State Exam B_Tal

Front 1

PBH-2.3.
The proportion of children aged 0-12 years in developing countries
is:
A) approx. 10-12%
B) approx. 20%
C) approx. 20-25%
D) approx. 30%

Back 1

approx. 30%

Front 2

PBH-2.4.
The term "communal diagnosis" means:
A) the consensual health diagnoses within a community
B) the determination, analysis, and evaluation of the communal
and health profiles
C) the determination of the priorities of a diagnosis

Back 2

the determination, analysis, and evaluation of the communal
and health profiles

Front 3

PBH-2.10.
The term "perinatal mortality" means:
A) the number of fatalities among live-born neonates during the
first 6 days of life
B) the number of fatalities among live-born neonates during the
first 27 days of life
C) the number of stillbirths plus the number of fatalities among
live-born neonates during the first 6 days of life
D) the number of stillbirths

Back 3

the number of stillbirths plus the number of fatalities among
live-born neonates during the first 6 days of life

Front 4

PBH-2.26.
The term "lethality" means:
A)the intensity of a disease
B) the ratio of fatal cases among patients with the given disease
C) the mortality rate of a given disease
D) the morbidity conditions of a given disease

Back 4

the ratio of fatal cases among patients with the given disease

Front 5

PBH-2.38.
According to the results of the "KOMOV Study", all of the following
belong to the 3 most frequent ICD main groups in Hungary, EXCEPT:
A) skin and connective tissue diseases
B) upper respiratory tract and respiratory system diseases
C) cardiovascular diseases
D) gastrointestinal diseases

Back 5

skin and connective tissue diseases

Front 6

PBH-2.39.
According to the results of the "KOMOV Study", what is the approximate
percentage of the population in need of continuous follow-up
care?
A) 15%
B) 25%
C) 40%
D) 60%

Back 6

40%

Front 7

BH-2.54.
Establishing the community diagnosis includes all of the following
steps, EXCEPT:
A) the health diagnosis
B) the environmental factors
C) an analysis of the quality of life
D) a study of the factors influencing behavior
E) the profile of the culture
F) the administrative and organizational issues

Back 7

the environmental factors

Front 8

PBH-2.55.
Essential components defining the term "risk factor" include all of
the following, EXCEPT:
A) the presence of factors and influences that increases the likeli
hood of the development of the disease
B) a causal relationship exists between the presence of risk factors
and the development of the disease
C) the relationship between the disease and the relevant risk factors
is often not absolute, instead it implies statistical correlation
D) the correlation between the presence of multiple risk factors and
the likelihood of the development of the disease is not linear

Back 8

a causal relationship exists between the presence of risk factors
and the development of the disease

Front 9

PBH-2.57.
Risk factors for the development of a myocardial infarction include
all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) an excess bodyweight
B) an elevated cholesterol level
C) a lack of exercise
D) alcohol abuse
E) an A-type personality
F) smoking

Back 9

alcohol abuse

Front 10

PBH-2.66.
The application of gamma-globulin (immunoglobulin) currently
manufactured in Hungary is effective for post-exposure protection
in:
A) a hepatitis A infection
B) a hepatitis B infection
C) a hepatitis C infection
D) a hepatitis D infection
E) none of the above

Back 10

a hepatitis A infection

Front 11

PBH-2.101.
The pathomechanism of respiratory conditions caused by vegetable
dust include(s):
A) the allergenic properties of the dust
B) the inflammatory effects of fungi and bacteria
C) both of the above
D) none of the above

Back 11

both of the above

Front 12

PBH-2.92.
Which of the following may cause cancer of the urinary bladder?
A) cadmium
B) mercury
C) aniline dyes
D) lead

Back 12

aniline dyes

Front 13

PBH-2.104.
Hemangiosarcoma may develop as a result of prolonged exposure to:
A) asbestos
B) polyvinylchloride (PVC)
C) beryllium
D) chlorinated hydrocarbon

Back 13

polyvinylchloride (PVC)

Front 14

PBH-2.114.
Which of the following microorganisms is the vector for the plague?
A) Necator americanus
B) Xenopsylla cheopis
C) Sallitor macarencus
D) Shylla nomatius

Back 14

Xenopsylla cheopis

Front 15

PBH-2.115.
Which of the following diagnostic methods is used for establishing
the diagnosis of a glanders infection:
A) Strauss' reaction
B) hemagglutination inhibition test
C) hemadsorption inhibition test
D) Nidal's reaction

Back 15

Strauss' reaction

Front 16

PBH-2.116.
The length of the incubation period of anthrax is:
A) several hours
B) 2 weeks
C) 3-4 days
D) 21 days

Back 16

3-4 days

Front 17

PBH-2.127.
The mechanism of the development of resistance to antibiotics includes
the transmission of the resistance factor by:
A) bacteriophages
B) viruses
C) plasmids
D) lysogenic conversion

Back 17

plasmids

Front 18

PBH-2.130.
Streptococcus pyogenes is the pathogen of:
A) a puerperal infection
B) diarrhea outbreaks in hospitals
C) pemphigus
D) Lyell's syndrome (toxic epidermal necrolysis)

Back 18

a puerperal infection

Front 19

PBH-2.132.
Starting from the date of the last positive stool culture, a typhoid
carrier is obliged to present for laboratory tests:
A) bimonthly for 6 months
B) bimonthly for one year
C) monthly for one year
D) monthly for 6 months

Back 19

monthly for one year

Front 20

PBH-2.140.
The presence of proglottides in the gastrointestinal tract is a characteristic
feature of.
A) echinococcosis (hydatid disease)
B) taeniasis (beef tapeworm infection)
C) hymenolepidosis (dwarf tapeworm infection)
D) toxoplasmosis

Back 20

taeniasis (beef tapeworm infection)

Front 21

PBH-2.150.
In enteric fever caused by S. paratyphi, the length of the incubation
period is:
A) 1- 4 days
B) 3-14 days
C) 14 -21 days
D) 21-30 days

Back 21

1- 4 days

Front 22

PBH-2.155.
All of the following are characteristic epidemiologic features of
yersiniosis, EXCEPT:
A) the length of the incubation period is 10 days
B) Yersinia enterocolitica is an animal pathogen
C) the sources of infection include infected humans and animal
carriers of the pathogen
D) according to experience gained so far, the index of infectivity is
low

Back 22

Yersinia enterocolitica is an animal pathogen

Front 23

PBH-2.160.
Which of the following statements regarding typhoid fever is valid?
A) the causative pathogen can be cultured from the blood
throughout the entire disease period
B) the causative pathogen can be cultured from the urine in the
initial third of the disease period
C) the causative pathogen can be cultured from the stool in the
last third of the disease period
D) serum hemagglutinins are present from the second week of the
disease period

Back 23

serum hemagglutinins are present from the second week of the
disease period

Front 24

PBH-2.187.
Oncogenic viruses:
A) contain a viral oncogene
B) contain a cellular oncogene
C) are the result of genetic manipulation
D) play an established role in oncogenesis

Back 24

contain a viral oncogene

Front 25

PBH-2.188.
Serum hepatitis corresponds to:
A) hepatitis A
B) hepatitis B
C) non-A non-B hepatitis
D) chronic aggressive hepatitis

Back 25

hepatitis B

Front 26

PBH-2.191.
Which of the following belongs to the PAN substances?
A) ozone
B) sulphur dioxide
C) aluminium hydroxide
D) carbon monoxide

Back 26

ozone

Front 27

PBH-2.194.
The increased degradation of structural proteins results from a
deficiency of
A) calcium
B) potassium
C) magnesium
D) sodium

Back 27

sodium

Front 28

PBH-2.214.
Ethionine is an:
A) antihistamine
B) antivitamin
C) amino acid antagonist

Back 28

amino acid antagonist

Front 29

PBH-2.229.
The diversity of the surface antigens of the HIV virus is caused by
frequent changes of the nucleotides in the:
A) env gene sequence
B) vif gene sequence
C) gag gene sequence
D) tat gene sequence

Back 29

env gene sequence

Front 30

PBH-2.231.
The infectivity of the HIV virus decreases when a mutation occurs in the:
A) tat gene sequence
B) rev gene sequence
C) vif gene sequence
D) env gene sequence

Back 30

vif gene sequence

Front 31

PBH-2.236.
A proper epidemiologic control measure for measles:
A) the occurrence of the infection should be reported to the local
infectious disease control centre
B) laboratory testing is not mandatory
C) continuous disinfection is unnecessary
D) isolation is unnecessary after clinical reovery

Back 31

laboratory testing is not mandatory

Front 32

PBH-2.237.
A proper epidemiologic control measure for rubella:
A) isolation of the patient from pregnant women is unnecessary
B) continuous disinfection is unnecessary
C) laboratory testing is mandatory
D) rubella infections and any cases of the congenital rubella syndrome
should be reported

Back 32

rubella infections and any cases of the congenital rubella syndrome
should be reported

Front 33

PBH-2.240.
The primary portal of entry for tricresyl-phosphate is the:
A) skin
B) mucous membranes
C) lung
D) secretory organs

Back 33

skin

Front 34

PBH-2.242.
The length of the incubation period of gonorrhoea is:
A) 2 days
B) 14 days
C) 3-7 days
D) several hours

Back 34

3-7 days

Front 35

PBH-2.247.
An oncogenic substance is:
A) selenium
B) vinyl chloride
C) polyvinyl pyrrolidine
D) polyethylene

Back 35

vinyl chloride

Front 36

PBH-2.269.
All of the following are principal causes of indoor nosocomial infections,
EXCEPT:
A) mycobacteria
B) Escherichia coli
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Aspergillus flavus

Back 36

Escherichia coli

Front 37

BH-2.272.
Which of the following statements regarding the hepatitis B virus is
valid?
A) the hepatitis B virus belongs to the family of DNA viruses
B) hepatitis B viruses can be detected as Dane-particles
C) the surface antigens of the virus are polypeptides
D) the surface antigens of the virus are glycoproteins

Back 37

the surface antigens of the virus are glycoproteins

Front 38

PBH-2.282.
Cellular oncogenes:
1) are homologous in all species
2) display partial homogenity with viral oncogenes
3) can be found in all human cells
4) have the same functions as homeobox genes

Back 38

E

Front 39

PBH-2.289.
Environmental noise is an etiologic factor in the development of
1) neurosis
2) hypertension
3) hearing loss
4) Raynaud's syndrome

Back 39

A

Front 40

PBH-2.292.
Alcohol:
1) binds to opiate receptors
2) is a vasodilator and reduces the morbidity due to myocardial
infarction
3) causes Alzheimer's disease
4) facilitates the scavenging of free radicals

Back 40

C

Front 41

PBH-2.294.
Which of the following are not carcinogenic substances?
1) chromium compounds
2) mercury compounds
3) nickel compounds
4) ortho-tricresyl-phosphate

Back 41

C

Front 42

PBH-2.295.
Protective immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for:
1) the personnel of infectious disease departments
2) the personnel of hemodialysis units
3) dentists
4) laboratory staff

Back 42

E

Front 43

PBH-2.304.
Potential sources of epidemiological data include:
1) demographic statistics
2) hospital morbidity and mortality statistics
3) the statistics of screening programs
4) social insurance statistics

Back 43

E

Front 44

PBH-2.305.
The term "iceberg phenomenon":
1) is used to describe latent morbidity phenomena
2) means diseases not presented to the health care delivery system
for treatment
3) means that medical care is delivered, although not for the actual
diagnosis
4) indicates diseases of unknown etiology

Back 44

A

Front 45

PBH-2.316.
Vaccines produced by recombinant technology contain:
1) the gene sequence encoding the antigens
2) only the antibodies with potent activity against the pathogen
microorganism
3) all the antigens
4) antigens that play a role in the devlopment of resistance to the
pathogen

Back 45

D

Front 46

PBH-2.320.
Diets deficient in protein may cause:
1) kwashiorkor
2) starvation edema
3) marasmus
4) pellagroid conditions

Back 46

E

Front 47

PBH-2.353.
Smokers are better protected against the development of Alzheimer's
disease than non-smokers because the influence of nicotine on
dopamine metabolism is highly preventive.

Back 47

C

Front 48

PBH-2.380.
Polycyclic hydrocarbon constituents of tobacco smoke are pluripotent carcinogens
because these substances form adducts in the blood.

Back 48

B

Front 49

PBH-2.385.
Air pollution has dramatic effects on human health because its influence
is more significant than that of soil contamination.

Back 49

B

Front 50

PBH-2.434.
The control of environmental conditions reduces the incidence of
malignant disease because environmental factors are responsible for
the development of malignant disease in at least 10% of cases.

Back 50

A

Front 51

PBH-2.439.
Stroke can be prevented by appropriately scheduled screening and intervention
because factors other than dietary ones are also involved in its etiology.

