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429 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Created the SEC
Securities Exchange Act of 1934
Prohibits fraudulent practices in the sale of new issues of securities
Securities Act of 1933
Requires registration of all broker-dealers
Securities Exchange Act of 1934
Regulates primary transactions
Securities Act of 1933
Requires issuers to file registration statements and prospectuses
Securities Act of 1933
Requires protection of customer securities
Securities Exchange Act of 1934
Prohibits fraudulent trading practices
Securities Exchange Act of 1934
Regulates the secondary marketplace
Securities Exchange Act of 1934
The Securities Act of 1933
The Securities Act of 1933, also known as the Paper Act, requires companies that intend to sell their securities to the public through interstate commerce or the mails to register the securities with the Securities and Exchange Commission by "filing a prospectus and a registration statement. The act requires the full and-fair disclosure of relevant information in the prospectus in order for investors to obtain information necessary to make informed decisions. Its purpose is fu prevent fraud in the sale of new issues. The Securities and Exchange Commission does not review or pass on the investment merit of securities or companies issuing securities.
./ Take Note: Certain issuers of securities are not subject to the registration
and filing requirements of the act of 1933. These exempt issuers include the U.S. government, municipalities, nonprofit organizations and banks.
The Securities Exchange Act of 1934
The 1934 act created the Securities and Exchange Commission, which, under the act, was given responsibility and authority to regulate the securities mar¬kets. The SEC is made up of five commissioners appointed by the President of the United States and approved by the Senate. The SEC's primary responsibility is to enforce the 1934 act, the major provisions of which address:
• registration and regulation of the exchanges;
• regulation of credit and margin requirements (currently 50 percent) set by the Federal Reserve Board (FRB) through Regulation T (Reg T);
• registration of broker-dealers that trade securities on national
exchanges or over the counter (OTC);
• registration of persons effecting securities transactions with the public;
• regulation of insider transactions, short sales and proxies;
• regulation of trading activities;
• regulation of client accounts;
• the customer protection rule;
• regulation of the self-regulatory organizations, such as the National
Association of Securities Dealers and the Municipal Securities Rule
making Board (MSRB);
• regulation of the OTC market; and
• net capital requirements for broker-dealers.
Public Utility Holding Company Act of 1935
The Public Holding Company Act requires the registration of all public holding companies engaged in the electric utility business or in the retail distribution of gas unless exempted by rule or order.
Maloney Act of 1938
The Maloney Act, an amendment to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, authorized the establishment and registration of national self-regulatory organizations such as the NASD. Broker-dealers must be members of such organizations to transact securities business.
Trust Indenture Act of 1939
This act of 1939 requires that each public issue of debt securities exceeding $5 million in a 12-month period be issued under a trust indenture. A trustee must ensure that the indenture includes specific provisions for the protection of the bondholders.
Investment Advisers Act of 1940
The Investment Advisers Act of 1940 provides for the registration and regulation of investment advisers. It prohibits deceptive practices between advisers and their clients and requires that advisers make certain disclosures to prospective clients, including their fees, backgrounds and methods of transacting business.
Investment Company Act of 1940
The Investment Company Act of 1940 provides for SEC registration and regulation of investment companies which include open-end investment companies (mutual funds), closed-end investment companies, unit investment trusts (UITs) and insurance company separate accounts.
Securities Investor Protection Act of 1970
The Securities Investor Protection Corporation (SIPC) was established in 1970 with the passage of the Securities Investor Protection Act. The purpose of the act is to protect customers of securities firms that go bankrupt.
SIPC oversees the liquidation of bankrupt firms and provides coverage of up to $500,000 in cash and securities to each customer of the firms.
Insider Trading and Securities Fraud Enforcement Act of 1988
The Insider Trading and Securities Fraud Enforcement Act of 1988 expanded the definition of, and the liabilities and penalties for, the unlawful use of nonpublic information prohibited by the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. An insider is any person who has access to nonpublic information about a corporation. Insiders may not use inside information as a basis for personal trading or benefit until that information has. been made public.Written Supervisory Procedures. All broker-dealers must establish, maintain and enforce written supervisory procedures specifically prohibiting the use of material nonpublic information by all persons interested in, affiliated with or in any way engaged in the broker-dealers' securities-related
Criminal Penalties.
The criminal penalties for violations of securities laws were increased through the 1988 Insider Trading and Securities Fraud Enforcement Act. Persons convicted of violating the act can be fined the greater of $1 million or 300 percent of profits received or losses avoided, sentenced to prison for up to 10 years, or both.
Telephone Consumer Protection Act of 1991
The Telephone Consumer Protection Act of 1991 (TCPA), administered by the Federal Communications Commission (FCC), was enacted to protect consumers from unwanted telephone solicitations, including recorded auto dialer solicitations and facsimile machine and modem (e-mail) solicitations. The act requires any organization that performs telemarketing (in particular, cold calling)-including a broker-dealer-to:
• maintain a "do-not-call list" of customers who do not want to be called and keep a prospective customer's name on the list for 10 years from the time the request is made;
• institute a written policy, available on demand, regarding maintenance procedures for the do-not-call list; . train reps to use the list;
• ensure that reps acknowledge and immediately record the names and telephone numbers of customers who ask not to be called again; and
• call the homes of prospective customers only between the hours of 8 a.m. and 9 p.m. in the prospective customers' time zones.
National Securities Markets Improvement Ad of 1996
The National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996 (NSMIA) expanded the SEC's role to include improvement and oversight of:
• market efficiency
• competition in the securities industry
• capital formation
• elimination of regulations that no longer serve the public interest
Because of its role in coordinating the activities of the various securities regulators, this act sometimes is referred to as the Coordination Act.
State Securities Law: Uniform Securities Act
In addition to federal securities regulations, each state has laws that pertain to the trading of securities in the secondary market. Through the years many attempts were made to devise a uniform act to regulate the sale of securities.
1954, the National Conference of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws commissioned an examination of the problem and requested a detailed analysis of the existing laws and judicial decisions. The result, after two years of intensive study, was the Uniform Securities Act (USA). State securities laws are known as blue-sky laws. The term blue sky was used by a Kansas Supreme Court justice, who referred to "speculative schemes that have no more basis than so many feet of blue sky."
The Uniform Securities Act serves as model legislation that each state may adapt to its own needs.
State Securities Law: Uniform Securities Act Scope of the Act
The Uniform Securities Act sets forth the requirements for appointing state securities administrators. The act provides for minimum official behavior and conduct requirements, such as prohibitions against an administrator using his or her position for personal benefit, disclosing confidential information and other unlawful practices.
The act gives the administrator the power to enforce the USA within the state. The administrator has jurisdiction over any offer to buy or sell, as well as any acceptance of an offer to buy or sell, if the offer was
• originated in the administrator's state • directed to that state
• accepted in that state
State Securities Law: Uniform Securities Act Scope of the Act Part II
Administrators can establish broker-dealer, agent and certain investment adviser registration, testing, filing and fee regulations appropriate to their states' requirements.
In addition to mandating the registration of firms and associated persons, most states require that securities be registered in tho~e states before they can be sold to the public. The Uniform Securities Act gives administrators the right to deny, suspend or revoke the registrations of broker-dealers, agents, investment advisers and securities if the administrators have valid reason' to do so under the rules of the act.
The USA also provides for criminal penalties and civil liabilities for persons involved in illegal securities transactions and prescribes the limits of a state's jurisdiction.
Requires registration of persons charging fees for investment advice
Investment Advisers Act of 1940
Criminal penalties of up to the greater of $1 million or 300 percent of
profits made or losses avoided
Insider Trading and Securities Fraud Enforcement Act of 1988
Provides customer protection in the event of broker-dealer default
Securities Investor Protection Act of 1970
Expanded the role of the SEC's oversight of marketing efficiency and capital formation
National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996
Established the NASD as the SRO of the over-the-counter market
Maloney Act
A. It regulates securities listed on recognized exchanges but not those securities traded interstate over the counter:"
B. It does not regulate foreign distribution of exchange-listed securities or securities sold entirely within a single state.
C. It regulates recognized exchanges and the OTC market, their members and trade practices to prevent unfair practices.
D. It allows the Securities and Exchange Commission to reduce its regulatory supervision by transferring its regulatory authority to such self regulatory organizations as the NASD.
c. The 1934 act specifically provides for the regulation of securities exchanges and over-the-counter markets operating in interstate and foreign commerce and through the mails. The SEC oversees the registration of securities sold interstate under the 1933 act and the securities practices of exchanges and their members under the 1934 act. Although theNASD has rulemaking authority over its member firms, the SEC retains supervision and authority over such SROs and, therefore, the SEC's oversight responsibilities are not reduced.
For what purpose does the Securities Act of 1933 require the full and fair disclosure of financial information?
A. To prevent unsophisticated investors from making unsuitable investment decisions
B. To provide all potential investors with equal protection of the law.
C. To prevent fraud in the sale of securities to the public through public disclosure.
D. To ensure that all state regulatory authorities have sufficient and unbiased information with which to enforce their regulations.
C. The 1933 Securities Act was enacted to ensure the full and fair disclosure of information on securities traded among the states, in foreign commerce and through the mails. Securities offered within a single state are subject to the securities regulation of that state only (intrastate regulation). Interstate sale of securities is the SECs responsibility. The SEC does not pass judgment on the investment merits of registered securities.
The National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996 affected federal and state legislation in which of the following ways?
A. The Uniform Securities Act supersedes the Investment Advisors Act of 1940.
B. The NSMIA amended federal securities law including the Investment Advisors Act of 1940 by substantially eliminating the dual registration of investment advisors.
C. State law preempts federal law in the regulation of fraudulent investment company activities within the state.
D/ Federal and state law remain the same except that investment advisers need not register with the SEC.
B. The NSMIA amended, not superseded, the 1940 Investment Advisers Act by eliminating dual federal-state registration. The state governments, like the federal government, are obligated to prosecute fraud.
Securities Act of 1933
• Paper Act
• Requires SEC registration of new issues
. Requires prospectus delivery for disclosure
Securities Act of 1934
• People Act
• Regulates exchanges and OTC market
• Prohibits market manipulation
• No securities are exempt from its antifraud provisions.
Maloney Act of 1938
. Authorized establishment of SROs like the NASD
Public Utility Holding Company Act of 1935
. Requires registration of holding companies of distributors of gas and
electricity
Investment Company Act of 1940
Defines and regulates investment companies like mutual funds
Investment Advisers Act of 1940
Requires SEC regulation of investment advisers and disclosure of fees and qualifications
Securities Investor Protection Act of 1970
Established SIPC to protect up to $500,000 per customer from broker.
dealer default
Insider Trading and Securities Fraud Enforcement Act of 1988
Expanded definitions of and liabilities for misuse of material non public information
Telephone Consumer Protection Act of 1991
Call non customers at home between 8:00 a.m. and 9:00 p.m. . Broker-dealers must maintain do-not-call lists
National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996 (NSMIA)
Expanded SEC's role to include: -oversight of market efficiency -elimination of unnecessary regulation
Security Under the USA and federal securities law, a security is any evidence of interest in a common enterprise in which the investor expects profits from the promoter's managerial efforts. Under the USA, the following are considered securities:
note, stock, treasury stock, bond
investment contract, debenture
evidence of indebtedness,
certificate of interest in a profit-sharing or partnership agreement, certificate of deposit for a security
collateral trust certificate
preorganization certificate or subscription
transferable share
voting trust certificate
warrant, right or option for a security
variable annuity or variable life insurance policy
certificate of interest or participation in an oil, gas, mining title another instrument of investment
The term security also includes interests in:
. real estate condominiums and cooperatives
• farmland or animals
. commodity option contracts (but not the underlying futures contracts) . whiskey warehouse receipts
. insurance company separate accounts
. multilevel distributorship arrangements
. merchandise marketing programs
The following, however, are not considered securities:
. futures contracts, commodities and commodity contracts
• precious metals
. life insurance or annuity contracts that have fixed payouts
• antiques
. checking, savings and passbook accounts
• collectibles
. retirement plans like lRAs and Keoghs
• written confirmations of trades
• real estate
According to the USA, all of the following are securities EXCEPT
A. variable annuities
B. interests in multilevel distributorship arrangements
C. commodity futures contracts
D. home mortgages
c. Commodity futures contracts are not securities; however, if the choice read "commodity option contracts," they would be securities. Options
are securities under the USA; commodities, like precious metals and pork bellies, are not. Futures contracts are also not securities under the USA. Home mortgages are considered securities because they represent evidence of indebtedness.
Is or is not a security

U.S. Treasury bond
Yes U.S. government issues are securities.
Is or is not a security

Annuity that pays the same amount of money each month
N. Fixed annuities (those that pay guaranteed, unchangeable amounts each
Is or is not a security

Annuity that pays a varying amount of money each month
Y. The return on a variable annuity is tied to the return on an underlying
separate account that is invested in securities.
Certificate of interest in a profit-sharing agreement
Y. Certificates representing interest in pension and profit-sharing plans are
included in the definition of securities.
Is it a security?

Keogh (HR-1 0) plan
N. A Keogh plan is a retirement plan in which securities can be purchased
or placed, but it is not a security.
Is it a security?

Collateral trust certificates
Y Collateral trust certificates are included in the definition of securities.
Is it a security?

Preorganization certificate
Y Preorganization certificates are included in the definition of securities.
Is it a security?

Savings and loan account passbook
N A passbook is not transferable and is not a security. Withdrawals may be made only by a person whose signature is on file for that specific account.
Is it a security?

Interest in an oil and gas drilling program
Y. Interests in oil and gas drilling programs are included in the definition of securities.
Is it a security?

Interest in a real estate condominium
Y. Interests in real estate condominiums are included in the definition of securities.
Is it a security?

Term insurance policy
N. Term policies are specifically exempted from the definition of securities.
Is it a security?

Interest in farmland and animals
N. A prospectus is a document that constitutes an offer to sell specific securities. The prospectus itself has no monetary value and is not transferable.
Is it a security?

Final prospectus for an oil and gas corporation
N. A prospectus is a document that constitutes an offer to sell specific securities. The prospectus itself has no monetary value and is not transfer¬able.
Is it a security?

Option contract for wheat
Y. Option contracts for wheat and other commodities, such as corn, natural gas and currencies, are included in the definition of securities.
Is it a security?

Option contract for wheat
Y. Option contracts for wheat and other commodities, such as corn, natural gas and currencies, are included in the definition of securities.
Is it a security?

Interest in a whiskey warehouse receipt
Y. Whiskey warehouse receipts represent interests in securities and are included in the definition of securities.
Is it a security?

Evidence of indebtedness, such as an interest in a condominium pool
Y. Evidences of indebtedness, such as an interest in a condominium pool or another type of collateralized note, are included in the definition of securities.
Is it a security?

American Express money order
N. A money order has a set value and is not an investment that can be transferred for a profit to a third party.
Is it a security?

