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497 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What are the five levels of MOPP? |
MOPP 0
IPE and Field Available for immediate donning Protective mask w/ filter and hood installed available MOPP 1 Overgarment and Field Gear worn Footwear covers, mask and gloves carried MOPP 2 Overgarment, Field Gear, Footwear covers worn Mask and Gloves carried MOPP 3 Overgarment, Mask and Hood, Field Gear and Overboots worn Gloves carried MOPP 4 Overgarment, Mask and Hood, Field Gear, Footwear covers and Gloves |
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What does JSLIST stand for?
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Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit Technology
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What does MOPP stand for?
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Mission Oriented Protective Posture
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When under an NBC attack, when do you give warning?
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After you mask
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What are the proper masking procedures?
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Stop breathing and close your eyes, don protective mask, clear mask, check the
seal of the mask, sound the alarm to alert others, and continue the mission |
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What does C.B.R.N. stand for?
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Chemical, Biological, Radiological and Nuclear
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NBC hazards are classified into two types, what are they?
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Immediate hazards- produce casualties immediately after attack
Residual hazards- Delayed effects |
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What will replace the Nerve Agent Antidote Kit (NAAK) based on shelf life
expiration dates? |
The Antidote Treatment, Nerve Agent Autoinjector (ATNAA)
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What is the number of Antidote Treatment Nerve Agent Autoinjector (ATNAA) that
must be given as immediate first aid treatment for nerve agent poisoning? |
3
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What is the number of Nerve Agent Antidote Kits (NAAK) that must be given as
immediate first aid treatment for nerve agent poisoning? |
3
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Alarms and signals convey warnings of NBC contamination. Units use easily
recognizable and reliable alarm methods to respond quickly and correctly to NBC hazards. What are three types of alarms and signals? |
Audible Alarms
Automatic Alarms Visual Signals |
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What Field Manual covers NBC Operations?
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FM 3-11
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What Field Manual covers NBC Protection?
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FM 3-11.4
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What Field Manual covers NBC Decontamination?
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FM 3-5
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What is FM 3-7?
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NBC Handbook
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What forms do Chemical Agents come in?
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Vapors
Solids Liquids Gases |
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Soldiers in MOPP 4 may lose how much water per hour through perspiration?
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1 quart or more
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When fitting the protective mask, in what sequence should the straps be
tightened? |
Forehead straps
Cheek straps Temple straps |
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Which of the NBC reports is most widely used?
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NBC 1
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What are the three types of procedures for MOPP gear exchange?
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Buddy Team
Triple Buddy Individual |
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What are three fundamentals of NBC defense?
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Avoid contamination
Protection Decontamination |
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How long should you apply pressure when using the Auto injector?
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10 seconds
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What do you do with the Auto injector after injecting?
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Stick it through the pocket flap (upper left) so that you do not lose count and
so that someone that happens to come across the casualty will know that they have already been given X amount of injections and will not give them more than needed. |
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The protective mask will not protect against what two types of gases?
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Ammonia vapors or carbon monoxide
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When giving Buddy Aid, whose auto injectors would you use?
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The other person (the person's auto injectors that is receiving the medication)
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When giving Buddy Aid, how long should you wait if still experiencing the
symptoms of Nerve agent, to administer a second nerve agent antidote (MK1)? |
Immediately give the second and third
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When giving Self Aid, how long should you wait if still experiencing the
symptoms of a Nerve Agent before administering a second MK1? |
Wait 10 to 15 minutes; also wait 10 to 15 minutes between 2nd and 3rd
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Once a unit has masked, who can make the decision to unmask?
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The unit commander
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What is the shape of the contamination markers?
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Triangle
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What type of attack does an M22 ACADA alarm warn you of?
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Chemical (ACADA = Automatic Chemical Agent Detection Alarm)
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What are the three levels of Decontamination?
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Immediate
Operational Thorough |
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How often should you check your protective mask during peacetime?
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Before, during and after training events, monthly, and semi-annually. (refer to
TM 3-4240-339-10 and 20&P manuals) The minumum is MONTHLY... |
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What are the dimensions of an NBC marker?
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11 1/2 inches on the top by 8 inches on either side
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What are the 9 mild symptoms of nerve agent poisoning?
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Unexplained runny nose
Unexplained headache Sudden drooling Difficulty seeing (dimness of vision and miosis) Tightness in the chest or difficulty in breathing Localized sweating and muscular twitching in the area of contaminated skin Stomach cramps Nausea Tachycardia followed by bradycardia (Tachycardia is an abnormally rapid heartbeat wth a heart rate of over 100 beats per minute. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute) |
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What are the 11 severe symptoms of nerve agent poisoning?
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Strange or confused behavior.
Wheezing, dyspnea (difficulty in breathing), and coughing. Severely pinpointed pupils. Red eyes with tearing. Vomiting. Severe muscular twitching and general weakness. Involuntary urination and defecation. Convulsions. Unconsciousness. Respiratory failure. Bradycardia. |
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When crossing a contaminated area, what 2 things should you avoid doing?
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Stirring up dust and touching anything
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Of these 3, Nerve, Blood, and Blister agents, which causes the most casualties?
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Nerve agents
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How should an area that is suspected of contamination be crossed?
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Quickly, avoiding depressions and vegetation
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What are the 3 effects of a nuclear explosion?
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Blast
Heat Radiation |
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What is the color of a Nuclear (radiological) contamination marker?
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White background with ATOM in black letters
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What is the current U.S. policy regarding the use of Nuclear assets?
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Last Resort, will use first only if necessary
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What are Flash Burns?
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Direct burns produced by the flash of thermal radiation from the fireball
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What causes the most casualties in a nuclear attack?
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The initial blast and the heat of detonation
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What is the difference between Dose Rate and Total Dose?
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Dose Rate is the amount of radiation per hour; Total Dose is the actual
accumulation |
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Who has the authority to order the use of nuclear weapons?
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Only the President of the U.S.
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What are the 3 types of nuclear bursts?
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Air
Ground Subsurface |
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What does an AN VDR-2 detect and measure?
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The AN VDR-2 detects and measures nuclear radiation from fallout and
radioisotopes. |
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An NBC-1 report is used to determine what?
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The initial detection of NBC weapons usage by the enemy
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The initial detection of NBC weapons usage by the enemy
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FM 3-11.3
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For maximum radiation effect, which nuclear burst would you use?
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Air burst
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What is a vector?
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An insect used to disseminate biological agents (fleas, ticks, lice,
mosquitoes....) |
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What is the current U.S. policy regarding the use of Biological assets?
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No Use
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What is meant by Biological Warfare?
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The intentional use by an enemy, of germs or toxins, to cause death and disease
among personnel, animals, plants, or more rarely, to deteriorate material |
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What is the color of a Biological contamination marker?
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Blue background with BIO in red letters
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What does FM 3-3 cover?
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Chemical, Biological, Radiological and Nuclear Contamination Avoidance
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What are the 4 types of microorganisms found in Biological agents?
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Bacteria
Fungi Rickettsiae Viruses |
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What is the best decontamination for Biological agents?
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Warm soapy water
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Where would a biological attack be most effective?
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Cities, large troop concentrations, animals and vegetable crops
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How may Chemical Agents be deployed?
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Arterial spray
Artillery bombs Individuals (pollution of water, food and supplies) Mines Rockets |
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What are the most effective times to use chemical agents?
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Evening and early morning (The lack of wind and sun allows the agents to
persist) |
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Chemical agents are classified by the U.S. into 3 categories, name them
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Persistent
Non-Persistent Dusty |
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What is the current U.S. policy regarding the use of Chemical assets?
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No First Use
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What is the color of the Chemical contamination marker?
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Yellow with GAS in Red letters
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What are the 4 types of Chemical agents?
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Nerve
Blister Blood Choking |
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What does ASAP stand for?
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Army Substance Abuse Program
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What army Regulation covers ASAP?
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AR 600-85
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Is ASAP participation mandatory for Individuals that are command referred?
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ASAP participation is mandatory for all Soldiers who are command referred.
Failure to attend a mandatory counseling session may constitute a violation of Article 86 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ). |
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What will happen to Soldiers who fail to participate in or fail to respond
successfully to rehabilitation? |
Soldiers who fail to participate adequately in, or to respond successfully to,
rehabilitation will be processed for administrative separation and not be provided another opportunity for rehabilitation except under the most extraordinary circumstances, as determined by the CD in consultation with the unit commander. |
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What are the ways that Soldiers can be identified as having a substance abuse
problem? |
Voluntary (self-identification)
Commander / Supervisor Identification Biochemical Identification Medical Identification Investigation and or Apprehension |
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Commanders may direct drug testing under what conditions?
