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308 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What landmark can you use to identify the left medial segment from the right anterior segment (liver)?
|
Middle hepatic vein
|
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What structure is located at the anterior border of the caudate lobe?
|
Ligamentum venosum
|
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What structure would help you visualize a recannalized paraumbilical vein?
|
Ligamentum teres
|
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Which vessel courses within the main lobar fissure?
|
Middle hepatic vein
|
|
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What two vessels supply blood to the liver?
|
Portal vein and hepatic artery
|
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|
What is an extension of the right lobe of the liver?
|
Reidel's lobe
|
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What ligament forms the caudal border of the left portal vein?
|
Ligamentum teres
|
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What ligament divides the left lobe of the liver into medial and lateral segments?
|
Ligamentum teres
|
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What is the capsule surrounding the liver?
|
Glisson's capsule
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What should you look for in the liver if the patient has elevated AFP?
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Hepatocellular carcinoma
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T/F: Lipase is a lab value used to evaluate liver function?
|
False
|
|
|
What liver mass is commonly associated with oral contraceptive use, and is typically hypoechoic?
|
Hepatic adenoma
|
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What would a hypoechoic area anterior to the portal vein seen in patient with fatty liver most likely be?
|
Focal fatty sparing
|
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What are patient's with liver cirrhosis at a higher risk for?
|
Hepatocellular carcinoma
|
|
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T/F: Caudate lobe is shrunken with cirrhosis?
|
False
|
|
|
What vascular complication is seen with cirrhosis?
|
Portal hypertension
|
|
|
What would enlarged hepatic veins and IVC in an otherwise normal liver indicate?
|
Right-sided heart problems
|
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Where is focal fatty liver most commonly found?
|
Anterior to the portal vein at the porta hepatis.
|
|
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T/F: Portal vein diameter of greater than 1 cm is indicative of hepatomegaly?
|
False
|
|
|
What is the sonographic appearance of gas bubbles?
|
Echogenic with ringdown artifact
|
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What is associated with infestation of a parasite and is most prevalent in sheep and cattle raising countries?
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Hydatid disease
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What is a nodular liver mostly associated with?
|
Cirrhosis
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T/F: Fatty liver is a reversable disorder?
|
True
|
|
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What is the most common benign tumor in the liver?
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Cavernous hemangioma
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What cancer most commonly invades the portal vein?
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Liver metastases
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Which liver tumor is commonly seen in patients with AIDS?
|
Kaposi's sarcoma
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T/F: Cavernous hemangiomas have high velocity doppler signals?
|
False
|
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T/F: Rejection is not well seen with ultrasound?
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True
|
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T/F: Acute cholecystitis is a common complication of liver transplant?
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False
|
|
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What condition will you find hepatofugal flow in the portal vein?
|
Portal hypertension
|
|
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What liver mass would be accompanied by fever and RUQ pain?
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Abscess
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What is the most common malignant disease of the liver?
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Liver metastases
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What lab test is used in determining if a mass is HCC?
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AFP
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What disease is there hepatic vein thrombosis?
|
Budd-Chiari
|
|
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What two vessels are connected with a TIPS shunt?
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Hepatic vein and portal vein
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When evaluating portal hypertension, what organ can be enlarged?
|
Spleen
|
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What three structures make up the portal triad?
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Portal vein, bile duct, hepatic artery
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T/F: A patient with portal hypertension will have an enlarged coronary vein?
|
True
|
|
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What is the normal limit for portal vein measurment?
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13 mm
|
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What vein drains into the splenic vein at the portal/splenic confluence?
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Coronary vein
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What organ would you compare the liver to in ruling out fatty liver?
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Right kidney
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With what anatomic variation is the gallbladder fundus folded over the body?
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Phrygian cap
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What is the limit for gallbladder wall measurement?
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3 mm
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T/F: A patient doesn't need to fast before a gallbladder ultrasound?
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False
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What is cholelithiasis?
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Gallstones
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T/F: Congestive heart failure is a cause of gallbladder thickening?
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True
|
|
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What condition does the gallbladder wall have varying amounts of calcification?
|
Porcelain gallbladder
|
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What lab value helps indicate the presence of bile duct obstruction?
|
Direct bilirubin
|
|
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What is the most common cause of acute cholecystitis?
|
Obstruction of GB neck or cystic duct
|
|
|
What is Murphy's sign?
|
Tenderness over gallbladder
|
|
|
Where would you look for a mass if you saw a dilated, non-tender gallbladder?