Written confirmation of a sale of AT&T common
N. A confirmation of a securities transaction confirms the particulars of the transaction (for example, the name of the security, the number of shares and so on), but it is not itself a security.
Is it a security?

Stock Interest in a multilevel distributorship
Y. Certificates representing interests in multilevel distributorship or marketing plans are included in the definition of securities.
Is it a security?

Interest in a merchandise marketing plan
Y. Certificates representing interests in merchandise marketing plans are
included in the definition of securities.
Is it a security?

Interest in an oil, a gas or a mining title or lease or interest in payments
Y. Certificates representing interests in oil, gas and mining titles and leases
are included in the definition of securities.
Issuer
Any person who issues or proposes to issue a security is an issuer under the USA. An issuer is almost always a company, the federal government or its agencies, or a municipal government or subdivision.
Issuer or nonissuer transaction?

Primary transaction
Issuer.
Any transaction involving the primary offering of securities is considered an issuer transaction.
Issuer or nonissuer transaction?
Nonissuer.
Any transactions in the secondary market, such as trades on an
exchange, are considered nonissuer transactions.
Issuer or nonissuer transaction?
Issuer.
An initial offering of stock from a corporation is considered an
issuer transaction.
Issuer or nonissuer transaction?
Nonissuer.
Any transactions in the secondary market, such as trades between over-the-counter broker-dealers or market makers, are not issuer transactions.
Broker-Dealer
A broker-dealer is any person (that is, securities firm) with an established place of business (an office) that is in the business of buying and selling securities for customer accounts or for its own account. In general, broker-dealers
must be licensed (registered) in a state to transact business in that state.
Under the USA, the definition of a broker-dealer does not include:
• an agent;
• an issuer;
• a bank or savings institution;
• a person with no place of business in the state if that person effects transactions in the state exclusively with:
- the issuers of the securities involved in the transactions;
- other broker-dealers;
- banks, savings institutions or trust companies;
- insurance companies; or
- investment companies; and
• a person licensed under the securities act of a state in which the person maintains a place of business who offers and sells in this state to an existing customer who is not a resident of this state.
This last exclusion allows a broker-dealer to effect transactions for existing customers who are traveling through or residing temporarily (that is, less than 30 days) in other states.
Take Note:
Although exam questions may refer to a broker-dealer as a per¬
son, remember that as defined by the USA, a broker-dealer is a firm in the business of executing securities transactions for its customers or its own trading account.
Under the USA, which of the following is NOT a broker-dealer?
A. Firm located in the state that transacts business only with issuers of securities
B. Firm located in the state that transacts business only with insurance companies
C. Firm engaged in the business of executing securities transactions for its own account or for customer accounts
D. Out-of-state firm that transacts business with an established customer who has been vacationing in the state for the past two weeks
D. Firms within a state that transact business tor their own accounts or the accounts of customers must be registered as broker-dealers in that state, even if their customers are other broker-dealers, issuers or financial institutions. Out-of-state firms that transact business with other broker dealers, issuers or financial institutions need not register. A firm with an out-of-state registration is not required to register as a broker-dealer in the state if transacting business with a customer who is passing though the state on vacation.
The exam also uses the language excluded from the definition of when talking about persons who need not register. For example, the question above could have been stated as follows:
Under the USA, which of the following would be excluded from the definition of a broker-dealer?
Take Note:
One peculiarity about the broker-dealer definition should be mentioned. An officer of a securities firm may be considered a broker-dealer when acting in an official capacity on behalf of the firm; however, if the officer is effecting a securities transaction with a customer, he or she is not a broker-dealer. In this particular circumstance, an individual can be a broker dealer.
Which of the following is considered a broker-dealer under the USA?
A. Broker-dealer's vice-president, who sells 100 shares of IBM to a new customer
B. President of a broker-dealer, who files financial reports with the state securities administrator 0/' behalf of the firm
B. The president acts in an official capacity, so he or she is considered a broker-dealer under the USA. The vice-president involved in a securities transaction with a customer does not act as a broker-dealer.
Agent
An agent, also called a sales representative or registered representative, is an individual who represents a broker-dealer or an issuer in the purchase or sale-or the attempted purchase or sale-of securities to the investing public.
Registered rep's salaried secretary who takes orders
A. A secretary effecting transactions on behalf of a broker-dealer must be
registered whether or not, he or she receives a commission.
Insurance agent who advertises as a financial planner, charges a fee to prepare financial plans for customers and sells variable products for a commission
A. An insurance agent must register as an investment adviser when the
agent charges a fee for advice on security products.
President of a bank who receives a commission for selling the bank's
B. A person who represents a bank in selling bank securities need not register as an agent, even if he or she receives commissions.
Individual who represents his or her employer in the sale of securities to
existing employees for a commission
A. A person who represents his or her employer in selling securities to employees must register as an agent if the person receives a commission. If no commission is paid, registration is not necessary.
Person who represents an issuer in effecting transactions with underwriters
B. Persons who represent the issuers in securities transactions with under writers need not register as agents.
Investment Adviser
An investment adviser is any person who, for compensation:
• engages in the business of advising others as to the value of securities or as to the advisability of investing in or selling securities;
• issues or promulgates reports or analysis concerning securities' values as a part of a regular business; or
• provides investment advisory services as an integral part of other
financially related services, and who claims to provide such services to others, such as financial planners.
The following are not considered investment advisers under the USA:
• investment adviser representative (the firm is the adviser; its registered employees are investment adviser representatives); • bank, savings institution or trust company; • lawyer, accountant, engineer or teacher whose performance of advisory services is incidental to the practice of his or her profession;
• broker-dealer, or its agent, whose performance of these services is incidental to the conduct of its business and that receives no special compensation for such services; .
• publisher of a newspaper, news column, newsletter, magazine or business or financial publication of a general nature;
• any person that is a federal covered adviser with more than $25 million under management required to register with the SEC; and
• any other person the administrator designates.
Choose "A" if the phrase describes an investment adviser that must register under the USA and "B"
If it does not.
Publisher of a news column that renders general financial advice
B. Publishers that render general financial advice need not register as
investment advisers.
Choose "A" if the phrase describes an investment adviser that must register under the USA and "B"
If it does not.
Person who sells investment advice on fixed annuity contracts only
B. A specific exclusion exists for persons who sell advice on fixed annuity contracts or other non-security investments.
Choose "A" if the phrase describes an investment adviser that must register under the USA and "B"
If it does not.
Insurance agent who advertises as a financial planner, prepares financial plans for customers and sells variable products for a commission
A. An insurance agent who charges for advice on security products must
register as an investment adviser.
Choose "A" if the phrase describes an investment adviser that must register under the USA and "B"
If it does not.
Broker-dealer that charges a fee for providing investment advice over
and above commissions from securities transactions
A. Broker-dealers must register as investment advisers if they receive special compensation for giving investment advice.
Choose "A" if the phrase describes an investment adviser that must register under the USA and "B"
If it does not.
Advisory firm that manages $10 million in assets
A. An advisory firm that manages less than $25 million in assets must register as an investment adviser under the USA.
Investment Adviser Representative
(Supervised Person)
An investment adviser representative is any partner, officer, director or other individual directly or indirectly controlled by an investment adviser. The term includes investment adviser employees and associates who make investment recommendations, manage customer accounts, solicit investment advisory services or supervise the employees who perform any of these duties. Clerical and ministerial personnel are not considered investment adviser reps.
Under the USA, which of the following is excluded from the definition of investment adviser?
I. Ralph, who issues general reports on securities to clients, but includes in each report a recommendation as to whether the securities included in the report would be suitable for that particular client's portfolio
II. Lisa, who is an investment adviser representative for Best Advisory Services
III. Chris, who works for First National Bank and charges clients for investment advice
IV. Frank, a broker who represents XYZ Brokerage Firm and charges a fee to create financial plans for his clients
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
B. Investment adviser representatives and banks that give investment advice (even if they charge a fee) are specifically excluded from the USA definition of an investment adviser.
The term broker-dealer, as used in the USA and in federal securities law, includes which of the following?
A. Agent who conducts numerous transactions from a state in which he or she is registered, but who deal; exclusively in foreign securities
B. Person licensed under the securities act of a state in which the person maintains a place of business who conducts primarily brokerage transactions with U.S. clients not residing in the state
C. Person with no place of business in a state who conducts securities transactions with an existing client who is not a resident of that state
D. Investment company as defined by the Investment Company Act of 1940 whose shares are sold by registered reps in all 50 states
B. A person who conducts securities transactions within a state for his or her account or for the accounts of others is defined as a broker-dealer. An agent is not a broker-dealer regardless of the number of transactions he or she performs and whether they are domestic or international. A person with a place of business out of state is not considered a broker¬ dealer if he or she conducts business solely with an existing client who now is a resident of the state. The Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended, specifically excludes investment companies from the definition of a broker-dealer.
Under the USA, the term agent includes all of the following EXCEPT a person who
A. represents a broker-dealer or an issuer, but is unsuccessful in effecting any purchases or sales in the state
B. successfully conducts purchases or sales of an issuer whose securities are sold only within the state from which the agent conducts business
C. represents an issuer in the sale of securities only in an initial public
offering
D. on behalf of an issuer, effects transactions in securities specifically exempted by the Securities Act of 1933
D. A person other than a broker-dealer who conducts securities transactions only in securities exempted by the 1933 act is not considered an agent under the USA. A person who represents a broker-dealer in the sale of securities is an agent under the law whether or not that person completes purchases or sales successfully. A person, not a broker-dealer, who sells securities that are not exempt is an agent whether or not those securities are confined to the state or whether the securities are an initial public offering.
According to the Uniform Securities Act, an example of an investment
adviser is a
A. lawyer
B.. publisher of a magazine
C. person paid a fee to advise customers on securities
D. person paid commissions for selling securities to customers
C. The term investment adviser includes any person in the business of selling investment advice as to the value of securities or as to their advisability for investment. The term also includes those who, for compensation and as a regular part of their business, promulgate advice concerning the value of securities.
Administrator
The administrator is the official or agency a state designates to administer the provisions of the USA and other securities regulations.
In some states, administrators also are called commissioners, directors or superintendents.
Offer and Offer to Sell
An offer or offer to sell includes every attempt or offer to dispose of -or the solicitation of any offer to buy-a security or an interest in a security for value.
An offer to buy or sell is considered to have been made in a state if:
• the offer originated in the state or • is directed into that state.
An offer is not considered to have been made in a state if it was received through a:
• television or radio broadcast that originated outside of the state;
• newspaper or periodical of paid circulation that was published outside of the state; or
• newspaper or periodical of paid circulation that was published inside of the state, but has more than two-thirds of its circulation in other states.
Sale and Sell
Under the USA, the term sell means the act of conveying ownership of a security or other property for money or other value. A sale occurs when there is a contract or disposition of a security for value. Sales also include the following:
• Any security given or delivered with, or as a bonus for, any purchase of securities is considered to have been offered and sold for value.
• A purported gift of assessable stock is considered to involve an offer and a sale. Assessable stock is stock that may require the holder to pay some fee to maintain ownership at a later date. Because it is not completely "free," it is regarded to be a sale involving consideration.
• Every sale or offer of a warrant or right to purchase or subscribe to
another security is considered to include an offer of the other security.
The definition of sale does not include a stock dividend if stockholders give nothing of value for the dividend, nor does it include a bona fide pledge or loan, such as a broker-dealer's loan of securities to a customer.
A sale does not occur unless a contract with consideration exists.
Guaranteed.
Under the USA, the term guaranteed means that payment of a security's principal, interest or dividends is guaranteed by a specified entity, such as the U.S. government.
Institutional Investor
An institutional investor is a person or an organization that trades for itself or for others in a fiduciary capacity, with transactions large enough to qualify it for trade execution services generally not available to the individual investor. Institutional investors are covered by fewer protective regulations than individual investors because they are considered knowledgeable and better able to protect themselves.
Institutional investors include the following:
• investment companies
• insurance companies
• investment advisers
. broker-dealers
• banks
• trust companies
• savings and loan associations
. employee benefits programs with assets of at least $1 million
. government agencies
Although institutions generally deal in large transactions, no
minimum transaction size or account size differentiates an institutional client from a non institutional investor.
Private Investment Company.
A private investment company is an unregistered investment company whose investment objective is to raise capital for business ventures. Investors such a company are known as qualified purchasers.
Qualified Purchaser.
A qualified purchaser is a(n):
• individual who owns $5 million or more in investments, including
investments held jointly with a spouse;
. family-held business that owns $5 million or more in investments;
. business that has discretion over $25 million or more in investments; or
trust sponsored by qualified purchasers.
Qualified purchasers are differentiated from other investors
under the USA because of their large investment holdings. Qualified purchasers are allowed to buy certain private investment company securities that are not offered to the general public. In general, the USA and other securities regulations assume that such high-net-worth investors are sophisticated enough to make investment decisions with less protection from the regulatory bodies.
Federal Covered Adviser.
A person who is registered (or required to be registered) under the Investment Adviser's Act of 1940 or excluded from definition of "investment adviser."
Federal Covered Security.
A security that has a federally imposed exemption from state securities registration. Issuers of such securities, however, may be required to pay filing fees to the state. Covered securities include those:
• listed or authorized for listing on national stock exchanges (New York Stock Exchange, American Stock Exchange) and those listed on the Nasdaq National Market (NNM) of the Nasdaq stock market;
• sold to qualified purchasers, as defined by the relevant securities legislation; and
• issued by investment companies or registered under the Investment
Company Act of 1940.
Take Note:
For the Series 63 exam, think of covered securities as being exempt from state registration under the USA. The three basic groups of covered securities are exchange-listed and NNM securities, securities sold to qualified purchasers and securities issued by investment companies, like mutual funds.
Contumacy
Under the USA, the term contumacy means to stand in contempt of an order of the administrator.
Security
.
Does not include commodities, futures, fixed life insurance or annuities, confirmations, prospectuses, real estate, antiques
Person
• Individual, company or government
. Not a minor, mentally incompetent or deceased person
Issuer
. Company, government or government subdivision that offers or proposes to offer securities to the public
. Issuer transaction = primary transaction (sale proceeds go to the issuer)
Nonissuer
. Secondary market transaction
Broker-Dealer
. Firm in the business of effecting securities transactions for its customers or its own account
. Not agents, issuers, banks or out-of-state firms that do business with institutions only
. Registration as a broker-dealer not required if transaction is with existing customer traveling through another state (if less than 30 days)
Agent
• Represents a broker-dealer or an issuer in sales of securities
• Always must register as an agent if representing a broker-dealer, even
when selling exempt securities
• Must register as an agent of the issuer if selling nonexempt securities
Investment Adviser
• Must register if in the business of providing advice for a fee
• Not banks, IA representatives, professionals providing incidental services, publishers of impersonal advice
• Broker-dealers are IAs if they charge a separate fee
Administrator
• Official that oversees administration of USA within a state
Offer
• Attempt to sell or solicitation
Sale
• Contract to convey ownership for value
• Includes gifts or assessable stock, bonuses of securities, sales of rights or warrants
• Excludes stock dividends, pledges of loans or securities
Guaranteed
• Payment backed by a third party
Institutional Investor
• Sophisticated investor protected by fewer securities regulations
• Includes mutual funds, pension funds, banks and trust companies,
broker-dealers
Federal Covered Security
• Not subject to state regulation
• Includes securities listed on U.S. exchanges, issued by investment
companies or sold to qualified purchasers
Under the Uniform Securities Act, all of the following are excluded from the definition
of a broker-dealer EXCEPT a(n)
I. investment adviser
II. bank
III. issuer.
IV. financial planner
I and III
I and IV
II and III
IV
B. The USA excludes issuers and banks from the definition of broker-dealer, as well as agents. Investment advisers and financial planners are not granted exclusions from the definition. (Page 18) [18046]
Which of the following is included under the definition of a broker-dealer according to the Uniform Securities Act?
A One who effects securities transactions solely for his or her own account
B. Agent
C. Out-of-state broker-dealer that services other broker-dealers only
D. Issuer of securities
A. Answer A is part of the definition of broker-dealer. The other answers are specifically excluded from the definition. (Page 18) [11107]
Under the Uniform Securities Act, all of the following persons may provide investment advice incidental to their normal business
without requiring registration as an investment adviser EXCEPT a(n)
A. teacher
B. economist
C. lawyer
D engineer
B. The Uniform Securities Act exempts from registration teachers, engineers, lawyers and accountants providing investment advice that is incidental to the performance of their normal business. Economists are not granted an exemption under the act. (Page 22) [18047]
What is the smallest order that can be placed for an institutional account?
A. $50,000 or 1,000 shares
B. $100,000 or 2,500 shares
C. $100,000 or 5,000 shares
D Institutional order sizes are not limited.
D. Although institutional investors typically trade very large blocks of securities, no upper or lower limit is placed on the size of their trades. (Page 27) [18009]
In which of the following transactions does the issuer receive no benefit?
A. Primary
B. Nonprofit
C. Issuer
D Nonissuer
D. Nonissuer transactions are any transactions that do not benefit an issuer directly.
(Page 17) [18010]
What is the official designation of the per¬son or agency that enforces the Uniform Securities Act in each state?
A. Transfer agent
B. Registrar
C. Issuer
D Administrator
D. The Uniform Securities Act specifies that a state's administrator (also called the commissioner or secretary) has the authority to enforce the act in that state. (Page 26) [18011]
What does the term guaranteed mean when used to describe a security?
A. The broker-dealer will buy the security back at the same price or higher.
B. The security has been cleared and is A backed by the SEC.
C The security has a backer that guarantees the payment of principal and interest.
D. The security is an annuity product that guarantees a retirement income.
C. The security has a backer (such as an insurance company or a parent company) that has guaranteed the payment of principal, interest or dividends. (Page 27) [18012]
What is the difference between an offer and a sale?

