U.s. Navy Bmr Assignment 08 Chapter 12 “Damage Control.”

Front 1

01. The damage control organization is divided into how many parts?

Back 1

2.Two

Front 2

02. What person coordinates the efforts of repair parties to control damage?

Back 2

1. The damage control assistant

Front 3

03. Which of the following are duties of the administrative organization of damage control?

Back 3

1. Records and schedules for maintenance 2. Written doctrine and procedures relating to damage control 3. Ship’s bills 4. All of the above

Front 4

04. Which of the following are duties of the executive officer?

Back 4

1. Ship’s survivability training 2. Readiness to manage casualties 3. Control and recover from damage 4. Each of the above

Front 5

05. What officer is designated as the ship’s damage control officer?

Back 5

3. The engineer officer

Front 6

06. The DCA is the primary assistant to the damage control officer. As such, the DCA has which of the following responsibilities?

Back 6

1.Training the ship’s DC personnel 2. Administration of the ship’s DC organization 3. Maintain records of DC personnel PQS accomplishment for all hands 4. All of the above

Front 7

07. What requirements must a petty officer have to be designated as the damage control petty officer (DCPO)?

Back 7

2. Complete the PQS

Front 8

08. Normally, the job of DCPO is held for what period of time?

Back 8

4. 6 months

Front 9

09. Which of the following is/are responsibilities of the DCPO?

Back 9

1. Assist in the instruction of division personnel in damage control 2. Prepare and maintain damage control checkoff lists for their spaces 3. Make required reports 4. All of the above

Front 10

10. What person is responsible for determining the safe entry of personnel into closed or poorly ventilated spaces?

Back 10

1. The gas free engineer

Front 11

11. What person is designated to aid the DCA train personnel and to prevent and fight fires?

Back 11

2. The fire marshal

Front 12

12. What action is taken if the fire marshal finds hazards that relate to poor housekeeping during a daily inspection?

Back 12

2. Submit discrepancy report to DCA with copies to XO and department head

Front 13

13. The fire marshal has which of the following responsibilities?

Back 13

1. Submitting reports citing hazards and recommendations for their correction 2. Setting up a fire watch team before regular overhauls 3. Both 1 and 2 above

Front 14

14. What is the purpose of the ship’s damage control battle organization?

Back 14

2.To restore the ship to as near normal operation as possible

Front 15

15. In the damage control battle organization, what person is responsible for controlling damage; fighting fires; CBR countermeasures; and control of stability, list, and trim?

Back 15

2. The DCA

Front 16

16. What are the primary damage control battle organization unit(s)?

Back 16

1. Repair parties

Front 17

17. What is the nerve center of the directing force for directing the damage control organization?

Back 17

1. DCC or CCS

Front 18

18. Main deck repair.

Back 18

1. Repair 1

Front 19

19. Propulsion repair.

Back 19

3. Repair 5

Front 20

20. Ordnance.

Back 20

3. Repair 6

Front 21

21. Electronic casualty control.

Back 21

4. Repair 8

Front 22

22. Each repair party should be capable of performing which of the following functions?

Back 22

1. Rigging casualty power 2. Controlling flooding 3. Extinguishing all types of fires 4. Each of the above

Front 23

23. When in port, the ship has which of the following duty section components available to respond to any type of casualty?

Back 23

1. In port emergency teams

Front 24

24. The rescue and assistance detail must have which of the following qualifications?

Back 24

1. Be qualified as an emergency team member 2. Be qualified in first aid 3. Both 1 and 2 above

Front 25

25. General quarters is an all hands evolution—it is the highest state of readiness of the ship.

Back 25

1.True

Front 26

26. Which of the following statements describes a correct GQ route to follow?

Back 26

2. Aft in the passageways and down ladders on the port side

Front 27

27. Which of the following is an emergency damage control communications system?

Back 27

3. X40J

Front 28

28. What system signals override microphone control stations to notify the ship’s crew of imminent danger?

Back 28

2. General announcing system

Front 29

29. This alarm is sounded by the OOD or PreFly notifying ship’s company of a pending or actual flight deck emergency.

Back 29

D. FLIGHT CRASH

Front 30

30. This alarm is sounded when there is a possibility that the ship will be struck by another waterborne unit.

Back 30

A. COLLISION

Front 31

31. When this alarm is sounded, all hands report to their preassigned stations and set material condition ZEBRA.

Back 31

C. GENERAL

Front 32

32. Which of the following means of communications is used when all other methods have failed?

Back 32

1. Messengers

Front 33

33. All Navy ships have how many material conditions of readiness?

Back 33

3. Three

Front 34

34. What material condition provides the least degree of watertight integrity?

Back 34

3. XRAY

Front 35

35. What material condition sets the highest degree of watertight integrity?

Back 35

1. ZEBRA

Front 36

36. Which of the following fittings are closed when condition ZEBRA is set?

Back 36

1. DOG Z fittings 2. Circle X fittings 3. Y fittings 4. All of the above

Front 37

37. What means, if any, is used by repair parties to find damage control fittings and closures in each compartment?

Back 37

2. Compartment checkoff lists

Front 38

38. The Damage Control Closure Log is maintained in which of the following locations?

Back 38

1. DCC 2. Quarterdeck 3. Both 1 and 2 above

Front 39

39. Which of the following logs is a list of all DC-related fittings that don’t work properly?

Back 39

3. Inoperative Fittings and Closures Log

Front 40

40. What fittings are secured when the ship is set for “darken ship”?

Back 40

3. DOG ZEBRA

Front 41

41. The emergency escape breathing device (EEBD) supplies breathable air for what maximum period of time?

Back 41

1. 10 minutes

Front 42

42.With training, you should be able to activate the EEBD within what maximum period of time?

Back 42

3. 30 seconds

Front 43

43. Which of the following breathing devices should NOT be worn for fire-fighting purposes?

Back 43

2. SEED

Front 44

44. Which of the following is the primary fire fighting tool for respiratory protection?

Back 44

3. OBA

Front 45

45. From the time it is activated, each cylinder used in the self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) will last approximately what length of time?

Back 45

2. 30 minutes

Front 46

46. Which of the following substances must be present to start a fire?

Back 46

1. Oxygen 2. Heat 3. Fuel 4. All of the above

Front 47

47. In the fire tetrahedron, how many components are necessary for combustion?

Back 47

4.Four

Front 48

48. Flammable materials give off vapors. What is the lowest temperature that these vapors burn when a spark is applied?

Back 48

3. Flash point

Front 49

49. What term is used to describe the lowest temperature at which spontaneous combustion occurs?

Back 49

2. Ignition point

Front 50

50. Heat from fire can be transferred by how many methods?

Back 50

3. Three

Front 51

51. What method of heat transfer occurs when heat moves from one body to another by direct contact?

Back 51

1. Conduction

Front 52

52. What method of heat transfer occurs through the motion of smoke, hot air, and heated gases?

Back 52

2. Convection

Front 53

53. What type of heat transfer occurs when heat moves in all direction unless blocked?

Back 53

3. Radiation

Front 54

54. Which of the following agents should be used to extinguish a class B fire?

Back 54

2. AFFF 3. PKP 4. Both 2 and 3 above

Front 55

55. Which of the following agents should be used to extinguish class A or D fires?

Back 55

1.Water