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Unit inspections. (either the entire or part of a unit)
Search and seizures/probable cause. Competence for Duty. Rehabilitation. Mishap or Safety Inspection. Consent (specimen may be provided voluntarily by a Soldier). New Entrant. Medical. |
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All ASAP referrals are accomplished by the Commander or 1SG using what form?
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Completing and signing the DA 8003 Referral Form.
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Can Soldiers that are enrolled in an ASAP rehabilitation program reenlist?
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Soldiers currently enrolled in the ASAP rehabilitation program are not allowed
to reenlist. However, Soldiers who need additional service time to complete their enrollment may be extended for the number of months necessary to permit completion. |
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Will Soldiers who are command referred to ASAP be flagged?
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Yes, IAW AR 600-8-2 (Suspension of Favorable Personnel Action (flags)).
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What Does ACS stand for?
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Army Community Service
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What Army regulation covers ACS?
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AR 608-1
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What is the motto of the ACS?
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Self-help, service and stability.
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What can you do to help out ACS?
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Donate Staple foodstuff to the food lockers, useable household goods, and
volunteer your time. |
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What regulation covers the ACES?
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AR 621-5
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What regulation covers Army Learning Centers?
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AR 621-6
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What does TABE stand for?
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Test of Adult Basic Education
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How much of your tuition does the tuition assistance grant pay?
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100%
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Name some federal financial aid programs available to Soldiers through ACES
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Pell Grant
Perkins Loans Guaranteed Student Loans |
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What does DANTES stand for?
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Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Education Support
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What does DANTES do?
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DANTES provides standardized testing services free to military personnel. Family
members and civilians may take DANTES tests but must pay for each test taken. |
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Soldiers with a GT score of less than 110 should be referred to what?
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BSEP - Soldiers with a GT less than 100 are normally automatically eligible.
Soldiers with a GT between 100 and 110 may be command referred. |
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Soldiers who begin their active service after what date are eligible to receive
the new GI Bill? |
July 1985, but they are required to pay $100 per month for the first 12 months
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What does SOC stand for?
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Service members Opportunity Colleges
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What does SOCAD stand for?
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Service members Opportunity College Army Degrees
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AER closely coordinates with what other organization?
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American Red Cross
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What does AER stand for?
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Army Emergency Relief
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What is the Army Regulation that covers AER?
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AR 930-4
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Are you required to contribute to AER to receive help?
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No
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How are monetary contributions made to AER?
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Cash, check or allotment
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When is the AER annual fund campaign held army-wide?
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March 01 through May 15
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How does AER provide financial assistance?
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AER provides financial assistance by either a loan without interest, a grant or
a combination of both |
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What is the purpose of AER?
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AER provides emergency financial assistance to soldiers (active and retired) and
their families in time of distress. |
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What is the dollar limit on AER loans?
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There is no dollar limit. AER Assistance will meet your emergency need.
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What is the AER Motto?
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"Helping the Army Take Care Of its Own"
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The minimum amount that can be contributed to AER through allotment is what
amount? |
1 dollar each month for 3 months
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How is AER funded?
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Through Voluntary Contributions from Soldiers (tax free), through unsolicited
contributions, repayments of loans, and income from investments. |
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The Army's policy on Army Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program applies
where and when? |
This policy applies—
Both on and off post and during duty and non-duty hours. To working, living, and recreational environments (including both on- and off-post housing). |
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Define sexual assault.
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Sexual assault is a crime defined as intentional sexual contact, characterized
by use of force, physical threat or abuse of authority or when the victim does not or cannot consent. |
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Sexual assault includes what acts?
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Rape
Nonconsensual Sodomy (oral or anal sex) Indecent Assault (unwanted, inappropriate sexual contact or fondling) Attempts to commit these acts |
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More than half of sexual assault offenses include what?
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Alcohol
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Prevention of sexual harassment is whose responsibility?
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The Commander’s Responsibility
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What does EO stand for?
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Equal Opportunity
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What is an EOR?
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Equal Opportunity Representative
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What rank should an EOR normally be?
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SGT (P) through 1LT
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What Army Regulation covers the EO program?
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AR 600-20 chapter 6
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Soldiers are required to have how many periods of EO training per year?
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4 (1 each quarter)
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Define the term racism.
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Any attitude or action of a person or institutional structure that subordinates
a person or group because of skin color or race. |
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Describe minority group
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Any group distinguished from the general population in terms of race, religion,
color, gender, or national origin. |
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What action does the Army take against off-post activities, including housing
and public accommodations, which arbitrarily discriminate against members of the Army and their dependents? |
Off limits or off limits sanctions may be applied.
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Who is the primary source for solving EO complaints?
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Your Unit Chain of Command
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What is the primary channel for correcting discriminatory practices and for
communications on equal opportunity matters? |
Chain of Command
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Does every unit have an EO representative?
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Yes, each Commander is required to appoint an EOR in the rank of SGT (P) through
1LT. |
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What does AFAP stand for?
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Army Family Action Plan
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What Army Regulation covers the Army Family Action Plan?
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AR 608-47
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When was the AFAP program established?
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The AFAP program was established in 1983 as a result of the Chief of Staff, Army
(CSA), 1983 White Paper, “The Army Family.” |
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What are some activities that the American Red Cross offers?
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CPR instruction, Blood drives, Swimming lessons, Communication services (by
wire), Financial assistance, Counseling and referral services, Transplantation services, AIDS education, Health and safety services. |
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How is the ARC staffed for the most part?
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By volunteers
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What is the major service that Red Cross offers?
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Communication between soldiers and their families for both problem solving and
emergency (especially the notification or "red cross message") |
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What Army Regulation covers Red Cross?
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AR 930-5
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What Army Regulation covers the Army Retention Program?
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AR 601-280
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What are some reasons that a soldier may be ineligible for reenlistment?
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If the soldier is barred or flagged and if the soldier is enrolled in ASAP
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What is an SRB?
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Selective Reenlistment Bonus
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What is the minimum number of years that a soldier must reenlist for to be
eligible for an SRB? |
Three years
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Can a Soldier request separation if a bar to reenlistment is imposed?
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No
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A Bar to Reenlistment is reviewed how often?
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Every three months or 30 days prior to PCS / ETS
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Who can initiate a Bar to Reenlistment?
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Any commander in the soldier’s chain of command
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Who is the final approving authority for a Bar to Reenlistment?
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A Commander who is one approval level higher than the commanding authority
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Who may lift a Bar?
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The same authority that approved the Bar may lift it with a written
recommendation by the unit Commander |
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What type of fire extinguisher must not be used on electrical fires?
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A water fire Extinguisher
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Who is responsible for the Army Safety Program?
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It is the responsibility of each soldier
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The word SAFETY is often associated with what term?
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Risk Management
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What accounts for the majority of accidents?
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Carelessness
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Accidents are reported in accordance with what regulation?
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AR 385-40
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Name 3 safety features commonly found in any barracks.
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Lights in stairwells
Fire lights (emergency lighting) Fire extinguisher and alarms Arms room safety procedures First aid kits CQ Safety posters Handrails Storage of dangerous tools and chemicals |
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How often are fire extinguishers in the barracks required to be checked for
serviceability, and how can this be determined? |
Once a month, a tag on the fire extinguisher indicating the date and initials of
authorized unit safety personnel |
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What AR covers safety?
|
AR 385-10
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Where on post can you find out how many privately owned vehicle accidents that
were fatal have occurred this year? |
A sign in the vicinity of the outbound gate on post
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Should there be a sponsorship program for a soldier departing a unit?
|
Yes
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What Army Regulation covers the Total Army Sponsorship Program?
|
AR 600-8-8
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What DA Form is used to transmit sponsorship requirements to gaining commands?
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DA Form 5434 or the Electronically Generated DA Form 5434-E
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How soon after the DA Form 5434 is received should a sponsor be assigned?
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10 days unless the sponsorship is declined
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What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?
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DA Form 5434.
Welcome letter. ACS Relocation Readiness Services. Reception. Orientation. Inprocessing. |
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The primary goal of the Army's QOLP is to promote the development of military
group commitment and cohesiveness, is essential to what? |
Readiness (combat effectiveness).
