Set B Vol 1

Front 1

What organization is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation criteria?

Back 1

The Joint Commission

Front 2

As a minimum, how frequently should area-specific general operating instructions (OI) be reviewed?

Back 2

Every 2 years

Front 3

What term describes an organism that causes infection and disease?

Back 3

Pathogen

Front 4

Which infectious agents are primitive one-celled, plant-like organisms that reproduce rapidly?

Back 4

Bacteria

Front 5

What are the 2 structural categories of fungi?

Back 5

Yeast and mold

Front 6

What condition must be present for a virus to multiply?

Back 6

Susceptible tissue

Front 7

Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?

Back 7

Incubation

Front 8

What is the purpose of the standard precautions recommended by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC)?

Back 8

REDUCE the RISK of transmission of micro-organisms from BOTH recognized and unrecognized sources of infection in hospitals

Front 9

What should you do if the clothes you are wearing at work become contaminated?

Back 9

Change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes and launder them in hot soapy water

Front 10

What is one of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea?

Back 10

Pelvic inflammatory disease

Front 11

How does a health care provider notify Public Health of a suspected communicable disease?

Back 11

Using the telephone or locally derived form

Front 12

Which medical term means the absence of infection?

Back 12

Asepsis

Front 13

Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue?

Back 13

antiseptic

Front 14

When using a mask in an isolation unit, when do you put the mask on?

Back 14

before entering

and

take it off before leaving

Front 15

What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method?

Back 15

when package integrity is compromised

Front 16

Which is NOT a commonly used disinfecting agent?

Back 16

hydrochloric acid

Front 17

What is the temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a peracetic acid sterilizer?

Back 17

between 122-131 degrees F

Front 18

Which item may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer?

Back 18

count sheets

Front 19

What are the standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines?

Back 19

patients full name and date of birth

Front 20

What are the foundations of safe and effective healthcare?

Back 20

proactive risk identification, assessment and control

Front 21

what do the very low-density lipoproteins transport?

Back 21

triglycerides

that are synthesized in the liver from carbohydrates to adipose cells

Front 22

Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization is pertinent during which aspect of the nursing care?

Back 22

rehabilitation

Front 23

A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at how many months?

Back 23

24 months

Front 24

Which is a characteristic of late adulthood?

Back 24

muscle atrophy

Front 25

What controllable factor did Florence Nightingale link with health and the environment?

Back 25

pure water

Front 26

Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?

a. Blood pressure screenings.

b. Assessing current fitness status.

c. Establishing guidelines for disposal of contaminants.

d. Providing services designed to maintain a healthy lifestyle.

Back 26

a. Blood pressure screenings.

Front 27

what is a good source of protein?

Back 27

poultry

Front 28

Clinical signs of B12 deficiency are first noted by what?

Back 28

pernicious anemia

Front 29

Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may have caused newborns to be born with what?

Back 29

seizures

Front 30

Vitamin C can be found naturally in all of the following foods except:

a. citrus. b. cheese. c. broccoli. d. tomatoes.

Back 30

cheese

Front 31

A sign of vitamin A deficiency includes what?

Back 31

night blindness

Front 32

Which ailment is not treated by vitamin K?

Back 32

heparin overdose

Front 33

What percentage of the body’s weight are minerals responsible for?

Back 33

4

Front 34

Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen by what?

Back 34

d. through an excessive amount of fluid loss.

Front 35

When administering potassium intravenously, you should do what?

Back 35

mix the potassium thoroughly before admininstration

Front 36

Calcium can be found in all of the following sources except:

a. kale. b. pork. c. salmon. d. turnip greens.

Back 36

pork

Front 37

Which route is injectable iron administered?

a. Intra muscular. b. Intra venous. c. Transdermal. d. Z-track.

Back 37

z-track

Front 38

Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called what?

Back 38

acids

Front 39

What symptoms may occur with blood pH alkalosis?

Back 39

dizzy and agitated

Front 40

Complex carbohydrates are called what?

Back 40

polysaccharides

Front 41

What organ is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism?

Back 41

liver

Front 42

Amino acids are the small molecular building blocks of what?

Back 42

proteins

Front 43

Which is an accurate definition of leukocytes?

Back 43

protect against disease at the cellular level

Front 44

The life span of lymphocytes is what?

Back 44

years

Front 45

What cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms?

Back 45

lymphocytes and macrophages

Front 46

The primary central gland of the lymphatic system is the what?

Back 46

thymus gland

Front 47

Nathan has broken out with the chickenpox for the first time. His body’s response is called a what?

Back 47

primary immune response

Front 48

During which stage of healing are immature fiber cells and capillaries formed?

Back 48

inflammation

Front 49

For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is what?

Back 49

shock and disorientation

Front 50

Which signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment would you look for in an intoxicated patient?