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Pancreas head
|
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What is choledochalithiasis?
|
Stone in the bile duct
|
|
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With what disease will you see ringdown artifact originating from the GB wall?
|
Adenomyomatosis
|
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T/F: Shadowing is not present with polyps?
|
True
|
|
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What is the scientific name for a sludge ball?
|
Tumefactive sludge
|
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T/F: Cholelithiasis is a sign of acalculus cholecystitis?
|
False
|
|
|
What is the cause of long shadows at both edges of the GB?
|
Refraction artifact
|
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|
With what condition are Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses associated with?
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Adenomyomatosis
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What are small mucosal herniations into the muscular layer of the GB?
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Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses
|
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What is air in the bile ducts called?
|
Pneumobilia
|
|
|
What two ducts combine to form the common bile duct?
|
Cystic duct and common hepatic duct
|
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What is the most common anatomic variant of the GB?
|
Folds
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|
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What are patient's with porcelain GB at a higer risk for?
|
GB carcinoma
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What happens to the GB when cholecystokinin is administered?
|
It contracts
|
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T/F: The CHD sits between the portal vein and hepatic artery?
|
False
|
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|
Other than GB, what organ can be affected by choledochalithiasis?
|
Pancreas
|
|
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What is yellow discoloration of the skin and eyes known as?
|
Jaundice
|
|
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What is a tumor that is located in a bile duct called?
|
Cholangiocarcinoma
|
|
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What is the scientific name for the pancreatic duct?
|
Duct of Wirsung
|
|
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What is an accessory pancreatic duct known as?
|
Duct of Santorini
|
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What is the anatomic relationship of the CBD to the pancreas head?
|
Posterior
|
|
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What is it called when the two pancreatic ducts haven't fused?
|
Pancreatic divisum
|
|
|
What structure is located at the anterior aspect of the pancreas head?
|
Gastroduodenal artery
|
|
|
What structure can be seen coursing transversely at the level of the upper pancreatic head?
|
Left renal vein
|
|
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What is the prominent vessel just posterior to the pancreatic neck?
|
Portal-splenic confluence
|
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|
What part of the pancreas is least visualized with ultrasound?
|
Tail
|
|
|
What is the most commonly occuring malignant tumor of the pancreas?
|
Adenocarcinoma
|
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What echogenicty does a pancreatic adenocarcinoma have?
|
Hypoechoic
|
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T/F: An islet cell tumor is an endocrine tumor?
|
True
|
|
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What condition is associated with elevated pancreatic enzymes and WBC's?
|
Acute pancreatitis
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|
|
What condition is associated with dilations of the pancreatic duct and calcifications?
|
Chronic pancreatitis
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Where would you look for pancreas in a patient who has had a transplant?
|
Iliac fossa
|
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T/F: Low-resistance doppler signals indicate pancreatic transplant rejection?
|
False
|
|
|
What is a nonencapsulated collection of necrotic and edematous peripancreatic tissues?
|
Phlegmon
|
|
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What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?
|
Obstruction of the pancreatic duct by calculi
|
|
|
Where is the SMA located in comparison to the pancreas?
|
Posterior to the neck
|
|
|
Which part of the pancreas does the duodenum encircle?
|
Head
|
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What is the relationship of the splenic vein to the pancreas?
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Posterior and caudal
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What vessel is located at the superior border of the pancreas?
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Celiac trunk
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What vessel is located posterior to the pancreatic head?
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IVC
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What vessel courses anterior to the uncinate process?
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SMV
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What is the normal echogenicity of the pancreas compared to the liver?
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Isoechoic or hyperechoic
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What 3 things come in contact with the pancreas tail?
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Left kidney, spleen, splenic flexure of colon
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What is it called when the kidneys are attached at the lower poles?
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Horseshoe kidney
|
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|
What renal mass would most likely cause propogation speed artifact?