Back 51

A

Front 52

PBH-2.505.
Vitamin A has a protective effect against malignancy because crystalline
vitamin A has a toxic effect on tumor cells.

Back 52

C

Front 53

PBH-2.536.
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)!
A) Sensitivity
B) Specificity
C) Predictive value
D) Validity
E) Relative risk

1) indicates that the method or test in fact measures the targeted
parameter
2) has a negative value in healthy individuals
3) has a positive value in ill individuals
4) indicates the risk of developing the disease of a given case if the
individual exposes himself to the effects of certain risk factors
5) indicates the prevalence of patients among the cases indicated
positive by this method

Back 53

DBAEC

Front 54

PBH-2.539.
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)!
A) Life expectancy at birth
B) Probable life expectancy
C) Normal life expectancy
D) Average life expectancy
E) None of the above

1) the number of deaths per year
2) the average of the age of the members of a population alive at a
given time
3) the age characteristic of most of the individuals deceased during
the year
4) the possible length of life in years for a neonate, assuming that
mortality conditions will not change
5) the period during which the number of individuals born in the
same year is halved

Back 54

EDCAB

Front 55

PBH-2.541.
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)!
A) Mechanical biological concept
B) Functional physiological concept
C) Corticovisceral pathology
D) Psychosomatic concept

1) the environment in its completeness is manifested by the complexity
of social conditions
2) concentrates on the method of processing social effects
3) regards both health and disease as purely biological phenomena
4) its essential principle is the regulative coordination of functions;
disordered coordination results in the development of lesions

Back 55

CDAB

Front 56

PBH-2.544.
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)!
A) Health promotion
B) Disease prevention
C) None of the above

1) it regards health as the lack of disease
2) it is a medical model
3) it is a facilitatory and enabling approach
4) it is a complex consideration of health issues
5) a model of active participation
6) the application of experimental models in practice

Back 56

BBAAAC

Front 57

The most frequently used indicator for the quality of life is:
A) the life expectancy rate at birth
B) the life expectancy rate without chronic disease and disability
C) the life expectancy rate at 60 years of age
D) the raw mortality rate

Back 57

PBH-2.2.
B

Front 58

Reliable indicators of a quality-life include:
A) the amount of the gross domestic product
B) the unemployment rate
C) the raw mortality rate
D) crime statistics
E) leisure utilization statistics

Back 58

PBH-2.5.
C

Front 59

The term "descriptive epidemiology" means:
A) the obseivationanddescription of phenomena prwailing in the population
B) the research and testing of associations and correlations
C) the application of experimental instruments for the description
of phenomena
D) the establishment and testing of the zero-hypothesis

Back 59

PBH-2.8.
A

Front 60

The leading diseases causing disability are:
A) psychiatric conditions
B) malignancies
C) musculoskeletal diseases
D) cardiovascular diseases

Back 60

PBH-2.13.
D

Front 61

All of the following are characteristic features of drug dependence,
EXCEPT:
A) anxiety and nervous behavior
B) excessive smoking
C) weight gain
D) poor personal hygiene

Back 61

PBH-2.18.
C

Front 62

Which of the following is used as health indicators of a population?
A) demographic parameters
B) somatometric parameters
C) epidemiologic parameters
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Back 62

PBH-2.19.
D

Front 63

A pyramid shaped age distribution tree is characteristic of countries with:
A) an increasing population
B) a decreasing population
C) a stagnant population

Back 63

PBH-2.21.
A

Front 64

Where is the World Health Organization's principle headquarters?
A) London
B) Geneva
C) New York
D) Vienna

Back 64

PBH-2.22.
B

Front 65

The initiative "Health for all" means:
A) the achievement of a health level that ensures complete physical,
mental, and social well being
B) the achievement of a health level that is based on the rights
and responsibilities of the individual as well as the society
C) the achievement of a health level that ensures complete physical,
mental, and economic well being
D) the provision of a health level that ensures a socially and financially
productive life for every individual

Back 65

PBH-2.24.
D

Front 66

Epidemiology can be regarded as the study of
A) the etiology of human diseases
B) the incidence and causes of human death
C) the distribution of human diseases and the incidence of their
determining factors
D) the functional parameters of the health care delivery system

Back 66

PBH-2.29.
C

Front 67

Which of the following statements regarding the infant mortality rate
is correct?
A) the numerator contains the number of neonates who died during
the first month of life
B) this is the ratio of neonatal deaths during the first week of life
per thousand live births
C) this is the ratio of infant deaths during the first year of life per
thousand live births

Back 67

PBH-2.30.
C

Front 68

All of the following are valid statements regarding the significance of
hypertension, EXCEPT:
A) it is the most prevalent disease in the main group of cardiovascular
disorders
B) absenteeism from work associated with cardiovascular disorders
is mainly due to hypertension
C) it is a prevalent cause of death in the mortality statistics
D) hypertension is extremely demanding on nursing and health
care facilities

Back 68

PBH-2.45.
C

Front 69

All of the following are risk factors for hypertension, EXCEPT:
A) a high bodyweight
B) a hereditary disposition
C) an excessive intake of sodium
D) the regular use of alcohol
E) smoking

Back 69

PBH-2.48.
E

Front 70

All of the following factors influence the impact of diabetes mellitus
on public health, EXCEPT:
A) insulin dependent (type I) diabetes mellitus decreases the average
life expectancy by 15%
B) the prevalence of disability is 2-3 times higher than in the normal population
C) the prevalence of blindness is 10 times higher than in the total
population
D) the prevalence of limb amputations is 20-30 times higher than
in the normal population

Back 70

PBH-2.51
A

Front 71

All of the following are valid statements regarding diabetes mellitus,
EXCEPT:
A) the prevalence of diabetes depends on the diagnostic criteria
which are applied
B) the prevalence of diabetes increases with advancing age
C) the prevalence of diabetes is higher in males
D) adult onset diabetes is called type II, non-insulin dependent diabetes

Back 71

PBH-2.52.
C

Front 72

The term "incidence" is defined as:
A) the number of new cases occurring over a specified time-period
B) the total number of cases over a specified time-period
C) the contingence of the occurrence of diseases
D) the number of chronic cases over a specified time-period

Back 72

PBH-2.59.
A

Front 73

Primary hepatocellular carcinoma may develop in:
A) hepatitis E
B) hepatitis D
C) hepatitis C
D) hepatitis B

Back 73

PBH-2.65.
D

Front 74

In Hungary, the mortality rate resulting from malignant disease is
highest in tumors of the:
A) stomach
B) large intestine
C) rectum
D) lung

Back 74

PBH-2.68.
D

Front 75

Valid statements regarding cohort studies include:
A) these are usually longitudinal studies
B) these are descriptive studies
C) these are analytic studies

Back 75

PBH-2.72.
A

Front 76

Which of the following nosocomial infections is the most common in
Hungary?
A) pneumonia
B) surgical wound infections
C) septic conditions
D) urinary tract infections

Back 76

PBH-2.77.
D

Front 77

Which of the following hospital departments is afflicted by the highest
relative incidence of nosocomial infections?
A) hospital nurseries
B) intensive care units
C) departments of surgery
D) departments of urology

Back 77

PBH-2.79.
B

Front 78

What is the mortality rate of rabies?
A) 20-40%
B) 50-60%
C) 70-80%
D) 100%

Back 78

PBH-2.82.
D

Front 79

Case Study:
Several patients present at your office simultaneously, with symptoms
occurring 2-3 hours after a meal. Their complaints include malaise,
nausea and vomiting although they have no fever. Which of the
following food-poisonings is the likely cause of this condition?
A) botulism
B) salmonellosis
C) staphylococcal food poisoning (caused by S. aureus)
D) Clostridium perfringens food poisoning

Back 79

PBH-2.91.
C

Front 80

In which of the following types of food poisonings should a blood
sample be sent to the laboratory for examination?
A) staphylococcal food poisoning
B) botulism
C) campylobacteriosis
D) salmonellosis

Back 80

PBH-2.96.
B

Front 81

Initial hearing-loss resulting from exposure to noise is detectable at
a freqency of:
A) 1000 Hz
B) 2000 Hz
C) 3000 Hz
D) 4000 Hz

Back 81

PBH-2.100.
D

Front 82

Contraindications to post-exposure active immunization for rabies
include(s):
A) pregnancy
B) rheumatoid arthritis
C) active tuberculosis
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Back 82

PBH-2.102.
E

Front 83

The recent fecal contamination of drinking water is suggested by a
high concentration of.
A) chloride
B) nitrate
C) sulphate
D) ammonia
E) nitrite

Back 83

PBH-2.103.
D

Front 84

The hepatitis A virus can be isolated from the stool of an infected
individual:
A) immediately after the onset of jaundice
B) a week before the onset of jaundice
C) only during the period of jaundice
D) 2-3 weeks before the onset of jaundice

Back 84

PBH-2.108.
D

Front 85

A child with polio should be isolated:
A) at home
B) in the hospital (in the department of infectious diseases)
C) no isolation is necessary

Back 85

PBH-2.109.
B

Front 86

Which of the following diagnostic methods is used for establishing
the diagnosis of a brucellosis infection?
A) the detection of the virus
B) Wright's reaction
C) Ascoli's thermoprecipitation
D) Geck's India ink stain

Back 86

PBH-2.113.
B

Front 87

The pathogen of Q fever is:
A) Coxiella burneth
B) Chlamydia sp.
C) Miyagawanella sp.
D) viruses

Back 87

PBH-2.118
A

Front 88

A high concentration of detergents is characteristic of:
A) industrial sewage
B) agricultural sewage
C) domestic sewage
D) sewage of health-care institutions

Back 88

PBH-2.120.
C

Front 89

Leukemia may develop insidiously with prolonged exposure to:
A) methylbromide
B) benzene
C) trichlorethylene
D) carbon tetrachloride

Back 89

PBH-2.121.
B

Front 90

Organic phosphate esters:
A) inhibit the activity of phosphophosphorylase
B) inhibit the activity of acetylcholinesterase
C) inhibit the activity of malate dehydrogenase
D) stimulate the activity of pseudocholinesterase

Back 90

PBH-2.123.
B

Front 91

The reservoir of yellow fever is/are:
A) infected monkeys and humans
B) mosquitoes
C) tsetse fly
D) rat

Back 91

PBH-2.137.
A

Front 92

Measures important for the prevention of toxoplasmosis include:
A) the hygenic control of domestic dogs
B) avoiding the ingestion of undercooked meat
C) avoiding the ingestion of game meat
D) supplementing the diet of pregnant women with meat

Back 92

PBH-2.139.
B

Front 93

In infectious mononucleosis, preventive measures include that:
A) the patient should be isolated
B) laboratory testing is mandatory
C) reporting is not required
D) continuous disinfection is necessary

Back 93

PBH-2.149.
D

Front 94

A characteristic feature of typhoid fever is:
A) an isolated elevation of the H antigen titers
B) an elevation of the O antigen titers and a reduction of the H
antigen titers
C) a reduction of the O antigen titers
D) the simultaneous elevation of both O and H antigen titers

Back 94

PBH-2.158.
D

Front 95

The positivity of the Gruber-Widal reaction for typhoid fever:
A) is of diagnostic value when the antigen titers are 1:200 or greater
B) is of diagnostic value when the antigen titers are 1:50 or greater
C) is reliable in the range of 1:100 to 1:3200
D) is the sole important feature as the antibody titers are irrelevant

Back 95

PBH-2.163.
B

Front 96

Vaccines to be administered according to a continuous immunization
schedule include:
A) age-specific, mandatory immunizations
B) seasonal immunizations
C) immunizations required to travel abroad
D) campaign immunizations

Back 96

PBH-2.178.
A

Front 97

Components of the chemotherapeutic index include:
A) the toxic dose
B) the DL50 value
C) both the tolerated and the toxic dose
D) both the tolerated and the curative dose

Back 97

PBH-2.179
D

Front 98

The portal of entry for the tetanus pathogen is:
A) the oral mucosa
B) the conjunctiva
C) the excoriated skin
D) the gastrointestinal tract

Back 98

PBH-2.182.
C

Front 99

Moeller-Barlow disease is caused by a deficiency of.
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin D
C) vitamin K
D) vitamin C

Back 99

PBH-2.193.
D

Front 100

Cheilosis develops as a result of:
A) a vitamin D deficiency
B) a vitamin A deficiency
C) a vitamin C deficiency
D) a riboflavin deficiency

Back 100

PBH-2.205.
D

Front 101

Vitamin A deficiency results in:
A) keratomalacia
B) polyneuritis
C) anemia
D) ossification disorders

Back 101

PBH-2.211.
A

Front 102

Rachitis tarda is characteristic in:
A) the adult age
B) the neonatal age
C) puberty
D) advanced age

Back 102

PBH-2.212.
C

Front 103

The additive effects of two different poisons having entered the organism
is referred to as:
A) interaction
B) antagonism
C) summation
D) synergism