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What does QOLP stand for?
|
Quality Of Life Program
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The Army's Quality of Life program is dedicated to the precept that the Army's
number one operational resource must be taken care of. What is this resource? |
The soldier
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Quality of Life needs and the programs and actions to address them, are
categorized under two general headings. What are they? |
Living conditions
Duty environment. |
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Who is the senior enlisted advisor to the BOSS council, and approves members
selected to serve on BOSS committees? |
The Installation Command Sergeant Major
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What type of program is BOSS?
|
BOSS is categorized as a category B Morale, Welfare, and Recreation (MWR)
program. |
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How many officers are on the BOSS council?
|
Three: President, Vice-President, and Secretary and Treasurer
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What is the lowest level unit that has a BOSS council representative?
|
The battery/company level
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What Army regulation covers CHAMPUS?
|
AR 40-121
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What Does DEERS stand for?
|
Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System.
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What is DEERS used for?
|
To obtain dependent ID cards for eligible spouse and children
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What does NCODP stand for?
|
Noncommissioned Officer Development Program
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As with all leader training and leader development, who is responsible for
NCODP? |
The command.
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NCODP is typically managed by whom?
|
The CSM or Senior NCO in the organization.
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What Army Regulation covers NCODP?
|
AR 350-1 Chap 4
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What Army regulation covers Salutes, honors and visits of courtesy?
|
AR 600-25
|
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When do you salute inside a building?
|
When reporting to your commander
When reporting to a pay officer When reporting to a military board At an indoor ceremony At sentry duty indoors |
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Can you salute as a prisoner?
|
No, you have lost the right to salute
|
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Enlisted members generally do not exchange salutes, what are some examples of
when they would exchange salutes? |
When rendering reports in formation
When reporting to an enlisted president of a board |
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On what command would you salute while in formation?
|
Individuals in formation do not salute or return salutes except at the command
Present, ARMS. |
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Is the recipient of the Medal of Honor (Enlisted or Commissioned) entitled to a
salute ? |
Yes
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Where do you walk when walking with someone that is senior to you?
|
On the senior person's left
|
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When meeting an officer in the open, how far away should you be before rendering
the hand salute? |
Approximately 6 paces when our paths will bring you close by, or within speaking
distance when making eye contact. |
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Who salutes in a group of soldiers not in formation?
|
The first person to see the officer should call the group to attention and
everyone should salute |
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|
When a President or Former President of the U.S. arrives and leaves an army
installation, how many gun salute do they get? |
21 gun salute, both times
|
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|
When lowering the flag (retreat) the flag is folded (cocked hat) and treated as
a cased color. Do persons meeting the flag detail salute the flag? |
No. Once the flag has been folded (cocked hat), it is treated as a cased Color
and not saluted by persons meeting the flag detail. The flag will be treated with the utmost dignity and respect but not be rendered any sort of honors. |
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|
Who will set the time of sounding reveille and retreat?
|
Installation Commanders
|
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During the sounding of reveille, when is the flag hoisted?
|
On the first note of reveille
|
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|
What is the official song of the U.S. Army?
|
“The Army Goes Rolling Along”
|
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When was “The Army Goes Rolling Along” dedicated by the Secretary of the Army?
|
Veterans Day, 11 November 1956, and officially announced on 12 December 1957
|
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|
During the playing of the Army Song, how will individuals stand?
|
They will stand at attention and sing the lyrics of the Army Song when played.
Although there is no Department of the Army directive in this regard, commanders, other officers, and other personnel can encourage the tribute to the Army by standing at attention when the band plays “The Army Goes Rolling Along.” |
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The Army Song is always played at the conclusion of what events?
|
Reviews
Parades Honor Guard Ceremonies. |
|
|
Where do you walk when walking with someone that is senior to you?
|
On the senior person's left
|
|
|
When meeting an officer in the open, how far away should you be before rendering
the hand salute? |
Approximately 6 paces when our paths will bring you close by, or within speaking
distance when making eye contact. |
|
|
Who exits a military vehicle first?
|
The senior person
|
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|
What is the only time that you do not remove your headgear when reporting to an
officer indoors? |
When under arms
|
|
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When are you considered to be under arms?
|
When you are carrying a weapon in your hand, by sling or by holster
|
|
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How long is the call "to the color"?
|
40 seconds
|
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|
What are the courtesies rendered by individuals during Reveille if they are in
uniform and in formation either with or without headgear? |
Execute "Present Arms" at the command of officer or NCO in charge. Execute
"Order Arms" at the command of officer or NCO in charge. |
|
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What are the courtesies rendered by individuals during Reveille if they are in
uniform and not in formation either with or without headgear? |
At the first note of music, face flag and render hand salute (if flag is not
in view, face direction of music). End salute on last note of music. |
|
|
When you take the APFT, what is the minimum number of points you must score in
each event? |
60 points
|
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|
What FM covers Physical Fitness Training?
|
FM 21-20
|
|
|
What are the three phases of physical conditioning?
|
Preparatory
Conditioning Maintenance |
|
|
About how long is the preparatory phase?
|
2 weeks
|
|
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About how long is the conditioning phase?
|
The conditioning phase ends when a soldier is physically mission-capable and all
personal, strength-related goals and unit-fitness goals have been met. |
|
|
What does FITT stand for?
|
Frequency, Intensity, Time, and Type (this acronym makes it easy to remember the
key factors in the training program) |
|
|
What is DA Form 3349?
|
Physical profile form
|
|
|
What is the objective of physical fitness training?
|
To enhance soldiers’ abilities to meet the physical demands of war.
|
|
|
What are the three periods of a normal daily exercise routine?
|
Warm-up
Conditioning Cool-down |
|
|
What are the commands to get a unit from a normal line formation into an
extended rectangular formation? |
Extend to the left, march
Arms downward, move Left, Face Extend to the left, march Arms downward, move Right, face From front to rear, count off Even numbers to the left, uncover |
|
|
What AR covers the Army Physical Fitness Program?
|
AR 350-1 Chapter 1 Section 24
|
|
|
Soldiers 55 years of age or older have the option of taking the 3 event APFT or
what? |
The alternate APFT
|
|
|
What are the seven basic principles of exercise?
|
Regularity
Progression Overload Balance Specificity Variety Recovery |
|
|
What are the three phases of fitness conditioning?
|
Preparatory
Conditioning Maintenance |
|
|
What are the 4 types of waste?
|
Human
Liquid Garbage Rubbish |
|
|
What is the water requirement per person, per day in a temperate zone?
|
5 gallons
|
|
|
A latrine can be no closer than what distance to a water source?
|
100 ft
|
|
|
What is Potable water?
|
Water that is safe to drink
|
|
|
What are the measurements of a straddle trench?
|
1 ft wide, 4 ft long and 2 1/2 ft deep
|
|
|
How many gallons of water will a Lister bag hold?
|
36 gallons
|
|
|
How deep is a cat hole?
|
6 to 12 inches
|
|
|
What is a communicable disease?
|
A disease that can be transmitted person to person, animal to person and insect
to person |
|
|
What are the 5 "F"s of Field Sanitation?
|
Fingers
Feces Flies Foods Fluids |
|
|
What is the best protection against disease or biological warfare?
|
Immunization and personal hygiene
|
|
|
What Field Manual covers Unit Field Sanitation Team?
|
FM 4-25.12
|
|
|
What Field Manual covers Field Hygiene and Sanitation?
|
FM 21-10
|
|
|
What is Field Sanitation?
|
The use of measures to create and maintain healthful environmental conditions,
these include safeguarding food, safeguarding water, and controlling disease bearing insects and rodents. |
|
|
What is a vector?
|
Any living organism that can carry a disease-producing virus
|
|
|
What is palatable water?
|
Water that is pleasing to the taste, but which may be unsafe
|
|
|
What are the 5 communicable disease grouped by the Army?
|
Respiratory
Intestinal Insect borne Venereal Miscellaneous |
|
|
What are some diseases carried by the fly?
|
Typhoid
Cholera Dysentery |
|
|
What 3 rules apply to water discipline in the field?
|
Drink only from approved sources
Conserve water Do not contaminate your sources |
|
|
What are the three most common poison plants?
|
Poison ivy
Poison oak Poison sumac |
|
|
Where should the latrine be located in relation to the mess hall?
|
At least 100 meters downhill or downstream
|
|
|
What are some of the diseases carried by the mosquito?
|
Malaria
Dengue Yellow Fever Encephalitis Filariasis |
|
|
What are some methods for human waste disposal?
|
Straddle trench
Mound latrine Burn out latrine Deep pit Bore hole latrines Pail latrines Urine soak pits |
|
|
How far should garbage pits be located away from the mess area?
|
30 yards and no closer than 100 ft from any water sources.