A. An offer is the attempt to sell, and a sale is a binding contract to transfer a security for value.
B. An offer is a nonbinding proposal to sell, and a sale is a binding proposal to sell.
C. An offer can be made only by a customer, and a sale can be made only by a broker-dealer.
D. An offer must be approved by a branch manager, and a sale needs no approval.
A. An offer is made in an attempt to sell. A sale is the binding contract to sell.
(Page 26) [18013]
As defined in the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following is NOT considered a security?
A. Fixed annuity
B. Stock option
C. Limited partnership unit
D. Commodity option
A. A fixed annuity is an insurance contract that cannot be traded for value. Commodity options (although not the underlying futures contracts) and stock options are considered securities, as are interests purchased in a limited partnership enterprise. (Page 12) [18048]
The USA does not require registration as an agent in the following situations, even if a commission is paid:
• A person represents the issuer in transactions with the underwriter.
• A person represents the broker-dealer in transactions between the
issuer and an underwriter.
• A person represents issuers of bank or other U.S. savings institution securities.
Persons representing issuers who effect transactions with existing employees, partners or directors of the issuers need not register as agents if no com¬missions are paid. If compensation is paid, agent registration is required.
Individuals need not register as agents if they represent the issuers in effecting transactions in the following issues, which are exempt securities under the USA:
• U.S. government securities;
• municipal securities;
• Canadian government issues or issues by any province or political
subdivision;
• issues of foreign governments with which the United States maintains diplomatic relations;
• commercial paper in denominations of $50,000 or more with maturities of nine months or less; and
• investment contracts issued in connection with an employee's stock purchase, savings, pension, profit-sharing or similar type of plan.
Agent can be:
Individual Only
Broker-Dealer can be:
Business or Individual
Remember the following about agents:
-Agents are always individuals.
-An agent who represents a broker-dealer in selling securities must be registered no matter what he or she sells.
-An agent who represents an issuer must be registered if he or she sells nonexempt securities.
-An agent who represents an issuer need not register if he or she sells exempt securities.
"A" if the person is an agent under the USA and "B" if the person is not.

Person who effects transactions in municipal securities on behalf of a
broker -dealer
A. Persons must be registered as agents when they effect transactions on behalf of broker-dealers, whether the securities are exempt, like munis, or nonexempt.
"A" if the person is an agent under the USA and "B" if the person is not.

Registered rep's salaried secretary who takes orders
A. A secretary effecting transactions on behalf of a broker-dealer must be
registered whether or not, he or she receives a commission.
"A" if the person is an agent under the USA and "B" if the person is not.

Insurance agent who advertises as a financial planner, charges a fee to prepare financial plans for customers and sells variable products for a commission
A. An insurance agent must register as an investment adviser when the
agent charges a fee for advice on security products.
"A" if the person is an agent under the USA and "B" if the person is not.

President of a bank who receives a commission for selling the bank's
securities
B. A person who represents a bank in selling bank securities need not register as an agent, even if he or she receives commissions.
"A" if the person is an agent under the USA and "B" if the person is not.

Individual who represents his or her employer in the sale of securities to
existing employees for a commission
A. A person who represents his or her employer in selling securities to employees must register as an agent if the person receives a commission. If no commission is paid, registration is not necessary.
Under the USA, which of the following is considered a broker-dealer in a state?
A. First Federal Bank and Trust
B Broker-dealer with an office in the state that does business only with insurance companies
C. Agent effecting transactions for a broker-dealer
D. Broker-dealer with no place of business in the state that does business only with 6other broker-dealers
B. A broker-dealer with an office in a state must be registered with the state administrator even if it does business only with other broker dealers or institutions. Agents, banks and out-of state broker-dealers doing business with institutional investors are not broker-dealers under the
USA. (Page 18) [18049]
Exemptions from Broker-Dealer Registration under the USA.
Agents, issuers, banks, savings institutions and trust companies are exempt from registering as broker-dealers in the states where they conduct business. The USA also exempts out-of-state persons who transact business exclusively with issuers, depository institutions, trust companies, insurance companies, investment companies, pension or profit-sharing plans, financial institutions or institutional buyers.
A broker-dealer is not subject to state registration requirements if it conducts business in a state with an existing client who has less than 30 days' temporary residence in the state. The exemption allows a broker-dealer to deal with an existing client vacationing in a state where the broker-dealer is not
registered.
Take Note:
If a firm is located out of state, it need not register as a broker
dealer in the state if it deals with institutions or current customers who just happen to be traveling through the state.
If a broker-dealer has an office in the state, it must register as a broker-dealer, regardless of with whom it transacts business.
Institutions are treated like qualified purchasers. They are expected to be sophisticated enough to function without the same protection the securities regulations provide for average investors. This is why out-of-state broker dealers that deal only with institutions need not register under the USA.
Agent Registration
A broker-dealer may not employ an agent unless that person is registered under the Uniform Securities Act. The person must be registered as an agent even if the securities or the transactions involved are exempt from registration requirements.
Take Note:
Any individual who represents a broker-dealer in the sale or
offer of securities must be registered; the broker-dealer also must be registered in the state where the sale or offer is made. Also, an agent's license is no longer effective when he or she is not associated with a broker-dealer.
Registration as an agent is required in the state of the agent's residence where securities are sold, in the state where securities are offered for sale and in each state where securities actually are sold. An agent who solicits or advertises securities for sale in another state must be registered in that state.
It is unlawful for an agent to sell securities in a state where the agent is not registered even though the broker-dealer is registered in the state.
Take Note:
If an agent lives in the state of California, but directs advertising into the state of Oregon and transacts business in the state of Nevada, the agent must be registered in all three states.
An agent, residing in Texas, works for a broker-dealer that is registered in all 50 states. The agent wishes to advertise in the state of Oklahoma and recently has been referred to 'Several potential clients in New Mexico with whom he hopes to transact business. In which of the following states must the agent be registered?
A. Texas only because the broker-dealer is registered in all 50 states
B. Texas and New Mexico only if a sale actually takes place
C. Texas and Oklahoma only
D. Texas, New Mexico and Oklahoma
D. An agent must register in the state in which he or she lives and in all states where the agent offers or transacts business. An advertisement is an offer to sell securities, so an agent must be registered in any state where he or she advertises. An agent is not exempt from registration in a state because the broker-dealer is registered in that state.
Exemptions from State Registration as Agents.
An agent is exempt from registration if he or she represents the following exempt issuers:
• U.S. government;
• municipality;
• Canadian government, province or municipality (but not a Canadian
corporation);
• any foreign government with which the United States maintains diplomatic relations; or
• depository institution, savings institution or trust company.
An agent is exempt from registration if he or she represents issuers in the sale of the following exempt securities:
• promissory note, draft or banker's acceptance with a maturity of nine
months (270 days) or less; or
• investment contract issued in connection with an employee's stock purchase, savings, pension, profit-sharing or similar benefit plan.
An agent also is exempt from registration if he or she:
• represents an issuer in an exempt transaction; or
• as a partner, an officer or a director of a brokerage firm, limits his or her activities to managerial functions and does not attempt to effect purchases or sales.
Take Note:
To determine whether an agent must be registered, consider whether he or she represents a broker-dealer or an issuer in the sale of securities. An agent representing a broker-dealer always must be registered, no matter what the agent sells. An agent representing an issuer must register only if the securities are nonexempt.
Length of Registration
Every registration of a broker-dealer or an agent expires annually on December 31 unless renewed.
State Registration Procedures

