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231 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Urgent messages and other warnings transmitted on 2182 kHz or CH 16 shall NOT exceed _____.
Ref: COMDTINST M 2000.3 A.7.P. 13-2 (A) 30 Seconds (B) 3 Minutes (C) 2 Minutes and 30 Seconds (D) 1 Minute |
(D) 1 minute
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A unit in distress or a controlling unit can impose radio silence on interfering stations by transmitting the command "_____".
Ref: COMDTINST M200.3E, 12.A.4.c.1.a (A) BEADWINDOW CHARLIE (B) STOP TRANSMITTING (C) CHANGE FREQUENCY (D) SEELONCE MAYDAY |
(D) SEELONCE MAYDAY
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An area with radio-telephone coverage of at least one VHF-FM coast station, in which continuous DSC alerting is available as defined by the International Maritime Organization IMO for GMDSS, is known as_.
Ref: COMDTINST M 2000.3E CH 12 B.1.P. 12-4 (A) Sea Area A1 (B) Sea Area A3 (C) Sea Area A2 (D) Sea Area A4 |
(A) Sea Area A1
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What is the primary means of communications during a MHS mission
Ref: COMDTINST M 16114.42 3.B.3 (A) UHF marine radio (B) VLF marine radio (C) SIPRNet Chat (D) VHF marine radio |
(D) VHF marine radio
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Which of the following is a responsibility of the Communications Unit?
Ref: COMDTINST M 3120.20 Table 3-2 (A) Present case disposition recommendations to the Command Duty Officer (B) Conduct information and advisory broadcasts as required (C) Monitor all critical infrastructure (D) Monitor and track movements of High Value Assets |
(B) Conduct information and advisory broadcasts as required
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What action will a Coast Guard Unit take when a mariner insists on providing information regarding a proposed voyage?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E 1.10.2 (A) Refuse to accept the information under any circumstance (B) Record all pertinent information on an Overdue Check Sheet (C) Accept the information and make a log entry in MISLE (D) Accept the information and establish a COMMS Schedule with the mariner |
(B) Record all pertinent information on an Overdue Check Sheet
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During icing conditions, Coast Guard personnel may provide weather information to the requesting vessel from _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E 4.5.4 (A) vessels that have recently entered port (B) the Weather Channel (C) current National Weather Service messages (D) last week's forecasted weather |
(C) current National Weather Service messages
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Which of the following is true concerning the Direction and Navigation Assistance Policy?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E 4.5.4 (A) All cases for disoriented vessels shall be treated as distress (B) Courses to steer shall never be given by the watch stander because of the unique aspects of deviation, wind and current (C) Most requests for navigational information come from concerned family members of overdue vessels (D) The mariner shall be advised to always anchor to avoid running aground |
(B) Courses to steer shall never be given by the watch stander because of the unique aspects of deviation, wind and current
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What type of verification is required when ATON is damaged by a recreational boater?
Ref: COMDTINST M 16130.2E Appendix G G-8 (A) Visual check of the aid by any available USCG asset (B) Visual check of the aid by a USCG ATON Team (C) Corroborating reports from other mariners in the area (D) A sworn affidavit from the boater |
(A) Visual check of the aid by any available USCG asset
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Which of the following statements regarding flare sightings is true?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E 2.4.3.3 (A) Other SAR cases take precedence over Flare Cases (B) All red and orange flare sightings must be treated as distress (C) SAR planners should wait for correlating information before dispatching an SRU (D) Flares that are reported in known military exercise are related to a military exercise |
(B) All red and orange flare sightings must be treated as distress
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A Security Zone is described as a/an____________.
Ref: 33 CFR Subpart 6.01-5 (A) muster point for security forces during Incident Command System Standup (B) area designated by the COTP to prevent damage or injury to vessels or facilities (C) location determined by the Intel Officer for stowage of boarding equipment (D) Command Center Restricted Exclusionary Area |
(B) area designated by the COTP to prevent damage or injury to vessels or facilities
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Special conditions that may develop with abnormal tide and currents that affect search objects include all of the following EXCEPT current(s).
Ref: COMDTINST M 16130.2E H.3.1.3 (A) river (B) tidal (C) surf (D) bottom |
(B) tidal
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What publication includes data on the times and strengths on flood and ebb currents and the time of slack water?
Ref: PSTCT, Page X (A) Tide Tables (B) Sailing Directions (C) Coast Pilot (D) Tidal Current Tables |
(D) Tidal Current Tables
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What publication allows you to determine the daily tide predictions?
Ref: PSTT, Page XIII (A) Tidal Current Tables (B) Tide Tables (C) Coast Pilot (D) Sailing Directions |
(B) Tide Tables
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What is the maximum endurance of an HH-60J helicopter?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E Table 5-6 (A) 5.75 hours (B) 2.25 hours (C) 3.50 hours (D) 6.00 hours |
(D) 6.00 hours
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A 47’ MLB is limited to an offshore range of up to .
Ref: COMDTINST M:16130.2E, Table 5-4 (A) 10 NM (B) 15 NM (C) 50 NM (D) 25 NM |
(C) 50 NM
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During a rescue mission, what is the radio call sign for an HH60J with the tail number 6010?
Ref: COMDTINST M2000.3E 9.G (A) Coast Guard Rescue 6010 (B) 6010 (C) Aircraft 6010 (D) Coast Guard 6010 |
(A) Coast Guard Rescue 6010
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What action should an Auxiliary vessel on routine safety patrol, but NOT in contact with the command center, take when a vessel is discovered to be requesting assistance?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E 4.1.6.4 (A) Note sighting and log in AUXOPS (B) Request permission prior to assisting the vessel (C) Remove persons from vessel and await commercial towing (D) Provide assistance as necessary |
(B) Request permission prior to assisting the vessel
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How frequently shall Search and Rescue Facility (SARFAC) listings be validated?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E 1.5.2 (A) Triennially (B) Annually (C) Biannually (D) Tri-annually |
(B) Annually
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Which SRU would be considered the most appropriate asset to respond to a distressed vessel 60 NM offshore?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, Table 5-4 (A) CPB (B) MLB (C) UTB (D) RB-S |
(A) CPB
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When responding to an ice rescue case, a minimum of persons should be dispatched with the ice skiff and government vehicle.
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E 4.9.5.2.d (A) two (B) five (C) three (D) four |
(D) four
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What are the maximum sea conditions for the Response Boat-Small (RB-S)?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, Table 5-4 (A) 6 ft (B) 2 ft (C) 8 ft (D) 4 ft |
(A) 6 ft
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Fixed-wing aircraft should report flight operations status every minutes.
Ref: COMDTINST M2000.3E 9.D.1.a (A) 30 (B) 10 (C) 40 (D) 20 |
(A) 30
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What publications list all marine and salvage assets in your AOR?
Ref: NVIC 09-02, COMDTINST M16130.2E 1.5.2 (A) Area Maritime Security Plan and SARFAC (B) SOP and Marine Yellow Pages (C) Area Maritime Security Plan and SOP (D) SOP and SARFAC |
(A) Area Maritime Security Plan and SARFAC
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Which Appendix of the the USCG Addendum to the SAR Manual contains the template for the Mass Rescue Operations supplemental checksheets?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E Appendix G Annex 1-7 (A) Appendix B (B) Appendix H Annex 1 through 7 (C) Appendix G Annex 1 through 7 (D) Appendix N |
(C) Appendix G Annex 1 through 7
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Incidents that are of interest to the media include all of the following EXCEPT .
Ref: COMDTINST M5728.2 C.2.5.2 (A) an Ancient Mariner Change of Watch (B) a pollution case (C) an administrative action against a Coast Guard member (D) a SAR case |
(A) an Ancient Mariner Change of Watch
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The Command Center may release the names of individuals rescued by the Coast Guard _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E 1.4.1.1.a (A) after 5 working days (B) only after being granted permission by the Public Affairs Office (C) after a case is closed (D) before the case is closed |
(D) before the case is closed
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Which is a step in the risk assessment decision matrix?
Ref: COMDTINST 3500.3 (A) Identify the options to reduce the risk (B) Evaluate the monetary cost to continue the search (C) Accept unnecessary risk (D) Determine the time of the day |
(A) Identify the options to reduce the risk
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What is the common title for the person that serves as a unit public affairs point of contact?
Ref: COMDTINST M5728.2 1.C.4 (A) PAO (B) PIC (C) COTP (D) JIC |
(A) PAO
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National MSRAM Maritime Critical Infrastructure and Key Resources list is maintained on the secure SIPRNET website.
Ref: COMDTINST M16600.6, 3.F.1 (A) CG-532 (B) CG-533 (C) CG-741 (D) CG-534 |
(A) CG-532
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Which is NOT a decision-making principle of ORM?