|
|
|
Enough straddle trenches should be dug to accommodate what percentage of the
unit at one time? |
8 percent
|
|
|
Water that is not properly treated can spread what diseases?
|
Common diarrhea,
Leptospirosis Cholera Dysentery Bacillary Typhoid Paratyphoid fever |
|
|
What are two ways to purify water?
|
Iodine tablets
Boiling |
|
|
Who gives the final approval on whether water is safe to drink?
|
Medical personnel
|
|
|
When was the Code Of Conduct established?
|
17 august 1955 under the Eisenhower Administration
|
|
|
What Army Regulation covers the Code Of Conduct?
|
AR 350-30
|
|
|
If you were to become a prisoner of war (POW), what information would you be
required to give? |
Name, Rank
Service Number Date of Birth |
|
|
Which article of the Code pertains to escape and evasion?
|
Article 3 of the COC
|
|
|
When was the COC Amended?
|
May 1988
|
|
|
How many articles are in the COC?
|
6
|
|
|
What is the first sentence of Article 1?
|
"I am an American, fighting in the forces which guard my country and our way of
life." |
|
|
What should prisoners be searched for?
|
Hidden weapons and documents of intelligence value
|
|
|
Does the COC apply to soldiers held by terrorists during peacetime?
|
Yes
|
|
|
What is the main purpose of the Geneva Convention?
|
It provides rules that prisoners of war must be treated humanely. Specifically
forbidden are violence to life and person, cruel treatment and torture, outrages on personal dignity (in particular, humiliating and degrading treatment) |
|
|
Under the Geneva Convention rules, can a person worship as he pleases?
|
Yes
|
|
|
What document supports the COC?
|
Manual for Courts- Martial under Uniform Code of Military Justice
|
|
|
What does SERE stand for?
|
Survival, Evasion, Resistance, and Escape
|
|
|
What was the reason that the COC was developed?
|
To provide a mental defense for U.S. POWs to use to resist enemy POW management
practices |
|
|
What is the number one principle of peacetime training?
|
Replicate battlefield conditions
|
|
|
Primarily, there are three methods used to present training. What are they?
|
Demonstration (Most Preferred Method)
Conference Lecture (Least Preferred Method) |
|
|
What does effective training require?
|
Effective training requires the personal time, energy, and guidance of
commanders. |
|
|
Once soldiers and units have trained to the standard, how do they maintain
proficiency? |
They maintain proficiency through sustainment training.
|
|
|
Which FM covers Battle Focused Training?
|
FM 7-1.
|
|
|
How do commanders determine their units' METLs?
|
Commanders determine their units' METLs based on war and external directives.
|
|
|
How should units train during peacetime?
|
Units should train in peacetime, as they will fight during war. Peacetime
training must replicate battlefield conditions. All training is based on this principle. |
|
|
What is a TEWT and where is it conducted?
|
Tactical Exercise Without Troops. The TEWT is conducted on actual terrain with
unit leaders and staffs, without soldiers. A TEWT allows the battalion TF or company commander to train his staff and subordinate leaders. |
|
|
What must soldiers, leaders, and units be proficient in to perform their
missions under battlefield conditions? |
Soldiers, leaders, and units must be proficient in the basic skills required to
perform their missions under battlefield conditions. |
|
|
What is the FCX (Fire Coordination Exercise)?
|
An exercise that can be conducted at platoon, company/team, or battalion/task
force level. It exercises command and control skills through the integration of all organic weapon systems, as well as indirect and supporting fires. Weapon densities may be reduced for participating units, and sub-caliber devices substituted for service ammunition. |
|
|
Where may the CPX (Command Post Exercise) be conducted?
|
The CPX may be conducted in from garrison locations or in between participating
headquarters. |
|
|
Should all maintenance be on the unit's training schedule?
|
Yes
|
|
|
What are the ten principles of training?
|
Commanders are responsible for training
NCOs train individuals, crews, and small teams. Train as a combined arms and joint team. Train for combat proficiency -Realistic Conditions -Performance-Oriented Train to standard using appropriate doctrine Train to adapt Train to maintain and sustain Train using multi-echelon techniques Train to sustain proficiency Train and develop leaders. |
|
|
What are STXs (Situational Training Exercise)?
|
STXs are mission-related, limited exercises designed to train one collective
task, or a group of related tasks and drills, through practice. |
|
|
What drives the M.E.T.L. development process?
|
Battle focus
|
|
|
What is the AAR?
|
The AAR is a structured review process that allows training participants to
discover for themselves what happened, why it happened, and how it can be done better. |
|
|
Where does the CFX (Command Field Exercise) lay?
|
The CFX lies on a scale between the CPX and the FTX.
|
|
|
What is the next step for the battalion commander once the METL is developed?
|
Once the METL is developed, the battalion commander briefs his next higher
wartime commander who approves the METL |
|
|
What is a battle drill?
|
A battle drill is a collective action rapidly executed without applying a
deliberate decision-making process |
|
|
Who do AC commanders brief the QTB to?
|
AC commanders brief the QTB to the commander’s two levels above.
|
|
|
How can commanders insure that training is effective?
|
They must personally observe and assess training at all echelons
|
|
|
What may NCOs use in assessing squad, crew, and soldier proficiency?
|
NCOs may use a leader book is assessing squad, crew, and soldier proficiency.
|
|
|
When are FTXs (Field Training Exercise) conducted?
|
FTXs are conducted under simulated combat conditions in the field.
|
|
|
The CSM and key NCOs review and refine the supporting tasks for two things in
each unit. Name those two things. |
Each skill level in every MOS within the unit
CTT |
|
|
The unit leader development program consists of what three phases?
|
Reception and integration
Basic skills development Advanced development and sustainment. |
|
|
Training schedules are developed at what level and approved by whom?
|
Developed at company level and approved by the battalion commander
|
|
|
In the military structure, what is the lowest level that has battle tasks?
|
Battalion level
|
|
|
What does the company commander do after he develops the METL?
|
He briefs the battalion commander
|
|
|
What unit is the lowest level to have a METL?
|
The company.
|
|
|
What is a low density MOS?
|
A MOS within an organization or unit that is required but applies to a very
small amount of soldiers |
|
|
What do leaders list in the leader book?
|
Leaders list in the leader book the common tasks found in the Soldier's Manual
of Common Tasks that support the METL. |
|
|
Are training meetings negotiable at battalion and company level?
|
No. Training meetings are non-negotiable at battalion and company level.
|
|
|
What is risk assessment?
|
Risk assessment is the thought process of making operations safer without
compromising the mission. |
|
|
Do soldiers have a legal responsibility to attend scheduled training?
|
Yes
|
|
|
When are formal AARs usually conducted?
|
Formal AARs are normally conducted at company level and above.
|
|
|
What are the five basic fundamentals that commanders and leaders must use?
|
Move
Shoot Communicate Sustain Secure. |
|
|
Historically speaking, more casualties occur in combat due to what?
|
Accidents.
|
|
|
What are two keys to success in combat?
|
Night training and adverse weather training are keys to success in combat.
|
|
|
When was the NCO support channel formally recognized?
|
20 December 1976
|
|
|
What is a Sergeant?
|
A leader
|
|
|
Define Responsibility
|
Being accountable for what you do
|
|
|
How does the Chain of Command support the NCO support channel?
|
By legally punishing those who challenge a sergeant's authority
|
|
|
Define Duty.
|
Duty is a legal or moral obligation to do what should be done without being told
to do it |
|
|
What is the role of the CSM?
|
Senior Enlisted Advisor to the Battalion commander
|
|
|
How does a Commander exercise command?
|
Through subordinate commanders
|
|
|
When was the position of Sergeant Major of the Army established?
|
4 July 1966
|
|
|
Is the CSM in the Chain of Command?
|
No (but he supervises the NCO support channel)
|
|
|
What are key elements of command?
|
Authority and Responsibility
|
|
|
What is the NCO Support Channel?
|
It is the channel of communication that reinforces the Chain of Command
|
|
|
Who is the only member of both your chain of command the your NCO support
channel? |
Your first line supervisor, section, squad or team leader
|
|
|
What does FM 6-22 cover?
|
Army Leadership (Competent, Confident and Agile)
|
|
|
What does FM 7-0 cover?
|
Training the force
|
|
|
Define Leadership.
|
Leadership is influencing people—by providing purpose, direction, and
motivation—while operating to accomplish the mission and improving the organization. |
|
|
What is purpose?
|
Purpose gives subordinates the reason to act in order to achieve a desired
outcome. |
|
|
What is direction?
|
Providing clear direction involves communicating how to accomplish a mission:
prioritizing tasks, assigning responsibility for completion, and ensuring subordinates understand the standard. |
|
|
What is motivation?
|
Motivation supplies the will to do what is necessary to accomplish a mission.
|
|
|
What are the three principal ways that leaders can develop others through which
they provide knowledge and feedback? |
Counseling
Coaching. Mentoring. |
|
|
A leader’s effectiveness is dramatically enhanced by understanding and
developing what areas? |
Military Bearing
Physical Fitness. Confidence Resilience. |
|
|
What is military bearing?
|
Projecting a commanding presence, a professional image of authority.
|
|
|
What are the Leader Actions?
|
Influencing – getting people (Soldiers, Army civilians, and multinational
partners) to do what is necessary. Operating – the actions taken to influence others to accomplish missions and to set the stage for future operations. Improving – capturing and acting on important lessons of ongoing and completed projects and missions. |
|
|
What are the three levels of leadership?
|
Direct - Direct leadership is face-to-face, first-line leadership.
