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65 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What study "compares a group of people with disease to a group without disease?"
What measure is reported? |
case-control study
Odds ratio (OR) |
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What study "compares a group with a given exposure or risk factor to a group without such an exposure or risk factor?"
What measure is reported? |
cohort study
Risk ratio (RR) |
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What study "collects data from a group of people to assess frequency of disease and related risk factors?"
What measure is reported? |
cross-sectional study
measures prevalence |
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What study "compares the frequency with which both monozygotic twins or both dizygotic twins develop the same disease?"
What does this measure? |
twin concordance study
measures heritability |
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What study "compares siblings raised by biological vs. adoptive parents?"
What does this measure? (2) |
adoption study
measures heritability and influence of environmental factors |
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What describes the following stages of clinical trial?
Phase I Phase II Phase III Phase IV |
Phase I - small number of healthy volunteers to assess safety, toxicity, pharmacokinetics
Phase II - small number of patients with disease to assess treatment efficacy, optimal dosing, adverse effects Phase III - large number of patients assigned drug or placebo, comparing new drug to standard treatments Phase IV - postmarketing surveillance for rare or long-term effects |
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Sensitivity and specificity are fixed properties of a test. However, what 2 measures will vary with the prevalence or pre-test probability?
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PPV and NPV vary
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What is "proportion of all people with disease (positive in gold standard) who test positive, or the probability that a test detects disease when it is present?"
What is the formula? |
sensitivity = TP/(TP +FN)
SNOUT - SeNsitivity rules diseases OUT |
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What is "proportion of all people without disease who test negative, or the probability that a test indicates non-disease when it is absent?"
What is the formula? |
specificity = TN/(TN + FP)
SPIN - SPecificity rules diseases IN |
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What is "probability that a person with a positive test result actually has the disease, or the proportion of test results that are true positive?"
What is the formula? How does this relate to prevalence and pre-test probability? |
PPV = TP/(TP + FP)
PPV varies directly with prevalence and pre-test probability (high prevalence or pre-test probability = high PPV) |
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What is the "probability that a person with a negative test result actually does not have the disease, or the proportion of test results that are true negatives?"
What is the formula? How does this relate to prevalence and pre-test probability? |
NPV = TN/(TN + FN)
NPV varies inversely with prevalence and pre-test probability (low prevalence or pre-test probability = low NPV) |
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What is greater for chronic diseases, prevalence or incidence?
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prevalence > incidence for chronic diseases
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In standard 2x2 square with diease on top and risk factor on left, what is equation for OR (odds ratio)?
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OR = (a/c)/(b/d) or ad/bc
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In standard 2x2 square with diease on top and risk factor on left, what is equation for RR (relative risk)?
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RR = a/(a+b)/c(c+d)
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What is formula for number needed to treat?
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number needed to treat = 1/absolute risk reduction
absolute risk reduction = number of people who get flu without flu shot - number who get flu with flu shot |
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What is the formula for number needed to harm?
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number needed to harm = 1/attributable risk
attributable risk = risk in exposed group - risk in unexposed group (if risk of lung cancer in smokers is 21% and risk of lung cancer in non-smokers is 1%, then attributable risk of smoking for lung cancer is 21-1 = 20%) |
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What is "the consistency and reproducability of a test (reliability)?"
What type or error reduces this? |
precision
random error reduces precision of a test increased precision = decreased standard deviation |
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What is "trueness of test measurements (validity)?"
What kind of error reduces this? |
accuracy
systematic error reduces accuracy |
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What is "stating that there is a difference when none actually exists (mistakenly accepting H1, when H0 is real)?"
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alpha (Type I error)
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What is "stating there is no difference when one actually exists (mistakenly accepting H0 when H1 is real)?"
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beta (Type II error)
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What waveform is associated with the following sleep patterns?
Awake (eyes open) Awake (eyes closed) N1 (5%) N2 (45%) N3 (25%) REM (25%) |
BATS DB (drink blood)
awake eyes open - beta (highest freq, lowest amp) awake eyes closed - alpha N1 - theta N2 - sleep spindles N3 - delta (lowest frequency, highest amplitude) REM - beta |
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What is the principal NT for REM sleep?
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Ach
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What 2 amino acids are most common in histones?
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lysine, arginine (they are positively charged, so the negative DNA is attracted to them)
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What chromatin is highly condensed?
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HeteroChromatin (HC - highly condensed)
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What does DNA methylation of cytosine and adenine do?
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methylating template strand cytosine and adenine allows DNA mismatch repair enzymes to know which strand is parent and daughter
this only occurs in prokaryotes |
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What does histone methylation do?
What does histone acetylation do? |
histone methylation inactivates transcription of DNA (Methylation makes DNA Mute)
histone acetylation relaxes DNA coiling, allowing transcription (Acetylation makes DNA Active) |
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Higher G-C content of DNA makes for higher melting temperatures. Why?
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3 hydrogen bonds between C-G takes more energy to separate
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What 4 anti-neoplastic and antibiotic drugs inhibit purine synthesis?