Application.
A broker-dealer or an agent may obtain an initial or a renewal registration by:
• filing an application
• paying the appropriate filing fee, as set by each state
• filing a consent to service of process with the administrator
consent to service of process gives the administrator the irrevocable right to receive and process, as the applicant's attorney, any legal complaint that may arise in regard to an applicant's conduct as an agent or a broker-dealer.
That is, any complaint presented to the administrator has the same effect as if it had been served personally on the applicant.
An application for registration must contain information concerning the applicant's:
• form and place of business;
• proposed method of doing business;
• qualifications and business history, including those of any partner, director or similar person of a broker-dealer;
• history of injunctions, conviction of any felony or conviction of any misdemeanor involving any aspect of the securities business; and
• financial condition and history.
A firm with an office in a state that transacts business only with banks is
exempt from registration as a broker-dealer.
F. Broker-dealers with offices in a state must be registered in that state
even if they transact business only with institutions.
A broker-dealer may employ unregistered agents provided they sell only U.S. government and other exempt securities.
F. All agents employed by broker-dealers must be registered, regardless of what they sell.
An agent may be required to meet a minimum net capital requirement
as established by the administrator, for registration.
F. Broker-dealers, not agents, may be required to meet certain minimum
net capital requirements for registration.
If not denied, registration as an agent or a broker-dealer becomes effective at noon on the 30th day after it has been filed.
T; Registration, however, could be granted sooner by notification from the
administrator.
Surety bonds of $35,000 may be necessary for registration of both agents and broker-dealers that take custody of or have discretionary authority over customer funds or securities.
T. These bonds protect against employee loss or theft. Cash is an acceptable substitute for a surety bond.
As long as all other registration requirements have been met, an agent's registration becomes effective when he or she passes the Series 63 exam.
F. Even if an agent completes the Series 63 exam successfully and meets all other requirements, agent registration is effective only when the administrator grants it officially.
According to the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following may an administrator require before issuing an agent's license?
A. Oral or written examination or both
B. Completed application or evidence of a completed and current registration with the SEC or an SRO
C. Consent to service of process
D All of the above
D. As a condition of registration, a state administrator may require that an agent pass a written or an oral examination or both. Most states also may require applicants, their firms or both to provide completed applications and consents to service of process.
An investment adviser managing assets of $50 million must register with the SEC.
T. An investment adviser managing assets of more than $30 million must
register with the SEC.
A customer must have 10 days to request return of all fees if the investment adviser brochure is delivered at the time the contract is signed.
F. A free-look period of five days applies when the brochure is delivered at the time of contract.
An adviser with discretionary authority over but not custody of customer
funds must maintain minimum capital of $35,000.
F. Minimum capital of $10,000 is required in this case; $35,000 is required if the investment adviser has custody.
If not denied, registration as an investment adviser becomes effective at
noon on the 30th day after the registration has been filed.
T. Registration could be granted sooner, however, by notification from the administrator.
An investment adviser with an office in a state that effects only two transactions within a year with clients is excluded from registration in that state.
F. Investment advisers with offices in a state must be registered in that
state even if they transact business with only a few clients.
Investment advisers must file their balance sheets with the administrator within 90 days of year end.
T. An audited balance sheet is required if an investment adviser takes custody of customer funds or securities.
Which of the following statements is true if a person is not registered and his clientele is limited to banks and individuals?
A He may conduct business as-an investment adviser.
B He may not conduct business as an investment adviser.
B. A person whose clients are individuals must register as an investment adviser in that state before transacting business.
. Which of the following statements is true if a person is registered as a broker dealer only and gives investment advice for special compensation beyond the scope of her broker-dealer practice?
A She may conduct business as an investment adviser.
B She may not conduct business as an investment adviser.
B. If a broker-dealer receives special compensation for investment advice,
the broker-dealer must register as an investment adviser.
Persons managing between $25 million and $30 million in assets have the option of either state or federal registration.
A True
B False
A. A person who manages between $25 million and $30 million in assets may register with the SEC. If he or she manages less than $25 million, that person must register with the state in which he or she conducts business.
Under the Uniform Securities Act, all of the following persons may provide investment advice incidental to their normal business without requiring registration as an investment adviser EXCEPT a(n)
A. teacher
B. economist
C. lawyer
D. engineer
L
, ,
B. The Uniform Securities Act exempts from registration teachers, engineers, lawyers and accountants who provide investment advice that is incidental to the performance of their normal business. Economists are not granted an exemption under the act.
Broker-Dealer Registration
. Must register in state where business is done unless exempt
. Effective after administrator notification; expires December 31
Exempt from State Registration as a Broker-Dealer
• Banks, savings institutions, other financial institutions, agents, issuers
• Broker-dealers with no office in a state doing business with
institution's only
• Broker-dealers registered in another state transacting business with a current client passing through a different state
Agent Registration
• Broker-dealers can employ only registered agents
• Agents must be registered in state of residence, where securities are offered and where securities are sold
• Agents who represent broker-dealers must be registered if they sell exempt or nonexempt securities
• Agents who represent issuers must be registered if they sell nonexempt securities
• Effective after administrator notification; expires December 31
• Notification by agent, old and new employer for change of employment
• Automatic registration of partners, officers and directors when new
broker-dealer registers
Exemptions from Agent Registration
• Represents issuer in exempt transaction
• Represents issuer in bankers' acceptances, commercial paper (270 days or less)
• Represents issuer in sale of employee benefits plans
Successor Firms
• Registration for successor firm must be filed even if not yet in existence
• New registration begins when old firm ceases to do business
• Filing fee waived
• Effective for remainder of year
Investment Adviser Registration
• Federally registered if adviser manages more than $30 million • State registered if adviser manages less than $25 million
• Choice if adviser manages between $25 million and $30 million • Investment company advisers always federally registered
• File Form ADV and fees
• Audited balance sheet if custody; unaudited balance sheet if no
custody
• Effective after administrator notification; expires December 31 • $35,000 minimum net worth for custody
• $10,000 minimum net worth for discretion, no custody
Investment Adviser Exemptions
• No office in state and communications directed to fewer than six clients in 12 months
• No office in state and clients are institutions, broker-dealers or investment advisers only
Investment Adviser Recordkeeping
• All specific customer and investment adviser records kept for five years, first two years in investment adviser's office
Investment Adviser Brochures
• Typically use ADV Part II
• Delivered 48 hours before contract or at time of contract with five days'
grace
• Special disclosure required for wrap fees, at least as complete as ADV Part II
Which of the following statements regarding the consent to service of process are true under the provisions of the Uniform Securities Act?
I. Only out-of-state applicants must file a consent to service of process.
II. Investment advisers must file a consent to service of process to become registered.
III. A consent to service of process makes legal process served on the administrator as legally binding as a process served on the adviser personally.
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C II and III only
D. I, II and III
C. All applicants for registration must file a consent to service of process, regardless of whether they are in-state or out-of-state advisers.
(Page 39) [18043]
Which of the following statements are true regarding the registration of a successor firm under the Uniform Securities Act?
I. A filing fee is required with the application.
II. The successor firm's registration is effective for the unexpired portion of the year.
III. The successor firm need not exist when the application for registration is filed.
A. I and II only
B I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
C. The filing fee for a successor firm is waived. The successor firm's registration is effective for the unexpired portion of the year. Application may be made to register a successor firm whether or not the firm is then in existence.
(Page 41) [18042
Which of the following requirements are common to the registration of agents, state registered investment advisers and broker dealers under the Uniform Securities Act?
I. All must file, along with their applications, consents to service of process.
II The registration for all is two years in length.
III. All may be required to pass a written exam.
IV. All may be required to post surety bonds.
A I and III only
B. I, III and IV only
C. II and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
B. Broker-dealers, agents and state registered investment advisers must file consent to service of process forms with initial applications for registration. The consent to service gives the administrator rights over an applicant. Each applicant may be required to pass an exam and post a surety bond. Federally registered investment advisers must give notice and pay a filing fee in any state in which they conduct business.
(Page 39) [11049]
According to the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following is responsible for notifying the administrator when an agent changes his or her place of employment?
A. Agent
B. Former employer
C. New employer
D All of the above
D. All three parties must notify the administrator. (Page 40
Under current law, a person must register as an investment adviser in a state under which of the following circumstances?
I The person effects transactions exclusively with issuers of securities in that state while maintaining no office in the state.
II The person has directed offers to six individuals in that state within the past 12 months, even though he or she has no place of business within the state.
III. The person manages less than $25 million in assets.
IV. The person deals exclusively with broker-dealers in that state, but maintains no place of business within state boundaries.
A I and IV only
B II and Ill only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, Ill and IV
B. Persons having no place of business in a state generally are limited to directing fewer than six offers to residents of that state before being required to register. All investment advisers having a primary place of business in the state and managing less than $25 million in assets must register. (Page 45) [11291]
Which of the following statements are true of a broker-dealer as defined in the Uni¬form Securities Act?
I. A broker-dealer may not also be registered as an investment adviser.
II. A broker-dealer may be either a firm or an individual.
III. A broker-dealer's primary business is effecting securities transactions for clients or for the broker-dealer's own account.
A I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
C. Choices II and III together make up the definition of a broker-dealer (the definition refers to a person, which may be either an individual or a firm). However, a person may be registered as both a broker-dealer and an investment adviser at
the same time. (Page 18) [11181]
Unless renewed, registrations of a broker dealer's associated persons under the Uniform Securities Act expire
A. one year from their effective date
B. two years from their effective date
C. every December 31
D. Registrations need not be renewed.
C. Registrations under the Uniform Securities Act expire every December 31 unless they are renewed. (Page 39) [11189]
Under current law, for how long must a state-registered investment adviser generally keep business records available for examination by the administrator?
A. Indefinitely
B. A term specified by the administrator
C. Three years
D. Five years
D. Records must be preserved for five years; however, the administrator may prescribe a different period for certain types of records.
(Page 50)
Which of the following must register in a state as an investment adviser?
I. Lotta Leveridge, author of the Gracious Adviser Investment Newsletter, mailed to 1,000 monthly subscribers nationwide
II. Gwinneth Stout, whose only clients are investment companies and banks in the state
III. An investment advisory firm that opens an office in the state with less than $25 million in assets under management
IV. Best Advisers, a newly formed investment advisory firm that has $25 million in assets under management
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C III only
D. I, II, III and IV
C. An investment adviser must register in a state if it manages less than $25 million in assets. The registration exemption for few solicitations applies only to firms having no place of business in the state. Publishers of financial publications with paid subscribers also are exempt, as are advisers whose clients are institutions such as banks or trust companies. (Page 45) [1128
Which of the following is a type of security registration that allows the administrator to require any information it deems is necessary?
A. Coordination
B. Filing
C. Qualification
D. Modulation
C. To register a security by qualification, the issuer must file with the state administrator any registration documents and other information the administrator requires.
Which of the following is a type of state security registration used when an issue is registered simultaneously with the SEC under the Securities Act of 1933? ,

A. Coordination
B. Qualification
C. Implementation
D. Integration
A. Registration by coordination is used when an issuer registers its offering with the SEC at the same time it regulates with the state. Copies of the registration documents filed with the SEC also are filed with the state administrator.
Which of the following are covered securities under the 1933 act, as
amended by the NSMIA in 1996?
I. Shares of registered investment companies II. Shares sold over the counter
III. Shares sold to qualified purchasers
IV. Shares sold on the New York Stock Exchange
A. I only
B. II, IV only
C. II, III, IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
D. All of the securities listed are defined as covered securities.
Which of the following securities is NOT exempt from the registration and advertising requirements under the USA ?
A. Stock in a public utility company
B. Security issued by a religious or charitable organization
C. Security of a publicly traded Canadian financial institution
D. Variable annuity issued by an insurance company
D. All of the securities listed are designated specifically as covered. Variable annuities, which depend on the performance of securities in a segregated fund, are nonexempt.
All of the following transactions are exempt from the USA registration
requirements EXCEPT
A. isolated nonissuer transactions
B. non issuer transactions in outstanding securities that have been subject to reporting under Section 12h for the last two years
C. a securities transaction effected by a fiduciary
D. securities of a local manufacturing company that are traded intrastate without recourse to the mails
D. Securities of a local manufacturing company are subject to the regulation of the state administrator, not the SEC, because the transaction affects only the financial well-being of state residents and, therefore, does not involve interstate commerce concerns of the federal government.
Nonexempt Securities
• Must be registered in state to be sold
• Registration is effective for one year from effective date
• Issuers may be required to file reports no more than quarterly with
administrator
Exempt Securities
• No registration required under USA
• Still subject to anti fraud provisions
• Include: federal government and municipal securities, financial institution securities, public utility securities, foreign national government securities, Canadian political subdivision securities, nonprofit company securities, commercial paper and bankers' acceptances (maturity of 270 days or less), employee Benefits plan securities
Blue Chip Exemption
• Securities listed on national stock exchanges or certain regional stock
exchanges exempt from USA registration
Exempt Transactions
. No registration required because of how securities are sold
• Unsolicited orders are exempt
• Transactions with financial institutions, fiduciaries, underwriters are
exempt
Private Placement
• Exempt transaction with no more than 10 offers to general public in 12 month period
• No commission paid on sales to general public
• Buyers must hold for one year before resale
Preorganization Certificates
• Exempt transaction involving agreement to buy shares of company not
yet in existence
• No commission paid for solicitation
• No more than 10 subscribers
• Subscribers make no payment
Which of the following statements are true regarding registration of securities by coordination?
I. The cooling-off period for the SEC is 20 days.
II. The registration statement must be on file with the state administrator for 10 days.
Ill. The registration becomes effective in the state only after the state's cooling-off period.
IV. The registration becomes effective at the state level in conjunction with the SEC's
approval if the administrator has not
entered an order to deny it.
A. I, II and IV only
B. II and ill only
C. Ill and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
A. The federal 1933 securities act requires that securities offered to the public be registered with the SEC. The registration statement becomes effective on the 20th calendar day following the date the SEC receives the statement (assuming the SEC finds no deficiencies or misrepresentations). During the 20-day cooling-off period between the filing date and the effective date, indications of interest from the public for shares may be taken. When the registration becomes effective, shares in the new issue may be reconfirmed and actual orders taken. Note that on the federal level, the registration must be on file with the SEC for 20 days, while on the state level it must be on file with the administrator for 10 days.
All of the following are exempt securities EXCEPT
I. U.S. government securities
II. unsolicited transactions
III. transactions between issuers and underwriters
IV. securities of credit unions
A. I, II and IV
B. I and IV
C. II and ill
D. IV
C. Take care to distinguish between an exempt security and an exempt transaction.
(Page 65)
All of the following must be included in a security's state registration statement EXCEPT

A. A stop order from another state that affects the offering of the security within that state
B. The total amount of the security that will be offered in all states
C. An offering circular or a prospectus
D. All other states where the security currently is registered or will be registered
B. All items listed here must be included for registration of a security within a state except for the total amount of the security to be offered in all states. The amount of the security to be offered in the state of registration is, however, required.
(Page 60
Under the USA, which of the following are exempt transactions?
I. A nonissuer sale of an outstanding security subject to reporting and registration requirements under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 for the past four months.
II. A customer contacts a registered representative and places an order for 500 shares of a stock the rep has never heard of. The rep finds the stock and fills the order.
III. XYZ brokerage firm agrees to underwrite the sale of 1 million shares of ABC on behalf of ABC Company.
IV. A broker-dealer places an entire new issue of securities among 15 different insurance companies.
A. I and III only
B. II, III and IV
C. Rand IV
D. I, II, III and IV
B. Items II, ill and IV are exempt transactions. Unsolicited secondary market transactions are exempt as are transactions between issuers and underwriters and transactions between broker-dealers and institutional investors. A non issuer sale of an outstanding security subject to certain reporting and registration requirements under the act of 1934 is exempt only if it has been subject to these requirements for 180 days (six
months). (Page 67) [18018
A security that is exempt from the registration requirements of the Uniform Securities Act also is exempt from the
I. civil liabilities provisions
II. antifraud provisions
III. requirements for filing advertising and sales literature
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C III only
D. I, II and III
C. An exempt security is exempt from only the registration requirements and the requirements for filing advertising and sales literature. Civil liability arises any time a security is sold or advice is rendered in violation of the act, regardless of whether the security is registered or exempt. There are no exemptions from the anti fraud provisions. (Page 65) [11195]
Registration statements remain effective
A. for a period of time determined by the administrator for each issue
B. for one year from the effective date
C. for one year from the date of issue
D. until the next registration statement is filed
B. A registration statement remains effective for one year from the effective date.
(Page 64)
Which of the following statements is true regarding the antifraud provisions of the Uniform Securities Act?
A. The only securities exempt from the provisions are those regulated by federal authority.
B. The only exempt securities are those issued by national governments or political subdivisions of countries that maintain diplomatic relations with the United States.
C. The only exempt securities are those that are registered properly under blue sky laws.
D. No securities are exempt from the act's antifraud provisions.
D. Neither exempt securities nor exempt transactions are exempt from the USA's anti fraud provisions. (Page 65)
Enter "U" for Unlawful, "L" for Lawful.

An agent explains to a mutual fund client that because the fund is
invested in government securities, the client will not lose principal.
U. It is unlawful to guarantee performance of any security. Even government bonds may lose principal value.
Enter "U" for Unlawful, "L" for Lawful.

A customer calls his representative and informs him to buy 1,000 shares of a top Internet company immediately. The representative enters an order for 1,000 shares of XYZ, which has been a market leader all week.
U. It is unlawful to enter a discretionary order without written authorization. This order is discretionary because the agent selected the company.
Enter "U" for Unlawful, "L" for Lawful.

An agent receives a call from his client's spouse, advising him to sell his XYZ stock. The agent refuses the order.
L. An agent must refuse to enter an order from someone other than the customer without proper written authorization.
Enter "U" for Unlawful, "L" for Lawful.
A client writes a scathing"'letter to his agent regarding stocks the agent had recommended that subsequently performed very poorly. The agent calls the client and disposes of the letter after the client is calmed.
U. All written customer complaints must be forwarded to the principal.
"U" for Unlawful, “L" for Lawful.

A representative borrows $10,000 from her client, First Federal Bank of Oconomoc, Wisconsin.
L. Agents may borrow money from customers that are recognized financial institutions only.
"U" for Unlawful, “L" for Lawful.

An agent explains that because she is so convinced of the value of ABC Company stock, she will buy it back from her client if it is not up 10 percent in three months.
U. This agent is guaranteeing protection against loss, a prohibited activity.
"U" for Unlawful, “L" for Lawful.

An agent receives an unsolicited order from a client to purchase shares in an obscure foreign bank. After numerous calls, the agent finds the shares, but informs the client that there will be a charge in addition to the normal commission due to the extra service provided.
L. It is lawful to charge extra transaction fees when justified as long as the customer is informed.
"U" for Unlawful, “L" for Lawful.

An agent promises to call his client every Friday to update her on the status of her account.
U. It is unlawful to promise certain services when it is unlikely that the agent can keep the promise.
"U" for Unlawful, “L" for Lawful.

An agent contacts his client and tells him to buy XYZ stock, which is an IPO that currently is not registered in the state.
U. It is unlawful to solicit unregistered nonexempt securities, except in a private placement.
"U" for Unlawful, “L" for Lawful.