Back 103

PBH-2.218.
C

Front 104

Considering the low success rate of therapy in affected cancer patients
already detected by screening, primary prevention is particularly
important in:
A) skin cancer
B) breast cancer
C) bronchial cancer
D) rectal cancer
E) cervical cancer

Back 104

PBH-2.221.
C

Front 105

Viral surface antigens are:
A) proteins
B) polysaccharides
C) lipopolysaccharides
D) glycoproteins

Back 105

PBH-2.230.
D

Front 106

Human pathogens of tuberculosis include:
A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis hominis (in 99% of cases)
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis bovis (in 3% of cases)
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis hominis (in 97% of cases)
D) Mycobacterium brevis (in 3% of cases)

Back 106

PBH-2.233.
A

Front 107

Which of the following plays the most important role in warm weather?
A) the sympathetic vegetative system
B) the parasympathetic vegetative system
C) the appendages of the skin
D) the respiratory system

Back 107

PBH-2.238.
A

Front 108

Provided that patient compliance is high, which of the following conditions
can be treated?
A) lung cancer
B) bronchial cancer
C) cancer of the colon
D) breast cancer
E) cervical cancer

Back 108

PBH-2.252.
E

Front 109

What is electric ophthalmia?
A) the effect of strong electric shock on the unprotected eye
B) the effect of laser irradiation on the unprotected eye
C) the effect of exposure to UV-light on the unprotected eye
D) the effect of radiowaves on the unprotected eye

Back 109

PBH-2.263.
C

Front 110

In patients with an ovalbumin allergy in their medical history, the
application of viral vaccines is:
1) absolutely contraindicated
2) not contraindicated in patients over the age of 6 years
3) appropriate if antihistamines are administered simultaneously
4) possible, depending on the results of the skin test

Back 110

PBH-2.315.
D

Front 111

The effects of chemical (environmental) carcinogens are usually
manifested during the process of multiphasic carcinogenesis because
they only cause malignancy after a decade-long exposure.

Back 111

PBH-2.402.
B

Front 112

The HIV virus is destroyed outside the body because it is extremely
sensitive to the changes of temperature and pH.

Back 112

PBH-2.456.
A

Front 113

The consumption of fish is deleterious to health because water pollutants
may accumulate in the fish liver.

Back 113

PBH-2.501.
D

Front 114

Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)!
A) Lethality
B) Mortality
C) Age-specific mortality
D) Infant death-rate
E) None of the above

1) the ratio of infant mortality during the first year of life per
1000 live births
2) the most common populational measure of mortality
3) indicates the life-threatening nature of the disease
4) measures the mortality of certain age groups
5) indicates the mortality of populations with different agedistribution

Back 114

PBH-2.538.
DBACE

Front 115

Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)!
A) Hard risk factor
B) Soft risk factor
1) blood pressure
2) cholesterol level
3) lifestyle
4) family conditions
5) diabetes mellitus

Back 115

PBH-2.548.
AABBA

Front 116

Workers are required to wear individual ear protectors at noise levels
exceeding:
A) 60 dB
B) 75 dB
C) 85 dB
D) 95 dB

Back 116

PBH-2.99.
C

Front 117

The time to seek needed medical help is determined by:
A) the personality of the given individual
B) the intensity of the signs and symptoms
C) the pain-sensitivity of the individual
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Back 117

PBH-2.17.
D

Front 118

Alcohol and drug abuse:
A) are equally prevalent in both sexes
B) are more prevalent among males
C) are more prevalent among females
D) have an age-dependent prevalence

Back 118

PBH-2.16.
B

Front 119

All of the following are integral elements of communal health movements,
EXCEPT:
A) self-help groups
B) minority health-groups
C) health societies
D) the public health and medical officer service

Back 119

PBH-2.6.
D

Front 120

Estimates of the growth rate of the world population are made on the
presumption that the size of the population doubles every:
A) 15 years
B) 35 years
C) 70 years
D) 105 years
E) 140 years

Back 120

PBH-2.73
B

Front 121

Which of the following factors has the greatest significance in the
transmission of nosocomial infections?
A) nursing equipment
B) medical instruments and devices
C) contaminated hands of the staff
D) ambient air

Back 121

PBH-2.76.
C

Front 122

All of the following statements are valid regarding dysenteriform
enterocolitis (colonic dyspepsia), EXCEPT:
A) laboratory testing is mandatory
B) reporting is mandatory
C) laboratory testing is recommended, however not mandatory
D) continuous and conclusive disinfection is necessary

Back 122

PBH-2.154
C

Front 123

All of the following belong to the new methods of population science
used for setting priorities and making decisions, EXCEPT:
A) the magnitude of the potential loss of live years
B) the standardized age and gender specific mortality
C) the life expectancy without disability
D) the number of live years afflicted by disability and chronic disease

Back 123

PBH-2.36.
B

Front 124

All of the following are important factors for studies on lifestyle,
EXCEPT.
A) smoking
B) alcohol consumption
C) eating habits
D) drug abuse
E) the social support system
F) physical activity
G) health beliefs

Back 124

PBH-2.23.
E

Front 125

Which of the following malignancies is characterized by both a decreasing
incidence rate and a decreasing mortality rate?
A) neoplasms of the stomach
B) neoplasms of the cervix
C) both of the above
D) none of the above

Back 125

PBH-2.71.
A

Front 126

Which of the following conditions is described by the idiom "mad as a
hatter"?
A) lead poisoning
B) cadmium poisoning
C) mercury poisoning
D) beryllium poisoning

Back 126

PBH-2.192.
C

Front 127

How does the the incidence of cervical cancer rank among all female
malignancies?
A) first place
B) second place
C) third place
D) fourth place
E) fifth place

Back 127

PBH-2.75.
C

Front 128

The term "emission" means:
A) the concentration of pollutants in the air just above the ground
B) the emanation of air pollutants per unit of time
C) the dilution of pollutants present in the air
D) the annual average pollutant-concentration per individual

Back 128

PBH-2.87
A

Front 129

Which of the following is a WHO program for the monitoring of cardiovascular
diseases?
A) TETRA-CP
B) MONICA
C) CINDI
D) Health City

Back 129

PBH-2.12.
B

Front 130

Which of the following is the principal cause of a demographic boom?
A) an increase of the raw birth rate
B) a reduction of the raw birth rate
C) an increase of the raw mortality rate
D) a reduction of the raw mortality rate

Back 130

PBH-2.58.
D

Front 131

The mortality rate of typhoid fever is:
A) 10% if treated
B) 50% if left untreated
C) 1% if treated
D) 10% if left untreated

Back 131

PBH-2.159.
C

Front 132

The coincidence of three risk factors increases the likelihood of developing
ischemic heart disease (IHD):
A) eightfold
B) fourfold
C) thirteenfold
D) sevenfold

Back 132

PBH-2.14.
C

Front 133

All of the following are important elements of the social case-review,
EXCEPT:
A) the etiological social factors resulting in the development of the disease
B) the social effects of a disease
C) the clinical therapy
D) the social therapy

Back 133

PBH-2.7.
C

Front 134

The most frequent health risk factors include:
A) smoking
B) alcohol abuse
C) malnutrition or obesity
D) drug abuse

Back 134

PBH-2.56
C

Front 135

To which of the following organizations should new malignant cases
be reported for an initial diagnostic work-up?
A) to a regional oncology care center
B) to the National Ministry of Health
C) to a national and regional oncolgy center
D) to the Census Bureau
E) to all of the above

Back 135

PBH-2.74.
C

Front 136

Which of the following diets would you recommend to an asymptomatic
male with moderate hypercholesterolemia?
A) stuffed eggs, and mixed salads
B) fried fish, steamed rice, and tomato salads
C) noodles with cottage cheese, cutlets, and apples
D) pork fried in breadcrumbs and mashed potatoes
E) gyros, arnaki, and kokoretsi

Back 136

PBH-2.83.
B

Front 137

What is the optimal percentage of protein-calories in the total energy
content of a balanced diet?
A) 6-10%
B) 10-12%
C) 12-18%
D) 25-30%

Back 137

PBH-2.93.
C

Front 138

Vitamin K is involved in the synthesis of.
A) l coagulation factor
B) 2 coagulation factors
C) 3 coagulation factors
D) 4 coagulation factors

Back 138

PBH-2.203.
D

Front 139

Terms belonging to the terminology of population dynamics include:
1) the marriage and divorce rate
2) drug abuse
3) the death rate
4) alcohol abuse

Back 139

PBH-2.312.
B

Front 140

Marasmus predominantly afflicts:
A) infants
B) adults
C) children
D) neonates

Back 140

PBH-2.209.
D

Front 141

Drawbacks of retrospective studies include:
1) their long duration
2) their unreliability
3) their high costs
4) the loss of data

Back 141

PBH-2.313.
C

Front 142

Which of the following specimens should be sent for a toxicology
study following mushroom poisoning?
1) the vomitus of the patient
2) the remnants of a dish prepared from the suspected poisonous
mushroom
3) the gastric lavage fluid
4) a stool specimen

Back 142

PBH-2.322.
E

Front 143

PSY-3.6
A doctor, who smokes, asserts that smoking is beneficial because it
inhibits the development of obesity is using which of the following
"defense" mechanisms?

A) dissociation
B) intellectualization
C) rationalization
D) reaction formation
E) projection

Back 143

rationalization

Front 144

PSY- 3.21.
Important mechanisms in the development of the "ego" include:
A) condensation
B) rationalization
C) defense
D) identification

Back 144

identification

Front 145

PSY-3.23.
The proportion of suicides which have already been preceded by
earlier suicie attempts is:
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 50%
D) 60%
E) 100%

Back 145

60%

Front 146

PSY-3.25.
Contraindications to lithium administration include:
A) an administration in combination with chlorpromazine
(Thorazine)
B) the presence of a renal disease
C) any occurrence of the symptoms of schizophrenia
D) the presence of depression
E) an administration in combination with imipramine (Tofranil)

Back 146

the presence of a renal disease

Front 147

PSY-3.26
"Suggestion" as a form of a psychotherapy is used in:
A) conversion disorder
B) child psychiatry
C) patients with a low IQ
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Back 147

all of the above

Front 148

PSY-3.29
A loss of remote memory is a typical symptom of delirium tremens
A) delirium tremens
B) senile dementia
C) schizophrenia
D) Korsakoffs syndrome
E) hysteria

Back 148

Korsakoffs syndrome

Front 149

PSY-3.32.
A typical exhibitionist:
A) projects repressed homosexual impulses
B) is impotent
C) experiences loneliness and shame
D) is older than 50
E) is schizophrenic

Back 149

experiences loneliness and shame

Front 150

PSY-3.34.
Which of the following symptoms is least characteristic for schizophrenia?
A) autistic thinking
B) bizarre delusions
C) hypnagogic hallucinations
D) neologisms
E) thought blocking

Back 150

hypnagogic hallucinations

Front 151

PSY-3.35.
Physical processes involved in the development of the "superego"
include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) identification
B) internalization
C) introjection
D) isolation
E) idealization

Back 151

isolation

Front 152

PSY-3.36.
A "projection" mechanism is most characteristic for which of the
following personality disorders?
A) an anancastic personality
B) a schizoid personality
C) a hypomanic personality
D) a paranoid personality
E) an antisocial personality

Back 152

a paranoid personality

Front 153

PSY-3.38.
Anxiety is a common symptom of all the following conditions, EXCEPT.
A) hypoglycemia
B) hypothyroidism
C) pheochromocytoma
D) porphyria
E) hypocalcemia

Back 153

hypothyroidism

Front 154

PSY-3.42.
Case Study:
A 56-year-old male presents with symptoms of irritability and disinterest
in his daily activities. At times, he is confused and forgetful.
His gait is unsteady. The deep tendon reflexes are diminished.
He frequently experiences tingling in his legs. The most likely diagnosis
is:
A) hypothyroidism
B) a cerebellar tumor
C) multiple sclerosis
D) a vitamin B12
deficiency
E) presenile dementia

Back 154

a vitamin B12
deficiency

Front 155

PSY-3.43.
Bleuler's symptoms of schizophrenia (the four A's) include all of the
following EXCEPT:
A) ambivalence
B) affective flattening
C) apathy
D) autism
E) loose associations

Back 155

apathy

Front 156

PSY-3.44.
Case Study:
A 25-year-old patient complains of hearing voices speaking about
him and threatening him. The patient regards them as real and
suffers from them. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) schizophrenia
B) alcoholic hallucinations
C) dementia
D) hysteria
E) debility

Back 156

alcoholic hallucinations

Front 157

PSY-3.68.
Case Study:
A young man develops an irrepressible urge to wash his hair several times
a day which he explains as a means of protection against infection from
others. He assures everyone that he feels well but he becomes extremely
anxious if he cannot wash his hair. The most probable diagnosis is:
A) automatism
B) compulsive personality disorder
C) hypochondriasis
D) compulsive thoughts
E) phobia