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Angiomyolipoma
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What is a common thickening of the left renal corex?
|
Dromedary hump
|
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Name 6 intraperitoneal organs
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1. Liver
2. Gallbladder 3. Spleen 4. Stomach 5. Majority of intestines 6. Ovaries |
|
|
Is aorta a retroperitoneal or intraperitoneal organ?
|
Retroperitoneal
|
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What part of the heart does aorta come off of?
|
Left ventricle
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What is the 1st branch of the aorta?
|
Inferior phrenic
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What are the 3 branches of the celiac artery?
|
Left gastric artery, splenic artery, and common hepatic artery
|
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What does the left gastric artery supply?
|
Curvature of stomach
|
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What does the splenic artery supply?
|
Greater curvature of stomach, spleen, and pancreas
|
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What are the 2 branches of the common hepatic artery?
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Proper hepatic artery, gastroduodenal artery
|
|
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What does the SMA supply?
|
Large portion of small intestine, ascending colon, and part of transverse colon
|
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Which renal artery is longer?
|
Right renal artery
|
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What does the IMA supply?
|
Transverse colon, descending colon, rectum
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List the 9 branches of the aorta in order.
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1. Inferior phrenic
2. Celiac 3. Suprarenal 4. SMA 5. Renal arteries 6. Gonadal arteries 7. IMA 8. Median sacral 9. Common iliacs |
|
|
What AP measurement should aorta not exceed?
|
3 cm
|
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What are the 3 layers of the aorta wall?
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1. Tunica intima- inner layer
2. Tunica media- middle 3. Tunica adventitia |
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T/F: IVC is an intraperitoneal organ?
|
False
|
|
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Which renal vein is longer?
|
Left renal vein
|
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Name the 7 branches of the IVC in order (inferior-superior).
|
1. Common iliac veins
2. Lumbar veins 3. Right gonadal vein 4. Renal veins 5. Right suprarenal vein 6. Hepatic veins 7. Inferior phrenic vein |
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T/F: The left gonadal vein drains into the left renal vein?
|
True
|
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IVC ___ with inspiration?
|
Increases
|
|
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IVC ___ with expiration?
|
Decreases
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Veins are ____ to arteries?
|
Anterior
|
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What 2 veins combine to form the portal vein?
|
SMV and splenic vein
|
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Enzyme that metabolizes carbs and breaks down simple sugars?
|
Glucose
|
|
|
What cells destroy worn out WBC's, RBC's, and bacteria?
|
Kuppfer's cells
|
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What hormone stimulates the GB and pancreas to secrete digestive enzymes?
|
CCK (Cholescystokinin)
|
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What organ secretes CCK?
|
Duodenum
|
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|
How much bile is secreted per day?
|
1 pint
|
|
|
What is the upper limit for liver measurement?
|
17 cm
|
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What are the 4 main divisional structures of the liver?
|
1. Main lobar fissure
2. Falciform ligament 3. Ligamentum teres 4. Ligamentum venosum |
|
|
What is the ligamentum venosum a remnant of?
|
Ductus venosus
|
|
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What ligament connects the anterior portion of the liver to the abdominal wall?
|
Falciform ligament
|
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What ligament connects the right posterior portion of the liver to the undersurface of the diaphragm?
|
Right triangular ligament
|
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|
What ligament divides the left lobe into medial and lateral segments?
|
Falciform ligament
|
|
|
What duct connects the GB to the CHD?
|
Cystic duct
|
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What 2 ducts combine to form the CBD?
|
Cystic duct and CHD
|
|
|
What are the bile ducts covered with?
|
Subepithelial connective tissue and smooth muscle fiber
|
|
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What is the area where the CBD enters the duodenum?
|
Ampulla of Vater
|
|
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What structures are located in the cystic duct that prevent it from collapsing or over-distending?
|
Valves of Heister
|
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What is an outpouching of the GB neck called?
|
Hartmann's pouch
|
|
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What are the 3 layers of the GB wall?
|
1. Mucosa- inner
2. Fibromuscular- middle 3. Serous- outer |
|
|
What 2 substances make cholesterol soluble?
|
1. Bile salts
2. Phospholipid lecithin |
|
|
What is the muscle sheath that regulates flow of bile into the duodenum?
|
Sphincter of Oddi
|
|
|
What are the folds within the GB called?
|
Rugae
|
|
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T/F: Pancreas is a retroperitoneal organ?
|
True
|
|
|
What is an accesory pancreatic duct called?
|
Duct of Santorini
|
|
|
What 2 arteries supply the pancreas?
|
GDA and splenic artery
|
|
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What cells make up the exocrine function of the pancreas?