Organizational - Organizational leaders influence severalhundred to several thousand people. They do this indirectly, generally through more levels of subordinates than do direct leaders. Strategic - Strategic leaders include military and DA civilian leaders at the major command through Department of Defense levels. Strategic leaders are responsible for large organizations and influence several thousand to hundreds of thousands of people. |
|
|
What are the Army Values?
|
Loyalty
Duty Respect Selfless Service Honor Integrity Personal Courage |
|
|
Attributes of an Army leader can best be defined as what an Army leader is. What
are the attributes of an Army leader? |
A leader of character
A leader with presence. A leader with intellectual capactiy. |
|
|
Core leader competencies are what an Army leader does. What are the core leader
competencies? |
An Army leader leads
An Army leader develops An Army leader achieves. |
|
|
What is communication?
|
A process of providing information
|
|
|
Name the two barriers of communications
|
Physical
Psychological |
|
|
Name some physical barriers of communication
|
Noise of battle
Distance |
|
|
What are the three major categories of developmental counseling?
|
Event counseling
Performance counseling Professional growth counseling |
|
|
Character is essential to successful leadership. What are the three major
factors that determine a leaders character? |
Army Values
Empathy Warrior Ethos |
|
|
What are the 7 steps to problem solving?
|
ID the problem
Gather information Develop criteria Generate possible solutions Analyze possible solutions Compare posible solutions Make and implement the decision |
|
|
What are the team building stages?
|
Formation
Enrichment Sustainment |
|
|
Name some things in a unit that affect morale
|
Mess
Military justice Supply Billets |
|
|
What AR covers military justice?
|
AR 27-10
|
|
|
Does a person have to accept an article 15?
|
No, he or she has the right to demand a trial by court martial
|
|
|
What kind of extra duty is an NCO given by an article 15?
|
Supervisory duty only
|
|
|
What is the UCMJ?
|
Uniform Code of Military Justice (the statute that prescribes criminal law for
soldiers) |
|
|
How many articles are there in the UCMJ?
|
There are 146 Articles in the UCMJ. There are also sub-articles which total 12,
nested within the UCMJ such as the following example: Article 106 deals with "Spies", but Article 106a Deals with "Espionage". It would be more accurate to state a total of 158 Articles in the UCMJ (The 146 Articles + 12 Sub-articles = 158) |
|
|
When was the UCMJ enacted?
|
1950, congress enacted the UCMJ, which was based upon and replaced the Articles
of War, which had been around in various forms since 1775 |
|
|
What is a Field Grade Article 15?
|
An article 15 imposed by an O4 or above
|
|
|
Who may impose an article 15?
|
Any commanding officer, including a warrant officer exercising command
|
|
|
What are the three classifications of article 15s?
|
Summarized
Company grade Field grade |
|
|
What form is used to record Summarized Article 15 proceedings?
|
DA Form 2627-1
|
|
|
What are articles 77 through 134 of the UCMJ known as?
|
Punitive Articles
|
|
|
What are 3 types of Court martial?
|
Summary
Special General |
|
|
What are the maximum punishments that company commanders may impose?
|
14 Days extra duty
14 Days restriction 7 Days correctional custody (E3 and below) 7 Days forfeiture of pay 1 Grade Reduction for E4 and below Oral or written letter of reprimand |
|
|
Who is the highest military court?
|
The court of military appeals
|
|
|
Under what article is Non-judicial punishment imposed?
|
Article 15
|
|
|
What is one circumstance when a soldier does not have the right to refuse an
Article 15 and demand trial by court martial? |
When aboard a ship
|
|
|
What rights are given to a Soldier under Article 31?
|
The rights given to a Soldier under Article 31 are: the right to remain silent, the right to demand trial, and the right to an attorney
|
|
|
What is meant by the term "overweight"?
|
A soldier is considered overweight when his or her percent body fat exceeds the
standard specified in AR 600-9. |
|
|
Who is responsible for meeting the standards prescribed in AR 600-9?
|
Every Soldier. (Commissioned Officer, Warrant Officer and Enlisted). Self
discipline to maintain proper weight distribution and high standards of appearance are essential to every individual in the Army. |
|
|
What are the primary objectives of the Army Weight Control Program?
|
Ensure that all personnel:
Are able to meet the physical demands of their duties under combat conditions Present a trim military appearance at all times. |
|
|
Name some limitiations on personnel that are overweight, including Soldiers who
become pregnant while on the weight control program. |
Are nonpromotable (to the extent such nonpromotion is permitted by law).
Will not be assigned to command, command sergeant major or first sergeant positions. Are not authorized to attend professional military schools. |
|
|
Can a Soldier who has been flagged for being overweight or an APFT failure
receive an award? |
A Soldier that is flagged for being overweight cannot receive an award.
A Soldier that is flagged for APFT failure can receive an award |
|
|
When is a determination of percent body fat required to be made on personnel?
|
When their body weight exceeds the screening table weight.
When the unit commander or supervisor determines that the individual's appearance suggests that body fat is excessive. |
|
|
What are three reasons why the Army is so concerned about excess body fat?
|
Connotes a lack of personal discipline.
Detracts from military appearance. May indicate a poor state of health, physical fitness, or stamina. |
|
|
When does enrollment in a weight control program begin?
|
On the day that the soldier is informed by the unit commander that he or she has
been entered into a weight control program. |
|
|
Tape measures used for taping should be made of what material?
|
The tape measure should be made of a non-stretchable material, preferably
fiberglass; cloth or steel tapes are unacceptable. |
|
|
How often should soldiers in the weight control program weight in?
|
Monthly to measure progress
|
|
|
What is the required weight loss goal for Soldiers on the Army Weight Control
Program? |
The required weight loss goal of 3 to 8 pounds per month is considered a safely
attainable goal to enable soldiers to lose excess body fat and meet the body fat standards |
|
|
What regulation covers the Army Weight Control Program?
|
AR 600-9
|
|
|
Screening table weights and heights are measured to the nearest what?
|
1 pound or 1 inch
|
|
|
How often should soldiers be weighed?
|
A soldier should be weighed when they take the APFT or at least every six months
|
|
|
What circumference sites are used for taping male and female soldiers?
|
Male- Abdomen and Neck
Female- Neck, Waist and Hip (largest portion of the protruding buttock) |
|
|
How many times is each body fat measurement required to be made?
|
Three times (Each sequential measurement will be within 1⁄2 inch of the next or
previous measurement.) |
|
|
How many people should be utilized in the taping of soldiers?
|
Two, one to place the tape measure and determine the measurements, the other to
assure proper placement and tension of the tape, as well as to record the measurement on the worksheet |
|
|
If circumstances prevent the weighing of soldiers immediately following the
APFT, when can they be weighed? |
If the circumstances preclude weighing soldiers during the APFT, they should be
weighed within 30 days of the APFT. |
|
|
In regards to percent body fat, all personnel are encouraged to achieve the more
stringent Department of Defense-wide goal of what? |
Males - 18%
Females - 26% |
|
|
What is Self Aid?
|
Emergency treatment one applies to oneself
|
|
|
Name some items that you might use as a splint from your military equipment
|
Bayonet
Rifle Entrenching tool Tent poles and stakes Web belt |
|
|
What is the quickest way to splint a broken leg?
|
Tie the broken leg securely to the unbroken leg
|
|
|
How many pressure points, which can be used to control bleeding with fingers,
thumbs or hands are there on the human body? |
11
|
|
|
What is the object of first aid?
|
To stop bleeding
Overcome shock Relieve pain Prevent infection |
|
|
What FM covers first aid for soldiers?