Back 157

compulsive personality disorder

Front 158

PSY-3.76.
Case Study:
A 40-year-old woman developed delusions during the past year that
her husband was having an affair with her sister. She denies any hallucinations.
Her emotions and her behavior correspond to the contents
of the delusion. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) acute paranoid disorder
B) polie a deux (induced mental disorder)
C) paranoia
D) paranoid schizophrenia
E) schizophreniform disorder with a paranoid character

Back 158

paranoia

Front 159

PSY-3.80.
Which of the following types of delusions is least likely to be present
in an affective disorder?
A) delusions of grandeur
B) nihilistic delusions
C) delusions of poverty
D) hypochondric delusions
E) thought withdrawal

Back 159

thought withdrawal

Front 160

PSY-3.83.
Catatonic motor disorder is best defined as:
A) a marked hyperactivity which is commonly violent and aimless
B) a generalized muscle rigidity
C) waxy flexibility
D) stupor or mutism, without an organic cause
E) a severe psychomotor disturbance which cannot be attributed
to an organic cause

Back 160

a severe psychomotor disturbance which cannot be attributed
to an organic cause

Front 161

PSY-3.84.
Drugs contraindicated in acute alcohol intoxication include all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A) diazepam (Seduxen)
B) phenobarbital (Sevenal)
C) disulfiram (Anticol, Antaethyl)
D) glutethimide (Noxyron)
E) haloperidol

Back 161

haloperidol

Front 162

PSY-3.88.
Diseases that lead to mental retardation and require genetic counselling
include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) Tay-Sachs disease
B) galactosemia
C) phenylketonuria
D) Down's syndrome
E) cerebral paralysis (Little's disease)

Back 162

cerebral paralysis (Little's disease)

Front 163

PSY-3.90.
Symptoms of a perception disorder include:
1) hallucination
2) depersonalization
3) illusion
4) perseveration

Back 163

A

Front 164

PSY-3.92.
Sleep patterns characteristic for major (endogenous) depression include:
1) frequent nightmares followed by awakening
2) waking up too early
3) a marked prolongation of the 3rd and 4th phases (delta phase) of
sleep
4) a markedly decreased ratio of the REM phases

Back 164

C

Front 165

PSY-3.94.
Functions of the ego include:
1) the regulation of intrapsychic conflicts
2) the regulation of instincts
3) reality testing
4) developing relationships with objects

Back 165

E

Front 166

PSY-3.97.
Case Study:
A 35-year-old man complains of hearing voices at night, telling him
that he is a bad and guilty person. Having no other available information,
which of the following conditions would you consider ?
1) schizophreniform disorder
2) personality disorder
3) hypnagogic hallucinations
4) organic hallucinations

Back 166

E

Front 167

PSY-3.99.
Characteristics of a conversion (histrionic) disorder include:
1) mimicking an organic disease
2) expression of a psychiological conflict
3) seeking other people's attention in order to gain their support
4) the patient's ability to control his/her symptoms voluntarily

Back 167

A

Front 168

PSY-3.105
Psychotropic drugs that can cause addiction include:
1) benzodiazepines
2) amphetamines
3) meprobamate
4) butyrophenones

Back 168

A

Front 169

PSY-3.107.
Case Study:
A 36-year-old man is brought to the emergency room by the police. He
has been caught speeding on the highway at night without his headlights
on. On examination he is agitated and belligerent. He warned
the physician and the policemen that he has "friends" in high places
whom he is currently in contact with and that the policemen who have
incarcerated him will be punished. Diagnostic possibilities can include:
1) hyperthyroidism
2) arsenic intoxication
3) amphetamine overdose
4) Addison's disease

Back 169

B

Front 170

PSY-3.114.
Visual hallucinations are characteristic for which of the following
conditions?
1) acute alcohol abuse
2) (Korsakof's syndrome
3) alcohol hallucinations
4) delirium tremens

Back 170

D

Front 171

PSY-3.126.
How does malingering differ from somatization disorders?
1) it occurs more rarely
2) this disease is more susceptible to therapy
3) malingering is not a psychiatric disorder
4) it may involve the abnormality of several organs

Back 171

A

Front 172

PSY-3.137
Case Study:
A 53-year-old woman underwent an operation for a fracture of the
neck of the femur. On the second postoperative day she became agitated
and incooperative. On the third day she was noted to have hallucinations
and addressed the nurses by the names of her own children.
Possible causes of her symptoms include:
1) alcohol withdrawal
2) intravenously administered penicillin
3) sepsis
4) general anesthesia

Back 172

A

Front 173

PSY-3.146.
Which of the sexual disorders listed below are characterized by the
statement that psychologically immature young males are usually aggressive
to their "victims" in order to obtain sexual gratification?
1) transsexualism
2) homosexuality
3) erection disorder
4) exhibitionism

Back 173

D

Front 174

PSY-3.148.
Case Study:
A 22-year-old patient, during an interview, recalled that she had seen
two doves sitting on the window sill, which she recognized as a future
sign of an important event that would take place in her life in two
weeks time. This symptom should be regarded as a(n):
A) illusion
B) hallucination
C) delusion
D) neologism
E) incoherence

Back 174

delusion

Front 175

PSY-3.149
The most important process in the development of the ego is:
A) identification
B) projection
C) reaction formation
D) regression
E) repression

Back 175

identification

Front 176

PSY-3.150.
Emotional reactions towards the physician, which reflect recent
experiences and relationships outside of the therapeutic setting, may be
defined as:
A) acting out
B) fixation
C) free associations
D) impulse transmission
E) anxiety

Back 176

impulse transmission

Front 177

PSY-3.153.
A characteristic defense mechanism involved in paranoid symptom
formation is:
A) reality denial
B) conversion
C) projection
D) isolation
E) acting out

Back 177

projection

Front 178

PSY-3.158
characteristics of conversion disorders include all of the following,
EXCEPT:
A) their incidence in children is equal in both sexes
B) the symptoms are involuntary
C) their incidence is decreasing
D) the symptoms correspond to the pathophysiology of the disorders
E) they are more frequenly diagnosed in women by midadolescence

Back 178

the symptoms correspond to the pathophysiology of the disorders

Front 179

PSY-3.165
The most frequent type of schizophrenia among hospital admissions is:
A) the autistic type
B) the catatonic type
C) the hebephrenic type
D) the paranoid type
E) the undifferentiated type

Back 179

the paranoid type

Front 180

PSY-3.169.
Which of the following focal organic mental disorders is characterized
by a loss of initiative?
A) temporal lobe syndrome
B) injury of the frontal convexity
C) injury of the frontal base
D) Korsakoffs syndrome
E) diencephalic syndrome

Back 180

injury of the frontal convexity

Front 181

PSY-3.171.
The risk for developing schizophrenia in a sister of a schizophrenic
male child is:
A) 70%
B) 40%
C) 25%
D) 12%
E) 1%

Back 181

12%

Front 182

PSY-3.174
Which of the following symptoms is indicative of barbiturate intoxication,
rather than drug withdrawal?
A) confusion
B) nystagmus
C) postural hypotension
D) disorientation
E) agitation

Back 182

nystagmus

Front 183

PSY-3.193.
Case Study:
A middle-aged man becomes ill with Parkinson's disease. The prescribed
medication fails to improve his motor abnormalities. His mood is depressed.
He says he has lost his relish for life and the only thing he
does is sleep. The first steps of managing this patient include:
A) to admit him to a psychiatric ward with respect to a possibility
of suicide
B) reassuring the patient that the prescribed medications are
effective in Parkinson's disease
C) a discussion with the patient about his troubles and inquiry
about any suicidal ideations
D) referring the patient to a neurologist or a psychiatrist saying,
"let them hear his story"
E) scheduling frequent therapeutic settings and calling the attention
of the family members to the possibility of suicide

Back 183

a discussion with the patient about his troubles and inquiry
about any suicidal ideations

Front 184

PSY-3.205.
Common features of delirium and dementia include all of the following,
EXCEPT:
A) impaired remote memory
B) distorted thought process
C) cognitive impairment
D) EEG abnormalities
E) organic pathology

Back 184

cognitive impairment

Front 185

PSY-3.208.
Dementia is characterized by all of the following statements, EXCEPT:
A) demented patients are often depressed
B) the ability to generalize from past experiences and to recognize
the relationship between similar situations is impaired
C) an early feature is an inability to recall events from the distant
past
D) demented patients may experience hallucinations
E) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a dementia caused by a slow virus
infection

Back 185

an early feature is an inability to recall events from the distant
past

Front 186

PSY-3.213
Risk factors for a patient's violent behavior in a physician's office
include:
1) a history of manic disease ,
2) a history of suicide attempts
3) alcohol abuse
4) head trauma

Back 186

E

Front 187

PSY-3.218
Which of the following statements concerning social deprivation are
correct?
1) it may be associated with severe mental retardation
2) it may be associated with a severe personality disorder
3) it may be experimentally modelled in animals
4) it frequently occurs in poorly organized hospital wards

Back 187

E

Front 188

PSY-3.219.
A patient with a paranoid personality usually:
1). becomes psychotic at times
2) restricts his emotions
3) avoids interpersonal conflicts
4) shows excessive sensitivity to the behavior of others

Back 188

C

Front 189

PSY-3.220
A Characteristics of neurotic depression include:
1) recurrent short hypomanic episodes
2) a sustained, low-level intensity of mood
3) unresponsiveness to therapy
4) a lack of psychotic symptoms

Back 189

C

Front 190

PSY-3.225.
A manic state is characterized by which of the following symptoms?
1) diffuseness and self-assurance
2) holothymic hallucinations and delusions of grandeur
3) increased activity and a decreased need for sleep
4) specific precipitating causes preceding the onset of symptoms

Back 190

A

Front 191

PSY-3.227.
Delirium tremens, in its initial phase, may be effectively prevented by:
1) meprobamate
2) benzodiazepines
3) chlomethiazole (Heminevrin)
4) barbiturates

Back 191

A

Front 192

PSY-3.231
The side-effects of tricyclic antidepressants include:
1) hypertension
2) dry mouth
3) diarrhea
4) blurred vision

Back 192

C

Front 193

PSY-3.234.
Correct statements about illusions include:
1) they are elicited by an environmental stimulus and negatively
affect sensory discrimination
2) they are a misperception of an existing environmental stimulus
3) they are more frequently observed in organic mental disorders
than in functional psychiatric illnesses
4) they are not always associated with psychoses

Back 193

E

Front 194

PSY-3.238.
Characteristics of personality disorders include:
1) a gradual flattening of the thought process
2) a normal sense of reality
3) delusions, observed over a long period
4) the possible occurrence of psychotic episodes

Back 194

C

Front 195

PSY-3.242.
Primary (psychologic and sociopsychologic) disease advantages
include which of the following?
1) the disease elicits attention and care in the environment
2) affective conflicts are repressed from consciousness
3) the disease satisfies an unconscious need for dependency
4) the patient is given all the excuses a society can offer

Back 195

A

Front 196

PSY-3.243.
Which of the following defense mechanisms are common for antisocial,
borderline, and histrionic personality disorders?
1) dissociation
2) denial
3) splitting
4) acting out

Back 196

E

Front 197

PSY-3.248.
Conditions that may be associated with the catatonic syndrome
(rigidity, mutism, catalepsia, waxy flexibility) include:
1) an affective disorder
2) viral encephalitis
3) hypnosis
4) schizophrenia

Back 197

E

Front 198

PSY-3-.251
Which of the following medications are capable of eliciting mania?
1) amphetamines
2) tricyclic antidepressants
3) corticosteroids
4) reserpine

Back 198

A

Front 199

PSY-3.259.
Wernicke's encephalopathy is characterized by:
1) a sudden onset
2) nystagmus and ophthalmoplegia
3) a somnolent state
4) pathologic changes in the mamillary body

Back 199

E

Front 200

PSY-3.260
Characteristic symptoms of atypical (pathologic) binges include:
1) actions that are not characteristic for the individual in other
situations
2) visual hallucinations
3) amnesia
4) associated epileptiform seizures

Back 200

A

Front 201

PSY -3.261.
Which of the following statements concerning interrelationships
between anxiety and depression are correct?
1) many depressed patients are anxious
2) many patients with a panic disorder will develop depression
3) the same therapy may be useful in both depression and anxiety
4) hereditary transmission is recognized in both depression and
panic disorder

Back 201

E

Front 202

PSY-3.262. MC
Which of the following conditions are associated with mutism?
A) alcohol withdrawal
B) conversion neurosis
C) catatonic schizophrenia
D) depression
E) Ganser's syndrome

Back 202

BCD

Front 203

PSY-3.263. MC
Echolaha is characteristic for:
A) catatonic schizophrenia
B) anorexia nervosa
C) Alzheimer's disease
D) infantile autism
E) petit mal epilepsy

Back 203

ACD

Front 204

PSY-3.264. MC
Characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia include:
A) compulsive thoughts
B) progressive dementia
C) depersonalization
D) waking up early in the morning
E) thought withdrawal

Back 204

CE

Front 205

PSY-3.265. MC
Which of the following symptoms or findings suggest a poor prognosis
in acute schizophrenic psychosis?
A) an IQ above the average
B) flatness of affect
C) an abrupt onset
D) a normal premorbid personality
E) marked thought disorder

Back 205

BE

Front 206

PSY-3.267. MC
Which of the following statements is characteristic for tardive
dyskinesia?
A) recent phenothiazine therapy is usually found in the history
B) the intramuscular injection of benztropine rapidly relieves the
symptoms
C) grimacing is typical
D) intentional tremor is diagnostic for the condition
E) the administration of phenothiazine may precipitate the attack

Back 206

CE

Front 207

PSY-3.268. MC
Grandious delusions may occur in which of the following conditions?
A) schizophrenia
B) frontal lobe tumor
C) manic syndrome
D) compulsive neurosis
E) amphetamine intoxication

Back 207

ABCE

Front 208

PSY-3.269. MC
Characteristic symptoms of acute manic psychosis include:
A) lack of insight
B) flight of ideas
C) confabulation
D) distractibility
E) depression in the family history

Back 208

BDE

Front 209

In order to be more effective with a particular course of therapy, it is
advisable not to have any preconceptions that can govern our therapeutic
attempts.