Ref: COMDTINST 3500.3 (A) Accept no unnecessary risk (B) Accept necessary risk when benefits outweigh costs (C) Take appropriate action regardless of risk (D) Make risk decisions at the appropriate level |
(C) Take appropriate action regardless of risk
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What range is categorized "RED" when using the GAR model?
Ref: COMDTINST 3500.3, ENCL 1 (A) 24-44 (B) 40-66 (C) 61-75 (D) 45-60 |
(D) 45-60
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When getting underway for a mission, the coxswain of a small boat is responsible for passing the results of the risk model.
Ref: COMDTINST 3500.3, Para 14.c.1 (A) PEACE (B) SPAR (C) GAR (D) STAAR |
(C) GAR
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Which is a model of the Operational Risk Process?
Ref: COMDTINST 3500.3 (A) STOP (B) PEACE (C) SPAR (D) LEAPS |
(B) PEACE
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MSRAM analysis and other risk analysis factors form the basis for exceptions, additions and deletions to the .
Ref: COMDTINST M16600.6, 3.F.3 (A) Area Maritime Security Plan (B) Area Maritime Security Committee board (C) Transportation Worker Identification Credential requirements (D) National Maritime Critical Infrastructure and Key Resources list |
(D) National Maritime Critical Infrastructure and Key Resources list
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What model of ORM is used to identify Options?
Ref: COMDTINST 3500.3 (A) GAR (B) PEACE (C) STAAR (D) SEM |
(C) STAAR
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The Coast Guard’s primary risk based decision-making model for the PWCS mission is .
Ref: COMDTINST M16600, 3.A.2.C (A) MSRAM (B) STAAR (C) GAR (D) PEACE |
(A) MSRAM
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Which of the following is an example of how a low GAR score may be misleading with respect to evaluating all potential risks associated with a mission?
Ref: CI 3500.3, ENCL 1, Page 7 (A) Supervision = 2, Planning and Preparation = 1, Crew Selection = 1, Crew Fitness = 1, Environment = 5, Mission Complexity = 2, Overall GAR = 12 (B) Supervision = 1, Planning and Preparation = 1, Crew Selection = 1, Crew Fitness = 1, Environment = 7 Mission Complexity = 1, Overall GAR = 12 (C) Supervision = 1, Planning and Preparation = 3, Crew Selection = 2, Crew Fitness = 2, Environment = 3, Mission Complexity = 1, Overall GAR = 12 (D) Supervision = 2, Planning and Preparation = 2, Crew Selection = 2, Crew Fitness = 2, Environment = 2, Mission Complexity = 2, Overall GAR = 12 |
(B) Supervision = 1, Planning and Preparation = 1, Crew Selection = 1, Crew Fitness = 1,
Environment = 7 Mission Complexity = 1, Overall GAR = 12 |
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Which risk management model uses the colors red, green and amber?
Ref: CI 3500.3, ENCL 1 (A) STAAR (B) GAR (C) SPE (D) PEACE |
(B) GAR
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What is the third step in the ORM process?
Ref: CI 3500.3, Para 10 (A) Assess the risk (B) Monitor situation (C) Identify options (D) Evaluate risk vs. gain |
(A) Assess the risk
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Which risk management model is used to identify what can go wrong with a plan?
Ref: CI 3500.3, ENCL 1 (A) GAR (B) PEACE (C) STAAR (D) SPE |
(B) PEACE
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What is the fifth step in the ORM process?
Ref: CI 3500.3, Para 10 (A) Evaluate risk vs. gain (B) Identify hazards (C) Execute decision (D) Assess the risks |
(A) Evaluate risk vs. gain
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How many steps are in the ORM process?
Ref: CI 3500.3, Para 10 (A) Seven (B) Five (C) Eight (D) Three |
(A) Seven
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Operational Commanders shall coordinate MSRAM updates using inputs from subject matter experts.
Ref: CIM 16600.6, 3.F.1 (A) Response, Prevention, Logistics and Planning (B) Response, Prevention, Recovery and Planning (C) Prevention, Logistics, Planning and Command Center (D) Response, Prevention, Intelligence and Command Center |
(B) Response, Prevention, Recovery and Planning
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What does the acronym "GAR" stand for?
Ref: CI 3500.3, ENCL 1, Pg 3 (A) General Assessment of Risk (B) Green, Amber, Red (C) Good, Alert, Risky (D) Generated Assessement of Risk |
(B) Green, Amber, Red
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Which risk management model is used to determine if risks are acceptable or unacceptable?
Ref: CI 3500.3, ENCL 1 (A) STAAR (B) GAR (C) STAR (D) PEACE |
(A) STAAR
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All of the following are roles of the Command Duty Officer EXCEPT to .
Ref: CIM 3120.20, Table 3-2 (A) ensure command center actions are properly reported and documented (B) ensure proper use of quick response cards (C) serve as the direct representative of the unit commander (D) maintain awareness of status of resources throughout the AOR |
(D) maintain awareness of status of resources throughout the AOR
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All of the following are responsibilities of the Operations Unit EXCEPT to .
Ref: CIM 3120.20, Table 3-2 (A) provide briefs as required or directed (B) present case disposition recommendations to the CDO (C) track weather changes and communicate potential effects (D) ensure proper use of QRCs |
(C) track weather changes and communicate potential effects
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Which of the following is a role of the Operations Unit?
Ref: CIM 3120.20, Table 3-2 (A) Monitor all safety and security zones (B) Maintain proper communication logs of all calls and broadcasts (C) Serve as the direct representative of the unit commander (D) Coordinate the initial actions and execution phases for any mission area requiring a specific maritime response |
(D) Coordinate the initial actions and execution phases for any mission area requiring a specific maritime response
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Which of the following is a role of the Command Duty Officer?
Ref: CIM 3120.20, Table 3-2 (A) Provide oversight of all operational missions within the AOR (B) Identify and track vessels of interest or suspicious activity and alert the Operations Unit (C) Maintain communications guard for assigned blue forces (D) Evaluate the impact of changing weather conditions and make recommendations to the Operations Unit |
(A) Provide oversight of all operational missions within the AOR
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For all Search and Rescue missions, the Checksheet shall be completed.
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E 3.1.5.2 (A) ATON verification (B) MEDEVAC (C) Initial SAR Incident (D) MISLE Case Review |
(C) Initial SAR Incident
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Which of the following is a responsibility of the Communications Unit?
Ref: COMDTINST M3120.20, Table 3-2 (A) Present case disposition recommendations to the Situation Unit (B) Track and liaise with active ICS organizations that impact the maritime environment (C) Obtain vital information during a report circumstances that require or could require a maritime response (D) Monitor all critical infrastructure |
(C) Obtain vital information during a report circumstances that require or could require a maritime response
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All of the following are examples of critical incidents EXCEPT a/an .
Ref: CI 3100.8A, ENCL 1, Para 2 (A) major marine casualty (B) Transportation Security Incident (C) terrorist attack or suspected terrorist attack (D) Class B mishap to Coast Guard Cutters, aircraft or equipment |
(D) Class B mishap to Coast Guard Cutters, aircraft or equipment
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The purpose of Critical Incident Communications is to _.
Ref: CI 3100.8A, Para 1 (A) provide a complex notification system to rapidly disseminate initial, detailed information about critical incidents through the Coast Guard and to interagency partners (B) ensure the Coast Guard Command Center is notified about an incident from a subordinate unit before it is reported on national broadcast media such as CNN (C) provide a streamlined notification system and to rapidly disseminate initial, limited information about critical incidents throughout the Coast Guard and to interagency partners (D) ensure decedent affairs are processed as rapidly as possible |
(C) provide a streamlined notification system and to rapidly disseminate initial, limited information about critical incidents throughout the Coast Guard and to interagency partners
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Which of the following is true regarding the SAR Checksheet?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E 3.1.5.3 (A) Units can modify as necessary (B) Use is optional (C) Make all attempts to complete as time permits (D) Previous editions may be use until exhausted |
(C) Make all attempts to complete as time permits
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All watchstanders must review the requirements regarding the location, utilization, maintenance, and filing of Quick Response Cards as part of training requirements.
Ref: COMDTINST M3120.20, Table 2-7 (A) quarterly (B) daily (C) monthly (D) annual |
(D) annual
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Which command center watch position is tasked with utilizing appropriate Quick Response Cards?
Ref: COMDTINST M3120.20, Table 3-2 (A) CDO (B) SU (C) CDO (D) OU |
(D) OU
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Which command center watch position is tasked with providing oversight of all operational missions within the AOR?
Ref: COMDTINST M3120.20, Table 3-2 (A) CDO (B) CU (C) SU (D) OU |
(A) CDO
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A critical incident is an incident of interest.
Ref: CI 3100.8A, ENCL 1, Para 2 (A) local (B) state (C) national (D) regional |
(C) national
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All of the following are responsibilities of the Situation Unit EXCEPT _.
