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1165 Cards in this Set

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What records must the facility retain at the facility?
A copy of the letter of intent, names of PIC's, most recent hose tests, all exams by COTP for 3 years, DOI within the last 30 days, records of all repairs made to the vapor recovery system within the last three years
On an MOTF, what type of hose is exempted from the requirement to blank off the ends of hoses not hooked up to a manifold?
New or unused hoses
What regulations cover break-bulk hazardous materials?
49 CFR 170-179
What regulation addresses specific source waste?
40 CFR 261.32
33 CFR 126 covers what?
Handleing of class 1 materials of other dangerous cargoes within of contiguous to waterfront facilities
What does 33 CFR 127 cover?
Waterfront facilities handling liquefied natural gas and liquefied hazardous gas
Each operator of a passenger terminal subject to 33 CFR 129 shall submit 2 copies of a what at least 60 days before transferring passengers to or from a vessel?
Terminal Security Plan
What does 33 CFR 158 cover?
Reception facilities for oil, noxious liquid substances and garbage
What must the owner of a LHG/LNG facility provide to the COTP 30 days before transferring product?
2 copies of the operations manual and 2 copies of the emergency manual
What is a facility that is authorized to handle dangerous cargo only?
Designated Waterfront Facility
When do permits for handling of designated dangerous cargo terminate?
At the conclusion of the transaction for which the permit has been issued or whenever the COPT deems necessary
Ammonia Nitrate (and the like) shall be seperated by a fire resistant wall or by a distance of at least what from organic materials or other flammable materials?
30 feet
How many days does the owner of a LHG/LNG facility have to send the COTP a letter of intent?
60 days before transferring LHG/LNG
In what regulation is the listing of LHG/LNG?
33 CFR 127, Table 127.005
What regulations cover all military explosives?
46 CFR 146
What does 33 CFR 154 cover?
Facilities transferring oil or hazardous materials in bulk
Category D cargoes are the least toxic chemicals. They have no stripping requirements because they simply require a what dilution prior to discharge?
10:1
For a COA for MARPOL V, a facility must be able to receive APHIS regulated garbage within how many hours?
24
The regulations that authorize the Commandant to designate waterfront facilities for the handling, storage, loading and discharge of explosives, flammable or combustible liquids in bulk is what?
33 CFR 6.12
What can carry cargo of a particular hazard and designated dangerous cargo?
Facility Of a Particular Hazard
The most toxic chemical is Category ___ NLS
A
How often must a hold containing explosives be checked after being locked?
24 hours
What are three common heights of containers?
8, 8.5, 9
What information is contained in an ideal witness statement?
Name and address of witness
Who has the authority to terminate cleaup operations?
OSC
Documentation is needed for federal cleanups to ___
determine cost recovery from the polluter
Performance of oil booms is greatly affected by ___
current speed, tides and wave action
Which response information system is run by the NRC?
HACS
Which manual provides the Coast Guard member with information on hazards encountered in the marine safety field?
Marine Safety Manual Vol. 1
What is a facility that is authorized to handle dangerous cargo, cargo of a particular hazard and designated dangerous cargo?
Facility of a Particular Hazard
What types of facilities need to have a COA for garbage?
Facilities that handle oceangoing vessels of 400 GT or more, handle NLS, commercial fishing facilities and recreational boating facilities
Which types of facilities may by required to give the COTP advance notice of oil transfers?
Mobile, remote local, facilities with a history of spills, and facilities that conduct infrequent transfers
Shipments of class A explosives in intermodal freight containers in permitted only by special approval of ___
the Commandant (G-NTH-1)
On a facility which started operation after Nov. 1, 1980, the emergency shutdown system must stop the flow of oil in ___ seconds
30
What is the MINIMUM distance two cargoes must be seperated when the term "Away From" is used?
10 feet
How many feet must a hazardous material be away from walls or the edge of the pier?
2 feet
How many hours must a PIC have before they can be qualified?
48 hours
What are the basic requirements for a general permit?
Maintain the safety condition in 33 CFR 126.15, notify COTP when handling specified amount of particular hazard class of cargo, separate certain hazard classes stowed on the facility
What is the regulation that covers warehouses on designated waterfront facilities?
33 CFR 126
At least ___ days before transferring LHG/LNG, the owner or operator of a new or inactive existing facility shall submit two copies of the operations manual and three copies of the Emergency Manual to the COTP
30
In a designated waterfront facility, you notice that a yard truck is parked blocking the main gate entrance. Is this a discrepancy?
Yes
In a container freight station (CFS Warehouse) on a DWF, how far away from a fire alarm box should cargo be stowed?
3 feet
While conducting a spot check of a designated waterfront facility, you notice that the main gate is open but there is not guard there and you are able to drive on unchallenged. Is there a problem and if so what is it?
Yes, a guard is need to prevent unlawful entry
Flammable cargo can be stowed to a maximum of ___
12 feet
The regulations that covers facilities handling oil, NLS and garbage is ___
33 CFR 126
Reception facilities must be able to recieve NLS within ___ of notice
24 hours
If a designated waterfront facility released a harmful quantity of hazardous substance on the facility but not on the coastal zone, who would be required to notify the NRC?
The person in charge of the facility
Each LNG loading flange must be located at least ___ meters fron the general public or railways.
300
LNG/LPG storage tanks must have the minimum volume nessecary for ___
surge protection, pump suction supply, and other pressing needs
On a LNG waterfront facility, the marine transfer area must have atleast two portable gas detectors capable of measuring 0-100% of the LFL of ____
Methane
At a LNG waterfront facility, the electrical system must have ___
a power source and a separate emergency power source
On a LNG waterfront facility, each transfer emergency shut off system is activated automatically when the fixed sensors measure LNG concentrations exceeding ___ of the LEL
40%
On warning signs at LNG/LHG waterfront facilities, how high must the letters be?
3 inches
Each LNG loading flange must be located 300 meters from ___
each bridge crossinga navigable waterway, and each entrance to any tunnel under a navigable waterway
Cargo must be stored atleast ___ from sprinkler heads
12 inches
During an inspection of a marine oil transfer facility, what equipment must be marked with the producted used or "oil service" and the MAWP?
hose assemblies
What equipment must have a means of draining oil or be capable of being blanked off prior to disconnect?
loading arms
Butterfly valves, wafer-type resilient valves, and blank flanges are what type of equipment?
closure devices
Each PIC must be able to communicate with the other in order to ensure the transfer can be ___
stopped in case of an emergency
If an applicant held a valid port security card and submits for a new card they must ___
hold valid card while application is processed and then surrender the old card when the new card is issued
Who is responsible fore making sure that there is enough water for fire fighting at an ammonium nitrate load?
the owner
Each LNG loading flange must be located atleast ___ meters from the general publis or railways
300
At a waterfront facility handling LNG, the substructures are within 5 meters of any pipe or equipment containing LNG, or are within 15 meters of a loading flange must ___
be made of concrete or steel, have a fire endurance rating of not less than 2 hours
On a LNG Waterfront facility, the marine transfer area must have atleast ___ portable gas detectors capable of measuring 0-100% of the LFL of methane?
2
At a LNG waterfront facility the emergency power source must provide enough power for the operation of the ___
emergency shut down system, communications, firefighting system, and emergency lighting
How many portable fire extinguishers must a LNG waterfront facility have available in each designated parking area?
at least 1
How long must a LNG waterfront facility keep transfer system testing records?
24 months
On an LNG waterfront facility, what testing records must the operator keep on file?
a description of pressure checks, dates and results of tests, a description of any corrective actions taken after the tests
Each waterfront facility handling LHG that transfers a flammable LHG must have atleast ___ portable gas detectors, or ___ fixed gas detectors in the marine transfer area?
2,1
How many copies of the operators manual must a LHG/LNG facility send to the COTP?
2
After the COTP recieves a letter of intent to operate a LHG/LNG facility, what does the COTP send to the owner?
A letter of recommendation
When the COTP had directed that access to a waterfront facility be restricted, personnel requiring access to that area must have one or more of the identification credentials listed in ___
33 CFR125
What do NFPA pamphlets 10 and 10A provide guidance for?
fire fighting equipment
To conduct an oil transfer, who must qualify the Person In Charge?
The Facility Operator
How many portable fire extinguishers must a LNG waterfront facility have available in each designated parking area?
at least 1
To conduct an oil transfer, who must qualify the Person In Charge?
The Facility Operator
How long must a LNG waterfront facility keep transfer system testing records?
24 months
On an LNG waterfront facility, what testing records must the operator keep on file?
a description of pressure checks, dates and results of tests, a description of any corrective actions taken after the tests
Each waterfront facility handling LHG that transfers a flammable LHG must have atleast ___ portable gas detectors, or ___ fixed gas detectors int he marine transfer area?
2,1
How many copies of the operators manual must a LHG/LNG facility send to the COTP?
2
Each hose for a transfer of oil must be marked with atleast the maximum allowable working pressure and the phrase ___
Oil Service
What regulations cover solid bulk dangerous cargo?
46 CFR 148
How high must an ammunition magazine be kept off the deck?
10 cm
What is the inspection form used for facility inspections?
CG 4200
What is the primary thing to look for when monitoring a transfer operation?
that the transfer ops are being followed
What are the conditions for issuing a permit to handle designated dangerous cargo?
A facility must meet the safety requirements of 33 CFR 126.19
While conducting a spot check of MTOF, you notice that there are no watchmen provided to keep the barges secure from unauthorized access. Is this a problem?
Yes
What things DO NOT have to be marked on all oil transfer hoses?
Burst pressures
What classes of explosives require written permits?