Back 209

PSY-3.2.
T

Front 210

It is advisable to avoid taking the parent's role when consulting
children who are neglecting their duties.

Back 210

PSY-3.3
T

Front 211

In a partially separated family with children who areneglecting their
duties, there is still a risk for strong loyalties among the divided
family members.

Back 211

PSY-3.4.
T

Front 212

It is advisable to stay neutral rather than to becomeauthorative over
the family during family psychotherapy.

Back 212

PSY-3.5.
T

Front 213

The most accepted hypothesis explaining the biological basis for
schizophrenia is:
A) the transmethylation hypothesis
B) the double bind hypothesis
C) the serotonin hypothesis
D) the dopamine hypothesis
E) the endogenous opiate hypothesis

Back 213

PSY-3.7
D

Front 214

A disorientation to time is characteristic of.
A) Korsakoff s syndrome
B) an acute schizophrenic episode
C) hypomania
D) depressive psychosis
E) agoraphobia

Back 214

PSY-3.8.
A

Front 215

In attempting to teach a child to accomplish a new task one must:
A) reinforce the child immediately following completion of the task
B) reinforce the child, with a slight delay, following completion of
the task
C) reinforce the child, after a marked delay, following completion
of the task

Back 215

PSY-3.10.
A

Front 216

When a 5-year-old child "throws a fit", he/she is usually punished but
at times the child gets what he/she wants. These fits are most likely to:
A) become less frequent
B) gradually cease
C) become continuous

Back 216

PSY-3.11.
C

Front 217

To properly develop a good behavior in a child, it is advisable to:
A) punish the child
B) reward the child
C) both of the above
D) none of the above

Back 217

PSY-3.13
B

Front 218

In attempting to reinforce the behavior of a child, it is advisable to:
A) punish the child
B) praise the child
C) both of the above
D) none of the above

Back 218

PSY-3.15.
B

Front 219

Punishment is effective if:
A) it does not generate aversion towards the punishing person
B) it does not result in an escape reaction
C) it decreases the necessity of further punishment
D) it does not reinforce an aggressive behavior
E) all of the above

Back 219

PSY-3.16.
E

Front 220

Punishment is effective if it is applied:
A) immediately
B) with a slight delay
C) with marked delay
D) none of the above

Back 220

PSY-3.17.
A

Front 221

In the following example, the best way to reinforce a child's behavior
is to tell him/her:

1) "Go to bed, I'll tell you a tale!"
2) "I'll beat you if you don't go straight to bedl"
3) "I'm happy that you've put your pyjamas on!"
4) "If you don't go to bed, you can't have breakfast in the morning!"

A) answers (1),( 2), and (3) are correct
B) answers (1) and (3) are correct
C) answers (2) and (4) are correct
D) all of the above

Back 221

PSY-3.18.
B

Front 222

Perception without corresponding environmental stimuli is:
A) a hallucination
B) an illusion
C) a delusion
D) derealization
E) depersonalization

Back 222

PSY-3.27.
A

Front 223

The occurrence of which of the following symptoms would allow
differentiation between delirium and dementia?
A) an impaired judgment
B) a memory deficit
C) an impaired consciousness
D) an impaired process of thinking
E) disorientation

Back 223

PSY-3.28.
C

Front 224

Early in the psychiatric interview, it is important for the physician to;
A) inform the patient of the fee
B) obtain details of any past psychiatric illnesses
C) let patients talk about what is bothering them
D) obtain information about the patient's mood
E) record the family history

Back 224

PSY-3.31
C

Front 225

A "borderline personality disorder" is characterized by all of the
following symptoms, EXCEPT:
A) impulsivity and an unpredictable behavior
B) identity disturbances
C) mood instability
D) withdrawal from social activity
E) recurrent suicidal gestures and short psychotic episodes

Back 225

PSY-3.40
D

Front 226

Case Study:
A 23-year-old woman complains of becoming occasionally anxious.
These occurences are associated with tachycardia and excessive sweating.
The condition usually develops in the morning. Which of the following
tests has to be performed urgently?

A) thyroid function tests
B) toxicological screening
C) determination of the serum sodium level
D) determination of the blood glucose level
E) determination of the serum ammonia level

Back 226

PSY-3.47
D

Front 227

Case Study:
A middle-aged waiter was admitted to the psychiatric ward in a drunken
state. While in the ward his behavior became bizarre and he gradually became
became disoriented to place and time. He sometimes acted as if he was
taking orders or serving dishes. On examination he usually
misinterpretated the antecendents and circumstances of his admission. He was unable to
recall his answers to simple questions after a few minutes. He denies any
hallucinations or delusions. The patient has had no prior psychiatric
disorders. His relatives haven't found anything extraordinary about his behavior.
The most likely diagnosis is:
A) alcohol withdrawal syndrome (delirium tremens)
B) acute paranoid schizophrenia
C) alcoholic hallucinations
D) alcohol amnestic syndrome (Korsakof's syndrome)
E) manic phase (of bipolar disorder)

Back 227

PSY-3.51.
D

Front 228

The psychotherapy of schizophrenic patients includes all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A) a warm, open relationship aiming to promote the patient's selfesteem
and educating the patient about his/her disease
B) a supportive psychotherapy that focuses on resolving the
problems of the patient in his/her everyday life
C) setting limits on the patient's behavior, including the consequences
of his/her violent actions
D) encouraging socialization in order to build more extensive
social relationships
E) encouraging the patient to express his/her anger and hostility as
much as possible in the therapeutic relationship in order to reduce
the intensity of these emotions outside the consulting office

Back 228

PSY-3.54.
E

Front 229

Case Study:
A 25-year-old female was brought to the hospital ward by ambulance.
Upon examination she was febrile, confused, and a bizarre posture
was observed. The results of blood and cerebrospinal fluid tests were
normal. The patient was diagnosed as schizophrenic and is currently
on chlorpromazine (Hibernal). Which is the most likely cause of her
current symptoms?
A) an acute dystonic reaction
B) akathisia
C) tardive dyskinesia
D) a malignant neuroleptic syndrome
E) an allergic reaction to chlorpromazine

Back 229

PSY-3.58.
D

Front 230

Statements which are characteristic for the various psychotherapeutic
methods include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) these methods aim to relieve anxiety and to improve social
integration
B) the theories concerning the application of the methods are
specific for each of the psychiatric disorders
C) these focus on childhood events and experiences
D) impulsivness and resistance develop between the physician
and the patient
E) these methods all have a therapeutic aim and elicit a learning
process in the patient

Back 230

PSY-3.59.
C

Front 231

Which of the following tests is important for the differential diagnosis
of organic and psychogenic impotence?
A) monitoring of the serum gonadotropine levels over 24 hours
B) nasopharyngeal EEG during sexual stimulation
C) night-time erections
D) projective tests
E) monitoring of any alterations in the testosterone levels

Back 231

PSY-3.60
C

Front 232

Negative symptoms of schizophrenia include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) flat affect
B) auditory hallucinations
C) lack of motivation and initiative
D) anhedonia
E) poverty of thought content

Back 232

PSY-3.61.
B

Front 233

Hallucinations are symptoms of:
A) mood disorders
B) mental disorders
C) thought disorders
D) abnormal perception
E). disorders of concentration

Back 233

PSY-3.63.
D

Front 234

Delusion is characterized by all of the following statements, EXCEPT:
A) delusion is a belief that does not correspond to the experiences
of the individual
B) delusions are common symptoms of schizophrenia
C) delusions are possible symptoms of affective disorders
D) delusions may be symptoms of an organic mental disorder
E) delusions may be eliminated by logical explanations

Back 234

PSY-3.64.
E

Front 235

Which of the following is the most common cause of the cessation of
sexual activity in married couples?
A) aging
B) marital discord
C) physical illness
D) cultural prohibition
E) depression

Back 235

PSY-3.65.
B

Front 236

Unconscious emotions generated by a physician during psychotherapy
are best described by the term:
A) projection
B) impulse transmission
C) acting out
D) identification
E) introjection

Back 236

PSY-3.69.
B

Front 237

Case Study:
A 15-year-old girl presents to the emergency room with severe
weight loss. On examination she is cachectic, bradycardic, and
hypotensive. The first course of action should be to:
A) determine the family dynamics
B) administer a high-protein and carbohydrate diet
C) draw blood for a serum electrolyte determination and then
start intravenous feeding
D) arrange to have the patient admitted to the psychiatric ward
E) prepare for electroconvulsive therapy

Back 237

PSY-3.72.
C

Front 238

Based on the results of psychiatric epidemiological studies, the most
common psychiatric disorder among the general population is:
A) depression
B) schizophrenia
C) alcoholism
D) phobias
E) dementia

Back 238

PSY-3.73.
C

Front 239

The ratio of psychiatric disturbances among patients who seek
evaluation for somatic diseases is:
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 33%
D) 50%
E) 90%

Back 239

PSY-3.74.
C

Front 240

Case Study:
A 20-year-old man is admitted to the hospital. He developed hallucinations
and delusions of persecution three weeks ago. He is currently agitated.
Possible diagnoses, based on the DSM-III-R, include all of the following,
EXCEPT:
A) brief reactive psychosis
B) organic mental disorder
C) borderline personality disorder
D) schizophrenia
E) schizophreniform disorder

Back 240

PSY-3.78.
D

Front 241

The most important reason for monitoring the serum lithium level is:
A) to check on the patient's compliance
B) because the toxic dose is very close to the therapeutic level
C) because lithium is rapidly excreted from the body
D) because lithium is a salt, rather than a drug
E) none of the above

Back 241

PSY-3.79.
B

Front 242

Common complications of alcoholism include:
A) cerebral damage
B) gastritis
C) suicide
D) polyneuropathy
E) all of the above

Back 242

PSY-3.85
E

Front 243

Organic mental syndromes include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) delirium
B) dementia
C) amnestic syndromes
D) paranoid disorders
E) organic hallucinosis

Back 243

PSY-3.87.
D

Front 244

A complete psychic evaluation should include inquiries about any:
1) suicidal gestures
2) homicidal ideas
3) delusional thinking
4) hallucinations

Back 244

PSY-3.95
E

Front 245

Which of the following statements concerning suicide are correct?
1) the ratio of suicides with a fatal outcome decreases with age
2) women die from suicide more often than men
3) a suicide can reliably be predicted by certain clinical features
4) a conversation with the patient about his/her ideas of suicide
may protect the patient from being a potential victim

Back 245

PSY-3.104
D

Front 246

Case Study:
A 62-year-old man seeks evaluation for weakness, a loss of initiative,
a loss of weight, and abdominal discomfort. He appears to be
depressed. Possible diagnoses can include:
1) dementia
2) pain killer abuse
3) pancreatic carcinoma
4) hyperthyroidism

Back 246

PSY-3.106
A

Front 247

Case Study:
A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency room by the police for
exposing himself in the nude to schoolchildren. There is no history of
similar events in the past. Possible causes of this behavior include:
1) a petit mal seizure
2) Alzheimer's disease
3) digitalis intoxication
4) an intracranial tumor

Back 247

PSY-3.109.
C

Front 248

Which of the following agents have an important role in the therapy
of alcohol withdrawal delirium?
1) meprobamate and benzodiazepines
2) vitamin B complex
3) chlormethiazole (Heminevrin)
4) potassium and magnesium ions

