch vocal cords
D. Thyroarytenoid m. - alters tension (changes pitch)

2. Inferior (recurrent) laryngeal n. (branch of vagus)

Front 140

when are the vocal cords opened and closed?

Back 140

1. opened when speaking or breathing

2. closed when attempting to increase intra-thoracic and/or intra-abdominal pressure or just prior to coughing.

Front 141

how sound is produced?

Back 141

1. when air is moved through the rima glottidis of the vocal cords.

2. pitch is changed due to contraction of the vocalis muscle (change in tension)

Front 142

What is found between the true and false vocal cords?

Back 142

The space between the true and false vocal folds is known as the ventricle.

Front 143

where is the vocal cord/ligament located?

Back 143

at the free medial edge of the fold (exposed to the air, and can therefore vibrate).

Front 144

what is the function of the vocalis muscle?

Back 144

Altering the tension of the vocal ligament, thus changing the pitch of the voice.

Front 145

why is damage to the inferior laryngeal nerves important?

Back 145

1. They control the muscles of the larynx.

2. Damage can cause loss of voice.

Front 146

what happens if only one nerve is damaged in the vocal cords?

Back 146

leads impaired movement of cord on one side, resulting in hoarseness

Front 147

how does the Heimlich maneuver work?

Back 147

1. Object is lodged in vestibule above the vocal folds.

2. Heimlich maneuver = thoracic cavity is squeezed, increasing pressure and forcing air up against the lodged object.

Front 148

what is done during a cricothyrotomy?

Back 148

cut in cricothyroid membrane to allow breathing

Front 149

What are the major features of the medial and lateral ‘walls’ of the middle ear?

Back 149

1. The lateral wall is made up of the tympanic membrane and the chorda tympani n.

2. The medial wall is made up of the promontory (the bulge formed by the first turn of the cochlea of the inner ear) which is covered by fibers of the tympanic plexus.

3. Promontory has two small openings, the oval window where the footplate of the stapes is inserted, and the round window

Front 150

In which bone is the middle ear located?

Back 150

The petrous portion of the temporal bone

Front 151

What are the mastoid air cells and why they are important?

Back 151

1. Found in the mastoid process of the temporal bone.

2. a middle ear infection (otitis media) may spread to these spaces (they can thus act as a reservoir of infection)

Front 152

What is the roof of the tympanic cavity and what structure is close to it?

Back 152

1. Tegmen tympani.

2. It is adjacent to the dural lining of the cranial cavity, Infection can erode through the tegmen and into the brain

Front 153

What are the openings into the middle ear cavity?

Back 153

1. auditory (pharyngotympanic) tube anteriorly

2. mastoid antrum posteriorly.

Front 154

1. What are the ossicles

Back 154

malleus, incus, and stapes.

Front 155

1-2. What two muscles dampen movement of the ossicles?
3. Why is that important?

Back 155

1. Tensor tympani (via the malleus)

trigeminal nerve (V3).

2. Stapedius (via the stapes).

facial nerve (VII).
3. a reflex function that protects from damaging noise

Front 156

1. What is the function of the tympanic membrane?

2. what structures cross it?

3. Why is that important?

Back 156

1. vibrates due to sound waves. It transmits that movement to the ossicles,

2. The chorda tympani n. from the facial nerve (VII) crosses the tympanic membrane.

3. Damage here can which interfere with the taste function of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

Front 157

How does the membrane change with a middle ear infection?

Back 157

presence of fluid in the tympanic cavity behind the membrane results in the no longer being able to see the ‘cone of light’ present on a normal membrane.

Front 158

What is the auricle?

Back 158

The auricle is the external ear structure that functions to collect sound, and funnel it into the external meatus

Front 159

Where is sound converted to neural impulses in the ear?

Back 159

1. Sound is converted into neural impulses within the inner ear.

2. Movement of the footplate of the stapes causes movement of fluid in the cochlea.

3. This movement is sensed by neural cells within the cochlear duct that then transmit signals to the brain via the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII).

Front 160

What are the main functions of the inner ear?

Back 160

1. hearing,

2. detection of the position of the head in space 3. balance (semicircular canals)

4. detecting body acceleration and deceleration.

Front 161

What is otitis media?

Back 161

inflammation and accumulation of fluid within the tympanic cavity from swelling of auditory tube.

Front 162

What are the two types of hearing loss?

Back 162

1. conductive - impaired movement of the ossicles or damage to the tympanic membrane

2. sensorineural - due to damage within the cochlea, the nerve cells there, the brain.

Front 163

Will patients with head trauma be more likely to receive plain X-ray imaging or CT?

Back 163

CT

Front 164

What 2 different “windows” are used in CT imaging?

Back 164

bone window
soft tissue window

Front 165

What can be imaged with CT scans of the cranium?

Back 165

1. Optic canal,

2. Foramen rotundum,

3. Foramen ovale,

4. Internal acoustic meatus,

5. Jugular foramen

Front 166

What advantage does MRI provide when imaging the skull and CNS?

Back 166

1. better resolution of the brain and spinal cord 2. better visualization of CNS pathology

Front 167

In which MRI mode will the CSF be dark?

Back 167

T1

Front 168

What mode of MRI is most useful in visualizing CNS pathology related to hemorrhagic bleeding?

Back 168

T2

Front 169

Name three imaging methods used to gain information about the function or functional states of different regions of the brain.

Back 169

F-MRI
PET
SPECT

Front 170

which imaging methods require the use of radioactive compounds

Back 170

PET
SPECT

Front 171

what component of blood does F-MRI make use of to generate images?

Back 171

the iron in the hemoglobin molecules