1.2, 1.3, 1.4, 1.5
Who is required to witness and verify the prewash of any cargo tank?
prewash surveyor
What equipment is required when a product poses a significant environmental threat?
discharge removal
The regulations in 33 CFR 154 apply to a facility or marina which is capable of transferring ___ barrels or more?
250
What is the form used for the transaction of designated dangerous cargo?
CG-4260
What type of cargo requires a written permit to handle?
Designated dangerous cargo
DOI's must be on record for how long?
1 month
For what reasons may a letter of adequacy be voided?
1. Amends operations manual without following procedures in 33 CFR 154 2. Fails to amend the operations manual when required by COTP
Combustible liquids are those which give off flammable vapors at or above ____?
60 deg. F
What type of vessel is owned and operated by the government and is used only for non-commercial, government service?
Public
Which document does the person in charge complete before starting an oil transfer operation?
Declaration of Inspection
The vent system used with pressurized cargo, which protects the cargo tanks from over pressurization, is a ___
safety relief valve
How high must the fixed containment be at the manifold at each oil transfer connection if the hoses are more then 2 inches in diameter? 33 CFR 155.310
1 barrel
in order to be able to stop loading quickly in the event of a failure in the transfer system, a facility must have ___
an emergency shutdown system
Who is notified in writing when someone is trained to competently transfer each cargo handled by the facility and is designated as person in charge?
Captian of the Port
If an applicant is found by a hearing board unfit for PSC, how many days do they have to appeal?
20
When conducting a container inspection, what terminal personnel should be present at the time of "popping the container"?
yard clerk
What regulation covers the reception of garbage by visiting vessels?
MARPOL V
How big must the fixed containment be at the manifold at each oil transfer connection if the hoses are 2 inches or less? 33 CFR 155
1/2 barrel
The new labeling requirements addressed under HMR-181 are found in ___
49 CFR 172
When does a Port Security Card expire?
1st day after 8 years of the issue date
An applicant holds a valid merchant mariners document, if they receive a port security card they must ___
surrender MMD to get a PSC
Fixed catchment, curbing, or other fixed means are examples of ___
small discharge containment
Where are the regulations for PSC's found?
33 CFR 125
The purpose of a facility Interim Certificate of Adequacy is to ___
allow operations pending the review of the paperwork and on-scene inspection of the facility
Cargo pump systems and gauges, cargo hoses and piping, and relief valve operations are required to be tested at least once every ___ months
12
What is the MAXIMUM distance in feet for cargo space between cross aisles?
75
What is the MINIMUM width allowed for the main aisle on a designated waterfront facility with fire truck access?
20 feet
What is the MINIMUM width allowed for the main aisle on a designated waterfront facility without fire truck access?
8 feet
How mch clearance shall be maintained around fire fire fighting appliances surrounded by cargo?
3 feet
How much clearance shal be maintained around fire fighting appliances?
4 feet
No cargo shall be tiered closer then 3 feet to a ceiling structure member or ___ inches to a sprinkler head
12
When stacking flammable or combustible material, what is the MAXIMUM height?
12 feet
How many feet of clear and open space must be maintained between cargo, freight, merchandise, and other materials piles and both sides of facility walls, fire walls and fire stops, and sides of the pier?
2 feet
Which form is the application and the permit to handle explosives or other dangerous cargo?
CG-4260
What is the first and broadest erm used to describe regulated cargo?
Dangerous Cargo
Who is responsible for providing the witness for a prewash?
COTP
What other types of cargo can be loaded at the same time as an explosive class 1.1 on board a vessel?
none
During the prewash procedure, where are Catergory "A" and high-viscosity Caterogry "B" and "C" NLS's discharged?
Reception facility
Once an oil transfer is complete, the person in charge must ___
sign the transfer papers
The purpose of a facility Certificate of Adequacy is to ___
verify adequacy of the facility to recieve NLS's
Which application form would be used for a facility applying for a Noxious Liquid Substance COA?
C
What does a vessel have to have in order for a facility to be able to receive vapors?
Valid COI endorsed for vapor recovery
What is a vapor destruction unit?
Incinerator
What must be stenciled on a Vapor Recovery hose?
"Vapor"
What color must the vapor recovery hose be?
yellow and red
What is the general color combination used to mark fire fighting appliances in a warehouse?
Red and White
What do facilities with vapor recovery systems have to provide to the Coat Guard?
Written certification that the VRS meets the requirements
For vapor recovery systems, who is a certifying agent?
Individual or company certified by G-MTH
May the COTP impose any requirements from 33 CFR 154-156 on a Marina Fuel Dock that does not transfer oil or hazmat in bulk to a vessel with a capacity of over 250 barrels?
Yes
Horizontal movement of the water is called ___
current
What type of current is generated largely by the continuously changing difference in height of water at two ends?
hydraulic current
What is the term for the direction toward which the current flows?
set
What is the term for the speed or velocity of the current?
drift
What is the term for the movement toward shore or upstream of a current?
flood
What is the term for movement away from the shore or downstream of a current?
ebb
What is the term for the type of tides the occur when the moon and the sun oppose each other, as at the quadratures?
neap tides
What is the term for when the current is at a period of little or no movement?
slack water
What type of tide has both diurnal and semidiurnal oscillations and is characterized by a large inequality in the high water heights, low water heights, or in both?
Mixed
What is the term for when a current sets over an irregular bottom, or meets an opposing current?
tide rip
What is the term for the type of tides that occur when the moon and sun are in line and pulling together, as at the new and full moon?
spring tides
What is the for the type of tide that occurs when the moon is farthest from the earth?
apogee tides
What is the term for the tide that occurs when the moon is at the point in its orbit nearest the earth and the lunal semidiurnal range is increased?
perigee tides
What is the term for when the advance of the low water trough is so much retarded the the crest of the rising tide overtakes the low, and advances upstream as a churning, foaming wall of water?
bore
What type of tide is the natural period of oscillations of a body of water that may accentuate either the solar or the lunar tidal oscillations?
solar tides
What is the term for the condition that occurs at high tide and low water depth of water is momentarily constant?
stand
What serves as a rapid means of identifying vehicles with the authority to operate and park on the facility?
vehicle access control
What is an unobstructed area that surrounds a facility or installation?
clear zone
What type of lock has the case containing th elocking mechanism installed within a hollowed out cavity at the edge of the door?
Mortise
Examples of low, medium and high security doors are ___
low-hollow core, med-solid core and high steel
The most common protective lighting system consists of a series of light fixtures is called what?
continuos lighting
Vegetation is a clear zone will not exceed ___ inches in height
8
What executive order manadates federal agencies establish programs to ensure physical security of facilities?
EC 10421
The standard fence fabric for chain linked fencing will be ___ gauge or heavier zinc or aluminum-coated steel wire.
9
What kind of barrier is most commonly used and recommended for security purposes?
chain-linked fence
When used as a perimeter barrier, masonry walls must have a minimum height of ___ feet and must have a barbed wire top guard
7
Angling light over ares so as not to interfere with adjacent operations is ___ lighting
glare protection
What type of tide has only single high and single low water that occur each tidal day?
diurnal
What is the term for the current where it is offshore, where the direction of flow is not restricted by any barriers and flows continuously with the direction changing through all points of the compass during the tidal period?
rotary
What type of tide occurs at the the time of the new and full moon?
spring tide
What is the term for the period at high or low water during which there is no sensible change of level
stand
The difference in height between consecutive high and low waters is the ___
range
What type of tide has two highs and two lows each tidal day, with relatively small inequality in the high and low water hieghts?
semidiurnal
The height of a security fence should be ___
8 feet
What is a zone to prevent damage to any vessel or waterfront facility from subversive acts or accidents by controlling access or movement of persons, vessels and objects?
security zone
What is the type of lock that contains sylinders that open the locking latch witin the door?
key in the knob lock
In order for a dead bolt lock to be effective it should extend ___
1 inch
An electric scanning device activated by inserting a coded card used for a high security area is a ___
card key lock
A digital push-button combination door locking device used to deny access to any individual not authorized for a specific area is a ___
cipher lock
What is any fixed or man-made structure, other than a vessel, located beyond the territorial sea and off the coast of the US? These are mainly used for the loading of unloading of oil.
Deep Water Port
What is a photoelectric sensor which uses a light source, mirrors and a receiver?
Interrupting light beam sensor
An Id is made of three components: ___
sensor unit, control unit and annuciator
On an IDS, the annuciator is the ___
noise maker
What regulation covers the security of passenger terminals?
33 CFR 129
What type of LAA's are used around certain military installations such as gunnery ranges, submarine basses and naval weapons stations?
restricted area
Foil tape, magnetic contact switch and grid wire are examples of an ___
electrical circuit sensor
Who has the authority to establish a safety zone?
COTP or district commander
What is a sensor that establishes an electrostatic field and any interference actuates the alarm?
Electrostatic sensor
A motion sensor uses ___ and ___ signals to detect motion
ultrasonic and microwave
A ___ alarm notifies the police, guard force and owner when the alarm is activated
Central
Who has the authority to establish a restricted area?
COTP or district commander
Who has the authority to establish DWP safety zone?
Commandant
A securely fastened welded bar is required for drainage ditches, culverts, vents, ducts and other openings with a cross sectional area greater then ___ square inches
96
On an IDS, the control unit ___
recieves and transmits information
In-service security force training includes ___
specific policy on security patrols, use of force, arrest and search
What is the type of minimum fire fighting equipment used by security force personnel?
fire extinguisher
What are the functions of the facilities security force?
protection of life and property, deter crime, enforce rules and regulations
Ground clearance for fences must be within ___ inches
2
What are types of security core functions?
fixed post, mobile patrol and admin support
What is a 2-point metal fastener secured together by a pin, bolt or padlock?
hasp
What is a water area the requires control of vessel operations?