|
FM 4-25.11
|
|
|
What is First Aid?
|
It is the first care given to casualties before treatment by medical personnel
can be made available |
|
|
What is the unique feature of type "O" blood?
|
It is a universal donor
|
|
|
When would you not remove a casualties clothing to expose a wound?
|
If in a chemical environment or if the clothing is stuck to the wound
|
|
|
What soldiers are most likely to suffer heat injuries?
|
Soldiers not accustomed to the heat, overweight soldiers, prior heat casualties,
and soldiers already dehydrated due to alcohol use, diarrhea, or lack of water (insufficient use of) |
|
|
How high should an injured limb be elevated above the heart to control bleeding?
|
2 to 4 inches
|
|
|
What are the lifesaving steps? (The ABC's of medical treatment)
|
Open the airway and restore breathing
Stop the bleeding / Protect the wound Prevent shock |
|
|
When applying splint, where should the bandages be tied?
|
The bandages should be tied with knots against the splint
|
|
|
Whose first aid dressing should be used on a casualty?
|
Use the casualty’s field dressing.
|
|
|
How should the ends of an improved pressure dressing be tied?
|
Tie the ends together in a nonslip knot, directly over the wound site. DO NOT
tie so tightly that it has a tourniquet-like effect. |
|
|
What is manual pressure?
|
If bleeding continues after applying the sterile field dressing, direct manual
pressure may be used to help control bleeding. Apply such pressure by placing a hand on the dressing and exerting firm pressure for 5 to 10 minutes. The casualty may be asked to do this himself if he is conscious and can follow instructions. |
|
|
Should a casualty be given water to drink?
|
He should not eat or drink
|
|
|
Why should you dress and bandage the wound as soon as possible?
|
To protect the wound from further contamination of germs, and also to control
the bleeding |
|
|
What should you do to indicate that a casualty has received a tourniquet?
|
Mark his or her forehead with a T and if possible, note the time of the
application of the tourniquet |
|
|
Should you ever remove or loosen a tourniquet?
|
No, only qualified medical personnel can do that
|
|
|
Where is a tourniquet applied?
|
Place the tourniquet around the limb, between the wound and the body trunk (or
between the wound and the heart). Never place it directly over a wound, a fracture, or joint. Tourniquets, for maximum effectiveness, should be placed on the upper arm or above the knee on the thigh. |
|
|
How can you prevent athlete's foot?
|
Keep your feet clean, use foot powder and change socks daily
|
|
|
Name 3 categories of heat injuries
|
Heat cramps
Heat exhaustion Heat stroke |
|
|
What are the signs and symptoms of heat cramps?
|
Cramping in the extremities (arms and legs)
Abdominal Cramps (stomach) Excessive Sweating |
|
|
What is the treatment for heat cramps?
|
Move the casualty to a cool, shady area or improvise shade if none is
available. Loosen his clothing (if not in a chemical environment) In a chemical environment, transport the heat casualty to a noncontaminated area as soon as the mission permits. Have him slowly drink at least one canteen full of water. (The body absorbs cool water faster than warm or cold water; therefore, cool water is preferred if it is available.) Seek medical assistance should cramps continue. |
|
|
What are the signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion?
|
Excessive sweating with pale, moist, cool skin
Headache Weakness Dizziness Loss of appetite Cramping Nausea (with or without vomiting) Urge to defecate Chills (Gooseflesh) Rapid Breathing Tingling of Hands/Feet Confusion |
|
|
What would the treatment be for heat exhaustion?
|
Move the casualty to a cool, shady area or improvise shade if none is
available. Loosen or remove his clothing and boots (unless in a chemical environment); pour water on him and fan him. Have him slowly drink at least one canteen of water. Elevate his legs. If possible, the casualty should not participate in strenuous activity for the remainder of the day. Monitor the casualty until the symptoms are gone, or medical assistance arrives. |
|
|
What are the signs and symptoms of heat stroke?
|
Skin is red, hot and dry
Weakness Dizziness Confusion Headaches Seizures Nausea Stomach pains or cramps Respiration and pulse may be rapid and weak. Unconsciousness and collapse may occur suddenly. |
|
|
What would the treatment be for heat stroke?
|
Cool casualty immediately by—
Moving him to a cool, shady area or improvising shade if none is available. Loosening or removing his clothing (except in a chemical environment). Spraying or pouring water on him; fanning him to permit the coolant effect of evaporation. Massaging his extremities and skin, which increases the blood flow to those body areas, thus aiding the cooling process. Elevating his legs. Having him slowly drink at least one canteen full of water if he is conscious. Seek medical assistance immediately |
|
|
If a casualty were suspected of having a neck/spinal injury or severe head
trauma, which method would you use for opening an airway? |
The jaw thrust technique, because in most cases it can be done without extending
the neck |
|
|
What are two basic types of fractures?
|
Open (compound)
Closed (simple) |
|
|
What are some signs of an open fracture?
|
Bleeding.
Bones sticking through the skin. Check for pulse. |
|
|
What are some signs of a closed fracture?
|
Swelling.
Discoloration. Deformity. Unusual body position. Check for pulse. |
|
|
With an open fracture, what should you do first?
|
Stop the bleeding
|
|
|
What is the basic proven principle in splinting fractures?
|
"Splint them where they lie"
|
|
|
How tight should tourniquet be?
|
Tightened until the bright red bleeding has stopped.
|
|
|
What are the three types of bleeding?
|
Arterial- Blood is bright red and will spurt with each heart beat
Venous- Blood is dark red and flows in a steady stream Capillary- Blood oozes from the wound |
|
|
Name 4 common points for checking pulse
|
Carotid- The side of the neck
Femoral- The groin Radial- The wrist Posterial Tibial- Ankle |
|
|
What are some signs/symptoms of shock?
|
Clammy skin (cool, pale and damp)
Restlessness and nervousness Thirst Loss of blood Confusion Fast breathing Nausea or vomiting Blotched or bluish skin (especially around the mouth and lips) Often perspires freely May pass out. |
|
|
What is the treatment for shock?
|
“P.E.L.C.R.N.” (Pronounced Pell-Crin)
Position the casualty on their back Elevate the Legs Loosen clothing at neck waist or wherever it is binding Climatize (prevent too hot or too cold) Reassure (keep the casualty calm) Notify medical personnel (Help, Get a medic!!) |
|
|
What is a heat injury?
|
A loss of water and salt, loss of sweat while personnel work in the heat, a
general dehydration of the body |
|
|
What is the greatest preventive measure for disease?
|
Cleanliness
|
|
|
How do you stop bleeding?
|
Apply a field dressing
Manual pressure Elevate the limb Apply a pressure dressing Digital Pressure Apply a tourniquet |
|
|
What is CPR?
|
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation, it is used to restore a heart beat
|
|
|
When can measures taken to restore breathing in an individual be discontinued?
|
When a doctor tells you to stop
When others relieve you When you cannot physically continue When the casualty starts to breath on his own |
|
|
What is AIDS?
|
AIDS is the end stage of the HIV infection. At this point, the virus has
attacked and weakened a person's immune system Name two types of rescue breathing |
|
|
Name two types of rescue breathing
|
Mouth to mouth
Mouth to nose |
|
|
What do the letters AIDS stand for?
|
Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
|
|
|
When should a casualty not be placed in the shock position?
|
When the casualty has a:
Head injury Abdominal wound Fractured (unsplinted) leg |
|
|
How long is direct manual pressure applied to control bleeding?
|
5 to 10 minutes
|
|
|
What should you do prior to leaving an unconscious casualty?
|
Turn their head to the side to prevent them from choking on their own vomit
|
|
|
When should a tourniquet be used to stop bleeding?
|
As a last resort when everything else has failed or when an arm or leg has been
severed off |
|
|
What does COLD stand for?
|
It is a key word in cold weather protection, it stands for Keep it CLEAN, Avoid
OVERHEATING, Wear it LOOSE and in layers and Keep it DRY |
|
|
What are the 8 steps in evaluating a casualty?
|
Check for:
Responsiveness Breathing Pulse Bleeding Shock Fractures Burns Possible concussions (head injuries) |
|
|
What is the first indication of frostbite?
|
Skin becomes numb and white particles/patches form on it
|
|
|
What do you do to treat frostbite?
|
Remove clothing from the affected area, warm with body heat, dress the area and
seek additional medical help |
|
|
When should an airtight dressing be applied to a sucking chest wound?
|
As the individual breathes out
|
|
|
How should you position a casualty with an open abdominal wound?
|
On his back with his knees up to relieve abdominal pressure
|
|
|
What do you do with exposed abdominal organs?
|
Wrap them in dry clean material and place on top of the abdomen (never try to
put them back in) |
|
|
How do you take the Carotid pulse?
|
Carotid pulse. To check the carotid pulse, feel for a pulse on the side of the
casualty’s neck closest to you. This is done by placing the tips of your first two fingers beside his Adam’s apple. |
|
|
Should you put any medication or cream on a burn?
|
No
|
|
|
Name the four types of burns
|
Thermal
Electrical Chemical Laser |
|
|
What is the primary objective in the treatment of burns?
|
Lessen or prevent shock and infection
|
|
|
What are the three categories used in medical evacuation?
|
Urgent- within 2 hours
Priority- within 4 hours Routine- within 24 hours |
|
|
What is the first aid procedure for a white phosphorous casualty?
|
Smother the flame by submerging the affected area in water or pack with mud.