Back 50

impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, behavioral changes

Front 51

Which fluid imbalance is characterized by dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotension, and a low central venous pressure?

Back 51

hypovolemia

Front 52

What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?

Back 52

Hyperkalemia

Front 53

Which acid-base imbalance is caused by hyperventilating?

Back 53

respiratory alkalosis

Front 54

Deficiency in respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called what?

Back 54

respiratory acidosis

Front 55

The basic purpose of infusion therapy is to do what?

Back 55

a. administer fluids into the circulatory system

Front 56

What is the best way for a medical technician to ensure the sterility of an intravenous (IV) solution?

Back 56

c. Remove protective devices yourself

Front 57

In a piggyback setup, what prevents the mixing of primary and secondary infusions?

Back 57

back-check valve

Front 58

To reduce the possibility of infection and vessel damage on patients scheduled for long-term therapy, how often should you change a patient’s intravenous (IV) site?

Back 58

every 48-72 hours

Front 59

In cubic centimeters (cc), what is the slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an intravenous (IV) solution?

Back 59

10-50 cc

Front 60

Which urine test is done to determine the hydration level of the patient?

Back 60

specific gravity

Front 61

What steps should you take if you identify a small object while straining urine?

Back 61

place it in a sterile cup and notify the nurse

Front 62

After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for how many minutes?

Back 62

2-3 minutes

Front 63

What should be done prior to operating a glucose meter?

Back 63

read the operating instructions

Front 64

In the objective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient’s:

a. statement that he or she feels dizzy. b. plan to resolve a health issue. c. complaint of headache. d. pulse rate.

Back 64

pulse rate

Front 65

A proctoscopy is an inspection of the what?

Back 65

rectum

Front 66

When educating the patient with psuedofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following except shaving:

a. in the opposite direction of hair growth. b. in the direction of hair growth. c. with facial skin stretched. d. with slow strokes.

Back 66

b. in the direction of hair growth

Front 67

The eye can generally see wavelengths between what?

Back 67

400 and 750 nm

Front 68

At what ages is visual acuity at its best?

Back 68

15 to 20

Front 69

When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forced expiratory volume at one second ( FEV1) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than?

Back 69

80

Front 70

During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are ?

Back 70

2; 3

Front 71

Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called what?

Back 71

artifacts

Front 72

What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings?

Back 72

arrythmia

Front 73

If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent where?

Back 73

US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library.

Front 74

What is another term for orthostatic hypotension?

Back 74

postural hypotension

Front 75

Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient’s oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below what percent?

Back 75

97%

Front 76

When can the minor surgery procedure begin?

Back 76

after the consent form is signed

Front 77

When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would most likely use what instrument?

Back 77

mayo scissors

Front 78

When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male’s right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step?

Back 78

flush the wound

Front 79

After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment, what should you do next?

Back 79

assess sensory awareness

Front 80

How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped?

Back 80

300 mm Hg

Front 81

When performing a crash cart check, what should you do after ensuring the defibrillator or cardiac monitor operate?

Back 81

annotate date and time on a rhythm strip

Front 82

When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast?

Back 82

name

Front 83

In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only when?

Back 83

when local protocol authorizes it

Front 84

The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called what?

Back 84

scene sizeup

Front 85

When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the ambulance be parked from the affected vehicle?

Back 85

100

Front 86

When performing an initial assessment on a patient and the patient responds by spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly, how would you assess the patient’s mental status?

Back 86

alert

Front 87

If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, how would you provide oxygen?

Back 87

ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen.

Front 88

As a general rule, apply a cervical collar if there is any blow above what body part?

Back 88

clavicles

Front 89

A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with a significant/insignificant mechanism of injury and focuses on what?

Back 89

a significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are

Front 90

When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about

Back 90

provocation

Front 91

While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine?

Back 91

time

Front 92

What are your responsibilities as an emergency medical technician (EMT) at the scene of a hazmat incident?

Back 92

Caring for the injured and monitor and rehabilitating the hazmat team members.

Front 93

Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations?

Back 93

what is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device

Front 94

If an individual walks in to a medical treatment facility (MTF) and asks for assistance bringing in a family member, you should ask what?

Back 94

what is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device

Front 95

If you are treating a severely injured patient with a life-threatening problem, it may be appropriate to skip the?

Back 95

detailed physical exam

Front 96

In minutes, what is the recommended interval for reassessment of an unstable patient?

Back 96

5

Front 97

Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians (EMT) in the field to describe a possible fracture?

Back 97

painful, swollen deformity (PSD)

Front 98

Which classifications of fracture are considered more serious because greater blood loss or contamination is possible?

Back 98

open

Front 99

While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he or she has splashed a chemical in his or her eye, what should you determine first?

Back 99

if the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type

Front 100

In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temporary external pulse generator system?

Back 100

right atrium