Regulated Navigable area
What type of LAA protects structures, vessels, water and shore areas by controlling access to activities within the zone?
safety zones
What is the best LAA to use during oil spill response operations when access control is requested?
safety zone
What is used to protect the environment in the area arounda supertanker off-load area?
DWP safety zone
What would be used during wartime or national interest/emergency situations to control access around a strategic harbor area?
security zone
Who establishes RNA for permanent passive traffic?
district commander
RNA (Regulated Navigable Area) are water areas that require control of vessel operations to ___
preserve the safety of the waterfront structures, ensure safe transit of other vessels, and protect the marine environment
RNA (Regulated Navigable Area) are water areas that require control of vessel operations to ___
preserve the safety of the waterfront structures, ensure safe transit of other vessels, and protect the marine environment
What type of LAA's are used to for national security interests rather then strictly safety considerations?
Security zones
What type of LAA's are used to for national security interests rather then strictly safety considerations?
Security zones
What type of LAA's are designated areas of land, water, or land and water which prevent damage to any vessel or waterfront facility?
Security zones
What type of LAA's are designated areas of land, water, or land and water which prevent damage to any vessel or waterfront facility?
Security zones
What type of LAA's are specific to deep water ports but provide the same protection as safety zones?
DWP safety zones
What type of LAA's are specific to deep water ports but provide the same protection as safety zones?
DWP safety zones
A RNA is established by the ___ for permanent passive traffic management
district commander
A RNA is established by the ___ for permanent passive traffic management
district commander
Utility openings more then ___ inches in diameter that pass through perimeter barriers must have security equivalent to that of the barrier.
10
What type of LAA would be used for protection of an artificial island that is a bird sanctuary?
OCS safety zone
What type of LAA would be used to protect the area around an offshore drilling platform?
OCS safety zone
What type of LAA may be used to prohibit oil transferees in an anchorage area due to environmental concerns?
RNA
What type of LAA's are normally used in support of US military ops or areas involved in handling class A explosives?
restricted area
What type of LAA limits access to persons possessing indentification credentials suitable to the Commandant?
Restricted area
A metal plate or box installed on or in a door jamb is a ___
strike
Who has the authority to establish an OCS safety zone?
District commander
What are security support measures designed to detect and announce the entry or attempted entry of a protected area?
Intrusion detection system
What type of LAA is limited to an area within 500 meters of artificial islands and fixed structures on the shelf?
Steel
What kind of door provides high security?
Steel
What is jointed or flexible device that allows the turning or pivoting of a door on a stationary frame?
Hinge
What types of weapons are used by security force members?
Impact, chemical and firearms
What is a metal plate or box installed on or in a door jam, with one or more bolt holes into which the bolt or spring bolt of a lock or latch can be thrown?
Strike
If a building is ___ high, a top guard must be used along the outside coping to deny access to the roof.
less then 2 stories
What kind of lock are portable locks which consist of a case containing the locking mechanism and a shackle which is passed through a hasp permanently affixed to the item ro be fastened?
Padlocks
What device is a lock with a solid bolt which is not spring loaded but must be physically turned to the locked or unlocked positions either by hand or key?
Dead bolt lock
What is a lock in which the case containing the locking mechanism is installed within a hollowed out cavity at the edge of the door?
Mortise lock
What type of lock uses a lock with a core (mechanism containing the key tumblers) that can be removed and replaced with another core which uses a different key?
Interchangeable cores
What type of locking device is commonly used in low security areas such as offices or administrative spaces?
key in the knob lock
What type of lock has the tumblers that unlock the cylinders, contained within the knob mounted on the face of the door?
Key in the knob lock
What type of lock contains the cylinders that open the locking hatch within the door?
Key in the knob lock
A securely fastened welded bar is required for openings witha cross-sectional area greater than ___ sq. inches and the smallest dimension of that cross-section greater than ___ inches.
96,6
A ___ alarm is monitored and located at the facility and the annucator is located at the security office.
Proprietary
A RNA is covered under what regulations?
33 CFR 165
A restricted area is covered under what regulation?
33 CFR 6 and 125
A security zone is covered under what regulation?
33 CFR 6 and 165
A DWP safety zone is covered under what regulations?
33 CFR 150
A OCS safety zone is covered under waht regulations?
33 CFR 147
A safety zone is covered under what regulations?
33 CFR 165
Physical security surveys are ___ for facilities
Voluntary
What does 33 CFR 128 cover?
Security of passenger terminals
33 CFR 125 covers what information?
identification credentials for persons requiring access to waterfront facilities or vessels
When a body of water is used as a barrier, it must be supplemented by ___ and ___
structural barriers and boat patrols
During a corodn operation, how many outer perimeters should be established?
2
Masonry walls must have a minimum height of ___ feet and a top guard.
7
Who normally establishes the inner perimeter?
The first person on scene
Chain linked fence must be ___ gauge or heavier with mesh openings not larger than ___ inches and twisted and barbed at the top and bottom.
9, 2
Standard height of a security fence is ___ feet plus ___ inches of a top guard.
7 and 12
Where should the on scene command poist be located?
Outside the inner perimeter
When building walls and roofs serve as perimeter barriers, they must provide protection equivalent to that of a ___
Chain link fence
Once an adversary has penetrated a facility, immediate steps to containment should be taken by establishing an ___
inner perimeter
The three groups of structural barriers are ___
building surfaces, masonry walls and fences
Utility openings more then ___ inches in diameter that pass through perimeter barriers must have security equivalent to that of the barrier
10
What are six types of LAA's used by the Coast Guard?
Safety zone, OCS safety zone, DWP safety zone, security zone, restricted area and regulated navigation area
What kind of lighting system is only used when needed?
standby lighting
What kind of lighting is used when it is neccessary to limit the width of the lighted strip outside the permimeter because of adjoining property or nearby environmental activities such as navigable water, airports, highways, ect.?
controlled lighting
What consists of a series of fixed luminaries arranged to flood a given area continuously with overlapping cones of light during the hours of darkness?
continuous lighting
What is the most common protective lighting system?
continuous lighting
What kind of door provides medium security?
solid core
What king of door provides no security?
hollow core
What is part of a locking mechanism and when the door closes, it temporarily retracts into the door on contact with the lip of the strike?
Locking latch bolt
What type of lock is an electronic scanning device attivated by inserting a coded card into a designated slot?
Card key lock
What type of zone is usedto protect environmentally sensitive areas by limiting activities which would create an unusually high risk of harm?
RNA
What type of LAA limits access during a responce to an emergency and can be set for an indefinite period of time?
Safety zone
Which manual provides the coast guard member with information on the control of hazards in the marine safety field?
MSM vol.1
Who developed the units comprehensive safety program?
Safety and Occupational Health Coordinator
The maximum 15 minute short term exposure limit for benzene is ___
5 ppm
What is the basic first aid equipment used by security forces?
Bandages, dressings and splints
Golden yellow lamps use this material to provide light.
Sodium
What type of lighting has the width of th elighted strip that can be controlled and adjusted to fill a particular need?
controlled lighting
What requires the use of an instant on lamp to illuminate an area immediately?
Stand-by lighting
Incandescent, Quartz aholgen and fluorescent lights are normally ___ in color and provide instant on.
White
A break out from the inner perimeter is prevented by establishing a ___
outer perimeter
Lamps that provide a blue/green light are ___ vapor.
mercury
A type of lock in which the case containing the locking mechanism is installed within a hollowed out cavity at the edge of the door is a ___
Mortise
Elements that should always be included in an security force training program are ___
Basic training, in-service training and advanced training
What are measures to prevent down time or personnel and equipment due to injury?
loss prevention
What are physical items such as buildings and fences, that would cause delay of entry?
barriers and clear zones
What are items of miscellaneous equipment that could be used by a security force?
night vision equipment, photographic equipment, gas masks
What are types of security force functions?
Fixed post, mobile patrol and admin support
What are types of vehicle access control?
Facility tags and decals, goverment tags and decals, and gates
What is th most positive method of identification for small numbers os personnel and should be utilized where ever feasible?
Personal recognition
A clear zone is made up of a ___ area and a ___ area.
Inside 30 ft, outside 20 ft
What is used to control personnel and vehicle access to the facility, installation or secured areas?
Access controls
What is a zone that is limited to an area within 500 feet of artificial islands and fixed structure on the shelf?
Outer continental shelf safety zone
What determines the size and shape of the inner perimeter?
Observation point
If two security personnel are present where should they take postitions?
Opposite corners
Establishing a ___ protects from a break out from the inner perimeter
Outer perimeter
what type of permiter is used to block off all routes of escape?
Containment
Which COMNTINST provides the Coast Guard member with information os hazards encountered in the marine safety world?
M16000.6
Respirators provide respiratory protection by removing the contaminate from the air or by providing ___
an independent air supply
Air testing equipment used in the Coast Guard includes a combustible gas indicator, toxic gas indicator, and ___
oxygen indicator
What are three types of air purifying respirators?
particulate removing, vapor/gas removing and combination
Air testing equipment used in the Coast Guard includes a toxic gas indicator, oxygen indicator, and ___
combustible gas indicator
Fit testing is required ___
annually
An emergency escape breathing apparatus (EEBA) provides air for approximately ___ minutes?
5
Which tight-fitting face piece is recommended for use due to it's high level of protection?
Full face mask
Which type of self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) is used in marine safety operations?
Open-circuit, pressure demand
What are two classes of respirators?
air purifying and air supply
What is the purpose of fit testing?
To train and give confidence to the operator
How many days must someone be around HAZMAT to be eligible for the OMMP program?