Back 248

PSY-3.111.
E

Front 249

If someone is said to be disoriented, they are most likely not to
know:
1) the date
2) where they are
3) the time .
4) some famous people

Back 249

PSY-3.117.
A

Front 250

Which of the following statements concerning the risk of fatal suicide
are correct?
1) women are at a higher risk than men
2) the risk for the patients above the age of 65 is higher than for
those between 25-35-years-old
3) the incidence of suicide is higher during times of war
4) alcohol addicts are at a higher risk for suicide

Back 250

PSY-3.120.
C

Front 251

Possible causes of organic anxiety disorders include:
1) the withdrawal of sedatives or sleeping pills
2) pheochromocytoma
3) an excessive use of caffeine
4) hypoparathyroidism

Back 251

PSY-3.121
A

Front 252

Some undesirable complications of a somatization disorder (chronic
neurosis) include:
1) the excessive use of drugs
2) secondary iatrogenic complications of invasive diagnostic
interventions
3) an excessive dependence on health care
4) a frequent change of physicians

Back 252

PSY-3.125.
E

Front 253

The anticholinergic side-effects of tricyclic antidepressants that are fi
equently observed, especially during the therapy of elderly patients
include:
1) tachycardia
2) constipation
3) the retention of urine
4) blurred vision

Back 253

PSY-3.136.
E

Front 254

Tricyclic antidepressants and MAO inhibitors are effective for the
treatment of
1) bulimia
2) compulsive personality disorder
3) anancastic disorder
4) atypical depression

Back 254

PSY-3.139
E

Front 255

The most characteristic symptoms of delirium tremens include:
1) tremor
2) sweating
3) blackouts
4) hallucinations

Back 255

PSY-3.140
E

Front 256

Common complications of alcoholism include:
1) cerebral damage
2) gastritis
3) hypertension
4) suicide

Back 256

PSY-3.144.
E

Front 257

Drugs that can cause dependence include:
1) benzodiazepines
2) antihistamines
3) barbiturates
4) tricyclic and tetracyclic antidepressants

Back 257

PSY-3.145.
B

Front 258

The most typical example of a simple phobia is a fear of:
A) heights
B) public transportation
C) dogs
D) being in crowds
E) social situations

Back 258

PSY-3.147.
A

Front 259

Case Study
A 29-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room by her
husband. The woman complains of a sharp, intensive pain on the
left side of her chest, accompanied by shortness of breath and palpitations.
She fears that she had a heart attack. The results of her
physical examination and blood tests are normal. The pain ceased
after a few hours of observation and she was released.

3.155/ 1.
Similar situations have occured previously, although an organic cause
has never been demonstrated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) histrionic conversion reaction
B) malingering
C) anancastic neurosis (panic disorder)
D) hypochondriasis
E) compulsive personality disorder

3.155/2.
During these episodes of discomfort the patient talks about herself
as if being an independent observer. This is an example of
A) derealization
B) depersonalization
C) illusions
D) hallucinations
E) alienation

Back 259

PSY-3.155.
CB

Front 260

Which of the following food constituents has to be avoided when prescribing
a diet for patients treated with monoamino-oxidase inhibitors?
A) cholesterol
B) choline
C) lactose
D) tryptophan
E) tyramine

Back 260

PSY-3.160
E

Front 261

Statistically recognized risk factors of schizophrenia include all of
The following, EXCEPT:
A) a defective self development (defective self-object differentiation
and an increased susceptibility to narcistic injuries)
B) cultural, economical, and psycho-social stressors present in
the environment
C) birth in early spring
D) a schizophrenic amongst the patient's relatives
E) a history of a herpes simplex infection or viral encephalitis

Back 261

PSY-3.163.
A

Front 262

The leading symptom of affective disorders is a disturbance of
A) concentration and cognitive functions
B) mood
C) association and the thought process
D) initiatives and psychomotility
E) perception

Back 262

PSY-3.167
B

Front 263

Case Study:
A 26-year-old man presents with a history of three discrete episodes
of elevated mood and hyperactivity. He has got lost several times during
these episodes. Once he had experienced a loss of vision in the
right visual field, which was associated with diplopia for a short period.
The most likely diagnosis is:
A) multiple sclerosis
B) vitamin B12 deficiency
C) herpes encephalitis
D) systemic lupus erythematosus
E) progressive paralysis

Back 263

PSY-3.172.
A

Front 264

Case Study:
A 43-year-old woman has been found unconscious in her garage. The
car was running and the door to the garage was closed. Upon examination
she is confused. The most likely cause of her confusion is:
A) lead poisoning
B) hypoxia
C) hypoglycemia
D) gasoline inhalation
E) none of the above

Back 264

PSY-3.177
B

Front 265

A deficiency of which of the following vitamins is an important
factor in the etiology of Korsakoff s syndrome?
A) vitamin B6
B) folic acid
C) nicotinamide
D) vitamin B 1
E) vitamin B12

Back 265

PSY-3.178.
D

Front 266

Case Study:
An 8-year-old girl, in a febrile state, assumes that the curtain in her
bedroom window is moving and an animal is trying to come into the
room through the window. This symptom is a typical example of:
A) delusion
B) fantasy
C) hallucination
D) illusion
E) phobia

Back 266

PSY-3.179
D

Front 267

Case study:
A physician asks an elderly male patient what he had for supper the
previous day. The patient asserts that he had his christmas dinner
together with his wife and children. This is late June now and the
patient's wife died three years ago. Nobody visited the patient the previous
day. The patient's reply is characteristic of:
A) circumstantiality
B) confabulation
C) deja vu
D) a flight of ideas
E) an illusion

Back 267

PSY-3.180
B

Front 268

Case Study:
A 30-year-old man complains of impotence. He thinks that strangers
on the street are laughing at him. He is sure that they know about his
problem and that they are probably responsible for the development of
his condition. This complaint should be regarded as a sign of:
A) concreteness of thought
B) delusions of reference
C) imaginativeness
D) decline of affect
E) somatic delusions

Back 268

PSY-3.181.
B

Front 269

Which of the following is a best example for a double bind?
A) Mary's parents want her to wait to get married until she finishes
high school
B) John's parents encourage him to go to high school but want
him to decide about his own life
C) Joe's parents encourage him to go to high school but they
dissuade his sister from the same thing
D) Frank's parents encourage him to apply to a high school but
frequently remind him of the financial sacrifices his education
requires from the family
E) Sophie's parents encourage her to apply to a high school but
recommend to her to work for a few years first in order to earn
the costs of her education

Back 269

PSY-3.182
D

Front 270

The psychic structure which regulates the conflicts between unconscious
drives and the reality is the:
A) ego
B) ego-ideal
C) id
D) preconscious
E) superego

Back 270

PSY-3.183.
A

Front 271

The description: "attributing one's own unacceptable motives and
emotions to someone else" best characterizes:
A) fantasy
B) splitting
C) regression
D) projection
E) identification

Back 271

PSY-3.186.
D

Front 272

Borderline personality disorder is characterized by all of the following,
EXCEPT:
A) severe impulsiveness and unpredictable behavior
B) disturbances of identity
C) emotional lability
D) withdrawal from social relations
E) recurrent suicidal gestures and short psychotic episodes

Back 272

PSY-3.188.
D

Front 273

Violent behavior is most characteristic for which of the following
conditions?
A) bipolar disease; manic type
B) anancastic neurosis
C) melancholia
D) somatoform disorder
E) compulsive personality disorder

Back 273

PSY-3.189.
A

Front 274

Case Study:
A 27-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room complaining
of shortness of breath, dizziness, and a tingling in her extremities.
Careful examination fails to discover any organic abnormalities. Which
of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
A) situational reaction
B) endogenous anxiety
C) caffeine abuse
D) hyperventilation syndrome
E) post-traumatic stress disorder

Back 274

PSY-3.190.
D

Front 275

Case Study:
A 41-year-old man complains that life does not give him what he
wants. He feels disappointed and unhappy. He was depressed for a
while after his girlfriend left him 8 years ago. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) psychogenic depression
B) schizophrenia
C) bipolar disorder; depressive phase
D) dysthymia (neurotic depression)
E) cyclothymia

Back 275

PSY-3.194.
D

Front 276

Schizophrenia is characterized by all of the following symptoms,
EXCEPT:
A) incoherence of thoughts
B) bizarre delusions
C) auditory hallucinations
D) Korsakoff's syndrome
E) parathymia

Back 276

PSY-3.201.
D

Front 277

The use of which of the following substances is most commonly
associated with violent behavior?
A) heroin
B) cocaine
C) amphetamines
D) steroids
E) alcohol

Back 277

PSY-3.203.
E

Front 278

Characteristics of delirium tremens include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) an introductory grand mal seizure
B) auditory hallucinations associated with clear thoughts and
proper orientation
C) tremors and sweating
D) blackouts
E) disorientation

Back 278

PSY-3.206.
B

Front 279

Intelligence tests have which of the following characteristics?
1) they compare the performance of an individual as compared to
a large group
2) they are influenced by culture
3) they do not measure an individual's entire intellectual capacity
4) they define an IQ of 100 as average

Back 279

PSY-3.209.
E

Front 280

To obtain an appropriate sexual history, it is necessary for the
physician to inquire about:
1) attitudes of the family about sex
2) any history of sexual abuse
3) the first sexual experience
4) current sexual functioning

Back 280

PSY-3.211
E

Front 281

Symptoms usually present in somatization disorder include:
1) dysmenorrhea
2) palpitations
3) anxiety
4) nausea

Back 281

PSY-3.215.
E

Front 282

Characteristics of alcohol dependence include:
1) the need for drinking every day in order to maintain one's
performance
2) the need to increase the amount consumed to elicit the same effect
3) tremor, sweating, and disorientation developing after two days
of abstinence
4) two or more blackouts during an acute alcohol abuse period

Back 282

PSY-3.228.
E

Front 283

Conditions which increase the risk of subdural hemorrhage include:
1) hypertension
2) advanced age
3) atherosclerosis
4) alcoholism

Back 283

PSY-3.229
C

Front 284

Which of the following statements concerning juvenile suicide are FALSE?
1) the prevalence of juvenile suicide attempts has increased
2) impulsive patients are at a higher risk
3) the leading cause of death among adolescents is suicide
4) child abuse is usually not associated with suicide

Back 284

PSY-3.233
D

Front 285

Antidepressant-type therapy may be of use in which of the following
conditions?
1) bulimia
2) affective disorders
3) compulsive personality disorder
4) anancastic disorder

Back 285

PSY-3.241.
E

Front 286

Delusions are best defined as false considerations which:
1) persist for a long time despite being obviously unrealistic
2) originate from the misinterpretation of existing external stimuli
3) appear to be real to the individual
4) are pathognostic for schizophrenia

Back 286

PSY-3.245.
A

Front 287

Case Study:
A 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room by his father. The
father reported that his son had taken three tablets of diazepam
(Seduxen) in a suicide attempt. The boy minimized the episode, saying
that he was just upset about school. The father became angry at his
son for making such a fuss over nothing. The nurses started making
jokes about the three diazepam "suicide". The father was impatient to
take his son back home. Both were resistant to a psychiatric evaluation.

3.246/ 1.
Since the overdose was not life threatening, the most appropriate
treatment at this time would include:
1) calling other family members to the hospital
2) reporting the event to the boy's school and obtaining information
about his academic problems
3) encouraging the father and son to stay and to be interviewed
individually
4) encouraging the father to keep an eye on his son

3.246/2.
Additional therapeutic approaches at this time would include:
1) initiating antidepressant therapy
2) warning the father to hide any medications kept at home
3) giving the son an excuse from school for a few days
4) suggesting a family consultation to relieve any present tensions
at home

3.246/3.
The son remained silent and the father insisted on going home.
The following day the boy was found dead from a self-inflicted gunshot.
This case represents common errors in evaluating a suicide
attempt, including:
1) not adequately evaluating the son's emotions
2) not appreciating what the first suicide attempt meant to the
son and his father
3) not assessing adequately the father's capacity to support
his son
4) not hospitalizing the patient, even if it was against his will

Back 287

PSY-3.246.
BDA

Front 288

Uncommon side-effects of tricyclic antidepressant therapy include
which of the following?
1) a dry mouth
2) tremor
3) constipation
4) extrapyramidal movement disorders

Back 288

PSY-3.249.
D

Front 289

Which of the following somatic diseases may be associated with a
depression syndrome?
1) pancreatic carcinoma
2) hypertension
3) hypothyroidism
4) peptic ulcer disease

Back 289

PSY-3.250.
B

Front 290

Atherosclerotic (multi-infarct) dementias are characterized by:
1) associated internal and neurologic symptoms
2) numerous malacic foci in the brain
3) a focal loss of memory
4) a dominant inheritance pattern

Back 290

PSY-3.255.
A

Front 291

Case Study:
A 45-year-old man is admitted to the surgical ward. When interviewed by
the nurse he states that he is married, is a father of three boys, and
that he lives with his family. He had previously told his physician that he had
been living with his father since his girlfriend and her two children had left
him. When asked about these contradictions he became confused. Conditions
that are likely to account for the patient's confabulation include:
1) Korsakoff's syndrome
2) diabetes mellitus
3) presenile dementia
4) Addison's disease

Back 291

PSY-3.257.
B

Front 292

Characteristic symptoms of depression include:
A) diminished concentration
B) hallucinations
C) hypochondriasis
D) delusions of persecution
E) weight loss

Back 292

PSY-3.270.
ACE

Front 293

Case Study:
A 39-year-old woman was treated for many years for pelvic pain. She
underwent numerous examinations, even a laparotomy, all of which
failed to demonstrate an organic cause. The patient denies feelings of
depression and other psychiatric problems but expresses anger at her
physicians who are unable to cure her.