An agent contacts his client and suggests that he buy a total of 1,000 shares of ABC stock, but that he buy 100 shares on 10 different days to try and time the market
U. The agent is churning the account when he makes excessive transactions
for the purpose of generating extra commissions.
True or false?

A broker-dealer acting as an investment adviser is exempt from revealing its capacity as a principal if the broker-dealer distributes impersonal investment advice.
T. A broker-dealer acting as an investment adviser is exempt from disclosure of capacity if he offers impersonal advisory services.
True or false?

The USA considers a legal or disciplinary action to be material if it
occurred less than 10 years ago and involved a person associated with a firm or who has power to influence the firm
T. Under the USA, a legal or disciplinary action that occurred within 10 years of a registration application must be reported by anyone who has power to influence a firm's policy or is associated with the firm.
True or false?

. Under the USA, the criminal conviction for a securities law violation of an investment adviser's brother not associated professionally with the adviser or her firm is not considered material even if it occurred within the last year.
T. Unless a person convicted of a securities violation is associated with a firm or has control over the firm, the actions are not material under the USA. The agent's or adviser's securities violations that occurred within the past 10 years are considered material.
True or false?

An agent deliberately failed to follow a client's instructions because he believed the requested transaction to be unwise. The agent acted in an ethical or acceptable manner.
F. While the agent intended to protect his client from an unwise securities transaction, he is ethically bound to accept the order. The agent must mark the order "unsolicited" and document the fact that he counseled against the transaction.
An investment adviser must make reasonable inquiry into a client's investment experience and objectives before making recommendations to determine an investment's suitability. All of the following meet the suitability standards EXCEPT
A an investment adviser updates his information on his client's occupation, objectives and financial status once each year
B. in evaluating the suitability of an investment, an investment adviser's primary focus should be on the client's entire portfolio, which, in some cases, would allow the adviser to invest in assets not generally associated with income-oriented investors if those assets would reduce the volatility of the portfolio
C. an investment adviser considers how his growth-oriented client's large inheritance changes the client's suitability requirements
D. an investment adviser invests a newly acquired client's cash in U.S. Treasury bills before determining the client's investment objective in order for the client to receive a riskless return rather than none at all
D. An adviser cannot invest the cash portion of a client's funds in Treasury bills before establishing the client's objectives. The investment may not be suitable to the client's interests. Normally, an adviser need only
update his or her client information and objectives yearly. When deter¬mining the suitability of an investment, an adviser must look to the characteristics of a client's entire portfolio and not weigh each investment separately.
All of the following are considered ethical business practices under current securities regulation EXCEPT
A. an investment adviser borrows funds from a regional commercial bank that had a discretionary account with the adviser
B. an adviser's agent accepts a trading order from a client's lawyer (who acts as trustee for most of the client's financial affairs) as an accommodation for the client, who cannot issue the order himself because he is away on vacation
C. a customer complains to an agent that an account fee is too high and unethical in lieu of the fact that the adviser has made no transactions in the last year and a half; the agent responds that the fee is consistent with industry practice and continues the fee at the current level
D both a client and an investment adviser agree that transaction fees can be reduced by commingling the client's funds with those of the adviser;the adviser refuses to do so and passes on the higher charges to the client
B. Unauthorized third-party trading in a client account is strictly prohibited and an unethical business practice. An investment adviser or its agent can borrow funds from a regional commercial bank that has an account with the adviser because a bank is in the business of lending. An agent may not borrow funds from a client account, even if the client signs a written waiver. The agent who conducted no trades in a client account acted ethically despite the fact that the fees remained constant during the period of inactivity. Advisers' fees must be reasonable and consistent with industry standards. The adviser who refused to commingle a client's funds with those of the firm acted ethically because client funds cannot be commingled with those of a firm.
Practices Prohibited of All Securities Professionals
• Misleading or untrue statements
• Failure to state material facts
• Use of insider information
• Unsuitable transactions
• Market manipulation (pegging, capping, front running, wash sales,
matched purchases)
Other Prohibited Business Practices
• Unauthorized third-party trading
• Borrowing money from customers
. Commingling client funds
• Failing to follow client instructions
• Exercising discretion without authority
. Effecting transactions not on the books
• Failing to report written complaints
• Guaranteeing against loss
• Failing to inform clients of higher than normal charges
• Misrepresenting customer account status
• Creating misleading trading activity
• Promising undeliverable services
• Unauthorized sharing in customer accounts
• Solicitation of unregistered, nonexempt securities
• Misrepresenting administrator approval
Unlawful or Unethical Investment Advisory Practices
• Unsuitable investments
• Unauthorized discretion
• Unauthorized third-party transactions
• Excessive trading
• Commingling funds
• Misrepresentation of material facts
• Nondisclosure of information sources
• Excessive fees
• Conflicts of interest
• Unauthorized custody of customer funds
• Operating without advisory contracts
• Performance-based compensation, except under unique circumstances
• Failing to disclose material legal action in past 10 years 48 hours before
contracting with client
• Failing to disclose principal or agent capacity
An investment adviser owns a large block of Kelptek stock. A customer places an order for 100 shares of Kelptek. In compliance with the anti fraud provisions of the Uniform Securities Act, the adviser should do which of the following?
A. Disclose that it will act as a principal in the transaction
B. Act as an agent in the transaction because it must maintain its stock position
C. Refuse the order because there is a conflict of interest
D. Execute the transaction without taking further action
A. The antifraud provisions of the USA require an investment adviser to disclose before the completion of a transaction whether it will act as a principal or an agent. The customer then must give written consent. The adviser is not required
to refuse the order. (Page 85
All of the following are examples of prohibited sales practices EXCEPT
A. buying on one exchange and selling on another
B. withholding a material fact from the buyer
C. buying and selling intentionally to
show market activity
D. giving a phony quote
A. Buying on one exchange and selling on another is a perfectly acceptable market arbitrage.
(Page 81) [18028]
To get a sale of $10,000 worth of bonds, an agent promises to balance a customer's checkbook each month for as long as the
customer remains an account of his, even though the agent is in line for a promotion and an office transfer. This is considered a(n)
A. acceptable practice
B. unacceptable practice
C. practice that is not a violation; however, it is not a wise practice
D. acceptable practice if it is in accordance with house rules
B. An agent may not make promises that he or she probably cannot keep. (Page 82) [18026]
Which of the following would NOT be considered a market manipulation?
A. Three market markers intentionally start buying and selling the same security simultaneously in their own accounts.
B. A specialist buys and sells stock for her own account.
C. A principal in a broker-dealer allows a rumor to leak out that Kelptek will acquire Consolidated Codfish. After a few days, the broker-dealer sells short Consolidated Codfish for its own account.
D. All of the above are examples of market manipulation.
B. The function of a specialist normally is to act as a broker for orders other members leave with him or her and to act as a dealer in buying and selling for his or her own account.
A customer, upset with her agent for not servicing her account properly, sends him a complaint letter about his actions. The agent should do which of the following in response?
A. Call the customer and apologize, promising to do a better job
B. Tell the customer he will make rescission
C. Do nothing and hope that he doesn't hear any more about it
D. Bring the customer complaint to his employer immediately
D. Failure to bring customers' written complaints to the attention of an agent's broker-dealer
is prohibited. (Page 82) [18024
All of the following are examples of prohibited sales practices EXCEPT
A. buying on one exchange and selling on another
B. withholding a material fact from the buyer
C. buying and selling intentionally to
show market activity
D. giving a phony quote
A. Buying on one exchange and selling on another is a perfectly acceptable market arbitrage.
(Page 81) [18028]
To get a sale of $10,000 worth of bonds, an agent promises to balance a customer' s checkbook each month for as long as the
customer remains an account of his, even though the agent is in line for a promotion and an office transfer. This is considered a(n)
A. acceptable practice
B. unacceptable practice
C. practice that is not a violation; however, it is not a wise practice
D. acceptable practice if it is in accordance with house rules
B. An agent may not make promises that he or she probably cannot keep. (Page 82) [18026
Which of the following would NOT be considered a market manipulation?
A. Three market markers intentionally start buying and selling the same security simultaneously in their own accounts.
B. A specialist buys and sells stock for her own account.
C. A principal in a broker-dealer allows a rumor to leak out that Kelptek will acquire Consolidated Codfish. After a few days, the broker-dealer sells short Consolidated Codfish for its own account.
D. All of the above are examples of market manipulation.
B. The function of a specialist normally is to act as a broker for orders other members leave with him or her and to act as a dealer in buying and selling for his or her own account.
(Page 81)
A customer, upset with her agent for not servicing her account properly, sends him a complaint letter about his actions. The agent should do which of the following in response?
A. Call the customer and apologize, promising to do a better job
B. Tell the customer he will make rescission
C. Do nothing and hope that he doesn't hear any more about it
D. Bring the customer complaint to his employer immediately
D. Failure to bring customers' written complaints to the attention of an agent's broker-dealer is prohibited. (Page 82) [
The net asset value in NavCo Mutual Fund is $9 per share. Currently, the fund pays $.60 per share in annual dividends and $2 in capital gains distributions. The projections for the next year are $.75 per share in annual dividends and $2.50 per share in capital gains distributions. Based on this information, an agent could state which of the following to a customer?
A. "Currently, NavCo Mutual Fund has paid $.60 per share in dividends and guarantees it will pay $.75 per share this year ."
B. "The current yield in NavCo Mutual Fund is 6.7 percent; however, the research report on the fund projects the possibility of a higher current yield next year."
C. "NavCo Mutual Fund is yielding 29 percent currently, and the expectation is for a higher rate of return next year."
D. "The projected yield on NavCo Mutual Fund this year would be in the neighborhood of 36 percent."
B. Misrepresenting yields clearly is fraudulent. (Page 87) [18023
A customer asks an agent for advice in choosing a balanced mutual fund for an IRA. The agent may state which of the fol¬lowing?
A. "Last year, ArGood Mutual Fund was up 40 percent. Based on this past performance, I expect the trend to continue, thus making it suitable for an IRA."
B. "1 guarantee that you will make money in ArGood Mutual Fund over a long period of time based on past performance, making it a good investment for an IRA."
C. "Last year, ArGood Mutual Fund was up 40 percent. However, over the last 10 years, ArGood had both up and down periods. The potential for gain does exist, but there is no guarantee as to how much gain or loss will take place."
D. "ArGood Mutual Fund is such a good buy that I will guarantee against any losses personally."
C. The agent has the responsibility to describe sufficiently the risks inherent in a mutual fund and to state all important facts. Offering a guarantee obviously is misleading.
(Page 81
A customer has a discretionary account with an objective of current income. Her agent purchases a speculative growth stock. This is considered a(n)
A. wash sale
B. unauthorized transaction
C. acceptable transaction
D. matching activity
B. The customer authorized the agent to buy income-producing securities only. The terms wash sale and matching activity refer to creating the impression of activity in a stock by buying and selling the same stock at the same price without a change in beneficial ownership. These activities may cause others to buy or sell the security.
An agent and his sister open a special cash account at the agent's broker-dealer. Both parties contribute $5,000 to the account and purchase $10,000 worth of securities. In this case, which of the following statements is true?
A. The agent can open the account, but cannot share in any profits.
B. With written employer and customer consent, the agent can share in the profits to the extent of his proportional contribution.
C. The agent needs only the employer's consent to open the account and share in the profits.
D. The agent cannot share in any profits.
B. The agent may share in proportion to his contribution, assuming he has written consent from the broker-dealer and the customer.
An agent hears a rumor concerning an investment and uses the information to influence a customer who has hesitated to make the purchase. According to the NASAA's Statement of Policy on Unethical Business Practices, which of the following statements is true?
A. Because the agent made it clear that it was a rumor, this is not a violation.
B. Because the customer knew it was a rumor and therefore could not be reliable, this is not a violation.
C. Because rumors are not considered to be inside information, this is not a violation.
D. Under no circumstances would this be allowed.
D. The use of information that has no basis in fact is strictly prohibited. The use of rumors is misrepresentation and a violation of the Uniform
Securities Act. (Page 83)
An agent has a good customer with a margin account. The customer informs the agent that he is taking a business trip for a month and asks the agent to handle the account during this time. While the customer is gone, the stock market goes down and the customer receives a margin call for $1,000. The agent should do which of the following?
A.. Pay the $1,000 on behalf of his good customer and collect at a later date
B. Arrange a loan from a local bank to cover the margin call
C. Sell some securities in the account and use the proceeds to cover the margin call
D. Try to make contact with the customer and, failing that, inform his principal and do nothing until instructed
D. When the margin account falls below the minimum maintenance amount required, and if
the customer cannot be reached, the agent should inform his principal, who then determines which and how many securities must be sold to maintain the margin requirement as set by Regulation T. The agent may not take further action or execute any transactions without a written trading authorization. (Page 81) [18019]
June Polar puts together a recommendation for a customer. She is called out of town
unexpectedly and asks another agent at her firm to meet with the customer and present the recommendation. When the other agent makes the presentation, he omits some material facts. According to the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following statements is true?
A. This is permitted if the recommendation pertains to an exempt security.
B. This is permitted if the second agent was unaware of the omission.
C. This is permitted if the second agent receives no compensation for presenting the recommendation.
D. This is not permitted under any circumstances.
D. An agent making a recommendation to a customer is responsible for presenting all of the material facts. The responsibility is not affected by the type of security being discussed or the agent's
compensation. (Page 79)
Which of the following advisory fee structures may NOT be charged under the Uniform Securities Act?
A. Fees based on a percentage of the change in value of funds from year to year
B. Fees based on a fixed-dollar schedule for funds under management, with payment tied to account performance
C. Fees based on a fixed-dollar schedule tied to the value of funds under management
D. Fees based on a percentage of the aggregate value of funds under management
A. Fees based on a share of capital gains or appreciation in an account are prohibited. Fees based on the value of assets under management
are acceptable. (Page 88)
It is legal under the Uniform Securities Act for a registered investment adviser to tell a client that
A. a registered security may be sold lawfully in that state
B. an exempt security need not be registered because it generally is regarded as being safer than a nonexempt security
C. the administrator has found the
adviser's qualifications to be satisfactory
D. the administrator has approved a registered security for sale in the state
A. The fact that a security is registered or is exempt from registration has no bearing on its quality, safety or merits, and it is illegal to make any statement or implication to the contrary, as is implied in answers Band D. A similar principle applies to a person being registered or exempt from registration (answer C). Registration does not involve the administrator's verification of any information included in a registration statement or application. When a registration becomes effective, it means only that certain legal requirements have been met in regard to that security or person. The information in answer A can be stated legally. (Page 87)
Under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, which of the following investment advisers are in violation of the act?
I. Barry Kodiak persuades a client to cosign for a loan without disclosing that he is facing financial difficulties.
II. Sadie Longhorn's customer instructs her to buy shares in Dohspils Pharmaceuticals. DOH is experiencing financial troubles, so Sadie buys shares in Flibinite Health Care instead.
III. June Polar purchases shares of a new issue and hopes to cause the price of the shares to rise by recommending that all her clients purchase the stock. She does not tell clients that she owns the stock.
A. I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D. I, II and III
D. The antifraud provisions prohibit any deceptive act by an adviser in the course of business with a client. Although the violation in choice I does not involve a securities transaction, it still
represents an abuse of the adviser-client relationship and therefore is covered by the antifraud provisions. Regarding choice II, deliberately failing to follow a customer's instruction is a violation.
Advisers must disclose trades made for their own accounts that are designed to profit from the market impact of recommendations (choice III).
(Page 86)
Which of the following activities is (are) prohibited under the Uniform Securities Act?
I. Engaging in a practice not expressly forbidden by the act, but defined as unethical by the administrator in a rule
II. Omitting a material fact when soliciting a client
III. Selling recommended securities to a client from an adviser's own account without disclosing this fact to the client
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II only
D. I, II and III
D. The antifraud provisions apply to soliciting clients as well as to providing investment advice. They require disclosures to a client if an adviser will act as a principal for his own account or as a broker for another party in effecting a recommended transaction. The act gives the administrator the power to define certain practices as unethical and prohibits these practices with the same force as those spelled out in the act.
(Page 78)
An agent gets a phone call from a customer's wife who wants to sell $25,000 worth of securities and use the proceeds as a down payment on a house. The account is in her husband's name, but she says he told her to sell the securities. The agent knows
the couple to be happily married. Under the circumstances, the agent should do which of the following?
A. Call the husband immediately and confirm the order
B. Sell as instructed
C. Get permission from his principal
D. Tell the couple that the purchase of a house is a bad investment
A. The agent may accept orders only from the customer unless he has obtained third-party trading authorization. (Page 81
Which of the following are examples of fraudulent practices?
I. Matched orders
II. Phony quotes
III. Material misrepresentations
IV. Wash sales
A. I and II only
B. I, II and III only
C. III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
D. All of the practices listed are fraudulent. (Page 82)
Which of the following is an example of market manipulation?
A. Creating the illusion of active trading
B. Buying on one exchange and selling on another
C. Fictitious quotes to customers
D. Transactions exceeding customers financial capabilities
A. Creating the illusion of trading activity manipulates the market. Arbitrage (answer B) is not market manipulation. Giving fictitious quotes is prohibited because they are untrue statements;
If an agent fails to state facts in which a prudent investor would be interested, which of the following statements is true?
A. This action is fraudulent under the USA for nonexempt securities only.
B. This action is fraudulent under the USA for exempt securities only.
C. This action is fraudulent under the USA for both exempt and nonexempt securities.
D. This action does not constitute fraud if there was no willful intent to omit the information.
C. The omission of a material fact in the sale, purchase or offer of a security is fraudulent. This applies whether the security being offered is
exempt or nonexempt. (Page 79)
Under the Uniform Securities Act, an investment adviser may legally have custody of money or securities belonging to a client if the
I. adviser is registered under the 1940 act
II. administrator has not prohibited custodial arrangements
III. adviser does not have discretionary authority over the account as well
IV. adviser has notified the administrator that she has custody
A. I and III
B. II
C. II and IV
D. IV
C. The administrator may prohibit advisers from having custody of client funds or securities.
If no such prohibition applies, the administrator must be notified in writing if an adviser has custody. Discretionary authority and federal registration do not affect an adviser's ability to have
custody. (Page 87)
Under the Uniform Securities Act, if an investment adviser has custody of customer funds and securities, how often must the adviser send the customer a statement of account activity?
A. Annually
B. Quarterly
C. Monthly
D. With every transaction
B. An investment adviser in possession of customer assets must send a statement to the customer every three months. The statement must list the securities the adviser holds and must show all transactions in the account since the last statement
date. (Page 88
Although the broker-dealer with which he is registered is not aware of his actions, an agent has raised capital from his customers with which he and his brother-in-law will build a small shopping center. The customers who contributed the capital received certificates of ownership in the shopping center as well as full disclosure of their risks and participation in income from renting mall space to retail businesses. In this situation, the agent has acted
A. lawfully because he disclosed the risks of the transaction to the customers in writing
B. lawfully because interests in a shopping mall are not securities
C. unlawfully because the agent gave his
broker-dealer no opportunity to supervise his activities relative to its customers
D. unlawfully because the agent's brother in-law is not a registered agent (sales representative)
C. The agent has acted unlawfully in effecting "private" securities transactions involving the broker-dealer's customers without proper supervision by the firm. Interests in a shopping center generally fall under the definition of securities.
(Page 81)
Number of days from receipt by the administrator after which a withdrawal is effective
30 Days
Your registration may be denied if you were convicted of a felony within the past how many years?
10 Days
Number of days after notice of possible suspension from the administrator to request a hearing
15 Days
Number of days from date of issuance to appeal an administrative order of the administrator
60 Days
Which of the following justifies an administrator's suspension of an agent's registration
I. The order is in the public's best interest.
II. The agent has been found guilty of a felony.
III. A client is suing the agent.
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II only
D. I, II and III
B. Choices I and II would berg rounds for the suspension of an agent's registration by the state administrator.
True or false?