30 days
The oxygen indicator most often found at Coast Guard units is the ___
Bacharach Model 103
Which officer implements the Commanding Officer's safety and health policy?
the Commanding Officer
What are the two types of atmosphere supplying respirators?
Self-contained and supply air
Where are respiratory regulations found?
29 CFR 1910.134
What COMDINST established industrial hygiene requirements concerning occupational exposure to benzene?
COMDINST 6260.22
What COMDINST identifies hazards to be encountered in the marine safety field, and also informs personnel of individual responsibilities within the marine safety unit organization?
COMDINST M6000.1B Medical Manual
Where are the OSHA permissible exposure limits published?
29 CFR 1910
Which manual provides the Coast Guard member with information on the organization and responsibilties with regard to safety and health at the marine safety unit?
Marine Safety Manual vol. 1
Which officer also serves as the safety officer?
Executive officer
The most common type of toxic gas indicator is the ___
Drager Multigas detector
Two types of fit tests are ___
qualitative and quantitative
What are the two types of supplied-air respirators used for marine safety operations?
Loose-fitting coverings and tight-fitting face piece
Which reference provides Coast Guard personnel with information in three specific areas with respect to safety and health?
Marine Safety Manual vol. 1
Air testing equipment in the Coast Guard includes a combustible gas indicator, oxygen indicator, and ___
toxic gas indicator
The maximum benzene exposure for an 8 hour time-weighted average is ___
1 ppm
Who administers a unit's respiratory protection program?
Respiratory Protection Administrator
Combination or "Type N" respirators are also known as the ___
universal canister
A confined space cannot be entered unless vent fans are working properly, and have been running for atleast ___ air charges and ___ minutes prior to entry
3, 15
Supplied air respirators depend on air supplied through a ___
hose
Hazards associated with a cargo on a vessel can be identified through the use of ___
shipping papers
What manual outlines safe work practices for personnel?
M16000.6 (MSM vol.1)
Who is required to perform the Safety and Occupational Health Coordinator's duties when the coordinator is absent?
Safety Petty Officer
What can a responsible party give you to help determine the health hazards of a product?
a MSDS
What is defined as the lowest concentration in air that most humans can detect by smell?
Odor threshold
What is an amount that when a hazardous substance is released would be a harmful quantity?
Reportable quantity
Which manual is the Technical Guide: Practices for Respiratory Protection?
COMDINST M6260.2C
What type of atmosphere-supplying respirator uses a man-carried high-pressure air tank?
Self-contained, pressure demand
Which manual provides the Coast Guard member with information on the organization and responsibilties with regard to safety and health at the marine safety unit?
COMDINST M16000.6
Who is responsible for the safety of people at the unit?
The commanding officer
In vapor/gas removing respirators the contaminate sticks to or is soaked into the ___
charcoal filter
An oxygen deficient atmosphere requires what type of respirator?
SCBA
What represents a maximum level from which one could escape within 30 minutes without any escape impairing symptoms or any irreversible health effects?
IDLH
What is defined as the concentration of a substance that can be breathed for five consecutive 8 hour workdays by most people without adverse effects?
TLV
How often are SCBA canisters hydrostatically tested?
every five years
What is defined as the lowest temperature at which vapors above a volatile combustible substance will ignite in air when exposed to an ignition source?
Flash point
What is the percent concentration in air (by volume) that can give an indication of the relative flammability of a chemical substance?
LEL
How often should SCBA's have a full function check if they are not used daily?
monthly
EEBA's are carried in what three situation?
cargo monitors, vessel inspections, confined space entry
What regulation covers respirator requirements?
29 CFR
All Cost Guard personnel exposed to hazardous substances on a regular basis are required to be enrolled in the ___
Occupational Medical Monitoring Program
Vapor/gas removing respirators protect against specific (or classes of) ___
chemicals
Which is the most common type of fit test?
qualitative
Which manual contains the Coast Guard Policy for occupational exposure to benzene?
COMDINST M6260.2C
Which level of protection should be used when the type of airborne substance is known, measured, and the criteria for using air-purifying respirators are met?
C
What is the purpose of a respirator?
To protect the respiratory system from harmful physical or chemical agents
Which indicator uses a bellows pump for operation?
Dragel Multigas detector
Who determines the goals and priorities at a unit with respect to safety and health?
Commanding officer
Who is responsible for the safety and health protection of personnel assigned to a command?
Commanding officer
Which manual contains the requirements for administrating a respiratory program?
COMDINST M6260.2C
The number of persons required for level A entry is ___
8
Which fit test is required each time the respirator is donned?
Positive/negative pressure check
Combination respirators contain several different sorbents and ___
fibrous filters
Which level of protection should NOT be used when respiratory or skin hazards are present?
D
Which level of protection should be used when the highest level of respiratory protection is needed but a lesser level of skin protection is needed?
B
The maximum benzene exposure for an 8 hour time-weighted average is ___
1 ppm
EEBA full function checks are done ___
monthly
Which manual provides information necessary for safe use of respirator protection devices?
COMDINST M6260.2C
Who is the person in charge of the respiratory protection at the unit?
The Respiratory Protection Administrator
Particulate removing respirators remove the contaminate by using a ___
fibrous filter
The bellows on a Drager indicator should be tested for ___
30 minutes
Approved respirators wil have a two-letter approval code of ___
TC
When an SCBA is not being used, how often must it have a fully functional test?
1 year
How often does an EEBA get a function test?
every 6 months
The Bacharach oxygen indicator should be calibrated to ___ % oxygen
20.9
When calibrating the Bacharach model 103, the oxygen percentage is set at ___.
20.9%
How often are fit tests required?
Annually
How often should EEBA's have a full functional check?
monthly
Which level of protection provides minimal protection?
D
An EEBA is designed for ___
Escape only
The types of masks authorized of use in benzene environments of 10 ppm or less are ___
Full face or half mask with organic cartridge
Which fit test uses a known concentration of a contaminant?
Qualitative
Which manual addresses the maintenance and improvement of health related issues of Coast Guard personnel?
COMDINST M6000.1B
In a lifeboat system, a lifeboat with a class 1 motor has a type of engine?
Compression ignition engine
When conducting a monitor, what certain pieces of equipment should be located and checked?
Radar, magnetic steering compass, gyro compass and repeater, echo depth sounder and recorder, ruddr angle indicator, dual radar system, radiotelephone, ARPA, LORAN or SATNAV
What are the exceptions to the requirements of the COFR?
vessels of 300 gross tons or less, public vessels, non-self propelled barges which do not carry oil or hazardous substances such as cargo or fuel
What does 33 CFR 157 cover?
Rules for the protection of the marine environment relating to tank vessels examination record
What document is used to record examinations and whether there are any deficiencies which must be corrected? It is used on foreign flag tank ships.
TVE Tank Vessel Examination Letter
What document contains information regarding the cargoes the vessel is authorized to carry?
COI Certificate of Inspection
What type of vessel is designed to carry general purpose cargo?
Break bulk
When completing a vessel boarding, what certificates need to be checked?
US vessels -COI, Foreign flag tank ships, -TVE, Foreign flag chemical carriers -LOC, and COFR and IOPP
What regulation is the basis for all of the tank vessel regulations?
Subchapter D
MSO's will monitor cargo operations on ___
tank ships with emphasis on the crew's adherence to the Coast Guard approved oil transfer procedures and tank barges with emphasis on the tankerman's adherence to the Coast Guard
Regulations require that tank vessels be monitored every ___ months.
6
What type of gauging method may use a computer, sight glass, or similar method?
Closed
What type of gauging method involves inserting a weighted measuring tape into the cargo tank through a sounding tube?
Restricted
What does 33 CFR 151 cover?
Vessels carrying oil, NLS, garbage, municipal or commercial waste and ballast water
In a lifeboat system, what type of releasing gear does not have a retaining device to prevent accidental release of the hook?
mills type
What should be looked for when examining lifeboats FRP?
Connections to boat hulls and steel supports, hammerbolts and fillings for tightness and possible dilamination, areas of secondary bonding for separation
How often must lifeboats be stripped, cleaned and overhauled?
once a year
When conducting a monitor, you will check to ensure the pump room is safe. This includes checking ___
oil in the bilges, rags, paint solvents stored in the room, loose/bare electrical wires, electrical drop cords used in the room, pumps leaking cargo, fire equipment available and ready to use
Port State control inspections normally consist of ___
checking certificates and documents
COFR's are required for vessels larger than ___
300 gross tons
A wide watertight door hinged at the bottom that can be lowered to a dock so vehicles can be driven on or off the vessel is a ___
cargo ramp
In a lifeboat system, what is examined when inspecting gravity davits?
ensure electronics work
In a lifeboat system, when are davit span wires and manropes not required?
With covered lifeboats
What type of vessel, under power or sail, is operated for pleasure and does not carry cargo or passengers for hire?
Yacht
What does 33 CFR 159 cover?
Marine Sanitation Devices
When ensuring navigation safety requirements are met, what publications must be corrected and up to date?
US Coast Pilot, Coast Guard Light List, Tide Tables, Tidal Current Tables
How far back will G-MCO go in reviewing the vessels history to address interventions?
12 months
Who else must be notified and given a copy of the intervention report?
The flag state representation, classification society, master must receive a copy with work list
How long is a COI good for?
2 years
On an unmanned barge, where will the documents be kept?
On the barge
What is the gross tonnage of a ship that needs a second and fully independent radar system?
10,000
Where are all port state control actions documented in MSIS?
PSAR, Operational Control Imposed supplement
What does G-MCO use vessel interventions that lead to detention for?
It triggers a review to determine why the discrepancies were not detected earlier
If a boarding is missed what has to be done?
A notation or explanation must be given as to why the boarding was missed
Before Port State Control was implemented what was the purpose of reviewing Intervention reports?