Then remove the particles by brushing or picking them out |
|
|
What is the first step in the first aid of a burn victim?
|
Remove the casualty from the source of the burn
|
|
|
What are the 2 prescribed methods for opening an airway?
|
The jaw thrust
Head tilt/chin lift methods |
|
|
What is the major cause of tooth decay and gum disease?
|
Dental plaque
|
|
|
What are the 9 mild symptoms of nerve agent poisoning?
|
Unexplained runny nose
Unexplained headache Sudden drooling Difficulty seeing (dimness of vision and miosis) Tightness in the chest or difficulty in breathing Localized sweating and muscular twitching in the area of contaminated skin Stomach cramps Nausea Tachycardia followed by bradycardia (Tachycardia is an abnormally rapid heartbeat wth a heart rate of over 100 beats per minute. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute) |
|
|
What are the 11 severe symptoms of nerve agent poisoning?
|
Strange or confused behavior.
Wheezing, dyspnea (difficulty in breathing), and coughing. Severely pinpointed pupils. Red eyes with tearing. Vomiting. Severe muscular twitching and general weakness. Involuntary urination and defecation. Convulsions. Unconsciousness. Respiratory failure. Bradycardia. |
|
|
What Army Regulation covers the wear and appearance of the military uniform?
|
AR 670-1
|
|
|
Why is the flag worn on the right shoulder of the Utility Uniform?
|
The flag is worn on the right shoulder to give the effect of the flag flying in
the breeze as the wearer moves forward. |
|
|
When is the only time that commercially designed protective headgear is
authorized for wear with uniform? |
When operating motorcycles, bicycles or like vehicles but once the travel is
complete protective headgear must be removed and army headgear donned |
|
|
When must Identification Tags be worn?
|
When directed by the commander, engaged in field training, in an aircraft, or
OCONUS |
|
|
What does "ECWCS" stand for?
|
Extended Cold Weather Clothing System
|
|
|
What are the ranks that shoulder boards come in?
|
Corporal through SGM of the Army and also the Officer Ranks.
|
|
|
Exposed pens in pockets are allowed on which uniforms?
|
Hospital duty Uniforms
Food Service Uniforms Flight uniforms CVC Uniforms |
|
|
How is the beret properly worn?
|
The beret is worn so that the headband (edge binding) is straight across the
forehead, 1 inch above the eyebrows. The flash is positioned over the left eye, and the excess material is draped over to the right ear, extending to at least the top of the ear, and no lower than the middle of the ear. Personnel will cut off the ends of the adjusting ribbon and secure the ribbon knot inside the edge binding at the back of the beret. When worn properly, the beret is formed to the shape of the head; therefore, soldiers may not wear hairstyles that cause distortion of the beret. |
|
|
Who is authorized to wear insignia of branch on the Patrol cap?
|
Chaplains
|
|
|
When is the wear of Army uniforms prohibited?
|
In connection with the furtherance of any political or commercial interests,
or when engaged in off-duty civilian employment. When participating in public speeches, interviews, picket lines, marches, rallies, or public demonstrations, except as authorized by competent authority. When attending any meeting or event that is a function of, or is sponsored by, an extremist organization. When wearing the uniform would bring discredit upon the Army. When specifically prohibited by Army regulations. |
|
|
Soldiers will wear headgear with the Army uniform except under which
circumstances? |
Headgear is not required if it would interfere with the safe operation of
military vehicles. The wear of military headgear is not required while in or on a privately owned vehicle (to include a motorcycle, bicycle, or convertible automobile), a commercial vehicle, or on public conveyance (such as a subway, train, plane, or bus). Soldiers will not wear headgear indoors unless under arms in an official capacity, or when directed by the commander, such as for indoor ceremonial activities. Male and female soldiers are not required to wear headgear to evening social events (after Retreat) when wearing the Army blue and white uniforms, the enlisted green dress uniform, the Army green maternity dress uniform (females only), or the mess and evening mess uniforms. |
|
|
How will service ribbons be worn on the male Class A uniform?
|
The ribbons centered 1⁄8 inch above the left breast pocket. Ribbon mounts will
remain centered above the pocket even if the top ribbon row is offset |
|
|
How will service ribbons be worn on the female Class A uniform?
|
The ribbons centered on the left side, with the bottom row positioned parallel
to the bottom edge of the nameplate. Females may adjust the placement of the ribbons to conform to individual body-shape differences |
|
|
Where are unit awards worn on the male Class A uniform?
|
Emblems with or without frames are worn centered with the bottom edge of the
emblem 1/8 above the right breast pocket flag |
|
|
Where are unit awards worn on the female Class A uniform?
|
Emblems with or without frames are worn centered on the right side of the
uniform, with the bottom edge 1⁄2 inch above the top edge of the nameplate |
|
|
What are the dimensions of the dress uniform nameplate?
|
1 x 3 x 1/16 of an inch
|
|
|
How are marksmanship badges worn on the male Class A uniform?
|
Marksmanship badges are worn on the upper portion of the left breast pocket
flap, or on the lower portion of the pocket flap, if special skill badges are worn. |
|
|
How are marksmanship badges worn on the female Class A uniform?
|
Marksmanship badges are worn on the left side, 1⁄4 inch below the bottom ribbon
row, or in a similar location if ribbons are not worn. Personnel may adjust the placement of badges to conform to individual body-shape differences. |
|
|
Which direction does the belt tab on the army belt extend to on the male Class A
uniform? |
The wearers left
|
|
|
Which direction does the belt tab on the army belt extend to on the female Class
A uniform? |
The wearers right
|
|
|
How many marksmanship badges are authorized for wear at one time on the Class A
Uniform? |
No more than 3
|
|
|
What is the maximum number of clasps that can be attached to each marksmanship
badge? |
No more than 3
|
|
|
How are service ribbons worn on the male Class A uniform?
|
The ribbons centered 1⁄8 inch above the left breast pocket. Ribbon mounts will
remain centered above the pocket even if the top ribbon row is offset |
|
|
How are service ribbons worn on the female Class A uniform?
|
The ribbons centered on the left side, with the bottom row positioned parallel
to the bottom edge of the nameplate. Females may adjust the placement of the ribbons to conform to individual body-shape differences |
|
|
How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the male Class A
Uniform? |
The RDI centered 1⁄8 inch above the top of the pocket flap, or 1⁄4 inch above
any unit awards or foreign badges that are worn. When the coat lapel obscures the insignia, soldiers may wear the RDI aligned to the right edge of unit awards or the nameplate. |
|
|
How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the female Class A
Uniform? |
The RDI centered 1⁄2 inch above the nameplate, or 1⁄4 inch above any unit awards
or foreign badges that are worn. When the coat lapel obscures the RDI, soldiers may wear the RDI aligned to the right edge of unit awards or the nameplate. |
|
|
How is the branch insignia worn on the male Enlisted Class A uniform?
|
Enlisted males wear their branch insignia centered on the left collar, with the
bottom of the disk approximately 1 inch above the notch, with the centerline of the insignia parallel to the inside edge of the lapel |
|
|
How is the branch insignia worn on the female Enlisted Class A uniform?
|
Enlisted females wear their branch insignia on the left collar. The insignia is
worn so the bottom of the disk is centered between the outside point and inside edge of the collar, approximately 5⁄8 inch up from the notch, with the centerline of the branch insignia parallel to the inside edge of the lapel. |
|
|
How is the U.S. insignia disk worn on the male Class A uniform?
|
The bottom of the U.S. insignia disk is placed approximately 1 inch above the
notch, centered on the right collar, with the centerline of the insignia parallel to the inside edge of the lapel |
|
|
How is the U.S. insignia disk worn on the female Class A uniform?