|
Acini cells
|
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T/F: The pancreas is mostly an endocrine gland?
|
False
|
|
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What pancreatic enzyme helps digest carbs?
|
Amylase
|
|
|
What pancreatic enzyme helps digest fats?
|
Lipase
|
|
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What pancreatic enzyme breaks down nucleic acids?
|
Nuclease
|
|
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What 3 pancreatic enzymes break down proteins?
|
1. Trypsin
2. Chymotripsin 3. Carboxypepidase |
|
|
What is the largest component of pancreatic juice that neutralizes HCl produced by the stomach?
|
Sodium bicorbonate
|
|
|
What pancreatic cells produce glucagon?
|
Alpha cells
|
|
|
What hormone releases glucose for immediate energy needs?
|
Glucagon
|
|
|
What pancreatic cells produce somatostatin?
|
Delta cells
|
|
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What substance inhibits the production of insulin and glucagon?
|
Somatostatin
|
|
|
What pancreatic cells produce insulin?
|
Beta cells
|
|
|
What hormone causes glucose to change into glycogen?
|
Insulin
|
|
|
What disease is cause by a lack of beta cells in the pancreas?
|
Type II Diabetes
|
|
|
What are the 2 supporting ligaments of the spleen?
|
1. Splenorenal
2. Gastrosplenic |
|
|
What 4 organs/structures come in contact with the spleen?
|
1. Stomach
2. Left kidney 3. Left colic flexure 4. Pancreas |
|
|
What is the upper limit for spleen measurement?
|
13 to 14 cm
|
|
|
What type of cells are matured within the spleen?
|
Erythrocytes
|
|
|
What splenic process removes the nuclei from RBC's?
|
Culling
|
|
|
What splenic process removes abnormal RBC's and regulates platelet and leukocyte lifespan?
|
Pitting
|
|
|
What is a cell that engulfs and digests microorganisms and cellular debris?
|
Phagocyte
|
|
|
What cells carry the cellular elements of blood through circulation?
|
Plasma cells
|
|
|
Increase in what type of cells cause the spleen to increase in size?
|
WBC's
|
|
|
Where in the spleen is pulp located?
|
Within the lobules
|
|
|
What type of pulp removes worn out RBC's, platelets, and bacteria from the blood?
|
Red pulp
|
|
|
What type of pulp is mostly lymphocytes?
|
White pulp
|
|
|
What system drains tissue fluid and protein back into the venous system?
|
Lymphatic system
|
|
|
Name the 5 layers of the bowel wall (inner to outer).
|
1. Mucosa
2. Deep mucosa 3. Submucosa 4. Muscularis propria 5. Serosa |
|
|
Name the 3 sections of small intestine.
|
1. Duodenum
2. Jejunem 3. Ileum |
|
|
T/F: Small intestine is a retroperitoneal organ?
|
True
|
|
|
Name the 6 sections of large intestine in order.
|
1. Cecum
2. Ascending colon 3. Transverse colon 4. Descending colon 5. Sigmoid colon 6. Rectum |
|
|
What hormone is secreted by the stomach?
|
Gastrin
|
|
|
What hormone is secreted by the small intestine and decreases the acid content?
|
Secretin
|
|
|
T/F: The large intestine is where most of the nutrients are absorbed?
|
False
|
|
|
Which area of the large intestine does most of the water absorbtion take place?
|
Cecum
|
|
|
What is the normal AP diameter of the appendix?
|
6 mm
|
|
|
What is the normal pyloric canal length?
|
16 mm
|
|
|
T/F: Kidneys, ureters, and adrenal glands are intraperitoneal organs?
|
False
|
|
|
T/F: Ureters are anterior to the iliac vessels?
|
True
|
|
|
Name the 4 protective layers covering the kidney (inner to outer).
|
1. Fibrous capusle
2. Perirenal fat 3. Gerota's fascia 4. Pararenal fat |
|
|
T/F: The left gonadal, adrenal, and suprarenal veins drain directly into the IVC?
|
False
|
|
|
Name the 4 branches of the main renal artery in order.
|
1. Segmental
2. Interlobar 3. Arcuate 4. Interlobular |
|
|
What layer of the kidney is responsible for filtration?
|
Cortex
|
|
|
What layer of the kidney is responsible for absorbtion?