To fulfill international obligations
How many gross tons and above must a tank vessel be before it is required to have a IOPP certificate?
100
Who notifies the owner of a vessel that has recieved an intervention report?
G-MCO
All load line certificates are issued for a period of ___
5 years
What is to be sent after the Intervention Reports?
Follow up reports, Post intervention reports, Both are identified in the subject line of an e-mail
How long after does the intervention report have to be confirmed at district?
By 1630 the next business day
Who is responsible to insure receipt of the intervention report by district?
The sender
The intervention report must be sent by e-mail how?
Return receipt
Who is also supposed to receive a copy of the intervention report?
The unit's District Office
How are the Interventino Reports sent out?
The report will be sent as an attachment via e-mail
When should a vessel be detained?
Only whenthe vessel is unfit for sea or poses an unreasonable risk to the environment
Who else besides the owner/operator does G-MCO notify of an intervention report?
I.M.O.
What document is issued by the Coast Guard and is required for all foreign and US vessels over 300 gross tons?
COFR - Certificate of Financial Responsibility
How many parts are there to an IOPP certificate?
2
In a lifeboat system, what should you do when looking at internal and centrifugal brakes?
open assembly for inspection
What certificate shows that the vessel owner has demonstrated the ability to meet the financial liability that could result form the discharge of oil or hazardous substances into the waters of the US?
COFR
What is the maximum number of persons that are allowed in a hand propelled lifeboat?
100
Who is responsible for proving armed guards for crew restrictions of on-entrant nationals aboard a category vessel?
The state department
What is the maximum number of persons that are allowed in an oar propulsion lifeboat?
59
In a lifeboat system, a lifeboat with a class 3 motor has what type of engine?
class 2 plus radio cabin and FCC radio
In a life boat system, a lifeboat with a class 2 motor has what type of engine?
class 1 engine with a search light
What COMDINST is the Merchant Shipping Convention, 1976 and Port State Control?
COMDINST 16711.12A
Each marine employeer must submit what form that summarizes drug and alcohol testing for the previous year?
CG-5573
Where are navigation regulations found?
33 CFR 164
What type of vessels are 49 CFR Subchapter V vessels?
Oceanographic Reserach Vessels
What form number is the Letter of Compliance?
CG-2832A
What two survey periods are applicable to load line certificates?
initial and annual
What items need to be checked before reporting a potential load line violation?
Check both sides of the vessel to ensure it does not have a list, perform a check to see if violation is due to FWA, check for fuel allowance
Where are the regulations for load lines found?
46 CFR 42
Who may issue orders to control vessel movement within a port?
The district commander or COTP
The fuel allowance given to vessels for laod lines does not apply where?
the Great Lakes
Who is responsible for the enforcement of load line violators?
the Coast Guard
What vessels require drug testing?
Any manned inspected vessel, uninspected passenger vessels, commercial assistance towing vessels, commercial fishing vessels over 200 gross tons, and recreational vessels over 200 gross tons
When was the port state control initiative implemented?
1 May 1994
Who would be responsible for approving the entry to a US port of a warship from a catergory country?
the State Department
Safety equipment on board self-propelled vessels must be made of materials that ___
will float
Who on board a vessel will help you understand a stow plan?
the Chief Mate
In a lifeboat system, what type of releasing gear has retained devices that have been found in defective conditions?
Stewart types
How many gross tons does a US vessel have to be before it is required to have load lines?
150
Who determines and creates the targeting process for interventions?
G-MCO
Who are intervention reports sent to?
the Commandant (G-MCO-2)
Which type of cargo handling gear is used to load cargo on dry-bulk ships?
Conveyor system
How long must a file be kept and maintained for each boarding?
24 months
What is the ultimate goal of the PSC exams and re-exams?
To protect the passengers, crew, property and environment
What is the Vessel Boarding Form?
CG-5437
Which document is used to record all shipboard oil transfers?
Oil Record Book
What type of gauging method involves inserting a weighted measuring tape into the cargo tank through an ullage hole?
Open
For each SIV boarding performed, the COTP must submit an ___ report
Intelligence Information
What publication took the place of COMDINST 5010.8 Standard Vessel Boarding Program?
MSM vol. II, chapter 30
What is used to load a RO/RO?
a ramp
Who is responsible for confirming the status of a suspect SIV vessel at it's first port of call?
COTP
Which type of cargo handling gear is most commonly used on RO/RO ships?
a cargo ramp
What type of cargo handling gear is used to load cargo on container ships?
a gantry crane
33 CFR 164 applies to self-propelled vessels of ___ gross tons or more operated on the navigable waters of the US.
1600
Pump rooms must not be entered unless vent fans are working properly, and have been run for atleast ___ air changes and ___ minutes prior to entry.
5, 15
In a lifeboat system, how often should davits be overhauled?
Once a year
When conducting a monitor for a vessel carrying bulk solid hazardous materials, what documents must be checked?
Shipping papers and DCM
While conducting a monitor, you will check to ensure any open tank hatches or ullage openings are ___
under the supervision of a crew member or PIC, or have flame screens installed which are clean and in good condition
Load line certificates are good for how many years?
5 years with annual endorsements
What law gives the Coast Guard its authority to board a vessel?
14USC89
Load lines for US vessels are usually issued by ___
class society (ABS)
What are three examples of public ships?
Warships, maritime training ships and research vessels
All US and foreign vessels greater than ___ gross tons adn new vessels greater than ___ feet in length must have load lines.
150, 79
What type of vessel is designed specifically to carry vehicles?
RO/RO
Who is responsible for signing a statement in the cargo record book stating that the discharge tank does not have to be prewashed before loading the next cargo of NLS?
Surveyor
What documents follow-up action related to discrepancies after the case has been validated or closed to file?
PSDF
How many groos tons does a US vessel have to be before it is required to have load lines?
150
The vent system used with flammable liquids which provides constant venting of vapor from an entry of air into tanks will have a ___
gooseneck vent
Who on board a vessel will help you understand a stow plan?
Chief mate
The ___ gauging method uses the size of the opening through which the tape is passed is smaller than normal ullage opening.
restricted
What is used to indicate the maximum amidships draft to which a vessel can be lawfully submerged?
load lines
Oceangoing ships less then ___ gross tons may retain all oily mixtures on board in the ships bilge.
200
The Declaration of Inspection is a form used to ensure ___
certain safety conditions exist
What product set documents special interests vessels?
PSPI
What is a doctrine of international law that confers limited legal immunity upon vessels that are forced to seek refuge or repairs within the jurisdiction or another nation due to uncontrollable eternal forces or conditions?
force majure
What is the COMDINST for Shipping Agent Guidelines?
COMDINST M16618.5C
Who will determine which classification societies meet IMO Resolution A.739 (18)?
CG Headquarters
When there is a targeted owner, to what vessels does the intervention apply?
all the targeted owners vessels
What is an owner, operator or managing operator of any vessel that is the subject of a US Port State Intervention carried out under the authority of an international convention?
Targeted Owner
What document contains the information regarding authorized cargo for a tank vessel?
Certificate of Inspection
In a motorized lifeboat, how often must the lifeboat be operated?
5 minutes, once a week
In a lifeboat system, what are the 3 acceptable means of propulsion?
oar, hand propelled and motor propelled
If a vessel has a recent history of cargo related accidents (with no corrective actions indicated by MSIS) what priority would the vessel be?
High
What document carried on a tank vessel identified cargo the vessel is authorized to carry?
the Certificate of Inspection
What is the primary tool used to plan vessel boarding activity?
Marine Safety Information System
Who has the authority to classify a nation as a non-entrant nation?
State Department
What type of cargo handling gear is most commonly used on break-bulk ships?
Burton rig
The vessel's current compass deviation chart must be posted near the ___
magnetic steering compass
In a lifeboat system, what is required in an oar propulsion lifeboat?
maximum 59 persons, fitted with mast and sail, complete set of oars and row locks
What are 46 CFR Subchapter T Vessels?
Small passenger vessels
What are 46 CFR Subchapter R Vessels?
Nautical School Vessels
What are 46 CFR Subchapter I Vessels?
Freight vessels
What are 46 CFR Subchapter H Vessels?
Passenger vessels
What are 46 CFR Subchapter D Vessels?
Tank ships
Cargo tanks must be certified gas free by a ___ prior to entry
certified marine chemist
Vessels over 10,000 gross tons must be equipped with automated ___
plotting aid
Where are deep tanks located on dry bulk ships?
below the cargo in the double bottoms
What tankers carry large quantities of a single product?
crude oil tankers
What are vessels that carry a number of different petroleum products or hazardous materials at the same time in relatively small quantities?
product tankers
What are the types of tank vessels?
product tankers and crude oil tankers
What are the basic types of tank vessels?
Tank ships, tank barges and LNG/LPG carriers
Navigation regulations apply to vessels of what size?
1600 gross tons or greater
What form number is the Tank Vessel Examination Letter?
CG-840S-1
What (in respect to load lines) is the term for the amount (in inches) that a vessel will sink when moving from salt water to fresh water?
Fresh water allowance
When a vessel leaves a port, deeper loads are permitted corresponding to the weight of ___
ballast
What are four different types of cargo vessels?
Break bulk, dry bulk, RO/RO and tank ships
What is the maximum number of people allowed in a motor propelled lifeboat?
150
What regulation covers tank vessel operations?
46 CFR 35
What regulation covers tank vessels and the Certificate of Inspection?
46 CFR 31
What regulation covers tank vessels and the application and cargoes regulated?
46 CFR 30
During summer, how many load lines are applicable on the great lakes?
4
Which method of gaugingis authorized for LNG/LHG carriers?