|
the bottom of the U.S. insignia disk is centered on the right collar,
approximately 5⁄8 inch up from the collar and lapel seam, with the centerline of the insignia parallel to the inside edge of the lapel |
|
|
How are service stripes placed on the Class A uniform?
|
The service stripes are worn centered on the outside bottom half of the left
sleeve on the Army green uniform coat. The service stripe is placed at an angle of 45 degrees with the lower end toward the inside seam of the sleeve, and it is placed 4 inches from the bottom of the sleeve. For each additional period of 3 years honorable service, another service stripe is added above and parallel to the first stripe, with a 1/16-inch space between stripes |
|
|
One service stripe represents how many years?
|
3
|
|
|
What is the most noticeable difference between the Army Blue Service Uniform
trousers worn by Soldiers in the ranks of PVT through SPC and those worn by NCOs in the ranks of CPL through SMA? |
The trousers worn by Soldiers in the ranks of PVT through SPC will not have a
gold stripe along the legs which can be found on the trousers worn by CPL through SMA. |
|
|
As a “rite of passage” when a Soldier progresses in rank and enters the NCO
Corps, what is added to the Army Blue Service Uniform? |
The trousers will have a gold stripe added and the wear of the beret will be
replaced with a Service Cap. |
|
|
Which items are considered part of the ACU ensemble and also authorized for wear
with the BDU? |
Rigger Belt
Moisture Wicking T-Shirt (tan) Green socks Army Combat Boots – Hot weather and Temperate weather (tan) |
|
|
Can the Black all-weather coat be worn as a raincoat while wearing BDUs?
|
Yes, but only in a Garrison environment when organizational rain gear has not
been issued |
|
|
What is the estimated lifetime of the new ACU?
|
6 months. (ACU is made with the same nylon/cotton rip-stop fabric as the current
Enhanced Hot Weather BDU (EHWBDU). The current EHWBDU has an estimated wear life of six months.) |
|
|
Can embroidered badges be worn on the ACU?
|
No, embroidered badges will not be worn on the ACU.
|
|
|
Describe the Name tape / U.S. Army tape for the ACU.
|
The U.S. Army Tape will be black embroidery on the digitized fabric with hook
fastener. The finished length will be 5 inches. |
|
|
Branch insignia will not be worn with the ACU with one exception. Who is allowed
to wear branch insignia and how is it worn? |
U.S. Army Chaplaincy religious denomination insignia may be worn 1/8 inch above
and centered on the name tape. The insignia will be pin on only. |
|
|
How will the SSI (Unit Patch) and the SSI-FWTS (Combat Patch) be worn on the
ACU? |
The SSI will be worn centered on the hook and loop faced pad already provided on
the left sleeve of the coat. The SSI-FWTS will be worn centered on the hook and loop faced pad already provided on the right sleeve of the coat. |
|
|
How will the U.S. Flag insignia be worn on the ACU?
|
The U.S. Flag insignia is worn on the right shoulder pocket flap of the ACU
coat. |
|
|
How many skill tabs can be worn on the ACU?
|
No more than 3
|
|
|
How are skill tabs worn on the ACU?
|
Centered on the shoulder pocket flap of the hook and loop faced pad already
provided on the left shoulder of the ACU coat in order of precedence IAW AR 670-1. |
|
|
Can a Soldier wear the Black All weather coat as a raincoat with the ACU?
|
Yes, but only in a Garrison environment.
|
|
|
How is the ACU patrol cap worn with the ACU?
|
Personnel wear the patrol cap straight on the head so that the cap band creates
a straight line around the head, parallel to the ground. The patrol cap will fit snugly and comfortably around the largest part of the head without distortion or excessive gaps. The cap is worn so that no hair is visible on the forehead beneath the cap. At their discretion, individuals may wear the earflaps down during cold weather, except in formation when the commander may prescribe wear policy |
|
|
What type of rank is authorized to be worn on the ACU patrol cap?
|
Sewn or Pin on rank.
|
|
|
How is the name tape worn on the ACU Patrol Cap?
|
The name tape will be worn centered on the hook and loop pad on the back of the
ACU Patrol Cap. |
|
|
When the ACU trouser leg is bloused, what is the maximum distance that it may
extend down the boot? |
The bloused trouser legs should not extend below the third eyelet from the top
of the boot.. |
|
|
When authorized by the Commander, may the IPFU be worn on and off post and on
and off duty? |
Yes, Soldiers may wear all or part of the IPFU with civilian attire off the
installation, when authorized by the commander. |
|
|
What is the only insignia authorized for wear on the IPFU according to AR 670-1?
|
The Physical Fitness Badge
|
|
|
How is the Physical Fitness Badge properly placed on the IPFU?
|
When the physical fitness badge is worn, it is sewn on the upper left front side
of the IPFU T-shirt. On the IPFU running jacket, the insignia is sewn centered 1⁄2 inch above the word “Army.” |
|
|
Are Soldiers authorized to wear commercially purchased gray or black spandex
shorts under the IPFU trunks? |
Yes, The length of the shorts must end above the knee or higher. The commercial
shorts must be plain, with no logos, patterns, or obtrusive markings. Soldiers are not required to buy the spandex shorts. |
|
|
Who are the only Soldiers authorized to wear the IPFU shirt outside of the
trunks? |
Pregnant Soldiers
|
|
|
What is the FM concerning the M16/A2 Rifle?
|
FM 3-22.9
|
|
|
What is the first thing you should do when you handle a weapon?
|
Make sure you clear it
|
|
|
What are the four fundamentals of marksmanship?
|
Steady Position
Proper Aim (Sight Picture) Breathing Trigger Squeeze |
|
|
During Preliminary Marksmanship Training (PMI), what are the only two positions taught?
|
Individual Foxhole supported
Basic Prone unsupported |
|
|
What does the acronym SPORTS stand for?
|
Slap, Pull, Observe, Release, Tap and Shoot
|
|
|
Is SPORTS an Immediate or Remedial Action?
|
Immediate action
|
|
|
How many times should immediate action be applied to a weapon?
|
Once. (If Rifle still fails to fire, apply remedial action)
|
|
|
What is the definition of Maximum Effective Range?
|
The greatest distance at which a soldier may be expected to deliver a target hit.
|
|
|
What does CLP stand for?
|
Cleaner - It contains solvents that dissolve firing residue and carbon.
Lubricant - It lays down a layer of teflon as it dries to provide lubrication. Preservative - It prevents rust from Forming. |
|
|
Describe the M16/A2 Rifle.
|
A 5.56 mm, magazine fed, gas-operated, air-cooled, semiautomatic or three-round burst, hand-held, shoulder-fired weapon.
|
|
|
Describe the max effective rates of fire for the M16/A2 Rifle.
|
Semiautomatic - 45 rounds per minute
Burst - 90 rounds per minute Sustained - 12-15 rounds per minute |
|
|
What is the muzzle velocity of the M16/A2 Rifle?
|
3,100 feet per second
|
|
|
Describe the ranges for the M16/A2 Rifle.
|
Maximum Range - 3,600 meters
Max Effective Range for a Point Target - 550 meters Max Effective Range for an Area Target - 800 meters |
|
|
What is the basic load of ammunition for the M16/A2 Rifle?
|
210 Rounds total. (7 magazines with 30 rounds in each)
|
|
|
What are the 8 steps in the functioning of the M16/A2 rifle?
|
Feeding
Chambering Locking Firing Unlocking Extracting Ejecting Cocking |
|
|
Describe the M11 pistol.
|
The M11 pistol is a 9-mm, semiautomatic, magazine fed, recoil-operation, double-action weapon chambered for the 9-mm cartridge.
|
|
|
What is the basic load of ammunition for the M11?
|
39 Rounds
|
|
|
How many rounds can a magazine designed for the M11 hold?
|
13 Rounds
|
|
|
What are the two types of ammunition used by the M11?
|
Cartridge, 9-mm ball, M882 with/without cannelure).
Cartridge, 9-mm dummy, M917. |
|
|
What Field Manual covers the M11?
|
FM 3-23.35
|
|
|
What are the major components of the M11?
|
Slide and Barrel assembly
Recoil spring and Recoil Spring guide Barrel and Locking Block Assembly Receiver Magazine |
|
|
What is the maximum range of the M11?
|
1800meters
|
|
|
What is the maximum effective range of the M11?
|
50 meters
|
|
|
What are the three safety features found on the M11?
|
Decocking
Safety Lever Firing Pin Block |