Ref: COMDTINST M3120.20, Table 3-2 (A) Monitor all critical infrastructure (B) Maintain awareness of all active operations and status of resources throughout the AOR (C) Monitor all safety and security zones (D) Apply appropriate risk management tools for all operations internal and external to the command |
(D) Apply appropriate risk management tools for all operations internal and external to the command
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Which section of the local command center standard operating procedure includes watch relief?
Ref: COMDTINST M3120.20, CH 4-2 (A) CC Watchstanding (B) CC Emergency Procedures (C) CC Operations (D) CC Workforce Administration |
(A) CC Watchstanding
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Which of the following is a responsibility of the Communications Unit?
Ref: COMDTINST M3120.20, Table 3-2 (A) Obtain vital information from vessels and personnel in distress (B) Monitor and track movements of High Value Assets (C) Monitor all critical infrastructure (D) Present case disposition recommendations to the Operations Unit |
(A) Obtain vital information from vessels and personnel in distress
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(A) What is the phone number for reporting Critical Incidents?
Ref: CI 3100.8A, ENCL 1, 3.A (A) 1-800-555-1212 (B) 1-800-DAD-SAFE (C) 1-800-GET-USCG (D) 1-877-872-4797 |
(B) 1-800-DAD-SAFE
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Which of the following is the responsibility of the Situation Unit?
Ref: COMDTINST M3120.20, Table 3-2 (A) Oversee command center response to inquiries from higher authorities (B) Develop and evaluate the Local Tactical Picture (C) Provide oversight of all operational missions within the AOR (D) Monitor and approve command center communications |
(B) Develop and evaluate the Local Tactical Picture
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What is the time limit to file an initial Critical Incident Communications report?
Ref: COMDTINST M3100.8 (A) Within 5 minutes (B) Within 10 minutes (C) Within 30 minutes (D) Within 15 minutes |
(A) Within 5 minutes
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All of the following are responsibilities of the Situation Unit EXCEPT _.
Ref: COMDTINST M3120.20, Table 3-2 (A) Maintain awareness of all active operations and status of resources throughout the AOR (B) Implement critical incidence notification procedures in accordance with established guidelines (C) Monitor all critical infrastructure and waterways (D) Track and monitor all planned actions in support of Homeland Security and marine safety |
(B) Implement critical incidence notification procedures in accordance with established guidelines
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The primary use for Goldwave is to _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E 2.10 (A) create an Urgent Marine Information Broadcast (B) download voice recognition software (C) manipulate .wav files to understand the call more clearly (D) transfer .wav files from the DVL to a SWIII |
(C) manipulate .wav files to understand the call more clearly
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DSC Distress alerts shall be acknowledged within minute(s).
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E 2.2.2.3 (A) 1.75 (B) 2.75 (C) 1 (D) 2 |
(B) 2.75
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The acronym MMSI stands for .
COMDTINST M16130.2E 2.4 (A) Measurement of Maritime Swimmer Identification (B) Maritime Mobile Service Identity (C) Maritime Measurement of Safety Indicators (D) Mobile Marine Standard Identification |
(B) Maritime Mobile Service Identity
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What boundary area is defined as being within range of at least one MF coast station, which provides for continuous DSC alerting?
Ref: COMDTINST M2000.3E 12.B.2 (A) Sea Area A2 (B) Sea Area A3 (C) Sea Area A5 (D) Sea Area A1 |
(A) Sea Area A2
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Which of the following is considered a step to take when receiving distress communications?
Ref: COMDTINST M2000.3E 6.E.4.e (A) Always maintain distress radio log (B) Immediately shift the distress vessel to a working frequency (C) Continue any SMIBs prior to responding to a distress call (D) Always have the vessel anchor to maintain position |
(A) Always maintain distress radio log
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How many days does the MISLE case reviewer have to complete a MISLE case final review?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E B.3.3.3 (A) 7 (B) 5 (C) 15 (D) 30 |
(B) 5
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What are the three elements of a VHF DSC alert?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E (A) SSBI, GPS position, type of call (B) Frequency, channel, system (C) Alert, uncertainty, distress (D) MMSI, GPS position, type of call |
(D) MMSI, GPS position, type of call
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LGB is the Light List abbreviation for _.
Ref: Light List, Page xxi (A) Lighted Gong Buoy (B) Lighted Green Buoy (C) Large Buoy (D) Leeward Green Buoy |
(A) Lighted Gong Buoy
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Which of the following is an objective to the Aids to Navigation System?
Ref: COMDTINST M16500.21 (Series) (A) Distinguish private aids (B) Limit lawsuits against the Coast Guard (C) Ensure historic lighthouses are maintained (D) Warn the mariner of dangers and obstructions |
(D) Warn the mariner of dangers and obstructions
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LWB is the Light List abbreviation for _.
Ref: Light List, Page XX (A) Lighted Warning Buoy (B) Lighted Weather Buoy (C) Lighted Winter Buoy (D) Lighted Whistle Buoy |
(D) Lighted Whistle Buoy
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The marking of wrecks sunken in the navigable waters of the U.S. falls under the responsibility of the
_. Ref: 33 USC 409 (A) U.S. Coast Guard (B) vessel operator (C) U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (D) vessel owner |
(D) vessel owner
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According to the USCG Light List Navigational Aid reference, "LT" is the abbreviation for .
Ref: Light List, Page xxi (A) Lighted (B) Listing (C) Left (D) Light |
(D) Light
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Upon notification of a wreck or obstruction, the District Commander shall be notified via a/an _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16500.7A (A) Hazard to Navigation Message (B) ATON Discrepancy Message (C) Hydrographic Report (D) Casualty Report |
(A) Hazard to Navigation Message
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What is the primary means for disseminating safety information concerning aids and hazards to navigation, and other items of interest to mariners navigating the waters of the United States, its territories, and possessions?
Ref: COMDTINST M16500.7A 12.B.1.a (A) U.S. Coast Pilot (B) NOTAM’s (C) Sailing Directions (D) Local Notice to Mariners |
(D) Local Notice to Mariners
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What describes both Federal and private aids to marine navigation maintained by or under the authority of the United States Government?
Ref: COMDTINST M16500.7A, Ch 12 (A) List of Lights (B) Radio Navigation Manual (C) IALA B Circular (D) Light List |
(D) Light List
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Unless exempted, wreck markings established and maintained by the U.S. Coast Guard shall have at least lighted aid(s) in all cases.
Ref: 33 USC 409 (A) four (B) three (C) two (D) one |
(D) one
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What does the abbreviation "LLNR" stand for?
Ref: Light List, Page xxi (A) Left Light, No Return (B) Liquified Light Natural Gas Carrier (C) Light List Number (D) Limited Liability National Response |
(C) Light List Number
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The Coast Guard has the authority to do all the following for Aids to Navigation, EXCEPT _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16500.21 (Series) (A) prescribe lights and other signals to mark obstructions to navigation (B) operate Short Range Aids to Navigation Systems to serve the needs of maritime commerce (C) mark wrecks in the navigable waters of the United States or waters above the continental shelf (D) establish, operate and maintain private aids to navigation |
(D) establish, operate and maintain private aids to navigation
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A Broadcast Notice to Mariners (BNM) is defined as .
Ref: COMDTINST M16500.7A, Ch 12 E (A) a broadcast alerting the public about military exercises (B) the method by which important navigation safety information is disseminated in the most expedient manner (C) the source of chart corrections (D) a COSPAT SARSAT function determining 406 EPIRB data |
(B) the method by which important navigation safety information is disseminated in the most expedient manner
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According to the USCG Light List Navigational Aid reference, "TRUB" is the abbreviation for _.
Ref: Light List, Page XX (A) Temporary Replacement Unlit Buoy (B) Temporary Replacement Unlighted Buoy (C) Temporarily Replaced by Unlighted Buoy (D) Temporarily Replaced for Unlit Buoy |
(C) Temporarily Replaced by Unlighted Buoy
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What is the maximum time an ATON unit has to respond to a routine ATON discrepancy?
Ref: COMDTINST M16500.21 (Series) (A) 24 hours (B) 12 hours (C) 48 hours (D) 72 hours |
(D) 72 hours
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DBN is the Light List abbreviation for .
Ref: Light List, Page XX (A) Day Buoy Nominal (B) Daytime Buoy (C) Data Beacon (D) Day Beacon |
(D) Day Beacon
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Each of the following are part of a Light List aids to navigation entry EXCEPT .
Ref: Light List, Page vi, Para 40-75 (A) Number, Name and Location, Position (B) Characteristic, Height, Range (C) Color, Watch Circle Radius, Last Service Date (D) Characteristic, Structure, Remarks |
(C) Color, Watch Circle Radius, Last Service Date
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Who is responsible for overseeing the administration, operation, and maintenance of Aids to Navigation (ATON) systems?