The administrator's power to investigate is limited to the administrator's own state.
False
True or false?

The administrator may issue an injunction if he or she believes a violation of the act has occurred.
False
True or false?

The administrator's authority is limited to transactions that occur within the state.
False
True or false?

Any rule issued by the administrator has the same authority as a provision of the USA.
True
Denial, Suspension or Revocation of Registration
• If order is in the public interest and registrant has
filed a misleading or an incomplete application;
- been convicted of a securities crime as an officer;
- willfully violated USA provisions;
- been enjoined temporarily by a court;
- been subject to a stop order of the administrator;
-become insolvent;
-engaged in dishonest or unethical securities practices;
-failed to pay fees;
-failed to supervise properly; or
- been found to have insufficient qualification based on training,
experience or knowledge.
Cancellation of Registration
• Applicant has ceased to exist, discontinued transaction business or
been declared mentally incompetent
Withdrawal of Registration
• Effective after 30 days of administrator's receipt if no revocation or suspension in process
• Revocation or suspension may be started up to one year after withdrawal
Contumacy
• Contempt of administrator's order
Administrator's Subpoena Authority
• Anywhere outside the state
. Full cooperation with other domestic and foreign regulators
Administrators with Jurisdiction
. State where offer was originated
• State to which offer was directed
• State where offer was accepted
USA Right of Rescission
• Seller may attempt to buy back illegal sale
. Buyer may not sue if no response to offer is made within 30 days
USA Statute of Limitations
. May not sue after two years of discovery or three years after transaction, whichever comes first
USA Penalties
• Criminal penalties
- Up to $5,000 and/or three years' imprisonment
• Civil liabilities
- Recover money paid including investment advisory fee Receive interest from date of purchase
-Receive court cost and attorney's fees
-Award reduced by income received from investment advice rendered
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding civil liabilities when a sale violates provisions of the Uniform Securities Act?
I. A buyer may not sue for compensation later than three years after the sale.
II. A rescission offer must include interest.
III. A rescission offer must be at a current price.
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II only
D. I, II and III
B. Rescission must occur by the earlier of two years after the discovery of the facts or three years after the occurrence. The offer of rescission is based on the price originally paid for the security. (Page 109
Which of the following justifies an administrator's denial of a security's registration?
I. The order is in the public interest.
II. The company has not been paying dividends.
III. The underwriter's compensation is excessive.
A I
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. III
C. Answers A and D are incorrect because neither choice I nor choice III by itself justifies an action for denial. (Page 104)
Disciplinary proceedings under the Uniform Securities Act generally require an administrator to provide which of the following?
I. Opportunity for a hearing
II. Written findings of facts and conclusions of law
III. Appropriate prior notice
A I and III only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
D. In general, an administrator must provide appropriate prior notice, opportunity for a
hearing and written findings of facts and conclusions of law. Even if an order is issued summarily-that is, made effective upon issue without prior notice-a registrant must be notified upon issue of the order and must be given the opportunity to request a hearing.
(Page 103
Under the USA, an administrator may do all of the following EXCEPT
A. issue a stop order to revoke the effectiveness of a registration statement
B. issue a cease and desist order without a prior hearing
C. issue an injunction to force compliance with an administrator's rule
D. revoke a previously allowed exemption
C. Administrators cannot issue injunctions. They may, however, petition a court to issue an injunction, or enjoin, against certain activities.
(Page 104)
A person who sells securities in violation of state securities laws is civilly liable for which of the following?
I. Principal
II. Interest
III. Court costs
IV. Attorney's fees
A. I, II and IV only
B. I and III only
C. II, III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV
D. A person who sells securities illegally is liable for the purchase price of the securities plus
interest from the date of purchase, costs and reasonable attorney's fees. (Page 108
A customer living in one state receives a phone call from an agent in another state. A transaction between the two occurs in yet another state. Jurisdiction falls under the administrator of
A. the state in which the customer lives
B. the state in which the agent's office is located
C. the state in which the transaction took place
D. each of the three states involved
D. The Uniform Securities Act gives each state administrator jurisdiction over offers to buy or sell when the offers originate in the administrator's state or are directed to or accepted in that
state. (Page 106)
An agent who willfully violated state securities law is subject to which of the following?
I. Civil liabilities
II. Criminal penalties
III. Denial, suspension or revocation of registration as an agent by the administrator
A I only
B. I and II only
C. III only
D. I, II and III
D. Violations of securities laws are subject to criminal penalties, civil liabilities and denial, suspension or revocation of registration.
(Page 108)
An agent's license could be revoked if which of the following occurred?
A. The agent was convicted of a securities related misdemeanor.
B. The agent was declared insolvent.
C. The agent was either convicted of a securities-related misdemeanor or declared insolvent.
D. Once issued, an agent's license cannot be revoked.
C. If you answered this question incorrectly, review the list in the text on offenses leading to denial, suspension or revocation of
registration. (Page 102
Which of the following subjects an agent to a possible denial of registration?
I. Engaging in fraudulent selling to an insurance company
'II. Conviction of a securities-related
misdemeanor eight years ago
III. Insolvency
IV. Failure to pay filing fees

A. I only
B. I, II and III only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
D. Fraud, conviction of a felony or misdemeanor involving securities and insolvency are grounds for denial. (Page 102
An agent works for a brokerage firm in Illinois, where his client also lives. The agent makes an offer to the client by phone while the client is vacationing in California. The client accepts the offer while still in California. The client travels to Texas before returning home and sends payment for the security from there. The check is from a money-market fund based in Ohio. The administrator(s) of which state(s) has (have) authority over the sale?
I. Illinois
II. California
III. Texas
IV. Ohio

A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
B. The offer was made from Illinois to a person in California, so the state administrators of both states have jurisdiction. The state from which payment was mailed and the state in which the checking account or money-market fund is based are unimportant. (Page 106)
As defined in the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following is NOT a security?
A. Pre-organization certificate in a real estate condominium
B. Commercial paper issued with an eight month maturity
C. Variable annuity
D. $100,000 whole life insurance policy
D. A security is any piece of paper that can be traded for value. An investment is considered a security if a person invests his or her money in a common enterprise with the expectation of profit from the managerial efforts of a third party. Insurance policies and fixed annuities are not considered securities. (Page 12
Which of the following persons is defined as an agent by the Uniform Securities Act?
A. Silent partner of a broker-dealer
B. Secretary of a branch office sales manager
C. Clerk at a broker-dealer who is authorized to take orders
D. Broker-dealer executive who does not solicit or transact business
C. Anyone who solicits or receives an order while representing a broker-dealer is an agent.
(Page 20)
As defined in the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following are considered securities?
I. Commodity option contract
II. Treasury stock
ill. Keogh plan
A. I and II only
B. I and ill only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
A. An IRA or a Keogh plan is a vehicle for an investment, not a security itself. Note that a commodity option contract is considered a security, while a commodity futures contract is not.
(Page 12)
According to the Uniform Securities Act, all of the following are investment advisers EXCEPT a
I. broker who charges for investment
advice
II. publisher of a financial newspaper
Ill. person who sells securities analysis
IV. CPA who charges for constructing a portfolio of tax-sheltered investments
A. I and II
B. II and ill
C. II and IV
D. III and IV
. C. Investment advisers are persons in the business of selling investment advice. Profession¬als such as lawyers, accountants and teachers whose performance is incidental to the practice of their professions are not considered investment advisers. A publisher of a financial newspaper is specifically excluded from the definition of an investment adviser. (Page 22)
Interests in which of the following are considered securities under the Uniform Securities Act?
I. Merchandising marketing program
II. Multilevel distributorship arrangement
Ill. Oil and gas drilling program

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and Ill
D. All of the investments listed fall under the definition of security. (Page 12
Under the Uniform Securities Act, an individual must register as an agent if representing an issuer in which of the following transactions?

