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45 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Aircraft basic zero fuel weight is _______
11,000 lbs
Center-of-gravity problems affecting longitudinal stability during flight should be considered prior to...
personnel movement within the cabin area.
What components are in the accessory gearbox?
DC starter/gen, N2 speed sensors, oil pump, HMU, hydraulic pump, engine-drive fuel pump
Capacity of each oil tank in each engine?
2.03 gal
Max oil consumption per engine?
8.5 ounces per hour
If the throttle linkage cable breaks and the engine flames out, or if necessary to control the aircraft due to an engine stuck at a high power setting, what do you do?
Shutdown the engine using the Fuel/Hydraulic valve close switch, then do the Engine shutdown during flight checklist.
What electric bus(s) are EFC's powered by?
Their respective left or right LOAD BUS
What does an EFC take into account?
Throttle angle, ambient air temp, ambient air pressure, differential between ambient air temp and total air pressure.
When must EFCs be on?
Whenever engines are running unless there's a malfunction
Operation of the engines with EFCs off may result in...
fuel coking of the fuel nozzles.
Max thrust lost due to EFC failure?
40%
If you have a failed turbine shaft, what will N1 and N2 show?
windmilling N1, no N2
T/F - If the engine will not start with the ignition switch in STBY, the manual mode should be used.
FALSE.
During start, what 2 things happen when engine speed is about 35-40%?
Speed sensor of the start/gen sends a signal to the GCU

GCU removes starter's control power and the starter/generator begins to operate as a generator.
T/F - If either EFC fails, engine sync will be inop.
True
For engine sync, which engine is the master and which is the slave?
Left master, right slave.
If the left engine fails while engine sync is on, there will be a maximum of ___% rpm spool down of the right engine.
1.5
Moving the throttle friction lever forward __________ friction.
increases.
How do you know if you have a HOT Start?
ITT exceeds starting limits
Each fire bottle is charged to _____ psi at ____ degrees F.
600 , 70
T/F - You can control the amount of HALON that is discharged by how long you hold the bottle armed push button.
False
In a forced landing, your minimum airspeed on final approach is...
140 KIAS
Ditch parallel to or near the crest of the swell unless there is a strong crosswind of ____ knots or more.
20
If hydraulic pressure is between 1550 and 1850, do what?
land as soon as practical.
What would cause one or both H PMP PRESS LO lights to illuminate momentarily when gear down is selected?
Prolonged flight in cold temps, followed by rapid descent
Without hydraulic pressure the following systems will be inop:
Flaps, speed brakes, anti-skid, power brakes, normal landing gear extension...

You still have manual braking
For zero hydraulic pressure, increase computed 30 degrees flap landing distance by ____%
90
T/F - if hydraulic pressure is not within normal operating range, bypass the Alternate Gear Down Verification checklist and accomplish the Emergency Gear Extension checklist.
True
When you emergency extend gear, it may be necessary to ______________________ to full extend the main gear into position.
yaw the aircraft with rudder deflection.
Approach speed of Vapp +___ KIAS is required for ice accumulations of approximately ____ inches.
35, 1.5
With dual RTU failure, all the frequencies will be displayed in yellow on the CDU except...
Nav 1
WG ICE TEMP LO comes on when...
leading edge duct is below 140 F
DEFOG AIR OV HT comes on when...
>200F
Holding the horizontal stabilizer backup switch momentarily to the spring-loaded manual position will energize the backup system for ____ seconds. Repeat every ___ minutes.
30, 2
ENG ICE TEMP LO comes on when...
nacelle below 120F
Per SOG, T/F - When filing to the VANCE 1A MOA, include the special use airspace delay time in the total ETE for that leg of flight.
True
Per SOG, Min speed for closed/break?
160 KIAS
Per SOG, Min runway length for all student-flown full stop landings is ________ feet.
7000
Per SOG, filling tanks to less than ______ lbs requires SUP approval.
3000
Per SOG, aircrew utilizing the ELEC HEAT should select ________ position on the AUX TEMP CONTROL panel prior to the trim system check.
Blower 1
Per SOG, touch and goes with less than _____ feet of runway require SUP approval.
7000
Per SOG, at temps above ____ C and/or pressure altitudes above _____ ft, touch and goes will not be performed.
40C, 6000ft
Per SOG, for take-off with icing at or below _____, 32 FTS/DO approval is required.
2000ft AGL
Wing anti-ice will not be activated until ...
Deconfiguration altitude (400 or 1500 ft)
T/F - When actual icing is anticipated below 1500 ft AGL, a deconfiguration altitude of 400ft must be used.
True