Ref: 33 CFR 1 (A) Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI) (B) Captain of the Port (COTP) (C) Federal Maritime Security Coordinator (FMSC) (D) Federal on Scene Coordinator (FOSC) |
(B) Captain of the Port (COTP)
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A vessel that violates a Limited Access Areas (LAAs) is subject to authority.
Ref: 33 CFR 165 (A) Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI) (B) Captain of the Port (COTP) (C) Federal on Scene Coordinator (FOSC) (D) Federal Maritime Security Coordinator (FMSC) |
(B) Captain of the Port (COTP)
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A vessel that violates cargo safety laws and regulations is subject to authority.
Ref: 33 CFR 160 (A) Federal Maritime Security Coordinator (FMSC) (B) Federal on Scene Coordinator (FOSC) (C) Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI) (D) Captain of the Port (COTP) |
(D) Captain of the Port (COTP)
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Who is responsible for directing the enforcement of port/waterways safety laws and regulations, vessel operations safety laws and regulations, and facility operations safety laws and regulations?
Ref: 33 CFR 160 (A) Captain of the Port (COTP) (B) Federal on Scene Coordinator (FOSC) (C) Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI) (D) Federal Maritime Security Coordinator (FMSC) |
(A) Captain of the Port (COTP)
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Who is responsible for enforcing all pollution prevention laws and regulations?
Ref: 33 CFR 3 (A) Officer In Charge Marine Inspections (B) Federal On Scene Coordinator (C) Captain of the Port (D) District Judge Advocate General |
(C) Captain of the Port
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Who is responsible for promoting and enforcing safe operating ports, cargo safety laws and regulations, and Limited Access Areas (LAAs)?
Ref: 33 CFR 165 (A) Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI) (B) Captain of the Port (COTP) (C) Federal Maritime Security Coordinator (FMSC) (D) Federal on Scene Coordinator (FOSC) |
(B) Captain of the Port (COTP)
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Which Coast Guard authority provides Maritime Security Risk Analysis Model support to Area Maritime Security Committees?
Ref: COMDTINST M16600.6 3.C.2.d (A) Federal Maritime Security Coordinator (B) Officer in Charge of Marine Inspections (C) SAR Mission Coordinator (D) Captain of the Port |
(A) Federal Maritime Security Coordinator
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A Captain of the Port (COTP) order .
Ref: 33 CFR 160 (A) can be issued to a class of vessels (B) can be issued to all vessels in a port (C) is authorized by the Maritime Transportation Security Act (D) is directed only to a specific vessel, facility, or individual |
(D) is directed only to a specific vessel, facility, or individual
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Which of the following actions is an example of the correct use of a COTP Order?
Ref: 33 CFR 160 (A) Restrict commercial vessel activity (B) Deny entry to the navigable waters within a COTP Zone to a specific cargo vessel or tankship until a particular discrepancy is repaired (C) Deny entry to a harbor for all vessels over 300 gross tons for the purposes of a cruise ship escort (D) Require all vessels transiting a channel during a transfer of a cargo of particular hazard to reduce speed to 5 knots |
(B) Deny entry to the navigable waters within a COTP Zone to a specific cargo vessel or tankship until a particular discrepancy is repaired
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Who is responsible for coordinating the area maritime security plan?
Ref: 33 CFR 103.500 (A) Federal on Scene Coordinator (B) Federal Maritime Security Coordinator (C) Captain of the Port (D) Maritime Security Officer |
(B) Federal Maritime Security Coordinator
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The official that is pre-designated by the EPA or the USCG to manage and direct pollution responses and environmental cleanup efforts is the _.
Ref: 33 CFR 153.103 (A) Federal On-Scene Coordinator (FOSC) (B) Federal Maritime Security Coordinator (FMSC) (C) Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI) (D) Captain of the Port (COTP). |
(A) Federal On-Scene Coordinator (FOSC)
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Under whose authority does a Sector Response Department Pollution Investigator conduct their duties at the scene of a minor inland spill?
Ref: 33 CFR 153 (A) Federal On-Scene Coordinator (FOSC) (B) Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI) (C) Federal Maritime Security Coordinator (FMSC) (D) Captain of the Port (COTP) |
(A) Federal On-Scene Coordinator (FOSC)
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What does the acronym "OCMI" stand for?
Ref: 33 CFR 1.01-20 (A) Office of the Chief of Maritime Intelligence (B) Officer-in-Charge Maritime Inspections (C) Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (D) Office of the Chief of Marine Investigations |
(C) Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections
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The situation unit is monitoring the status of a Facilities Inspector conducting a random spot inspection of a facility. Under whose authority is the Facility Inspector operating?
Ref: 46 CFR 50 (A) Captain of the Port (COTP) (B) SAR Mission Coordinator (SMC) (C) Federal On Scene Coordinator (FOSC) (D) Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI) |
(D) Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI)
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Who has the duties of directing vessel inspection programs and shipyard/factory inspections of material and equipment for vessels?
Ref: 3 CFR 2 (A) Federal On Scene Coordinator (FOSC) (B) Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI) (C) SAR Mission Coordinator (SMC) (D) Captain of the Port (COTP) |
(B) Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI)
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Under whose authority will an Investigating Officer, sortied by the command center, conduct an investigation of a vessel that has allided with a fixed structure in a navigable waterway?
Ref: 46 CFR 4 (A) Captain of the Port (COTP) (B) Federal On Scene Coordinator (FOSC) (C) Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI) (D) SAR Mission Coordinator (SMC) |
(C) Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI)
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Who has the duties of overseeing the Marine Safety Program and to supervise the Marine Safety Function of the Marine Information for Safety and Law Enforcement MISLE System?
Ref: 33 CFR 1.01-20. (A) Captain of the Port (COTP) (B) Federal Maritime Security Coordinator (FMSC) (C) Federal On Scene Coordinator (FOSC) (D) Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI) |
(D) Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI)
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Who has the duties of directing enforcement of navigation and seamen laws in general?
Ref: 33 CFR 1.01-20 (A) Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI) (B) Federal Maritime Security Coordinator (FMSC) (C) Captain of the Port (COTP) (D) Federal On Scene Coordinator (FOSC) |
(A) Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI)
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A seaman with a Merchant Mariner Licensing Document is subject to authority.
Ref: 33 CFR 1.01-10 (A) Federal Maritime Security Coordinator (FMSC) (B) Captain of the Port (COTP) (C) Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI) (D) Federal On Scene Coordinator (FOSC) |
(C) Officer-in-Charge of Marine Inspections (OCMI)
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During Mass Rescue Operations, SMC should normally be handled at what level?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E (A) Coast Guard Headquarters Command Center (B) National Operations Center (C) District or Area Command Center (D) Group or Sector Command Center |
(C) District or Area Command Center
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The lowest operational command unit to which a SAR Mission Coordinator can be de designated is
_. Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E (A) Group or Sector Command Center Operations Unit (B) District RCC (C) Small Boat Station (D) LANTAREA or PACAREA |
(A) Group or Sector Command Center Operations Unit
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What is a characteristic of fast ice?
Ref: COMDTINST M16500.21A 6.A.2 (A) The ice looks like an unattached ice formation (B) Ice crystals that float freely and individually in the water (C) Winds and water currents cannot dislodge the formation (D) The ice has a greasy, matte appearance and may look like an oil slick |
(C) Winds and water currents cannot dislodge the formation
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During ice transits, a vessel caught in heavy seas can find relief from icing and the rough seas by
_. Ref: COMDTINST M16500.21A 6.B (A) entering an ice field (B) navigating on a parallel course to an ice field (C) increasing speed to avoid bank suction (D) anchoring in a cut channel |
(A) entering an ice field
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What is a characteristic of anchor ice?
Ref: COMDTINST M16500.21A 6.A.2 (A) Flat ice with approximately uniform thickness and without ridges (B) Ice is attached to the bottom (C) Any opening or passageway through sea ice that is navigable by a ship (D) Ice without snow cover |
(B) Ice is attached to the bottom
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How large across is a vast floe of sea ice?
Ref: COMDTINST M16500.21A 6.A.2 (A) 10 - 25 kilometers (B) 2 - 10 kilometers (C) 13.5 - 27 NM (D) 500 - 2000 meters |
(B) 2 - 10 kilometers
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Does the Coast Guard create ice forecasts?
Ref: COMDINST 16151.1C (A) No, but the Coast Guard may disseminate current ice information from the NWS (B) Yes, the Coast Guard International Ice Patrol creates the ice forecasts (C) Yes, the Coast Guard is authorized to make ice forecasts (D) No, the Coast Guard does not transmit any form of ice forecast |
(A) No, but the Coast Guard may disseminate current ice information from the NWS
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The Coast Guard will conduct icebreaking required for missions.