3.162/1.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) depressive disorder
B) somatization disorder
C) malingering
D) psychogenic pain syndrome
E) conversion disorder

3.162/2.
The differential diagnosis of her condition includes all of the following,
EXCEPT:
A) malingering
B) schizophrenia
C) mood disorder (bipolar)
D) organic mental syndrome
E) conversion disorder

3.162/3.
Although the exact mechanism of this disorder is not known, there
are some theories concerning the etiology. These include all of the
following, EXCEPT:

A) the pain offers a possibility for the patient to avoid an undesirable
situation
B) the patient did not learn to verbalize her emotions during childhood
C) the patient experienced a disease associated with severe pain
during her childhood
D) the patient attempts to mislead the physician in order to
achieve a better quality of care
E) the pain may be regarded as a stess reaction of the central
nervous system

Back 293

PSY-3.162.
DBD

Front 294

During family therapy, a more advisable approach is to tell each
family member that they can change for the better, rather than to
stigmatize them.

Back 294

PSY-3.1.
T

Front 295

Case Study:
A 67-year-old woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is
brought to the hospital by her husband. Four times in the last month,
she was found wandering about the yard in her bedclothes. Which of
the following etiologic factors should be considered?
1) hypoxia
2) aminophylline intoxication
3) senile dementia
4) cerebrovascular disease

Back 295

PSY-3.224.
E

Front 296

Case Study:
A 39-year-old man complains of severe anxiety. He feels like a stranger
in his usual environment and settings. He has very strange thoughts
and he has to fight to subdue them. The first step of the management
of this patient is:
A) to have him admitted to a psychiatric ward
B) to ensure him that he has no mental disease
C) to explore the current situations of his life in order to determine
the subsequent steps
D) to inquire about his childhood events
E) to prescribe anxiolytics and to excuse the patient from work

Back 296

PSY-3.197.
C

Front 297

Case study:
A 60-year-old man is brought to the hospital by his relatives. He had come
recently to visit them from out of town. He heard voices and saw people
who were not there. He is unable to take care of his basic needs. His past
medical history is uneventful although his relatives have noticed that after his
wife had died he became withdrawn and less social than he had previously been.
Which of the following is the least likely diagnosis?
A) delirium
B) schizophrenia
C) dementia
D) depressive psychosis
E) mixed type organic mental syndrome

Back 297

PSY-3.176
B

Front 298

Case Study:
A 25-year-old woman who has extramarital affairs fears that her
physician disapproves strongly of her behavior. This represents
which of the following defense mechanisms?
A) denial
B) repression
C) reaction formation
D) isolation
E) projection

Back 298

PSY-3.70.
E

Front 299

FM-1.4.
Factors causing a susceptibility to urinary tract infect include:
A) urinary tract obstruction
B) diabetes mellitus
C) hyperkalemia
D) prolonged tetracycline therapy
E) pregnancy

Back 299

ABE

Front 300

FM-1.5.
The medical history of a 45-year-old male reveals episodes of vertigo
and loss of consciousness associated with sweating. Possible causes
of his symptoms include:
A) hyperventilation
B) hyperglycemia
C) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
D) pheochromocytoma
E) paroxysmal tachycardia

Back 300

ADE

Front 301

FM-1.6.
Possible causes of hematemesis include:
A) salicylate administration
B) an oral iron supplement overdose
C) severe burn injury
D) Menetrier's disease (giant hypertrophic gastritis)
E) feeding via a nasogastric tube

Back 301

ABCD

Front 302

M-1.7. MC
The use of which of the following should be avoided in patients
receiving monoamino-oxidase inhibitor therapy:
A) cheese
B) imipramine (Melipramin)
C) phentolamine (Regitin)
D) pethidine (Dolargan)
E) sulphonamides

Back 302

ABD

Front 303

FM-1.10
Which of the following conditions is associated with a male-type
distribution of hair in females?
A) myxedema
B) true hermaphroditism
C) Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome
D) Stein-Leventhal.syndrome (polycystic ovary)
E) Cushing's syndrome

Back 303

DE

Front 304

FM-1.11.
In which of the following conditions can central cyanosis be detected?
A) methemoglobinemia
B) ventilation-perfusion mismatch
C) pulmonary arteriovenous fistula
D) heatstroke
E) heavy physical exercise

Back 304

ABC

Front 305

FM-1.12.
Which of- the following statements about delirium tremens are correct?
A) chlormethiazole (Heminevrin) is suitable for treatment
B) acoustic hallucinations are common
C) visual hallucinations are common
D) elecroshock therapy is indicated in severe cases
E) the condition may be fatal

Back 305

ABCE

Front 306

FM-1.19.
Bilateral parotid gland enlargement is a symptom of
A) Mikulicz's syndrome
B) infectious mononucleosis
C) mumps
D) brucellosis
E) sarcoidosis

Back 306

ACE

Front 307

FM-1.20.
Which of the following statements about Conn's syndrome are correct?
A) a high aldosterone level in the serum is a characteristic finding
B) the plasma renin activity is elevated
C) the associated hypertension is malignant in 10% of cases
D) hyperkalemia is a common complication
E) operative therapy is usually recommended

Back 307

AE

Front 308

FM-1.21.
Recognized causes of nodular hepatomegaly include:
A) postnecrotic cirrhosis
B) primary biliary cirrhosis
C) syphilis of the liver
D) Weil's disease (Leptospira icterohemorrhagica)
E) carcinomatous metastases of the liver

Back 308

ACE

Front 309

FM-1.23.
Symptoms characteristic of an acute exacerbation of ulcerative
colitis include:
A) the development of anemia
B) the occurrence of vertigo following sulfasalazine therapy
C) macroscopically detected blood in the feces
D) the development of generalized eruptions
E) an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Back 309

ACE

Front 310

FM-1.22.
Which of the following symptoms are associated with Turner's syndrome?
A) infantilism
B) congenital abnormalities of the external genitalia
C) an atrial septal defect
D) retinitis pigmentosa
E) a short stature

Back 310

ABE

Front 311

FM-1.25.
Which of the following statements about congenital hypertrophic
pyloric stenosis are correct?
A) it is more frequent in females
B) there is an increased likelihood for any offspring to be similarly
afflicted
C) any vomit almost never contains bile
D) the pyloric ring is rarely palpable
E) the majority of patients require surgical therapy

Back 311

C

Front 312

FM-1.27.
Which of the following conditions is associated with true hematuria?
A) urinary tract tuberculosis
B) acute pyelonephritis
C) acute cystitis
D) malignant hypertension
E) renal infarction

Back 312

ACE

Front 313

FM-1.30.
Primary optic nerve atrophy is a recognized complication of:
A) glaucoma
B) disseminated sclerosis
C) Paget's disease of the skull
D) neurosyphilis
E) ethambutol (Sural) therapy

Back 313

BDE

Front 314

FM-1.55.
Which of the following statements about gastric secretion are correct?
A) approximately 250 ml gastric juice is secreted daily
B) gelatinase is a normal constituent of gastric juice
C) the stomach is capable of producing both acidic or alkaline
secretions
D) if the rate of production is slow, the Na+ concentration is high
E) only the glands of the pyloric region are capable of secreting
mucus

Back 314

BCD

Front 315

FM-1.57.
Transient amnesia is possible:
A) following head trauma
B) in patients suffering from epilepsy
C) in cerebrovascular insufficiency
D) in Alzheimer's disease
E) in patients with a temporal lobe tumor

Back 315

ABCDE

Front 316

FM-1.58.
Paresthesia associated with pruritus is characteristic for which of
the following conditions?
A) multiple sclerosis
B) temporal lobe epilepsy
C) Raynaud's phenomenon
D) acromegaly
E) hypoventilation

Back 316

ACD

Front 317

FM-1.68.
Characteristics of Korsakoff′s syndrome include:
A) polyneuritis which is detected in all cases
B) a clear consciousness
C) impaired judgement
D) morphological abnormalities in the hypothalamus
E) confabulation

Back 317

BCE

Front 318

FM-1.76. An opening snap is detected in:
A) mitral stenosis developing as a consequence of rheumatic carditis
B) congenital mitral stenosis
C) mitral insufficiency associated with a rigid posterior but a
normal anterior cusp
D) the presence of a myxoma in the left atrium
E) severe aortic insufficiency

Back 318

ABCD

Front 319

FM-1.79. MC
Specific indications for dialysis include:
A) a serum potassium concentration of 7.4 mmol/l (7.4 mEq/1)
B) a blood pH of 7.2
C) a blood urea concentration of 63 mmol/l (378 mg/ 100 ml)
D) pericarditis
E) strong lumbar pain

Back 319

ACD

Front 320

FM-1.82. MC
Complications of massive irradiation include:
A) an increased prevalence of leukemia
B) a thrombocytopenia developing within 4 days
C) an increased prevalence of visceral malignancies
D) leukemoid reactions in some patients.
E) hemolytic anemia

Back 320

ABCD

Front 321

FM-1.86.
Which of the following statements about rubella during pregnancy are
correct?
A) in the first trimester, it is usually associated with a higher risk
of fetal developmental abnormalities
B) it causes cardiac anomalies in the newborn
C) it causes deafness in the newborn
D) retinopathy is a well known complication
E) the virus is easily isolated from the throat of the newborn even
if there is no other evidence for the disease

Back 321

ABCDE

Front 322

FM-1.88. Recognized causes of recurrent pneumonia include:
A) chronic alcoholism
B) multiple myeloma
C) hereditary spherocytosis
D) esophageal lesions
E) allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

Back 322

ABDE

Front 323

FM-1.89. Barbiturates, if continuously administered can:
A) contribute to the development of convulsions
B) induce physical dependence
C) cause relaxation of skeletal muscles
D) cause parkinsonism
E) cause ataxia

Back 323

BCE

Front 324

FM-1.107. MC
In acute pyelonephritis:
A) a common symptom is shaking chills
B) vomiting is a possible complaint
C) the absence of any lumbar pain excludes the diagnosis
D) an intravenous pyelogram is necessary for the diagnosis
E) to confirm the diagnosis, a hemoculture should routinely be
made

Back 324

AB

Front 325

FM-1.112.
The prevalence of suicide is higher in:
A) depressive psychosis
B) psychopathic patients
C) obsessive-compulsive neurosis
D) chronic alcoholism
E) epilepsy

Back 325

ABD

Front 326

FM-1.119.
The complications of diphtheria include:
A) a paralysis of the diaphragm
B) airway obstruction
C) bronchopulmonary diphtheria
D) glossopharyngeal neuritis
E) subacute sclerozing panencephalitis

Back 326

ABCD

Front 327

FM-1.122.
Characteristics of a Trichinella spiralis infection include:
A) prodromal diarrhea in adults
B) severe muscular pain
C) periorbital edema
D) subconjunctival hemorrhages
E) patchy subungual hemorrhages

Back 327

ABCDE

Front 328

FM-1.123.
Myopathy is typically associated with:
A) excessive alcohol ingestion
B) McArdle's disease (phosphorylase deficiency)
C) strychnine poisoning
D) Guillain-Barre syndrome
E) hypothyroidism

Back 328

ABE

Front 329

FM-1.125.
Bullous skin lesions are observed in which of the following conditions?
A) herpetiform dermatitis
B) a barbiturate overdose
C) Albright's disease
D) ataxia-teleangiectasia
E) pemphigoid

Back 329

ABE

Front 330

FM-1.128.
Which of the following findings can be detected in Hodgkin's disease:
A) a normochromic, normocytic anemia
B) an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate
C) leukocytosis
D) thrombocytosis
E) eosinophilia

Back 330

ABCDE

Front 331

FM-1.129.
Trichomoniasis:
A) causes perinatal intertrigo
B) is sexually transmitted
C) causes severe systemic symptoms
D) may be completely symptomless
E) the disease of the newborns is transmitted from the mother

Back 331

ABD

Front 332

FM-1.130.
Symptoms of a ventricular septal defect include:
A) an elevated jugular vein pressure, even in the absence of
cardiac failure
B) a pansystolic murmur over the apex
C) a systolic ejection murmur
D) a Graham-Steel sound, which is a very common finding following
the development of pulmonary hypertension
E) a fixed, widely split second heart sound

Back 332

C

Front 333

FM-1.131. Infective endocarditis is rarely associated with:
A) combined mitral valvular disease
B) a patent ductus arteriosus
C) cogenital bicuspid aortic stenosis
D) an atrial septal defect
E) advanced mitral stenosis

Back 333

DE

Front 334

FM-1.136.
Nicotinamide deficiency may cause:
A) high output cardiac failure
B) dementia
C) glossitis
D) sensory polyneuropathy
E) dermatitis

Back 334

BCE

Front 335

FM-1.138.
Which of the following findings would suggest a benign rather than a
malignant paraproteinemia?