|
Medulla
|
|
|
What are 3 endocrine functions of the kidney?
|
1. Metabolize vitamin D
2. Regulate blood pressure 3. RBC production |
|
|
T/F: Renal arteries bring dirty blood in, and veins take clean blood out?
|
True
|
|
|
What are tiny filters throughout the kidney called?
|
Glomeruli
|
|
|
What 2 structures does a nephron contain?
|
1. Renal corpuscle
2. Renal tubule |
|
|
What structures filter and produce urine?
|
Nephrons
|
|
|
What structure takes blood into the glomeruli?
|
Afferent arteriole
|
|
|
What structure removes blood from the glomeruli?
|
Efferent arteriole
|
|
|
What are the 3 zones of the adrenal cortex?
|
1. Zona glomerulosa
2. Zona fasciculate 3. Zona reticularis |
|
|
What cells are found in the adrenal medulla and produce epinephrine and norepinephrine?
|
Chromaffin cells
|
|
|
What zone of the adrenal cortex produces aldosterone?
|
Zona glomerulosa
|
|
|
What hormone regulates blood volume, and sodium and potassium levels?
|
Aldosterone
|
|
|
What zone of the adrenal cortex produces cortisol?
|
Zona fasciculate
|
|
|
What hormone aids in the metabolism of glucose?
|
Cortisol
|
|
|
What zone of the adrenal gland supplements sex hormones?
|
Zona reticularis
|
|
|
What 2 hormones increase heart rate during hypotension?
|
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
|
|
|
What are the 3 "strap" muscles?
|
1. Sternohyoid
2. Sternothyroid 3. Omohyoid |
|
|
What arteries supply the thyroid?
|
Inferior and superior thyroid
|
|
|
Where does the superior thyroid artery branch off of?
|
ECA
|
|
|
Where does the inferior thyroid artery branch off of?
|
Thyrocervical trunk of subclavian artery
|
|
|
Where does the superior thyroid vein drain into?
|
Internal jugular vein
|
|
|
Where does the inferior thyroid vein drain into?
|
Right and left innominate veins
|
|
|
What is a stalk between the thryoid and tongue?
|
Thyroglossal duct
|
|
|
What 3 hormones are secreted by the thyroid?
|
1. Thyroxine (T4)
2. Triiodothyronine (T3) 3. Calcitonin |
|
|
What hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary and is the primary controller of thyroid hormones?
|
TSH (Thryoid Stimulating Hormone)
|
|
|
What thyroid hormone levels can indicated hyper or hypothyroidism?
|
T3
|
|
|
What hormone maintains homeostasis of blood calcium concentration?
|
PTH (Parathyroid hormone)
|
|
|
What muscles are posterior to parathyroid glands?
|
Longus colli
|
|
|
What does AST stand for?
|
Aspartate aminotransferase
|
|
|
What does ALT stand for?
|
Alanine aminotransferase
|
|
|
What lab values are elevated with fatty liver?
|
AST, ALT, and direct bilirubin
|
|
|
What lab values are elevated with hepatitis?