Ref: COMDTINST 1651.1C, Para 4.a (A) search and rescue (B) marine environmental protection (C) marine safety (D) optional |
(A) search and rescue
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Excluding state waters, the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) is measured from the baseline out to
_ NM. Ref: COMDTINST M16247.1E (A) 250 (B) 150 (C) 200 (D) 300 |
(C) 200
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The Coast Guard has the authority to force or compel mariners to abandon their vessels whenever
_. Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E 4.2.1 (A) the OINC of the Coast Guard station gives permission to do so (B) a life-threatening emergency exists (C) the owner/operator requests removal of a crew member (D) the boat master requests CG assistance for a disruptive crew member |
(B) a life-threatening emergency exists
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In which situation is a SNO required for crews employing steps 1-4 of the Stopping NCV Checklist?
Ref: COMDTINST M16114.42 3.c.2 (A) When applying force in self-defense (B) When outside the boundaries of the security zone (C) If the vessel is designated as posing an imminent threat (D) When within the boundaries of the security zone |
(D) When within the boundaries of the security zone
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Which of the following is NOT one of the five fundamental sources of Coast Guard enforcement authority?
Ref: COMDTINST M16247.1E 2.A. (A) Coast Guard Investigative Service (CGIS) Special Agents (B) United States Constitution (C) Maritime Law Enforcement (MLE) (D) Customs |
(B) United States Constitution
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The maximum distance offshore that the Coast Guard enforces marine environment protection laws is
_. Ref: COMDTINST M16247.1E 9.D.5.a (A) to the Contiguous Zone (B) as far as state jurisdiction (C) out to 12 NM (D) to the Exclusive Economic Zone |
(A) to the Contiguous Zone
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Which of the following generally describes the term "authority" with regard to the law enforcement mission?
Ref: COMDTINST M16247.1E 2.A (A) Coast Guard's reason for law enforcement (B) The government’s legal power to act (C) Officer presence (D) The ability to search and seize |
(B) The government’s legal power to act
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Which of the following describes Force Majeure?
Ref: COMDTINST M16247.1E 2B.4.a (A) The right of non-interference for a vessel transiting inbound and outbound (B) The right of non-interference for a vessel or aircraft transiting (C) A vessel without power due to an engine room fire is forced into coastal State waters (D) A foreign flagged vessel that wishes to dock for a major port call break |
(C) A vessel without power due to an engine room fire is forced into coastal State waters
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The right of hot pursuit may only be exercised by _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16247.1E 2.B.4.i (A) Coast Guard Auxiliary (B) any vessel assisting in the recovery of migrants (C) vessels forced into coastal State waters by virtue of force majeure (D) warships, military aircraft, or other clearly marked vessels or aircraft in government service |
(D) warships, military aircraft, or other clearly marked vessels or aircraft in government service
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What is the U.S. Code Section that gives the Coast Guard its authority to carry out law enforcement?
Ref: COMDTINST M16247.1E 1.A.1 (A) 14 USC 88 (B) 10 USC 124 (C) 14 USC 2 (D) 10 USC 379 |
(C) 14 USC 2
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When employing steps 1-4 of the Stopping NCV Checklist, what authority covers a crew that is within the boundaries of a security zone?
Ref: COMDTINST M16114.42 3.C.2 (A) Coast Guard Use of Force Policy (B) Voluntary Disclosure Policy (C) 33 CFR Part 165 (D) 40 CFR |
(C) 33 CFR Part 165
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When employing steps 1-4 of the Stopping NCV Checklist, what authority covers a crew that is outside the boundaries of a security zone?
Ref: COMDTINST M16114.42 3.C.2 (A) Voluntary Disclosure Policy (B) 14 USC 82 (C) Coast Guard Use of Force Policy (D) 33 CFR Part 165 |
(C) Coast Guard Use of Force Policy
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Which of the following is NOT part of re-establishing lost communications with a security unit?
Ref: COMDTINST M16114.42 3.B.3.i (A) Contact via cell phone (B) Try contacting any/all units (C) Use frequencies not designated in the communications plan (D) Try secondary and tertiary (if available) frequencies designated in the communications plan |
(C) Use frequencies not designated in the communications plan
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After a determination is made that a catch will be seized, what actions should be taken if the catch is alive and has a marketable value?
Ref: COMDTINST M16247.1E D.1.b.3 (A) Fish shall be photographed/videotaped and returned to the sea (B) Fish will be taken to port for sale or donation (C) Isolate the catch to prevent evidence tampering (D) Seal the hold and escort vessel back to port |
(A) Fish shall be photographed/videotaped and returned to the sea
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The governs the conservation and management of ocean fishing.
Ref: COMDTINST M16247.1E 7.D.1 (A) Migratory Bird Treaty Act (B) Endangered Species Act (C) Magnuson-Stevens Act (D) Lacey Act |
(C) Magnuson-Stevens Act
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If OPCON determines that an illegal catch will be seized and has no marketable value, the catch shall be _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16247.1E 7.D.1.b.3 (A) photographed/videotaped and returned to the sea (B) transported to a local fish house (C) transported to NMFS agent for evidence (D) returned to port for sale or donation |
(A) photographed/videotaped and returned to the sea
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Units that encounter or respond to a beached or stranded cetacean, e.g., whale, dolphin, and porpoise, shall immediately notify the _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16247.1E 8.D.9.b (A) NOAA Fisheries Stranding and Disentanglement Coordinator (B) Headquarters Command Center (C) Fisheries Training Center (D) Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals |
(A) NOAA Fisheries Stranding and Disentanglement Coordinator
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Which agency is primarily responsible for managing U.S. fisheries and works with the Regional Fishery Management Councils to develop Fishery Management Plans?
Ref: COMDTINST M16247.1E 7.B.1 (A) NOAA Fisheries Office of Sustainable Fisheries (B) Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council (C) Marine Habitat Protection (D) U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service |
(A) NOAA Fisheries Office of Sustainable Fisheries
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Extracts, in the form of customized sets of federal fisheries regulations from the Code of Federal Regulations, are provided to fisheries enforcement units and are commonly referred to as .
Ref: COMDTINST M16247.1E (A) LMR Regulations (B) BOJACK (C) Bowditch (D) CFICSA Regulations |
(A) LMR Regulations
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Under the Marine Mammal Protection Act, which of the following is NOT a lawful behavior?
Ref: COMDTINST M16247.1E 8.C.2.a (A) Approaching a humpback whale at more than 100 yards away (B) Transporting a harbor seal or products made from the seal (C) Tying off to a mooring buoy (D) Operating a gas or diesel powered engine |
(B) Transporting a harbor seal or products made from the seal
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Which one of the following circumstances is NOT a justification of a fisheries seizure?
Ref: COMDTINST M16247.1E D.1.b.3 (A) Fishing in the U.S. EEZ without appropriate permit (B) Violation of 75/25 rule (C) Serious false reporting of fish catch (D) Illegal gear configurations |
(B) Violation of 75/25 rule
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Who do units contact for guidance on disposition of a vessel and all property aboard after a seizure?
Ref: COMDTINST M16247.1E D.1.b.3 (A) Operational commander (B) Area commander (C) Tactical commander (D) Command center chief |
(A) Operational commander
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In which mission area is the use of N-VMS not permited?
Ref: COMDTINST M16247.1E (A) Defense readiness (B) Drug interdiction (C) ATON (D) SAR |
(C) ATON
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Which satellite-based tracking system provides various data including a vessel’s name and position?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E D.3.4.14 (A) SAROPS (B) N-VMS (C) HAWKEYE (D) AMVER |
(B) N-VMS
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Which Act makes it unlawful for any person subject to the jurisdiction of the U.S. to import, export, transport, sell, receive, acquire, or purchase fish or wildlife taken in violation of any U.S. law, regulation, treaty, or any foreign law?
Ref: COMDTINST M16247.1E 7.D.2 (A) Marine Mammal Protection Act (B) National Marine Sanctuaries Act (C) Lacey Act (D) Magnuson-Stevens Act |
(C) Lacey Act
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Seizure is normally justified in the following circumstances EXCEPT .
Ref: COMDTINST M16247.1E (A) foreign flagged vessel fishing outside the U.S. EEZ without appropriate permit (B) handling a large incidental catch of a prohibited species in violation of the regulations or in a way greatly increasing their mortality rate (C) foreign flagged vessel fishing in the U.S. EEZ without appropriate permit (D) continued fishing after closure of a fishery or greatly exceeding an incidental catch quota |
(A) foreign flagged vessel fishing outside the U.S. EEZ without appropriate permit
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A commercial firm that specializes in vessel or facility discharge response, and provides resources such as equipment and trained personnel, is classified by the USCG as a/an _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.14 4.A.6.1 (A) Oil Spill Removal Organization (OSRO) (B) International Maritime Organization (IMO) (C) Marine Spill Response Corporation (MSRC) (D) National Pollution Control Organization (NPCO) |
(A) Oil Spill Removal Organization (OSRO)
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What is a "NOFI" and who should issue it?