Closed
What programs' purpose is to record arrival and departure schedules of vessel and share this information with other products?
PSVS, Port Safety Vessel Scheduler
What program records schedule facility inspections, including relevant data from several facility file products and maintains a queue of scheduled facility inspections?
PSVS, Port Safety Vessel Scheduler
What program lists all closed PS cases and allows you to retrieve the PSAR for any closed case?
PSPL, Port Safety Port Log
What product allows you to enter and display information that is important about your facilities? It covers 26 kinds of facilities, including aircraft, bridges, locks and mobile facilities
FFPS Facility File Particulars Summary
What product displays a list of all closed cases for a particular facility?
FFCG Facility File Coast Guard Contact Log
What product is used to find a units open cases?
PSPL, Port Safety Port Log
What product is used to enter information of facility pressure vessels and related detection and alarm systems?
FFPV, Facility File Pressure Vessels
What product establishes a violation case from other case types and collects the related charges, specifications, and charged party for submittal as a single case?
MVCF Marine violation Case Formatted
What product provides a means for entering a variety of facility systems which do not have thier own FF product?
FFMS, Facility File Miscellaneous Systems
What product allows you to show information about individual facilities that make up a certified MARPOL reception facility or identify a self contained MARPOL reception facility?
FFMR, Facility File MARPOL Reception
What product is used to enter facility data about lifeboats, life rafts, life saving equipment and embarkation aids?
FFLS, Facility File Life Saving Details
What product is used to record information on portable fire-fighting equipment?
FFPF, Facility File Portable Fire Fighting
What permits a series of vessel to be associated with each other as a class for MSIS manipulation?
VFSC, Vessel File Special Class
What product summarizes the status of a facilties inspections, documents, operational controls and oustanding requirements?
FFSS, Facility File Status Summary
What product displays a list of all marine inspection cases for a particular facility?
FFMI, Facility Marine Inspection Log
What product displays a list of changed facilities and allows deletion of selected facilities?
FFLCF, Facility File List of Changed Facilities
What product displays a list of new facilities and allows deletion of selected ones?
FFLNF, Facility File List of New Facilities
What product set is used to link companies and individuals to a facility and to identify thier roles with respect to the facility?
FFMI, Facility File Marine Inspection Log
What product setif used to establish a facilities identification number in the system and to record other basic identification information?
FFID, Facility File Identification Data
What allows you to search for a vessel by name, display the results of the search and then proceed to VFID, VFEI, or VFDS, depending on your mode?
VFVSA, Vessel File Vessel Search Alphabetic
What is a summary of general information about a vessel's machinery and life saving systems?
VFSS, Vessel File System Summary
What is a summary of the general information about a vessel's design, measurements, operation route, manning restrictions, stability and load line tests, and Subchapter D cargo authorization?
VFPS, Vessel File Particulars Summary
What contains detalied information about the issuance and status or all of a vessel's relevant safety and regulatory documents?
VFLD, Vessel File List of Documents
What product provides a means to identify fixed fire-fighting equipment and related detection and alarm systems?
FFFF, Facility File Fixed Fire-Fighting
What product set lists all facilities to which a specified involved party has been linked to any capacity?
PNFA, Party Name Facility Associations
True or False: NOV cases entered in MSIS do not require supplemental information
True
Which MC product establishes linkages to appropriate subjects, notifies other units via logs or mail, and manages case actions per your direction?
IAPR
Which MC product set includes data on spill details and federal project information?
IAPR
the purpose of the Marine Casualty Set is to ___
update and maintain information on all casualty cases in the marine environment
What product provides a place to record and keep current information of concern to the Coast Guard and facility security?
FFSD, Facility File Security Data
What product displays a list of all marine casualty cases for a particular facility?
FFMC, Facility File Marine Casualty Log
What records scheduled facility inspections, including relevant data from several facility file products and maintains a queue of scheduled facility inspections?
PSFS, Port Safety Facility Scheduler
It's purpose is to record arrival and departure schedules of vessel and share this information with other product sets
PSVS, Port Safety Vessel Scheduler
What product set provides current information about open cases for a particular involved party?
PNOC, Part Name Open Case Log
Waht lists inspections scheduled during the next 30 days? It also displays information associated with a pending inseptigation.
PSFT, Port Safety Facility Tickler
What product provides a list of open cases attached to the facility?
FFOC, Facility file Open Case Log
What product displays a list of changed vessels and allows deletion of selected vessels?
VFLCV, Vessel File List of Changed Vessels
What product is used to display a list of new vessels and allows deletion of selected vessels?
VFLNV, Vessel File List of New Vessels
What is used to enter and delete the official relationships between a vessel and companies or individuals?
VFIP, Vessel File Involved Parties
What product is used to identify vessels to MSIS and to change certain vessel identifying information?
VFID, Vessel File Identification Data
What displays a list of ports VPI and SIV notices currently contained in PSPI?
PSVP, Port Safety VPI/SIV Notice Log
What product provides a list of useful information to field units similiar to a bulletin board?
PSFI, Port Safety Field Information
What lists all open PS cases and allows you to retrieve the PSAR for any open case?
PSSP, Port Safety Status and Port
What displays the current class memberships for a designated vessel?
VFCM Vessel File Class Membership
What allows you to retrieve all vessel historical information?
PSVH, Port Safety Narrative Supplement
What displays a summary of the vessel's physical and non-physical descriptions?
VFDS, Vessel File Description Summary
What holds narrative summary information relating to a port safety case?
PSNS, Port Safety Narrative Supplement
What product track information on operational controls imposed on vessels and facilities supplemantal to activity reports?
PSOC, Port Safety Operational Control
What product set documents follow-up action related to discrepancies after the case has been validated or closed to file?
PSDF, Port Safety Discrepancy Follow-up
What documents vessels of particular interest and/or special interest vessel notices with associated vessel identification data?
PSPI, Port Safety VPI/SVI Notice
What product documents discrepancies noted during a boarding or facility inspection? It allows you to indicate whether legal action if possible.
PSDR, Port Safety Discrepancy Report
What program's purpose is to record general Port Safety information involving vessels, facilities and other port operation activities?
PSAR, Port Safety Activity Report
What is the purpose of the facility file product set?
Provides MSIS with the ability to monitor and manage facility inspections
What is the purpose of the vessel file product set?
Provides support of all areas of marine safety involving vessels
Which COMDINST contains detailed instructions for use of MSIS?
COMDINST M5230 series
Which MC product establishes MC cases and case numbers and caputers basic investigative information?
IAPR
NOV cases should be entered into MSIS within __ hours of issuance?
24
NOV cases should be validated within ___ hours of issuance?
48
What product set lists all the involved parties that have been modified in MSIS?
PNLCP, Party Name List of Changed Parties
What product set provides a list of involved parties in MSIS?
PNLNP, Party Name List of New Parties
What product set allows you to serach for parties within a specifies range and save, view, print or kill the results of your search?
PNPSA, Party Name Party Search Alphabetic
Use of the MV case process should be seriously considered in the event at least ___ NOV cases occur in a 12 month period to the same RP
3
What product set provides a way to serach the MSIS database for a particular party name, either when asking a new party into MSIS or when searching for an IPN?
PNPS Party Name Party Search
Which MC product represents the primary report for all MC investigation activities?
MCIR
What product allows you to search for a facility by name, display the results of the serach, and then proceed to FFID, FFIE, FFPS, depending on your mode?
FFFSA, Facility File Facility Search Alphabetic
What product displays a list of all PS cases for a particular facility?
FFPI, Facility File Closed Port Safety Case Log
What product provides a means for retrieving a list of offshore facilities by specifying an area/block number?
FFPL, Facility File Platform Locator
What product displays a facility's relationship to other facilities?
FFFA, Facility File Facility Association
What product set if used to enter a new involved party into MSIS, or update and retrieve existing party information?
PNID, Party Name Identification Data
Which MC product is the cornerstone or preliminary marine investigation?
IAPR
What product set describes a vessel or facility at the time a violation case is created?
MVSS, Marine Violation Subject Supplement
What product set records narrative information about a case?
MVPS, Marine Violation Narrative Supplement
What product set contains the information about a pollution incident used to make a violation case?
MVPS, Marine violation Pollution Supplement
what product set records a penalty amount for each specification is a violation cse, a resolution for a specification or charge, and evidence sources?
MVCR, Marine Violation Charge Sheet
What product set provides a general description of the entire violation case, emphasizing party information?
MVCR, Marine Violation Case Report
What product set lists all vessels to which a specified involved party has been linked in any capacity?
PNVA, Party Name Vessel Associations
What product set provides an on-line account of the number of associations, by type, for a particular involved party?
PNAS, Party Name Association Summary
What product set provides information about closed case activity for a particular involved party?
PNCG, Party Name Coast Guard Contact Log
Which MC product is the corner stone of the marine casualty product set?
MCIR
What product set displays a summary of current and past actions taken by the US Coast Guard against an involved party?
PNVL, Party Name Violation History Log
What rank can an approving offical be?
Commissioned officer or civilian
Marks of 1 or 2 describe marginal performance. What form must be filed out to accompany these marks?
CG3307 (page 7)
What should be done if a 3 or 5 are given as marks?
underline the portions of the 4 or 6 that was consistently met
When are page 7's signed for marks?
after the approving official has signed
what should enlisted Performance Support forms be used for?
It should be used to explain primary duties, collateral duties and what You, as a supervisor expect from new personnel
What number is the form of the Enlisted Performance Support form?
CG-3788
What else canan enlisted Performance support form be used for?
It can be used by the evaluee to let the supervisor know what you have accomplished
In almost every instance during a session of counseling what should you allow the counselee to do?
save face
As a supervisor what should you never do with a counselee?
never allow yourself to be trapped in an arguement
How many months are advance pay installments spread over?