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1. 6-MP (blocks de novo purine synthesis)
2. 5-FU (inhibits thymidylate synthase) 3. MTX (inhibits dihydrofolate reductase) 4. Trimethoprim (inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase) |
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What disease "is defective purine salvage due to absence of HGPRT, which results in excess uric acid and de novo purine synthesis, causing retardation, self-mutilation, hyperuricemia, and gout?"
How is it inherited? |
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
X-linked recessive HGPRT (He's Got Purine Recovery Trouble) |
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What type of DNA point mutation causes an early stop codon?
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non-sense mutation (Stop this nonsense!)
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How do fluoroquinolones work?
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inhibit prokaryotic DNA gyrase (DNA topoisomerase)
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What does DNA Pol III do?
DNA Pol I? |
DNA Pol III - makes DNA 5' -> 3'
DNA Pol I - degrades RNA primer, replacing it with DNA 5' -> 3' |
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What do TATA and CAAT boxes do?
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promoters - bind RNA polymerase upstream of gene locus to start transcription
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What cell cycle stage do p53 and hypophosphorylated Rb inhibit?
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inhibit G1 -> S
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What is the site of synthesis of secretory proteins?
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RER
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What is the site of steroid synthesis and detoxification of drugs?
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SER
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How do griseofulvin, vincristine, vinblastine, paclitaxel, and cohchicine work?
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inhibit microtubules
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What syndrome has "mutation of lysosomal trafficking regulator gene, resulting in recurrent pyogenic infections, partial albinism, and peripheral neuropathy?"
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Chediak-Higashi syndrome
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What disease is "immotile cilia due to dynein arm defect, resulting in male infertility, decreased female fertility, bronchiectasis, and recurrent sinusitis?"
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Kartagener's Syndrome (primary ciliary dyskinesia)
associated with situs invertus (congenital defect - major visceral organs are on opposite side of body) |
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What syndrome has "problems with Type IV collagen, so basement membranes in kidney, ears, and eyes are affected, causing nephritis, deafness, and ocular disturbances?"
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Alport Syndrome
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What 2 amino acids are common in elastin?
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proline, glycine
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How is elastin broken down?
How does alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency cause disease? |
elastin is degraded by elastase
elastase is normally inhibited by alpha-1-antitrypsin alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency can't inhibit elastase, so elastin is broken down quickly |
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What do Southern, Northern, and Western blots examine?
What about Southwestern blot? |
SNoW DRoP
Southern - DNA Northern - RNA (mRNA) Western - protein Southwestern - DNA-binding proteins |
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How does indirect ELISA work?
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sees if antibodies are in the blood
indirect has antigen on the wells, so it tests to see if your antibody will bind them. Then you wash with radiolabled anti-human antibody that will bind to the antibodies bound to the antigen |
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How does direct ELISA work?
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sees if antigen is in blood.
the well has antibodies on it that bind to antigen in the sample |
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When gene is too small to be seen by karyotype, what test is used?
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FISH
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What is rate-determining enzyme in glycolysis?
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phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)
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What is rate-determining enzyme in gluconeogenesis?
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fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
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What is rate-determining enzyme in TCA cycle?
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isocitrate dehydrogenase
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What is rate-determining enzyme in glycogen synthesis?
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glycogen synthase
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What is rate-determining enzyme in glycogenolysis?
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glycogen phosphorylase
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What is rate-determining enzyme in HMP shunt (pentose phosphate pathway)?
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glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)
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What is rate-determining enzyme in de novo pyrimidine synthesis?
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carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II
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What is rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis?
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glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase
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What is rate-determining enzyme in urea cycle?
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carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
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What is rate-determining enzyme in fatty acid synthesis?
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Acetyl-CoA carboxylase (ACC)
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What is rate-determining enzyme in beta oxidation?
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carnitine acyltransferase I
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What is rate-determining enzyme in ketogenesis?
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HMG-CoA synthase
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What is rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis?
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HMG-CoA reductase
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What is mnemonic for TCA cycle?
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"Can I Keep Selling Sex For Money, Officer?"
C - citrate I - isocitrate K - a-ketoglutarate S - succinyl CoA S - succinate F - fumarate M - malate O - oxaloacetate also remember succiNATE is LATE (comes after succinyl coA) |
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What is the most common urea cycle disorder?
How is it inherited? |
ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency
x-linked recessive (only males express it) |
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What gram positive cocci are catalase +?
Catalase differentiates staph from strep spp. |
staph are catalase +
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What gram positive cocci are catalase -?
Catalase differentiates staph from strep spp. |
strep are catalase -
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What group of strep has partial hemolysis?
complete? no hemolysis? |
alpha - partial (s. pneumoniae, viridans) - form green ring on blood agar
beta - complete (s. pyogenes, s. agalactiae) gamma - no hemolysis (enterococcus) |
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What is the only catalase and coagulase positive coccus with beta hemolytic properties?
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staph aureus (forms clear zones on blood agar)
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