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.14 5.A.2.d (A) Notice of Foreign Interest issued by OSC (B) Notice of Federal Intention issued by SMC (C) Notice of Foreign Intention issued by SMC (D) Notice of Federal Interest issued by OSC |
(D) Notice of Federal Interest issued by OSC
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A tanker vessel is aground off the coast of Oregon with a confirmed ruptured fuel oil compartment capable of holding 25,000 gallons. What is the appropriate classification of this spill?
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.14, Ch 5, Figure 5-7 (A) Coastal - Minor (B) Coastal - Medium (C) Coastal - Major (D) Inland - Medium |
(B) Coastal - Medium
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What information is to be gathered when receiving an initial report of a oil spill or hazardous substance release via phone?
Ref: 40 CFR 302.8 (A) The name of the facility or vessel (B) The location of the facility, and the name and identity of the hazardous substance (C) The name and location of the facility or vessel, and the name and identity of the hazardous substance (D) Initial SAR check sheet |
(C) The name and location of the facility or vessel, and the name and identity of the hazardous substance
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Which of the following accurately describes the coastal minor spill classification?
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.14, Ch 5, Figure 5-7 (A) Fewer than 100,000 gallons of oil (B) Fewer than 10,000 gallons of oil (C) More than 10,000 gallons of oil (D) Fewer than 1,000 gallons of oil |
(B) Fewer than 10,000 gallons of oil
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What international convention governs the prevention of pollution from ships?
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.14 1.A.1 (A) MEPC (B) SOLAS (C) JUDS (D) MARPOL |
(D) MARPOL
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Your command center receives a report of an oil tanker foundering in heavy seas and in danger of breaking its keel, which could potentially release in excess of 1,200,000 gallons of oil into the sea. What would be the appropriate classification of the resulting spill?
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.14, Figure 5-7 (A) Coastal - Minor (B) Inland - Major (C) Coastal - Medium (D) Coastal - Major |
(D) Coastal - Major
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Any person in charge of a vessel or facility, as soon as he/she has knowledge of any oil discharge, shall notify the .
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.14 1.B.2.a (A) Local police (B) National Response Center (C) Harbormaster (D) Captain of the Port |
(B) National Response Center
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Which law, signed into effect in 1990, was largely in response to growing concern about the nation's oil spill response capability stemming from the Exxon Valdez incident?
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.14 1.B.1 (A) Federal Water Pollution Control Act (FWPCA) (B) Oil Pollution Act (OPA) (C) Clean Water Act (CWA) (D) Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) |
(B) Oil Pollution Act (OPA)
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For a marine oil pollution violation to be issued, a discharge must _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.14 1.B.2 (A) have been intentional (B) be upon a navigable waterway (C) be from a documented vessel (D) have been witnessed by a Coast Guard pollution inspector |
(B) be upon a navigable waterway
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If your command center receives a report of an inland oil discharge, what quantity of oil would classify the spill as Major?
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.14, Figure 5-8 (A) More than 100,000 gallons of oil (B) Fewer than 1,000 gallons of oil (C) Fewer than 5,000 gallons of oil (D) More than 10,000 gallons of oil |
(D) More than 10,000 gallons of oil
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An "Untended Bridge" _.
Ref: 33 CFR Part 117.4 (A) has a drawtender that is on a break (B) is an inoperable drawbridge (C) has no tender present at the drawbridge (D) is a raised drawbridge |
(C) has no tender present at the drawbridge
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Bridge operator contact information can be obtained from all of the following sources, EXCEPT
_. Ref: Coast Pilot, CFR 33, Ch1 Para 550, Part 117 (A) Light List (B) Coast Pilot (C) MISLE (D) CFR 33 |
(D) CFR 33
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At a minimum, which checksheet(s) shall be used to gather information about a grounding?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E 3.1.4 (A) Initial SAR and Taking On Water (B) Grounding (C) Initial SAR (D) Grounding and Initial SAR |
(D) Grounding and Initial SAR
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Each facility that is used for drilling for producing or processing oil, or which has the capacity to transport, store, transfer, or otherwise handle more than one thousand barrels of oil at any one time, .
Ref: 33 CFR 135.203 (A) must be covered by insurance (B) must be covered by evidence of financial responsibility (C) may be covered by evidence of financial responsibility (D) may be covered by insurance |
(B) must be covered by evidence of financial responsibility
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Which control is normally used to effect the execution of Detentions?
Ref: COMDTINST 16000.6, 4.C.10.a (A) OCMI Detention Order (B) OSC Detention Order (C) COTP Detention Order (D) SMC Detention Order |
(C) COTP Detention Order
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The part of a waterfront facility where oil or hazardous materials are handled in bulk, either between the vessel or where the vessel moors, is considered a/an _.
Ref: 33 CFR 154 (A) offshore oil facility (B) marine monitoring area (C) marine transfer area (D) oil and hazardous materials station |
(C) marine transfer area
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All of the following are requirements for a vessel to be considered an un-inspected passenger vessel, EXCEPT the .
Ref: 46 CFR 41 (A) vessel is chartered with the crew provided or specified by the owner or the owner’s representative, and carrying not more than 12 passengers (B) vessel's crew must all be documented U.S. citizens (C) vessel is carrying not more than 12 passengers, including at least 1 passenger-for-hire (D) vessel is at least 100 gross tons |
(D) vessel is at least 100 gross tons
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The 3 different types of Letter of Deviation are .
Ref: 33 CFR 164, 51, 53, 55 (A) Non-Emergency, Non-operating Equipment, Continuing Operation or Period of Time (B) Non-Emergency, Missing Equipment, Period of Duration (C) Emergency, Missing Equipment, Period of Duration (D) Emergency, Non-operating Equipment, Continuing Operation or Period of Time |
(A) Non-Emergency, Non-operating Equipment, Continuing Operation or Period of Time
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Letters of Undertaking and Surety Bonds are used to .
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.6, 4.C.10 (A) assure payment of a reward (B) explain the mitigating factors for non-compliance with an examination (C) define the limitations of a penalty (D) assure payment of a penalty |
(D) assure payment of a penalty
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The responsibility for the safe conduct of a marine event and adequate preparations lies with the
_. Ref: COMSTINST M16000.11 (A) Sponsoring organization (B) Coast Guard (C) On Scene Coordinator (D) State Marine Patrol |
(A) Sponsoring organization
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The District Commander may control vessel traffic in a/an _, which is determined to have hazardous conditions, by issuing regulations.
Ref: 33 CFR 165, 165.11 (A) Explosive Anchorage (B) Safety Zone (C) Regulated Navigation Area (D) Exclusionary Zone. |
(C) Regulated Navigation Area
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A marine casualty shall be reported in writing within days.
Ref: 46 CFR 4.05 (A) 30 (B) 5 (C) 20 (D) 10 |
(B) 5
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The form CG-2692 is a .
Ref: 46 CFR 4.05-10 (A) Report of Pollution (B) Report of Marine Casualty (C) Notice of Federal Interest (D) Transfer of Property |
(B) Report of Marine Casualty
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Which of the following is considered a marine casualty?
Ref: 46 CFR 4.03 (A) Death of an individual at sea (B) A disoriented mariner who needs navigational assistance (C) An injury that requires minor first aid (D) An inoperable refrigeration system |
(A) Death of an individual at sea
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A marine casualty involving a loss of life shall be reported _.
Ref: 46 CFR 4.05 (A) immediately after addressing safety concerns (B) within 30 minutes after addressing safety concerns (C) as soon as possible (D) as soon as practical |
(A) immediately after addressing safety concerns
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Before an oil transfer can occur from a vessel requesting a one-time port visit, the vessel owner or operator must accomplish all of the following, EXCEPT _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.14, 4.A.6.g (A) provide the COTP certification that they have contracted with the necessary resources to respond to a worst case discharge (B) certify verbally that a response plan meeting the regulatory requirements or a SOPEP approved by the flag state is onboard (C) receive interim authorization from the COTP (D) operate in full compliance with the submitted response plan |
(B) certify verbally that a response plan meeting the regulatory requirements or a SOPEP approved by the flag state is onboard
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A Port State Control is conducted to ensure a vessel has remained in compliance with appropriate laws or international conventions between the period of annual examinations.
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.7A D.1.H (A) semi-annual examination (B) quarterly examination (C) reexamination (D) initial examination |
(A) semi-annual examination
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All of the following programs and services are hyperlinked at the Deputy Commandant for Operations website, EXCEPT .
Ref: COMDTINST M3120.20 (A) Marine Safety Center (MSC) (B) Operations Systems Center (OSC) (C) National Vessel Movement Center (NVMC) (D) National Maritime Center (NMC) |
Answer missing
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Which of the following is an enforcement policy that shall be followed for a foreign vessel discovered in port with an expired Vessel Response Plan?