|
AST, ALT, direct and indirect bilirubin, PT
|
|
|
Increased echogenicity of the liver, attenuation, and hard to see vessels
|
Fatty infiltration
|
|
|
Small, lobulated liver, difficult to penetrate, portal hypertension, ascites
|
Cirrhosis
|
|
|
Starry night, hypoechoic liver, GB wall thickening, hepatosplenomegaly
|
Acute hepatitis
|
|
|
Ascites, infarcted areas of liver, spared caudate lobe, absence of color flow in hepatic veins
|
Budd-Chiari syndrome
|
|
|
(Liver) Echogenic, well-defined borders, possible enhancement
|
Hemangioma
|
|
|
(Liver) Hypoechoic or hyperechoic mass, linked to oral contraceptive use
|
Adenoma
|
|
|
(Liver) Hypoechoic or hyperechoic mass, well-defined borders with central scar
|
Focal nodular hyperplasia
|
|
|
(Liver) Number one cause is cirrhosis, single or multiple, echogenic or complex, may invade portal vein
|
Hepatocellular carcinoma
|
|
|
(Liver) Most common in infants, highly vascular solitary mass, may have calcifications
|
Hepatoblastoma
|
|
|
(Liver) Hypoechoic or hyperechoic, calcific, "bull's eye" appearance
|
Metastases
|
|
|
(Liver) Frequent in sheep and cattle raising countries, may have internal echoes, pain, fever
|
Hydatid (echinococcal) cysts
|
|
|
(Liver) Fever, inc WBC's, complex fluid collection with irregular, thick wall, E. coli within
|
Pyogenic abscess
|
|
|
(Liver) Caused by protozoa, round hypo or hyperechoic mass, diarrhea
|
Amebic abscess
|
|
|
(Liver) Caused by fungus, small lesions with echogenic centers
|
Fungal abscess
|
|
|
(Liver) Multiple nonshadowing echogenic foci seen in AIDS patients
|
Pneumocystis carinii
|
|
|
(Liver) Parasitic infection that cuases periportal fibrosis and echogenicity
|
Schistosomiasis
|
|
|
(Liver) Hypo or hyperechoic, caused by injury, hematocrit drop
|
Hematoma
|
|
|
(GB) Multiple linear echogenic foci with dirty shadowing seen in biliary tree
|
Pneumobilia
|
|
|
Type of jaundice that results from breakdown of RBC's
|
Hemolytic
|
|
|
Type of jaundice related to defective liver function
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Hepatic
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Type of jaundice caused by biliary obstruction
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Obstructive
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(GB) Focal dilatations of the CBD
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Choledochal cyst
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(GB) Rare obstructive disease seen in infants, results from a viral infection after birth
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Biliary atresia
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(GB) Focal saccular dilatation of intrahepatic ducts
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Caroli's disease
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(GB) Chronic inflammatory process of intrahepatic ducts, thick, scarred walls
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Sclerosing cholangitis
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(GB) Carcinoma of bile duct that originates at the junction of left and right hepatic ducts
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Klatskin's tumor
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T/F: With a Klatskin's tumor the bile duct is dilated?
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False
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When patient presents with palpable gallbladder and painless jaundice
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Courvoisier's sign
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Most common tumor to metastasize to GB?
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Malignant melanoma
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What substances make up sludge?
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Calcium bilirubinate and cholesterol crystals
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(GB) Murphy's sign, pericholecystic fluid, fever, thick walls, gallstones
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Acute cholecystitis
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(GB) Ringdown from gas within GB wall, RUQ pain, fever
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Emphysematous cholecystitis
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(GB) Thick fibrotic wall, small GB, gallstones
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Chronic cholecystitis
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(GB) Thick wall, Murphy's sign, no stones
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Acalculus cholecystitis
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(GB) Stone in cystic duct inflames surrounding structures, normal CBD, dilated intrahepatic ducts
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Mirizzi's syndrome
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(Panc) Enlarged, hypoechoic, possible fluid collections, fever, elevated amylase, phlegmon
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Acute pancreatitis
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(Panc) Shrunken, irregular, pseudocysts, echogenic with calcifications
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Chronic pancreatitis
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Tumors of pancreas that develop from islet cells
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Endocrine tumors
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(Panc) Most common endocrine tumor, hypoechoic, solid
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Insulinoma
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(Panc) Most common cancer, hypoechoic, can metastasize
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Adenocarcinoma
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Name the 4 layers of the bladder (inner to outer)
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1. Mucosa
2. Submucosa 3. Detrusor muscle 4. Serosa |
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(Kid) Poorly functioning, non-obstructive kidneys, echogenic cortex, cortical thinning in end-stage
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Renal parenchymal disease
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(Kid) Benign mass occurring in infants
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Mesoblastic nephroma
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(Kid) Most common cancer, unilateral focal mass, sometimes calcified, isoechoic or hyperechoic
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Renal cell carcinoma
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(Kid) Genetic disorder, increased risk of RCC, retinal angiomas, cerebral aneurysms
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Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
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(Kid) Bilateral, multiple hypoechoic lesions
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Lymphoma
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(Kid) 2nd most common tumor in children, large, homogeneous, can metastasize
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Wilm's tumor (nephroblastoma)
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(Kid) Autosomal dominant disorder, epilepsy, skin lesions on face, multiple cysts and angiomyolipoma
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Tuberous sclerosis
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(Kid) Enlarged echogenic kidneys, seen in neonates and small children, liver fibrosis
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Autosomal recessive (infantile) polycystic kidney disease
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(Kid) Nonhereditary, fatal if bilateral, multiple noncommunicating cysts, no renal parenchyma seen
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Multicystic dysplastic kidney disease