12, but under certain circumstances payments can be extended over 24 months
How long is temporary storage?
90 days and an additional 90 days can be requested
How many temporary lodging expense days are allowed for INCONUS transfer?
10 days
What distance does the Coast Guard consider a travel day by car?
350 miles
How often can you recieve dislocation allowance?
Once every fiscal year
What rate is dislocation allowance paid at for single members?
2.5 times BAQ
How many months of advance pay can you receive once on orders?
3 months
When is proceed time not allowed under any circumstances?
when the reporting date is within 4 days
Is proceed time chargable as leave?
No
On a Familiarazation and Relocation trip, what type of orders would you travel on?
Permissive Orders
How many days relocation and familiarization are allowed at command discretion?
5 days
What is the SSIC code for Coast Guard Missions?
16000
When can single members receive dislocation allowance?
only when government quarters are not available at the new unit
What is the form number for a security form checklist?
CG-4781
Who is the last person to sign evaluation marks?
Approving Official
What COMDINST covers the Enforcement of the Regulations by the COTP?
COMDINST M16601.1
What COMDINST covers the MOU between the Coast Guard and the EPA?
M16465.18
What is the form number for a COI for small passenger vessels?
CG-3735
Special evaluations are not optional after how many days of a regular evaluation?
92 days
What COMDINST covers the CHRIS manual vols I-IV?
COMDINST M16565.12
when cana Coast Guard Representative grant an exclusive on a news story?
Never
How long is temporary storage?
90 days and an additional 90 days can be requested
How many temporary lodging expense days are allowed for INCONUS transfer?
10 days
What distance does the Coast Guard consider a travel day by car?
350 miles
How often can you recieve dislocation allowance?
Once every fiscal year
What rate is dislocation allowance paid at for single members?
2.5 times BAQ
The small cap usually found on the top of a pole mast or flagstaff is called a ___
truck
Expect in boats or on flag poles, what ornament tops the flagstaff of the National and Coast Guard ensign?
battle ax
a boat regularly assigned to a commanding officer or cheif of staff, neither a flag officer, should show a boat insignia of ___
an arrow
the union jack displayed from the bow of a Coast Guard boat on foreign waters indicates that a ___ is embarked on the boat
diplomatic representative
On a ship underway, the national ensign is flown from the ___
gaff
When the fourth of July falls on a sunday, when will the ceremonies be held?
on the following Monday
What is the COMDINST for pregnancy in the Coast Guard?
COMDINST 1900.9
What number is the civil rights manual?
M5350.11 (series)
What number is the CG Privacy and Freedon of Information Manual?
M5260.2
What number is the SSIC Manual?
M5210.5
What COMDINST is the Standards of Conduct Manual?
COMDINST 5370.5
What COMDTNOTE in the Standard rates for computing charges for pollution response equipment?
COMDTNOTE 7310
In what COMDTNOTE are the EAP Accepted Chemical Agents?
COMDTNOTE 16465 (series)
What COMDINST contains the Policy and Procedures for Intervention Action?
COMDINST 16451.5
What is the number for the Military Justice Manual?
COMDINST 5810.1B
What is the number for the Property Management Manual?
COMDINST M4500.5
What is the COMDINST for the Practices for Repiratory Protection?
M6260.2
What is the COMDINST for the Administrative Investigations Manual?
COMDINST M5830.1 (series)
What is the COMDINST for the Public Affairs Manual?
COMDINST 5728.2 (series)
What is the form number for Administrative remarks?
CG-3307
What is the form number for the Active Duty Initial Information?
CG-4196
What is the form number for a Oil Pollution Report?
CG-3639A
What is the form number for the Small Arms Training?
CG-3029A
What is the form number for the Court Memo?
CG-3304
What is the form number for the Practical Factors?
CG-3303C
What is the form number for the Achievement Sheet?
CG-3303
What is the COMDINST for the Claims and Litigation manual?
COMDINST M5890.9
What is the form number for the record of emergency data?
CG-4113
What is the COMDINST for the Property Manual?
COMDINST M4500.5 series
What is the form number for the Discharge and Re-enlistment Contract?
CG-3301C
What is the form number for the Agreement to Extend Enlistment?
CG-3301B
What is the form number for the Statement of Understanding?
CG-3301A
What is the form number for the Enlisted Contract?
CG-3301
What COMDINST covers the Coast Guard Marine Science support?
COMDINST M3161.7B
What number is the Directive Systems Manual?
M5215.6
What is the form number for an Application for Inspection of a US Vessel?
CG-3572
when the national ensign is draped over a coffin, it should be placed so that the union is at the ___ of the deceased?
head over the left shoulder
what are disadvantages of media aides like chalkboards or magna slick boards?
Instructor turns away from the audience, material erased cannot be retrieved
What indicates the absence of a flag officer from the ship for a period of 72 hours?
First substitute flying from the starboard main yardarm (outboard)
the only flag that is flown on the same halyard above the national ensign is the ___
church pennant/Jewish worship pennant
Which flag or pennant is never flown at half mast?
the Coast Guard ensign
On a ship having only one mast, the Coast Guard ensign is displayed from the ___
same halyard just below the commission pennant
Approaching the gangway to board your ship, how would you correctly salute the colors and quarter deck?
At the stop of the gangway, stop and salute the colors first, then salute the officer of the deck.
In rendering passing honors on a cutter which is meeting another cutter is a port-to-port situation, what whistle signals does the quartermaster sound?
2-1-2-3
A flag officers personal flag shall be hauled down when the flag officer is absent from command for a period exceeding ___ hours
72
The personnal cammand pennant of a Coast Guard captian who is commanding a squadron of ships is the ___ pennant.
broad
The answering hail for a boat coxswain transporting a commissioned officer who is not a commanding officer is ___
aye-aye
On board ship, the size of the union jack flown is determined by the ___
size of the union of the national ensign
Which flag is flown from the yardarm of a hsip to indicate that a general court martial or court of inquiry is in session?
union jack
What flag or penant is the Coast Guards mark of authority?
the Coast Guard ensign
What is the MAXIMUM number of distinctinve marks that may displayed by a Coast Guard vessel at one time?
2
A boat should display the national ensign whenever it is ___
going alongside a foreign vessel
The burial of at sea of a person, not cremated, must take place in waters no less than ___ deep
100 fathoms
When dressing a ship with one mast, where is the Coast Guard ensign displayed?
starboard yardarm outboard of a personal flag
True or False: The national ensign shall be half masted upon notificaiton of the death of a designated civil official from any reliable source, including the news media.
True
Upon the death of the president of the United States, the national ensign is flown at half-mast for a period of ___ days.
30
Upon the death of a CPO in the Coast Guard, when will the national ensign on cutters not underway be flown at half mast?
During the funeral and for one hour after
Where are the list of flags and pennants used when a ship is fully dressed found?
NTP 13
On Coast Guard day, all Coast Guard members NOT underway should ___
Dress ship
Where should the Coast Guard ensign be displayed at a shore unit?
directly below the national ensign on the same hoist
What are the two dates that all ships of the Coast Guard, NOT underway, are required to FULL-DRESS ship?
Washingtons Birthday and the Fourth of July
During a 21 gun salute, except by a ship displaying the personal flag of the official being saluted, the national ensign is flown from the ___ gaff or flagstaff.
mainmast
On occasions requiring dressing or full-dressing ship, the largest ensign aboard is flown from the ___
flagstaff
What form is the Travel Voucher form?
DD 1351-2
What COMDINST if the Enlisted Qualifications Manual?
COMDINST M1414.8
What are the two dates that all ships of the Coast Guard, NOT underway, are required to FULL-DRESS ship?
Washingtons Birthday and the Fourth of July
During a 21 gun salute, except by a ship displaying the personal flag of the official being saluted, the national ensign is flown from the ___ gaff or flagstaff.
mainmast
On occasions requiring dressing or full-dressing ship, the largest ensign aboard is flown from the ___
flagstaff
What form is the Travel Voucher form?
DD 1351-2
What COMDINST is the Enlisted Qualifications Manual?
COMDINST M1414.8
When a foreign national anthem is prescribed in connection with honors and it is considered appropriate to perform the national anthem of the US, when will the national anthem be performed?
Last
Who must you get approval from to make a ditty move?
Transportation Officer
A ball displayed atop a flagstaff in a small boat indicates the personal boat of a ____
captain
When transporting the body of a flag officer to the grave, the ___ of the deceased shal be carried immediately in advance of the body in the funeral procession
personal flag
Who is responsible for Coast Guard representation in the public perception?
Every member
What is formal communication?
Official communication within the chain of command
In a military funeral, there shall be ___ pallbearers and six body bearers
6
What is the rule of thumb for size of letters?
3/4" high for each 8 feet of distance
How long after the marking period ends until the evaluation must be completed including acknowledgements by evaluee?
21 days
True or False: A Public Health Service officer rates a salute while serving with the armed forces of the US only.
False
A commander making an official visit to a unit rates ___ side boys.
4
What is a term for an informal visit of courtesy requiring no honors?
call
The President of the United States making an official visit to a ship rates ___ sideboys
8
At what rank to you address officers by thier title?
Commander and above
When boarding a vessel who or what do you salute first?
The national ensign
How often is civil rights training required?
Every 36 months
What type of leave is not charged against a member?
sick
When displaying the national ensign against a wall, the union should be at the top and to the observers ___
left
When large medals are prescribed, where are the ribbons worn?
On the wearers right
What COMDINST covers the Correspondence Manual?
COMDINST 5216.4
When miniature medals are prescribed, where are the ribbons worn?