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.7A, D.2.E.5.a (A) The vessel operator must submit verbal certification that necessary private response resources are available (B) The vessel operator must submit written certification that necessary private response resources are available (C) The Officer-in-Charge Marine Inspections and Captain of the Port shall permit the vessel operator to handle oil only on the navigable waters of the United States (D) The Officer-in-Charge Marine Inspections and Captain of the Port shall suspend the vessel's cargo operations |
Answer Missing
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All vessels 150 gross tons and above, and all other ships over 400 gross tons, shall have an approved SOPEP on board in accordance with MARPOL Annex I, Regulation 26.
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.7A, D.2.E.4.a (A) dry bulk cargo (B) tank (C) passenger (D) container |
(B) tank
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Port State Control examinations should focus on those areas where "clear grounds" have been established and should not include other areas or systems unless the general impressions or observations of the boarding team support such examinations.
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.7A, D.1.I (A) annual (B) expanded (C) initial (D) quarterly |
(B) expanded
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What type of examination should include reviewing or inspecting the vessel's certificates, licenses and documents, followed by a general examination, i.e., "walk through" of the vessel?
Ref: COMDTINST M 16000.7A, D.1.G (A) Initial (B) Quarterly (C) Annual (D) Expanded |
(C) Annual
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Vessels suspected of presenting an imminent threat to life, the port, or the environment will be targeted for boarding _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.7A, D.4.E.2 (A) dockside (B) after exiting port (C) prior to entry into port (D) after entry into port |
(C) prior to entry into port
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Vessels that do not have, or are past due for, an annual Freight Vessel Examination or quarterly Control Verification be targeted for examination after entry into port restrictions on the start of cargo or passenger embarkation.
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.7A, D.4.D.3.b (A) must; without (B) may; with (C) may; without (D) must; with |
(D) must; with
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Classification Societies are evaluated on their detention performance over the previous years receive Priority status.
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.7A, D.3.A (A) three; 1 (B) five; 1 (C) two; 2 (D) four; 3 |
No Answer
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What is the exercise of controls over a foreign vessel by the government of a nation within which the vessel is operating?
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.6, 4.C.7 (A) Vessel Management (B) Maritime Inspections (C) Notice of Violation (D) Port State Control |
(D) Port State Control
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All of the following are types of Port State Control Examinations EXCEPT a/an _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.7A, D.1.F.1 (A) monitor examination (B) restricted examination (C) reexamination (D) annual examination |
No Answer
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Vessels that may enter U.S. ports subject to certain limitations are assigned to Category I in the SIV program and are categorized as vessels.
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.12, 8.D.9.a (A) restricted state (B) non-restricted state (C) free state (D) non-entrant state |
(A) restricted state
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What program is applicable to vessels from countries that have been identified as posing a threat to U.S. national security.
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.12, 8.B (A) High Value Asset (B) Limited Access (C) Special Interest Vessel (D) High Interest Vessel |
(D) High Interest Vessel
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Which Act provides the authority to increase navigation and vessel safety, to protect the marine environment, and to protect life, property, and structures in, on, or immediately adjacent to the navigable waters of the United States?
Ref: 16 USC 1801-1883 (A) Magnuson Act of 1950 (B) Port and Waterways Safety Act of 1972 (C) Lacey Act of 1900 (D) Port and Tanker Safety Act of 1978 |
(B) Port and Waterways Safety Act of 1972
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Which of the following statements is true regarding anchorages?
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.11 (A) Violations of an Anchorage Regulation are to be brought to the attention of the Federal Maritime Security Coordinator (B) Vessels less than 65 ft are not required to carry or exhibit anchor lights within a special anchorage (C) All anchorage procedures are regulated under the Maritime Transportation Security Act (D) All anchorages are considered Limited Access Areas |
No Answer
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A Naval Vessel Protection Zone is an example of a _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16247.1E B.18. (A) Restricted Navigation Area (B) Radio Silence Area (C) Deadly Force Authorized Area (D) Limited Access Area |
(D) Limited Access Area
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A positive control measure boarding is conducted seaward of .
Ref: COMDTINST M16600.6, 5.K.3 (A) 12 NM (B) 100 NM (C) 200 NM (D) 24 NM |
(A) 12 NM
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Which of the following is NOT a requirement for operational commanders during MARSEC 2?
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.6, Appendix C. Page C-2 (A) Increase situational awareness above that of MARSEC 1 (B) Maintain track data on green shipping (C) Determine availability of specialized forces from other agencies (D) Deploy Coast Guard resources to or near MARSEC 2 ports |
No Answer
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When are security zones active for certain dangerous cargo?
Ref: COMDTINST M16600.6, 5.L.5 (A) When passing under bridges (B) Always at the discretion of the COTP (C) When transiting key port areas (D) When outside a HDPA |
No Answer
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Which of the following is an example of a HCPV?
Ref: COMDTINST M16600.6, 5.L.7 (A) Cruise ship with 1500 passengers (B) Dinner cruise ship with 100 passengers (C) Aircraft carrier (D) Sailboat with 7 passengers |
(A) Cruise ship with 1500 passengers
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What is the force protection condition that can be maintained indefinitely?
Ref: COMDTINST M5530.1C, 5.F.2 (A) ALPHA (B) BRAVO (C) CHARLIE (D) DELTA |
(A) ALPHA
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What classification is the HIV targeting matrix when filled in?
Ref: COMDTINST M16000.6, 5.C.2 (A) Confidential (B) Sensitive Security Information (C) Unclassified (D) Secret |
(D) Secret
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When no commercial salvage companies are available within a reasonable time or distance, the District Commander may modify the policy to provide for refloating a grounded boat which is not in peril of further damage or loss if _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 4.3.2.1 (A) the owner is not on board and not in contact with the Coast Guard (B) Coast Guard units are capable of rendering the assistance (C) the grounded boat is salvageable (D) Coast Guard units need the training |
(B) Coast Guard units are capable of rendering the assistance
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In the event a request is received from a responsible agency, such as local police, military commands, etc., to search for a body, Coast Guard units _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 3.4.7 (A) may participate, provided the search does not interfere with primary duties (B) shall request permission from Headquarters Office of Search and Rescue (CG-SAR) (C) may search only after initial searches have been completed with negative results (D) shall not participate in searches for bodies |
(A) may participate, provided the search does not interfere with primary duties
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Once established by the SMC, who has authorization to modify a search action plan?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, C.2 (A) On Scene Coordinator (B) Coxswain (C) Officer in Charge (D) Aircraft Commander |
(A) On Scene Coordinator
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The five stages of the SAR System include .
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 3.1.2 (A) Operations, Planning, Communications, Resources, Documentation (B) Organization, Resources, Communications, Operations, Conclusion (C) Awareness, Initial Actions, Planning, Operations, Conclusion (D) Awareness, Resources, Planning, Operations, Documentation |
(C) Awareness, Initial Actions, Planning, Operations, Conclusion
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What action should the SMC take when assistance is requested in a Non-distress situation, in the event there is no commercial salvage available?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 4.1.5.3 (A) Issue a MARB (B) Issue a UMIB (C) Launch a Coast Guard surface unit to assist (D) Request DOD assistance |
(A) Issue a MARB
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Which of the following is considered a distress signal?
Ref: COMDTINST M16672.2D, Rule 37 (A) Continuous white light (B) Flashing green light (C) Flames on a vessel (D) Ball diamond ball |
(C) Flames on a vessel
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What phase exists when grave or imminent danger, requiring immediate response to the distress scene, threatens a craft or person?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 3.1.2.2 (A) Uncertainty (B) Distress (C) Emergency (D) Alert |
(B) Distress
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The phase that exists when a craft or person is experiencing some difficulty and may need assistance, but is not in immediate danger or in need of immediate response, is the phase.
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 4.1.2.2 (A) Alert (B) Uncertainty (C) Emergency (D) Distress |
(A) Alert
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When taking a distress call, the four most important pieces of information are _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2, 3.1.4 (A) name, description of POB, cell phone number, and nature of distress (B) vessel description, position, nature of distress, and number of people on board (C) name, address, cell number, and nature of distress (D) number of life jackets onboard, location, time of incident, and number of POB |
(B) vessel description, position, nature of distress, and number of people on board
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Which of the following is NOT a factor in the search duration for someone who has fallen or jumped from a bridge?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 4.15.2.1 (A) Chances of surviving the fall (B) Availability of adequate resources on scene from local agencies (C) Time of incident (D) Distress location narrowing the initial search area |
(C) Time of incident
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What is the recommended time the SMC should wait for an answer to a Marine Assistance Request Broadcast (MARB) before directing Coast Guard or Coast Guard Auxiliary response?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 4.1.6(c) (A) 10 minutes (B) 30 minutes (C) 60 minutes (D) 40 minutes |
(A) 10 minutes
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Coast Guard commands with the SMC assigned shall conduct a SAR case study when .