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(Kid) Genetic disorder, HTN, multiple irregular shaped cysts bilaterally, massively enlarged
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Autosomal dominant (adult) polycystic kidney disease
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(Kid) Caused by retrograde flow of bacteria, flank pain, fever, pyuria
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Pyelonephritis
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(Kid) Form of chronic pyelonephritis, renal pelvis contracts around a stone, dilated calyces, thin cortex
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Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
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(Kid) Gas develops in renal parenchyma, echogenic areas with shadowing
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Emphysematous pyelonephritis
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(Kid) Pus develops in renal pelvis after long-standing infection and urinary stasis, deadly
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Pyonephrosis
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(Kid) Trauma, hypoechoic or hyperechoic, displaces kidney
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Subcapsular hematoma
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(Kid) Large calculi that fill the renal pelvis and calyces
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Staghorn calculi
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(Kid) Small calculi develop in renal pyramids, caused by hyperparathyroidism
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Nephrocalcinosis
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(Kid) Dilatation of posterior urethra, ureters, and pelvicalyceal system with no obstruction, lax abdominal muscles, undescended testes
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Prune-belly syndrome
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(Kid) Expansion of distal ureter as it enters bladder, strongly associated with double collecting system
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Ureterocele
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When both kidneys are located on the same side
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Crossed renal ectopia
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(Kid) Narrow renal parenchyma, enlarged renal sinus, mostly echogenic
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Renal sinus lipomatosis
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(Kid) Related to leak from ureterovesical anastomosis site, located between lower pole and bladder, anechoic
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Urinoma
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(Kid) Located between bladder and transplant, painless swelling, lower leg swelling, cystic area with septa
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Lymphocele
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(Kid) Located around transplant or at incision, decreased hematocrit
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Hematoma
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Most common cause of acute kidney transplant rejection
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Acute tubular necrosis
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(Bladder) Enlarged, incomplete emptying, thin bladder wall, no trabeculae
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Detrusor arreflexia
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(Bladder) Enlarged or small and spastic, thick wall, trabeculated,
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Detrusor hyperreflexia
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(Test) Well-defined mass, cystic, echogenic walls, calcifications
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Epidermoid cyst
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Varicocele caused by compression of spermatic vein
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Secondary varicocele
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(Test) Rare, very malignant, increased hCG
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Choriocarcinoma
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(Test) Tumors containing hair, bone and teeth
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Teratoma
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(Test) Occurs most in men 60 years of age, enlarged, hypoechoic testicle, usually diffuse
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Lymphoma
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(Test) Hypoechoic, usually have cystic areas, most common non-germ cell tumor
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Leydig's cell tumor
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(Test) Benign tumor mostly found in epididymis, small, hypo- or hyperechoic
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Adenomatoid
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(Thy) Most frequent cause of hyperthyroidism, diffusely hypoechoic, lobulated contour, "thyroid inferno"
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Grave's disease
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(Thy) Chronic thyroiditis, diffuse enlargement, hypoechoic areas separated by thick fibrous strands
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Hashimoto's disease
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T/F: Benign thyroid nodules are mostly cystic
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True
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T/F: Benign thyroid nodules usually have internal calcifications
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False
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(Neck) Cyst usually located lateral to thyroid
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Branchial cleft cyst
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What lab values are increased with parathyroid adenoma?
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PTH, serum calcium
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What lab value is increased with medullary thyroid cancer?
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Calcitonin
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The transitional zone of the prostate becomes hyperechoic/hypoechoic with BPH?
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Hypoechoic
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T/F: PSA levels are much higher with prostate cancer than with BPH?
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True
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What is used to determine the rise of PSA over time?
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PSA velocity
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How many PSA levels are needed to calculated PSA velocity?
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Three
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T/F: Age is an important factor in PSA levels, therefore levels are "age-adjusted" to deterimine normality
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True
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T/F: PSA with prostate cancer is usually "free form", and not attached to a protein molecule
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False
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(Prostate) Fever, urinary urgency, hypoechoic areas, dilatation of vessels,
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Prostatitis
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T/F: Calcifications in the prostate are indicitave of malignant disease
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False
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T/F: Seminal vesicles are typically solid structures
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False
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