Ribbons are not worn with miniature medals
Regular CG enlisted personnel are eligible to attend Officer Canidate School until they reach their ___ birthday.
32nd
What form number is a dependent travel voucher?
DD 1351-4
What is the form number for standard travel orders?
CG-5131
What is the Travel Voucher Form number?
DD 1351-2
What percentage of a government move do you get paid for a dity move?
80%
Where is the device placed on the men's garrison cover?
2 inches from the front, 1.5 inches from the bottom
While on a boat underway, what will the boat officer or coxswain do within sight or hearing of colors?
Stand and salute except when dangerous to do so
During colors, what will a boat underway within sight or hearing of the ceremony do to render honors?
Lie to or shall proceed at the slowest safe speed
What COMDINST covers PAO duties and responsibilities?
COMDINST M5728.2
When may honors and ceremonies prescribed in Coast Guard Regulations be dispensed with?
When the Commandant directs, or when requested by an individual to whom such honors and ceremonies are due
Who and or what must an enlisted person that leaves the ship shortly after morning colors salute?
first the OOD and the the national ensign
What form is the Report of Survey?
CG-5269
What form is the Property Pass Form?
NAVSUP 155
What form is the Dependent Travel Voucher?
DD 1351-4
What type of skimmer uses gravity?
Weir
What type of cargo uses a safety relief valve as a vent?
Pressurized cargo
Subchapter H in the NCP is ___
participated by other persons
What type of skimmer creates a whirlpool which draws oil into a collection area?
Centrifugal
In what title of the US code is the authority found for the governmental review of any vessel that may pose a national security interest?
50
Berms control flow by ___
reducing velocity
CG-5136 is used to document ___
CG personnel and equipment
Response phase III is ___
containment, countermeasures, cleanup and disposal
The COTP shall exercize has authority under ___ to enforce the provisions of the SIV program as directed by the Commandant.
33 CFR
Which set of laws or treaties was adopted among many nations to eliminate oil and hazardous substances discharges from ships?
APPS
Which pollution response law created the 1 billion dollar oil spill liability trust fund?
OPA
The NRC is an agency of the ___
US Coast Guard
Red lettering in the CHRIS manual 1 is significant because ___
red is used to list the hazards
Entrainment occurs when current speed is approximately ___ knots
0.7
When can CERCLA funds be accessed?
When there is a hazmat spill
How can excess water be removed froma sample?
By inverting the sample jar and loosening the lid
Which type of boom deployment is used to keep oil from spreading?
Containment
Which type of boom is capable of functioning in the open ocean?
Heavy duty
What COMDINST are the Uniform Regulations?
COMDINST M1020.6A (series)
When should "piping the side" commence?
When the officer steps on the gangway
True or False: A NOAA officer rates a salute at all times.
True
In what order do officers of the Coast Guard enter boats?
In inverse order of rank
Upon a district commander's departure from your ship, when should the district commanders flag be hauled down?
When the district commander reaches the end of the gangway
If obligated to fire a gun salute when entering a foreign port of a country recognized by the US, a ship of the Coast Guard fires a ___-gun salute?
21
What order do the sideboys fall in fore and aft of the approach on the arrival of a ship?
"Tend the side"
How many side boys should be paraded as the departure of the mayor of San Francisco is piped over the side after an official visit?
4
What are honors, other then gun salutes, that are rendered when ships pass close aboard called?
passing hours
The honors accorded to a ship displaying the flag of a foreign sovereign are the same accorded the ___, except the national anthem of the foreign country is played.
President of the US
While in Alaskan waters, a ship recieves an official visit from the governer of Alaska. Where should the national ensign be displayed during the proper honors?
Foretruck during the salute
A Coast Guard ship and a foreign warship fall in together at sea. Should flag officers of the same grade, but whose relative rank is unknown, be aboard, each ship should ___
mutually salute without delay
If a flag officer arrives at a unit at 0800 on Sunday morning and departs at 1200 on the same day, when, if ever, should the gun salute be fired?
Neither upon arrival nor departure
If there was a spill and the responsible party did not notify the NRC or other authorities, he could possibly be charged with ___ penalties.
civil, criminal
A coastal oil spill of 75,000 gallons receiving a great deal of media interest and causing significant damage to an environmentally sensitive area would be considered a ___.
major discharge
When must a change of custody be intiated in order for an oil sample to be used as evidense?
As soon as the sample is taken
Which CG-5136 form is completed by the contractor?
CG-5136E series
NFPA pamphlets 10A and B cover ___.
fire fighting equipment
Response phase I consists of ___
discovery and notification
Who is responsible for providing the NLS prewash surveyor?
COTP
The National Pollution Funds Center administers the OSLTF and ___
CG use of the superfund
What type of skimmer is typically mounted on or incorporated with a vessel?
Submersion
How many RRT's are there?
10
in what event might the Coast Guard respond to a spill, act as OSC and then be relieved as OSC?
When responding as first federal official on-scene to an inland spill
Subchapter E of the NCP is ___
hazardous substance response
What disposal method is only temporary in nature?
Surface impoundment
Which response information system is operated by CHEMTREK?
HITS
Which pollution response law has criminal penalties only for oil spill violations enforced under it?
Refuse Act
Who provides scientific support of the OSC inland regions?
EPA
Subchapter G in the NCP is ___
trustees for natural resources
True or False: Partial payments are allowed under the NOV program.
False
When is the Oil Spill Liability Trust Fund used?
To pay damage claims for economic damage caused by a spill
Which is a method of reducing entrapment?
Angle the boom
Privacy act statements advise the person being interviewed what the data will be used for and ___
of your authority to collect it.
Which hard surface cleaning method is the most cost effective for a small spill?
Manual wiping with sorbents
When an investigator collects the name, address and phone number of someone being interviewed, he must give the person a ___
privacy act statement
Intelligence gatherings are a function of the ___.
Operations officer
Annex four of MARPOL contains the reguations for the prevention of th epollution by ___.
sewage
Which Federal agency enforces CERCLA violations in the inland zone?
EPA
When should oil samples be taken?
When the source is known, but there is no clear path of entry into the water
What type of skimmer uses and external vacuum pump system?
Suction
The vent system for a cargo tank containing flammable liquids uses a ___ to maintain constant pressure in the tank whenloading and discharging cargo and when transporting cargo.
pressure vacuum relief valve
The OCS report is required to be completed within ___ of completion of operations of a major spill.
1 year
Heavy duty and harbor/river booms are used primarily for ___.
deflecton, protection and containment
What type of skimmer is adjusted to float at the water-oil interface?
suction
Which Federal agency has primary enforcement authority of the Refuse Act?
USACE
What is the wind current effects on an oil spill?
3%
What type of booming is used on small island river with a flow of less then 1 knot?
diversion
What characteristic does oil have that determines the flow?
viscosity
What is the measureable temperature at which oil flows?
pour point
What is the short form for cost recovery?
CG-5136EZ
What is the prefered shape of boom?
parabolic
How is a NOV case number issued?
from the actual form
An inland oil spill of 15,000 gallons would be considered a ___
major discharge
Which CHRIS manual contains basic information regarding toxicity and flammability?
Manual 1
Subchapter L of the NCP is ___
national oil and hazardous substances contingency plan
Rubber, polyester foam, polystyrene and polyurethane are in which class of sorbent?
Synthetic
Which responce information system did NOAA and the EPA design?
CAMEO
What agency or unit controls the OSTLF?
NPFC
An inland hazardous substance release that poses a substantial threat to public health and the environment would be considered a ___
major release
What is the role of the PIAT?
Preparing news releases and press conferences
What type of skimmer uses a rotating belt to force oil towards a collection well?
Submersion
Which reference contains policy for use of chemical agents for oil cleanup?
33 CFR 153
A Weir skimmer in its simplest form consists of an attachment for external pumping, a holding tank, and a ___.
Dam
Which type of boom deployment is used to keep oil out of an area?
Protection
The NRC receives pollution reports for ___.
all oil and hazardous substance spills in the US and its territories
Who is responsible for enforcing crew removal of restriction requirements on a category vessel?
Captain of the Port
Utilizing ICS, what form provides the Incident Commander with basic information regarding the incident situation and the resources allocated to the incident?
ICS Form 201
A solid waste is considered a hazardous waste when it exhibits ___
ignitability
Tactical planning is the responsibility of the ___.
On-scene commander
Which pollution response law amended the FWPCA by providing the definition of "reportable and harmful quantities" of oil and hazardous substances?
CWA
What is the number designation of the pollution incident daily resource report?
CG-5136
What is the agreement between two or more government agencies, which allows for overlapping of jurisdictions and designates responsibility during specified instances?
MOU
Which contingency plan defines the purpose of contingency plans, response terms, and the national response system?
National
How many barrels of fixed containment must a tank vessel have for a transfer?
12
Authority to effect removal of oil pollution was granted to the Coast Guard by
EO 11735
Which method of disposal allows oil to naturally biodegrade?
Land Treatment
Which contingency plan defines the purpose of contingency plans, response terms, and the national response system?
National
When dealing with a unmarked drum, what fund to you use to get money to ake care of it?
CERCLA
If refuse is discharged into a navigable waterway of the United States, which law should be used when a criminal penalty is sought?
Refuse Act
If a responsible party chooses to take no action on an NOV, it automatically converts to a MV case after ___ days.
60
What response information system is operated by a commercial agency?
HITS
What type of skimmer uses an oleophillic surface that is continuosly moved through the oil?
Sorbent surface
Until they are transferred to the custodian, samples should be stored in ___.
a styrofoam cooler
The CG-5136E-1 and CG-5136E-4 are used to document ___ costs
Contractor
The person in charge must have how much training at a facility?
48 hours