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 3.9.4.1 (A) a SAR case involves law enforcement activities (B) survivors are found by someone not involved in the search, outside the search area (C) a mission fails to locate the search object (D) the case was difficult |
(B) survivors are found by someone not involved in the search, outside the search area
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Which of the following is true concerning the use of the Probability of Survival Detection Aid (PSDA)?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 3.7 (A) The use of PSDA can be waived by the Sector Commander (B) The use of PSDA is determined by the average water temperature of each AOR (C) It takes into account hallucination (D) It shall be used for all cases involving PIW |
(D) It shall be used for all cases involving PIW
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A/An is required for a red/orange flare case if your command center has unresolved insufficient information to either close or suspend the case.
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 3.4.9.6 (A) overdue report before proceeding (B) follow-up with the reporting party (C) first light search (D) recommendation to suspend with comments in SITREP |
(C) first light search
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Who is responsible for the coordination and planning of a response when your command center receives a report of a fire aboard a 32 foot cabin cruiser that is anchored in the harbor?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, C.2 (A) Captain of the Port (B) SAR Mission Coordinator (C) SAR Coordinator (D) Local fire fighting agency |
(D) Local fire fighting agency
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In cases involving towing by the Coast Guard or Coast Guard Auxiliary, the vessel being assisted will normally be taken to the _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 4.1.2.4 (A) last port of call (B) nearest port (C) nearest safe haven (D) vessel’s desired port |
(C) nearest safe haven
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Which of the following statements regarding flare sightings is true?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, I.1.1 (A) All red and orange flare sightings must be treated as distress (B) Flares that are reported in known military exercises are related to a military exercise (C) Other SAR cases take precedence over flare cases (D) SAR planners should wait for correlating information before dispatching an SRU |
(A) All red and orange flare sightings must be treated as distress
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Using the Manual Solution Worksheets from the USCG SAR Addendum, computing a coverage factor of 1.0 indicates that _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, H.5.5 (A) a 98% probability the search object will be located (B) search conditions are poor (C) the corrected Sweep Width (W) is equal to the Track Spacing (S) (D) search conditions are excellent |
(C) the corrected Sweep Width (W) is equal to the Track Spacing (S)
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What is defined as the sea area with radiotelephone coverage of at least one VHF-FM coast station, in which continuous DSC alerting is available?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 2.1.3.1 (A) Sea Area A1 (B) Sea Area A2 (C) Sea Area A3 (D) Sea Area A4 |
(A) Sea Area A1
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The distance between two adjacent parallel search legs is referred to as _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E (A) datum (B) sweep width (C) leeway (D) track spacing |
(D) track spacing
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A computerized system for maintaining the dead reckoning position of participating vessels worldwide is called _.
Ref: COMDINTST M16130.2E, 1.6.6 (A) SAROPS (B) VMS (C) AMVER (D) AIS |
(C) AMVER
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What does the acronym "SART" stand for?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 2.2 (A) Survival and Rescue Training (B) Search and Radar Transponder (C) Sight and Report Target (D) Search and Rescue Transponder |
(D) Search and Rescue Transponder
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Which asset is the primary SAR resource for ice rescues?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 4.9.5.1 (A) Response boat (B) Helicopter (C) Ice skiff (D) 4 wheel drive vehicle |
(B) Helicopter
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What information would be important to consider when determining the appropriate emergency phase of a SAR case?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 3.1.2.2 (A) Availability of CG assets to assist (B) Boater's position or lack of known position (C) Experience of the watch stander (D) Boater’s ability to pay for commercial assistance |
(B) Boater's position or lack of known position
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Which is the correct search pattern to use when datum is established within close limits, very high coverage is desired in the immediate vicinity of datum, and the area to be searched is not extensive?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, H.7.3.5 (A) Square (S) (B) Parallel (P) (C) Sector (V) (D) Trackline (T) |
(C) Sector (V)
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According to the Coast Guard Addendum, in which search pattern is the direction of creep along the major axis?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, H.7.3.3 (A) Sector (V) (B) Creep (C) (C) Parallel (P) (D) Square (S) |
(B) Creep (C)
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When deciding on a reasonable search area for an uncorrelated distress broadcast, for air assets and for surface assets is considered a reasonable amount of on-scene time for the search to be completed.
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 3.4.9.5(f) (A) 2 hours; 1 hour (B) 1 hour; 2 hours (C) 2 hours; 2 hours (D) 1 hour; 1 hour |
(B) 1 hour; 2 hours
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According to the Coast Guard Addendum, which is the correct search pattern to use when the area is large and uniform coverage is required?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, H.7.3.2 (A) Parallel (P) (B) Sector (V) (C) Square (S) (D) Trackline (T) |
(A) Parallel (P)
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According to the Coast Guard Addendum, which is the correct pattern to use when the area is small and some doubt exists about the distress position?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, H.7.3.4 (A) Parallel (P) (B) Sector (V) (C) Square (S) (D) Trackline (T) |
(C) Square (S)
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How many degrees are the turns in a Sector Search?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, H.7.3.5 (A) 220° to the right (B) 120° to the left (C) 60° to the left (D) 120° to the right |
(D) 120° to the right
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If needed, who is required to perform the next of kin notification for a suspended active search?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 1.4.3.4 (A) Command Duty Officer (B) Sector Commander (C) State marine investigator (D) Local law enforcement authorities |
(B) Sector Commander
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The primary purpose of Global Maritime Distress and Safety System (GMDSS) is to _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 2.1.1 (A) provide additional shipboard systems for more effective company communications (B) change from a ship-to-ship method of distress alerting to a ship-to-shore method (C) allow more effective control of SAR situations by vessels (D) employ effective and inexpensive communications |
(B) change from a ship-to-ship method of distress alerting to a ship-to-shore method
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What is the required minimum action for an Uncorrelated Mayday Broadcast?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 3.4.9.2(a) (A) UMIB every 15 minutes for 2 hours (B) Immediate call-outs to the vessel in distress (C) UMIB every 15 minutes for 1 hour (D) Issuance of a Notice to Mariners |
(C) UMIB every 15 minutes for 1 hour
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A mariner reports a flare off their starboard beam 090º relative, and their course is 320º true. What is the true bearing, in degrees, of the observed flare?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, I.3.2 (A) 130º (B) 310º (C) 050º (D) 230º |
(C) 050º
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Rapid rise and slow decent are characteristics of a _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, I.3.2 (A) pencil flare (B) meteor flare (C) handheld flare (D) parachute flare |
(D) parachute flare
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A concerned citizen just reported a flare with a rapid rise and descent. The reporting source has described a _.
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, I.3.2 (A) ground flare (B) parachute flare (C) handheld flare (D) meteor flare |
(D) meteor flare
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When using the Closed Fist Method to determine the angle of observation, one-quarter (¼) of a fist is equal to how many degrees?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, I.3.2.6(b) (A) 2° (B) 6° (C) 4° (D) 1° |
(A) 2°
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Which of the following statements is true regarding MEDEVACs?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 4.7.2.4 (A) A recommendation by a flight surgeon constitutes an order to conduct the mission (B) The final decision to conduct a the mission rests with the aircraft commander or coxswain on scene (C) Considered low risk evolutions (D) An individual’s insurance coverage is a factor in the decision making process for the mission |
(B) The final decision to conduct a the mission rests with the aircraft commander or coxswain on scene
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When conducting a MEDEVAC of a dive accident victim, which of the following procedures applies?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 6.6.3 (A) The dive victim should remain on their SCUBA tank air until transferred to shore (B) Call Dive Accident Vector Emergency System for nearest decompression chamber (C) Keep the victim walking and talking to keep from falling asleep (D) Unpressurized aircraft should fly at the lowest safe altitude 1,000 feet or below |
(D) Unpressurized aircraft should fly at the lowest safe altitude 1,000 feet or below
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You receive a report of a small craft that is aground and there are no commercial salvage companies available within a reasonable time or distance. According to the general salvage policy, all of the following are prudent actions if you are authorized to refloat the vessel, EXCEPT .
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 4.1.6.3 (A) evacuating the passengers (B) helping the mariner determine the vessel's seaworthiness (C) allowing the next tide to refloat the vessel (D) performing limited salvage operations that cannot prevent a worsening situation |
(B) helping the mariner determine the vessel's seaworthiness
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A vessel runs aground on soft sand and is not in any danger. The operator states that all of the passengers are safe and that they are not in distress. What should the SMC do if the operator is requesting Coast Guard assistance, the command center determines that there is no commercial salvage available, and the incident is classified as non-distress?
Ref: COMDTINST M16130.2E, 4.1.6.3 (A) Request DOD assistance (B) Launch a Coast Guard surface unit to assist (C) Offer a MARB (D) Issue a UMIB |
(C) Offer a MARB
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