A. Sale of six-month commercial paper
B. Sale of Canadian corporation's common
stock
C. Transaction with an underwriter
D. Transaction in municipal securities
B. An individual is not considered an agent
when representing an issuer in such securities as municipal securities, Canadian government securities or commercial paper maturing in 270 days or less. Also, an individual is not considered an agent when representing an issuer in exempt transactions, such as between issuers and underwriters. However, an individual representing a Canadian issuer of common stock is included in the Uniform Securities Act's definition of agent.
(Page 20)
Under the Uniform Securities Act, the definition of an issuer includes which of the following?
A. Seller in a transaction on the floor of an exchange
B. Officer or director of a company that is offering new shares to the public
C. Person proposing to issue a security
D. Market maker for a new issue
C. The term issuer includes any person who issues or proposes to issue any security.
(Page 17
Under the Uniform Securities Act, the definition of a broker-dealer includes which of the following?
A. Person in the business of making trades in his or her own account or for the accounts of others
B. Agent handling principal transactions
C. Trust company when executing transactions in accounts in which it does not act in a fiduciary capacity
D. Authorized representative of an issuer
A. A broker-dealer is defined as any individual or firm in the business of making trades in its own account or for the accounts of others.
(Page 18
According to the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following constitutes a sale?
A. Attempt to transfer ownership of a security
B. Solicitation of an offer to buy
C. Contract to transfer ownership of a security for value
D. Offer equivalent contract
C. A sale is defined as every contract to sell a security or an interest in a security, including a security given as a bonus with the purchase of another security, or a gift of assessable stock. An offer to sell is an attempt to solicit a purchase or sale in a security. (Page 26
An employee of a large, publicly held company effects transactions with existing employees for the purchase of company debentures. Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following statements is true?
A. The employee must register as an agent of the issuer.
B. The employee need not register as an agent of the issuer.
C. The employee may receive commissions without registration.
D. the employee must register as an agent if he or she will receive commissions or remuneration, directly or indirectly.
D. An individual is not considered an agent when effecting transactions with an issuer's employees only if no commission is paid.
(Page 20
According to the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following is NOT considered a person?
A. Custodian
B. Minor
C. Municipality
D. Corporation
B. Minors cannot enter into contracts and therefore are not considered legal persons.
(Page 16
Under the Uniform Securities Act, a person who has passed the Uniform Securities Agent State Law Exam but whose license has not yet been issued can participate in which of the following activities?
A. Prospecting in person
B. Prospecting by mail
C. Accepting unsolicited orders
D.. None of the above
D. A person who has passed the exam cannot transact business until the state administrator grants registration, which normally occurs on the 30th day after the application is filed.
(Page 39
According to the Uniform Securities Act, a consent to service of process must accompany which of the following?
I. Agent's registration application
II. Civil complaint against a broker-dealer
III. Broker-dealer's initial registration
application
A. I only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
B. A broker-dealer, an agent or a state-registered investment adviser may obtain registration by filing an application and a consent to service of process with the administrator. The consent to service of process gives the administrator the irrevocable right to process legal complaints against the applicant. Federally registered advisers must give notice only and pay filing fees in the states in which they conduct business.
(Page 39)
An agent representing a broker-dealer lives in one state and wants to do business in another state. Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following statements is true?
A. No registration is necessary in the other state as long as the agent's activities are limited exclusively to effecting transactions in certain exempted securities.
B. No registration is necessary if no commission or other remuneration is paid or given directly or indirectly.
C. If the agent is a partner, an officer or a director and held that position at the time the broker-dealer was registered, the individual need not register separately.
D. Registration is required only if an offer is directed, accepted and paid for in that other state.
C. Both a broker-dealer and an agent must be registered in the state where they transact business even if the securities or the transactions are exempt from registration. At the time a broker dealer is registered, officers of the firm who act as agents are registered automatically as agents.
(Page 41
Under the Uniform Securities Act, for what period of time is a broker-dealer's agent's license in effect?
A. It depends on the renewal dates in the various states.
B. Until December 31 unless renewed
C. Until withdrawn by the agent or
revoked by the administrator
D. Length of the agent's employment by all broker-dealers
B. Registrations expire on December 31st of each year unless renewed. (Page 39
Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following types of transactions can be entered into legally with unregistered, nonexempt securities?
A. Public offering
B. Private placement
c. Rights offering
D. Offering to issuer's employees
B. A private placement involves the sale of nonexempt securities to qualified public investors. Private placement transactions are exempt from registration. The Uniform Securities Act stipulates that no more than 10 non accredited investors receive offers in any 12-month period; that the purchase be made for the purpose of investment; and that no commissions be paid for solicitation of non institutional buyers.
(Page 69) [
Which of the following securities is (are) exempt from the registration provisions of the Uniform Securities Act?
I. Issue of a savings and loan association
II. General obligation municipal bond
III. Bond issued by a company that has common stock listed on the American Stock Exchange
A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
D. Each of the securities listed is exempt from registration under the Uniform Securities
Act. (Page 65
Which of the following activities violates the Uniform Securities Act?
I. Buying and selling the same stock on the same day on different exchanges
II. Offering shares of an unregistered, nonexempt security to customers
III. Offering a Canadian government bond to a resident of a state in which the agent of a broker-dealer is not registered
A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
C. Buying a security on one exchange and selling it on another is a proper market arbitrage. Broker-dealers and agents must be registered in each state where offers or sales occur. Also, every security must be registered unless it is an exempt security or transaction. (Page 81
Which of the following exemptions under the Uniform Securities Act applies to the sale of securities to institutions that are regarded as professional investors?
A. Blue chip exemption
B. Manual exemption
C. Exempt transaction
D. Exempt security
C. The Uniform Securities Act is designed to protect the general public, not to limit the activities of informed professional investors, such as banks, insurance companies and pension or profit-sharing trusts. Transactions with institutions are exempt. (Page 68
Which of the following statements is true regarding the antifraud provisions of the Uniform Securities Act?
A. The only securities exempt from the provisions are those regulated by federal authority.
B. The only exempt securities are those issued by national governments or political subdivisions of countries that maintain diplomatic relations with the United States.
C. The only exempt securities are those registered properly under blue-sky laws.
D. No securities are exempt from the antifraud provisions of the act.
D. Neither exempt securities nor exempt transactions are exempt from the antifraud provisions. (Page 65)
The Uniform Securities Act prohibits which of the following?
I. Agents exercising discretion in discretionary accounts
II. Charging larger than ordinary commissions on certain transactions
III. Soliciting orders for unregistered,
nonexempt securities
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. III only
D. I, II and III
C. The Uniform Securities Act prohibits soliciting orders for unregistered nonexempt
securities. (Page 83
A customer asks an agent to open an account and buy stock for the customer's spouse. According to the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following statements about this action is true?
A. The agent could be liable if the stock declines in value.
B. This practice is ordinary and acceptable.
C. This action is prohibited unless the spouse signs a trading authorization.
D. This action is prohibited unless the customer signs a trading authorization on behalf of her spouse.
C. Effecting transactions without specific authority to do so is prohibited. (Page 86)
A customer who wishes to retire in three years informs his agent that he wants to use the equity in his house to make enough money in the stock market to fund his retirement. According to the Uniform Securities Act, the agent should do which of the following?
A. Help meet the customer's needs by constructing a high-quality, growth oriented portfolio
B. Urge the customer to reconsider because the time allotted is not consistent with his means
C. Suggest that the customer invest in an ultraconservative portfolio of municipal bonds
D. Invest the money in stocks because of
their unlimited potential
B. Making unsuitable recommendations to
customers is prohibited. (Page 81
An agent hears that the chairman of a large manufacturing firm may be ousted because of erratic social behavior. The agent decides to tell all of his customers who own shares of the manufacturing corporation to liquidate their positions. Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following statements is true?
A. The agent may have made an error as to the effect of the rumor, so he should wait until he has a better feel for the situation.
B. This action is based on material inside information, so he must inform all of his customers of this fact.
C. This action constitutes a prohibited use of rumor to induce a purchase or sale.
D. This action is legal and legitimate as long as the agent limits the exposure to 12 customers or fewer.
C. Repeating rumors is both misleading and prohibited under the Uniform Securities Act.
(Page 83)
An agent hears material inside information regarding a publicly held company. Which of the following actions would NOT violate the Uniform Securities Act?
A. Soliciting orders based on this
information
B. Trading for the agent's personal account based on this information
C. Discussing the situation with a superior or compliance officer in the agent's firm
D. Discussing the information at a seminar, but making no investment
recommendation
C. Disseminating and acting on inside information are prohibited. (Page 80)
Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following may have custody of customer funds?
I. Investment adviser who maintains a $35,000 net worth
II. Investment adviser who maintains a $35,000 surety bond
III. Broker-dealer that maintains a $10,000 surety bond
IV. Broker-dealer in compliance with SEC net capital rules

A. I, II and IV
B. I and III
C. I and IV
D. III and IV
A. If an investment adviser or a broker ¬dealer has custody of customer assets, the state administrator may set a minimum capital or surety bond requirement of $35,000. A broker¬ dealer in compliance with federal net capital rules is exempt from the state's rules. (Page 39)
According to the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following would be an unlawful activity for an investment adviser?
A. Entering into an investment advisory contract that does not mention the compensation arrangements
B. Taking custody of a customer's securities or funds without notifying the administrator, even though the administrator has no rule that prohibits such custody
C. Entering into an investment advisory contract that provides specifically for compensation based on a share of capital appreciation of the customer's funds
D. All of the above
D. Each of the answers listed is an example of an unlawful activity by an investment adviser.
(Page 88
Which of the following actions by an agent is NOT considered unlawful under the Uni¬form Securities Act?
A. Making an untrue statement of a mate rial fact
B. Omitting a material fact because she knew she did not have time to cover everything in a short presentation
C. Deliberately failing to follow a customer's instructions
D. Actively soliciting orders in unregistered exempt securities
D. Securities that do not require registra¬tion under the Uniform Securities Act are exempt securities. Although the securities are exempt, the agent who makes the solicitation and his or her broker-dealer must be registered.
(Page 65
Under which of the following circumstances does the Uniform Securities Act permit excessive trading activity that generates high commissions and low returns in a customer's account?
A. If the account is discretionary
B. With the customer's written permission
C. When it is consistent with the customer's needs
D. Under no circumstances
D. Excessive trading activity in an account is called churning, a prohibited practice.
(Page 81
Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following statements is true regarding the use of material facts?
A. To omit material facts is fraudulent and unethical.
B. Because all material facts cannot be presented, it is up to the sales rep to decide which to use.
Restrictions apply only to sales, not to solicitations.
D. The agent is the final arbiter on what is material and what is not.
A. Material facts are essential to making investment decisions. To omit them is fraudulent or deceitful. (Page 78)
An agent receives a letter from an irate customer. This letter, which is the fourth in the last four months, is very abusive. The agent decides against a reply, and discards the letter. Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following statements is true?
A. The agent is entitled to decide how to handle such situations.
B. The administrator may, by rule, dictate how this should be handled.
C. All material complaints must be forwarded to the administrator.
D. The agent's behavior is prohibited. She must forward all written complaints to her employer.
D. The Uniform Securities Act requires an agent to forward any written complaints he or she receives to the agent's employer.
, (Page 82)
Which of the following is (are) considered an investment adviser representative(s) that is, a supervised person(s)-under the Uniform Securities Act?
I. Vice-president of a firm
II. Temporary employee hired to solicit clients
Ill. Employee who performs only clerical tasks
IV. Employee who supervises the management of customer accounts
A. I only
B. I, II and IV only C. ill and IV only D. I, II, III and IV
B. Clerical and ministerial personnel are not included in the definition of investment adviser representatives (supervised persons). Any other person associated with an investment adviser, including an officer of the firm, generally is considered to be an investment adviser representative. (Page 23)
According to the Uniform Securities Act, to determine whether an investment adviser is trading excessively in a customer's account, regulators examine whether the
A. adviser received compensation for the trades
B. transactions matched the investor's objectives
C. customer approved the transactions in writing
D. adviser acted as a principal or an agent
B. Trading in a customer's account must not be excessive in terms of size or frequency with respect to the customer's investment objectives and financial ability. Whether the adviser acted as principal or agent or received compensation is not a consideration. The customer's approval of the transactions does not release the adviser from abiding by suitability requirements.
(Page 87
Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following statements is true of an agent who deliberately gives a fictitious quote to
a customer?
A. The agent is guilty of a felony.
B. The agent has committed a fraudulent and misleading act.
C. The agent must execute at that price.
D. The agent is committed to selling or buying 100 shares at that price.
B. Disseminating phony or misleading quotes is a prohibited practice. (Page 78)
Which of the following is a fraudulent or prohibited activity under the Uniform Securities Act?
A. Using the dividends paid in the last 12 months to determine a common stock's current yield
B. Implying that registration of a security means approval of the security
C. Selling common stock to a customer with income objectives
D. Stating that zero-coupon bonds pay no current interest
B. Registration of a security with the SEC or a state implies neither approval nor disapproval. (Page 79) [
Which of the following practices violates the Uniform Securities Act?
A. Deliberately failing to charge a commission
B. Failing to charge a markup
C. Failing to state every fact
D. Failing to follow a customer's
instructions
D. Deliberate disregard for a customer's instructions is a violation under the USA.
(Page 81
Under the Uniform Securities Act, a state administrator may revoke or deny an investment adviser's registration for which of the following reasons?
A. Conviction for a securities felony
15 years ago
B. Conviction for a securities misdemeanor 15 years ago
C. Violation of another state's securities law five years ago
D. Lack of experience as an investment adviser
C. A violation of any state or federal securities or commodities law is grounds for denial, suspension, revocation or cancellation of registration. Convictions are grounds for administrator action if they occurred within the past 10 years. Lack of experience is not sufficient cause for revoking or denying registration. (Page 102)
Which of the following statements regarding licensing and registration under the Uniform Securities Act are true?
1. When an agent's license is suspended, the broker-dealer's license is suspended.
II. When a broker-dealer's license is suspended, its agents' registrations are suspended.
III. An administrator may suspend or revoke registrations whenever the public good is the sole consideration.
IV. If a principal's license is suspended, the broker-dealer's license is suspended.
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. II and IV
D. III and IV
C. An administrator may suspend or revoke any registration if the administrator finds that the order is in the public interest and determines guilt of any of the listed offenses. The public good cannot be the sole consideration. The suspension of a broker-dealer's registration causes the suspension of all agents. The suspension of a principal's registration causes the suspension of the firm's. (Page 102)
According to the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following rectifies an inadvertent sale of an unregistered, nonexempt security?
I. Offering to buy back the security from the customer
II. Asking the customer to sign an agreement that releases the agent because the customer is pleased with the securities' performance
III. Registering the stock by notification
IV. Offering to pay interest as set by the administrator, less income paid, from the date the security was purchased

A. I and III only
B. I and IV only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, III and IV
B. The buyer has the rescission right to recover the purchase price and interest. If the seller discovers the illegal sale, he or she may offer to repurchase the security. The buyer has 30 days to accept after receiving the rescission letter offering to refund the money and interest; otherwise,
the sale stands. (Page 109)
An agent in Alabama directs a solicitation to a customer who lives in Connecticut while the customer is temporarily in Indiana. The customer does not accept the offer until he arrives back in Connecticut. According to the Uniform Securities Act, the administrators of which states have jurisdiction?
A. Alabama and Connecticut
B. Alabama and Indiana
C. Indiana and Connecticut
D. Alabama, Connecticut and Indiana
D. The administrator in any state to or from which an offer is made has jurisdiction over the
offer. (Page 106
Persons with $5 million or less in assets under management who act in advisory capacities in states that do not require registration must do which of the following?