A) Bence-Jones proteinuria
B) the IgG level is higher than 2 g/ 100 ml
C) there is an elevated paraprotein level
D) no skeletal abnormalities can be detected
E) a 2-year symptomless period

Back 335

DE

Front 336

FM-1.139.
Which of the following statements about nitroglycerin are correct?
A) only topical application is effective in Raynaud's disease
B) it causes paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea as a side-effect
C) it relieves the pain caused by diffuse esophageal spasms
D) it might relieve pain in biliary colic
E) it alleviates the symptoms of bronchial asthma

Back 336

ACD

Front 337

FM-1.140.
Which of the following statements concerning doxorubicin
(Adriamycin) therapy are correct?
A) the drug is applied intramuscularly
B) the drug causes myelosuppression
C) the drug causes cardiomyopathy
D) the drug is successful in the treatment of primary
hepatocellular carcinoma
E) the drug should be administered daily, for a period of 21 days

Back 337

BC

Front 338

FM-1.141.
A classic type migraine is characterized by which of the following?
A) it cannot be diagnosed if there are no prodromal symptoms
B) it shows a gradual progression
C) a homonymous hemianopsia is present
D) there is edema of the papilla
E) frequently occuring acoustic hallucinations

Back 338

BC

Front 339

FM-1.142
Progressive spinal muscular atrophy of infancy is associated with:
A) severe general syncope
B) fasciculation of the tongue
C) a loss of function of the spinothalamic tract
D) spontaneous fibrillation revealed by electromyography
E) normal tendon reflexes

Back 339

ABD

Front 340

FM-1.143.
The complications of meningococcal meningitis include:
A) hydrocephalus
B) paraparesis
C) cortical blindness
D) deafness
E) peripheral neuropathy

Back 340

ABD

Front 341

FM-1.149.
Which of the following observations help to differentiate neurosis
from psychosis?
A) neurotic patients characteristically disclaim reality
B) endogenous experiences cause excitation in neurosis
C) real illusions can occur in neurosis
D) associative function is not affected in neurosis
E) the 'ego' is intact in neurotic patients

Back 341

DE

Front 342

FM-1.151.
Plague:
A) is transmitted by droplet infection
B) usually does not cause fever
C) causes painful enlargement of the lymph nodes
D) causes characterictic circular erythematous skin lesions
E) responds to high dose penicillin therapy

Back 342

AC

Front 343

FM-1.152.
In amebic dysentery:
A) symptoms might be similar to those observed in duodenal ulcer
B) alternating diarrhea and constipation suggest an underlying
carcinoma
C) intestinal movements are associated with a characteristic
sweet odor
D) amebiasis of the liver is a rare complication
E) metronidazole (Klion) is the therapeutic drug of first choice

Back 343

AE

Front 344

FM-1.158.
Infectious mononucleosis is associated with:
A) periorbital swelling
B) generalized lymphadenopathy
C) jaundice in the majority of patients
D) petechiae on the palate
E) pruritus

Back 344

ABD

Front 345

FM-1.164.
ECG abnormalities characteristic for acute rheumatic fever include:
A) a short PR interval
B) non-paroxysmal AV nodal tachycardia
C) a third degree AV block
D) a long QT interval
E) tall, asymmetric T waves observed in the precordial leads

Back 345

BD

Front 346

FM-1.165.
Which of the following statements relating to aortic regurgitation
are correct?
A) an early diastolic murmur revealed by auscultation during
acute rheumatic valvulitis is usually transient
B) angina pectoris is a more frequent complication than in aortic
stenosis
C) a progression of the condition usually results in accentuation
of the murmur
D) an accentuated first sound differentiates an Austin-Flint
murmur from organic mitral stenosis
E) an accentuated presystolic murmur may be detected without
an associated mitral stenosis

Back 346

E

Front 347

FM-1.168.
Characteristics of rheumatic polymyalgia include:
A) an onset which occurs in young adulthood
B) painful muscles and restriction of movements are characteristic
C) that it may be associated with temporal arteritis
D) a red blood cell sedimentation rate which is typically normal
E) characteristic abnormalities revealed by electrmyography

Back 347

BC

Front 348

FM-1.169.
Bilateral pleural effusion is observed in:
A) pleural mesothelioma
B) sytemic lupus erythematosus
C) miliary tuberculosis
D) carcinomatous lymphangitis
E) sarcoidosis

Back 348

BCD

Front 349

FM-1.171.
Classical symptoms of multiple sclerosis include:
A) paresthesia
B) retrobulbar neuritis
C) a loss of position and vibration sensation
D) diplopia
E) a steady progression

Back 349

ABCD

Front 350

FM-1.186.
In chronic lymphocytic leukemia:
A) an absolute lymphocytosis is observed
B) thrombocytosis is observed
C) splenomegaly is always present
D) the development of an acute blastic crisis is possible
E) Coombs positivity is possible

Back 350

AE

Front 351

FM-1.187.
Which of the following findings would suggest a thrombocyte defect
rather than a coagulation abnormality?
A) hemarthrosis
B) bleeding from superficial abrasions
C) immediate and strong bleeding from tooth extraction
D) bleeding of the mucous membranes
E) menorrhagia

Back 351

BCD

Front 352

FM-1.188.
In classic type hemophilia:
A) the inheritance pattern is autosomal recessive
B) every son in the offspring of a male patient is affected
C) 50% of daughters of the carrier females become carriers themselves
D) hemarthrosis is a common manifestation
E) spontaneous hemorrhaging in the brain frequently develops

Back 352

CD

Front 353

FM-1.192.
Symptoms of rickets of infancy include:
A) muscular hypertrophy
B) sweating of the skin of the head
C) craniotabes
D) coxa vara
E) an early closing of the fontanelles

Back 353

BCD

Front 354

FM-1.196.
Which of the following statement about a bicuspid aortic valve is correct?
A) coarctation of the aorta is sometimes associated with this anomaly
B) calcification of the abnormal valve is rare
C) infectious endocarditis is extremely rare
D) incompetence of the valve is more frequent than stenosis of the
valve
E) this anomaly is frequently associated with Turner's syndrome

Back 354

A

Front 355

FM-1.198.
An accentuated first heart sound is audible in which of the following
conditions?
A) complete heart block
B) severe mitral regurgitation
C) mitral stenosis
D) acute myocarditis
E) pulmonary embolism

Back 355

CE

Front 356

FM-1.199.
Characteristic physical symptoms of pneumothorax include:
A) percussion over the affected side reveals dullness
B) auscultation over the affected side reveals weaker respiratory
sounds
C) end-rspiratory crepitations are detected
D) the mediastinum is shifted towards the opposite side
E) that there are decreased respiratory movements on the affected side

Back 356

BDE

Front 357

FM-1.200.
Adequate procedures in the treatment of asthmatic crisis include:
A) the inhalation of 40% oxygen if the PaC02
is elevated
B) sedation with pethidine (Dolargan) if the patient is agitated
C) the intravenous administration of hydrocortisone
D) salbutamol inhalation
E) water deprivation for the prevention of cardiac insufficiency

Back 357

C

Front 358

FM-1.201.
Findings and parameters which help to differentiate chronic
bronchitis from emphysema are:
A) prolonged expiration and rales
B) the PaC02

C) the diffusion capacity
D) the Pa02

E) eosinophilia

Back 358

ABCD

Front 359

FM-1.202.
Predisposing factors to thromboembolic disorders are:
A) carcinoma of the pancreas
B) a type O blood group
C) oral contraceptives
D) obesity
E) myocardial infarction

Back 359

ACDE

Front 360

FM-1.214.
Urinary calcium loss is increased in:
A) osteoporosis
B) osteomalacia
C) primary hyperparathyroidism
D) secondary hyperparathyroidism
E) sarcoidosis

Back 360

CE

Front 361

FM-1.216.
Recognized alterations in the ECG produced by hyperkalemia include:
A) prominent U waves
B) the lack of P waves
C) wide QRS complexes
D) ventricular tachycardia
E) a depression of the ST segment

Back 361

BCD

Front 362

FM-1.217.
Disadvantages of a preterm delivery include:
A) the increased frequency of an intracranial hemorrhage in the
newborn
B) inadequate sweating leading to hyperthermia
C) an immature respiratory center
D) an insufficient vitamin B12
level which causes anemia
E) an increased susceptibility to infections

Back 362

ACE

Front 363

FM-1.223.
Characteristics of delirium tremens include:
A) marked drowsiness
B) a gradual onset
C) visual hallucinations
D) bradycardia
E) illusions

Back 363

CE

Front 364

FM-1.224.
Case Study:
A 3-year-old child loses his appetite and subsequently refuses food.
Possible causes include:
A) an early onset of schizophrenia
B) negative behavior
C) daydreaming
D) anorexia nervosa
E) the parents have spoiled the child

Back 364

BCE

Front 365

FM-1.233.
Clinical symptoms of cretinism are:
A) obesity
B) goiter
C) spastic diplegia
D) deafness
E) mental deficiency

Back 365

CDE

Front 366

FM-1.240.
In measles:
A) a morbilliform erythema is observed
B) a suboccipital lymphadenopathy is continuously present
C) lymphopenia is a common complication
D) arthritis is a possible complication
E) frequent relapses are observed

Back 366

ABD

Front 367

FM-1.241.
Herpes simplex infection:
A) is commonly associated with carcinoma of the uterus
B) may cause Kaposi's varicelliform eruptions
C) may cause keratoconjunctivitis
D) may cause subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
E) may cause acute gingivostomatitis

Back 367

BCE

Front 368

FM-1.177.
Which of the following statements about Bence-Jones proteins are correct?
A) if they are present in the urine, the Albustix test is positive
B) the excreted amount increases parallel with the progression of
the renal disease
C) they are rarely detected in benign monoclonal gammopathy
D) in severe cases, hypoproteinemia develops
E) they are light chain proteins

Back 368

BCE

Front 369

Renal calcification is a possible complication of:
A) medullary cystic kidney disease
B) renal tuberculosis
C) sarcoidosis
D) sickle cell anemia
E) secondary hyperparathyroidism

Back 369

FM-1.1.
ABC

Front 370

Drugs with a bacteriostatic effect in regular doses include:
A) tetracyclines
B) cephalosporins
C) sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim (Sumetrolim)
D) erythromycin
E) amoxycillin

Back 370

FM-1.3.
ACD

Front 371

Which of the following conditions are usually associated with purpura?
A) Henoch-Schonlein syndrome
B) hepatic cirrhosis
C) systemic lupus erythematosus
D) Addison's disease
E) Raynaud's phenomenon

Back 371

FM-1.8.
ABC

Front 372

Bone density is markedly increased in:
A) osteopetrosis
B) Paget's disease of the bone
C) following the intake of a large amount of fluoride
D) hyperparathyroidism
E) renal osteodystrophy

Back 372

FM-1.9.
ABC

Front 373

Penicillin administration is the appropriate therapy in which of the
following complications of syphilis?
A) meningitis
B) aneurysm of the aorta
C) interstitial keratitis
D) condyloma latum
E) the generalized paralysis of psychotic patients

Back 373

FM-1.14.
AD

Front 374

Possible therapeutic interventions in thyrotoxic crisis include:
A) a high dose of dexamethasone
B) that the patient must be kept warm
C) the administration of beta-blockers
D) immediate propylthiouracil treatment
E) the administration of iodine

Back 374

FM-1.78.
BCE

Front 375

Tetanus:
A) is caused by an anaerobic gram-positive rod
B) bacterium is shed into the soil through the intestine of
infected animals
C) may cause carpopedal spasm
D) infected patients frequently exhibit mental confusion at admittance
E) urinary retention and constipation may develop

Back 375

FM-1.120
ABE

Front 376

In pyloric stenosis of infancy:
A) there is an autosomal dominant imheritance pattern
B) vomiting occurs during the first week of life
C) the vomit is frequently tinged with bile
D) an abdominal tumor is nearly always palpable
E) if left untreated complications during adulthood commonly
develop

Back 376

FM-1.144.
D