A. Register with the SEC
B. Register with the NASD
C. Pass the Series 7 General Securities Representative Exam
D. Pass the Series 65 Uniform Investment Adviser Law Exam
A. Those persons who act in advisory capacities in states that do not require registration must register with the SEC. (Page 45)
An investment adviser ignores a state administrator's subpoena of records. Under the Uniform Securities Act, the adviser may be subject to
A. a court injunction
B. a registration revocation
C. a probationary period
D. all of the above
A. If an investment adviser demonstrates contempt (contumacy) for an administrator's order or subpoena, a court may be asked to enforce it. The adviser's registration or ability to conduct business may not be affected.
(Page 105)
Which of the following activities is prohibited for a sales rep according to the USA?
A. The sales rep enters into an agreement
to share in the profits and losses of a customer's account without investing in the account.
B. The sales rep and his spouse own jointly their own personal trading account at the rep's firm.
C. The sales rep, with his firm's and the client's permission, participates in the profits and losses of a customer's account in proportion to his investment in the account.
D. A sales rep refuses a client's request to share in the performance of the client's account.
A. It is a prohibited practice under the USA for a sales rep to share in the profits and losses of a customer's account unless the customer or the employer has given written consent and the percentage of participation equals the percentage of the sales rep's personal funds in the account. A sales rep may own a personal account at the firm jointly. An agent can refuse to share in a customer's account. (Page 82)
Which of the following are NOT considered violations of the USA?
I. Deliberately failing to follow a customer's instructions
II. Bringing a customer's written complaint to the attention of a rep's employer
III. Effecting a transaction with an investor who is not recorded on a firm's books with the advance written approval of the firm's principal
IV. Soliciting orders for unregistered, nonexempt securities
A. I and II
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. III and IV
C. Bringing a written complaint to the attention of a rep's employer does not violate the USA; however, failure to do so violates the act. If a firm's principal approves a transaction in advance, it may be effected for an investor who is not otherwise recorded on the firm's books. Deliberately failing to follow a customer's instructions and soliciting orders for unregistered, nonexempt securities are violations of the USA.
(Page 80)
Which of the following conditions must a sales rep or an agent meet in order to be permitted to share in the profits and losses of a customer's account?
I. The sales rep or agent has obtained the employer's written consent.
II. The sales rep or agent has obtained the customer's written consent.
III. The sales rep or agent has capital invested in the account.
IV. The percentage of the profits and losses shared is the same percentage as the rep's or agent's personal investment in the account.
A. I and II only
B. I, II and III only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
D. A sales rep must meet all of the conditions listed to participate legally in the profits and losses of a customer's account. (Page 82)
Which of the following actions by a sales rep is considered a violation of the anti fraud provisions of the USA?
A. The sales rep recommends a security to a client based on the rep's investigation of the client's financial objectives.
B. A client places an order to buy stock without providing any suitability information; the rep enters the order, but marks the ticket "discretionary."
C. Upon receiving a signed trading authorization from a customer, the agent effects a discretionary transaction in accordance with the client's investment objectives.
D. After a client places an order, the sales rep discusses and reviews the transaction's suitability with the client before entering the trade.
B. Failure to obtain suitability information violates of the Uniform Securities Act. Falsely marking. a trade "discretionary" without a signed trading authorization from the customer is a violation of the antifraud provisions of the act. The other actions listed are not fraudulent according
to the USA. (Page 81
An agent tells his customer that a corporation has finally "graduated" to the level of quality acceptable for trading on the New York Stock Exchange. He recommends the stock to the customer based on the Exchange's rigorous listing requirements. In this situation, the agent has acted
A. lawfully because the New York Stock Exchange requires that companies it lists are substantially capitalized
B. lawfully because he did not guarantee returns
C. unlawfully because listing on the New York Stock Exchange does not reduce the client's loss exposure
D. unlawfully because the agent may sell only insurance products rather than securities
C. Because New York Stock Exchange listing requirements are quantitative rather than qualitative (e.g., requiring minimum capitalization levels rather than potential earnings), Exchange listing by no means indicates the level of risk associated with owning the stock. The sales representative's statement is misleading and therefore unlawful. (Page 78
An agent tells her customer of the long-term growth potential of General Gizmonics, but points out the significant risk of buying the stock. She explains the risk of using simple averages to analyze the company's earnings by indicating to the customer that earnings fell 50 percent two years ago and that last year's 100 percent increase in earnings offset the earlier reduction. In this situation, the agent has acted
A. lawfully because the risk and earnings volatility was disclosed
B. lawfully because it is generally under¬ stood that growth stock experiences earnings volatility
C. unlawfully because averages represent a form of technical analysis with which the customer may be unfamiliar
D. unlawfully because agent's bullishness on the stock is a prohibited projection of
performance
A. The sales representative has disclosed General Gizmonics earnings volatility by pointing out the 50 percent drop. In the scenario she tells the customer not to rely on average earnings (sim¬ple averages are not technical analysis). Many customers are unaware of the volatile earnings associated with growth stocks. In merely offering a favorable opinion about a stock's potential growth, the agent is not projecting performance.
(Page 85)
Ada Bullweather, a lifelong friend of an agent, is also that agent's best customer. Due to a substantial stock market drop, the agent receives a maintenance margin call he cannot satisfy without liquidating securities in his account. Mrs. Bullweather offers to transfer cash and securities from her own account into the agent's account. Because this offer could be misunderstood, the agent borrows $10,000 from Mrs. Bullweather under a legal and binding loan agreement specifying the rate of interest the agent will pay on the loan. In this situation, the agent has acted
A. lawfully because the loan operated as a standard business loan by agreement
B. lawfully if the agent can substantiate that Mrs. Bullweather was a friend before becoming a client
C. unlawfully because borrowing money or securities from a customer is prohibited
D. unlawfully because neither party was represented by counsel in drawing up the loan agreement
C. Borrowing money or securities from a customer regardless of friendship is a prohibited practice. (Page 86
Which two of the following statements describe the authority of each state securities administrator under the USA?
I. The administrator can start an investigation against a rep even if a violation has not yet occurred.
II. The administrator can subpoena witnesses living in the state only.
III. The administrator can subpoena witnesses living outside the state.
IV. The administrator can begin an investigation only after a violation of the act has occurred
B. Under the USA, each administrator has a broad scope of investigative authority. An administrator may begin an investigation against a rep before a violation occurs and may subpoena witnesses in any state.(Page 105)
Under the Uniform Securities Act, a person representing an issuer of which of the following securities need NOT be registered as an agent?
I. Banker's acceptance
II. Municipal bond
III. U.S. bank issue
IV. Investment contract issued in connection with an employee's stock purchase, savings, pension, profit-sharing or similar benefit plan
A. I and II only
B. I, III and IV only
C. III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
D. An individual is not considered an agent when representing the issuer in each of the cases cited. Note that for purposes of the exam, unless otherwise stated, all commercial paper is considered to mature in 270 days or less.
(Page 20)
Under the Uniform Securities Act, an individual is NOT considered an agent if he or she engages in which of the following types of transactions?
I. Between an issuer and an insurance company
II. Between an. issuer and unsophisticated
investors
III. Between an issuer and the underwriters
IV. Between an issuer and savings institutions or trust companies
A. I, III and IV only
B. II and III only
C. II and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
A. An individual who effects securities transactions for compensation is defined as an agent. A person representing an issuer in an exempt transaction does not fall under the definition, nor does a person who represents an issuer in effecting transactions with existing employees in which no commissions are paid.
(Page 20)
An agent explains dollar cost averaging to a mutual fund prospect: "If you invest the same number of dollars each month and reinvest the distributions, the value in your mutual fund increases." In this situation, which of the following statements is true?
A. The agent has explained the result of dollar cost averaging accurately.
B. The agent has explained the result of dividend and capital gain reinvestment accurately.
C. The agent has made a misleading statement to the customer.
D. The agent has made a misleading statement to the customer only if the fund has not increased in value within the previous 10 years.
C. Implying that dollar cost averaging or dividend reinvestment automatically produces profit for a mutual fund customer is misleading regardless of the fund's past performance.
(Page 82)
Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following statements about sales and offers are true?
I. Any security given or delivered with or as a bonus for any purchase of securities is considered to have been offered and sold for value.
II. A gift of assessable stock is considered to involve an offer and a sale.
III. Every sale or offer of a warrant or stock right to purchase or subscribe to another security is considered to include an offer of the other security.
IV. Every bona fide pledge is considered an
offer and a sale.
A. I, II and III only
B. I and III only
C. II and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
A. The term sale does not include a bona fide pledge. It does include bonuses and gifts of assessable stock. Sales of rights or warrants are considered sales of the underlying security.
(Page 27
According to the Uniform Securities Act, an offer or a sale does NOT exist if it is a(n)
I. reclassification of the issuer's securities
II. bona fide pledge or loan
III. act incident to a judicially approved reorganization in which a security is issued in exchange for one or more outstanding shares
IV. stock dividend of stock other than the issuer's for which nothing of value was given
A. I and II only
B. I, II and III only
C. IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
D. The Uniform Securities Act specifically excludes these four choices from the definition of
offer and sale. (Page 27
An interest in which of the following can be defined as a security under the Uniform Securities Act?
I. Merchandising marketing scheme
II. Multilevel distributorship arrangement
III. Oil and gas drilling program
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. III only
D. I, II and III
D. Any investment contract entered into for profit where someone other than the investors manage the assets is considered a security.
(Page 11
According to the Uniform Securities Act, an administrator has the power to require an agent,.licensee to

A. have minimum net capital, post a surety bond and pass an exam
B. post a surety bond and pass an exam
C. post a surety bond, pay filing fees and pass an exam
D. have minimum net capital, pay filing fees, pass an exam and post a surety bond
C. The administrator may require that, as a condition of registration, the agent post a surety bond, pay filing fees and pass an examination that may be written, oral or both. (Page 39)
An agent representing a broker-dealer in Utah wishes to do business in California exclusively in the trading of certain exempt securities. Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following statements is true?
A. The agent need not register in
California.
B. The agent must register in California.
C. The agent need not register if the broker-dealer is registered in California.
D. The agent can do business because the securities are exempt.
B. Although the securities are exempted from registration, typically the agent must register in every state where he or she attempts to do
business. (Page 36
According to the Uniform Securities Act, under what circumstances is an employee of a licensed broker-dealer firm allowed to sell exempt securities as an unregistered agent?
A. The securities are exempt.
B. The transaction is exempt.
C. The employee is paid no commission or
salary.
D. Under no circumstances
D. It is unlawful for a person to transact business on behalf of a broker-dealer unless that person is registered, even if the securities are
exempt. (Page 36)
All of the following are part of the Uniform Securities Act's registration by filing procedure EXCEPT that
A. companies must have attained a specific level of earnings for the prior three-year period
B. a copy of the offering circular or prospectus must be filed
C. if not denied, registration becomes effective after 30 days
D. a statement must list the name(s) of the underwriter(s) and describe the terms of the offering
C. Registration by filing becomes effective concurrently with federal effectiveness as long as documentation has been filed with the administrator for at least five days. (Page 61)
All of the following statements are true regarding the selling of private placements under the Uniform Securities Act EXCEPT that
A. they can be offered without limitation to institutional investors
B. they cannot be offered to more than 35 nonaccredited persons in 12 consecutive months
C. the seller must reasonably believe that all buyers are purchasing for investment purposes only
D. no commission or other remuneration may be paid for soliciting noninstitutional buyers
B. This question distinguishes the differences in federal and state requirements for private placements. Under state law, a private placement can be offered to no more than 10 nonaccredited
investors. (Page 69
A registration statement for securities under the Uniform Securities Act remains in force for
A. a period of time determined by the administrator for each issue
B. one year from the effective date
C. one year from the date of issue
D. one year from the previous January 1
B. Securities registration statements are effective for one year from the effective dates.
(Page 63
An agent thinks that a particular technology stock is undervalued and is due to rise in price. She calls all of her clients to inform them and ask them to purchase some shares. According to the USA, which of the following statements is (are) true?
I. As long as she discloses all material facts, this practice is allowable under the provisions of the act.
II. This is an unethical sales practice because her firm has not recommended this technology stock.
III. This is an unethical business practice. She should review her customer accounts to determine suitability first.
IV. As long as she does not recommend that a client purchase an excessive number of shares, no violation of the act occurs.
A. I, II and IV only
B. I and IV only
C. III only
D. I, II, III and IV
C. Under the USA, agents always must determine suitability before soliciting purchases
or sales. (Page 86
All of the following are considered exempt securities under the Uniform Securities Act EXCEPT
I. U.S. government securities
II. unsolicited transactions
III. transactions between issuers and underwriters
IV. securities issued by credit unions
A. I, II and IV
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. IV
C. U.S. government and credit union issues are exempt securities. Unsolicited transactions and transactions between issuers and underwriters safe exempt transactions. (Page 65)
According to the Uniform Securities Act, an administrator may cancel a person's registration under which of the following circumstances?
A. The person is judged to be mentally incompetent.
B. The administrator determines it would be in the public interest.
C. The person is the subject of an insider trading lawsuit.
D. The person has been terminated from employment at an investment adviser firm.
A. An administrator may cancel registrationt if a registered person has been judged mentally incompetent. Merely being the subject of a lawsuit, without being convicted of the crime, is not grounds for cancellation. A person's registration is not in effect any time when the person is no longer associated with an employing firm; however, the registration has not been canceled.
(Page 103
According to the Uniform Securities Act, the investment adviser brochure must include the business background of
A. the investment adviser
B. employees of the adviser
C. an affiliated broker-dealer
D. institutional clients
A. The business background of any person who will be responsible for making investment recommendations must be included in Part II of Form ADV, filed for registration; substantially the same information must be provided in the disclosure brochure. (Page 50
Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following constitutes an offer of a security?
A. Stock dividend distributed to current shareholders
B. Agreement between an issuer and an underwriter
C. Delivery of a prospectus
D. Tombstone advertisement
C. A prospectus is the document that offers a security for sale. A tombstone advertisement is not considered an offer of the security; it is used to solicit indications of interest. An agreement between an issuer and an underwriter is not considered an offer to purchase or sell the security; and the definition of offer and sale specifically
excludes stock dividends. (Page 15
A customer is upset with her agent for not servicing her account properly and sends him a complaint letter about his actions. Under the Uniform Securities Act, the agent should do which of the following?
A. Call the customer, apologize and
attempt to correct the problem
B. Tell the customer he is willing to make rescission
C. Do nothing and hope the customer for gets about the letter
D. Bring the customer complaint to his employer immediately
D. Failure to bring customers' written complaints to the attention of an agent's broker-dealer is prohibited. (Page 82
Which of the following is NOT considered a market manipulation under the Uniform Securities Act?
A. Three market makers start buying and selling the same security simultaneously in their own accounts.
B. A specialist buys and sells stock for his own account.
C. A principal in a broker-dealer allows a rumor to leak out that Microscam will acquire Datawaq; after a few days, the broker-dealer sells Microscam short for its own account.
D. A broker sells a customer's stock at the bid price and makes up the difference with a personal check.
B. The function of a specialist normally is to act as a broker for orders other members leave with the specialist and to act as a dealer in buying and selling for his or her own account.
(Page 81)
To dose a sale of $10,000 worth of bonds, an agent Promises to balance a customer's cl1eckbook each month for as long as the customer lives, even though the agent is in line for a promotion and an office transfer. Under the Uniform Securities Act, this is considered a(n)
A. acceptable practice
B. unacceptable practice
C. practice that is not a violation, but not wise either
D. acceptable practice if it complies with house rules
B. According to the USA, an agent may not make promises that he or she probably cannot keep. (Page 82
The state administrator revokes an agent's registration. Under the Uniform Securities Act, the agent may file for a review of the
revocation order within how many days of revocation?
A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
D.270
B. If a person wishes to appeal a state administrator's final order, he or she may file a written petition with the appropriate court within 60 days of order entry. The court then may affirm or set aside the revocation order.
(Page 105)
According to the Uniform Securities Act, market manipulation includes all of the following EXCEPT
A. buying on one exchange and selling on another
B. withholding a material fact from a
buyer
C. buying and selling intentionally to
show market activity
D. giving a false quote
A. Buying on one exchange and selling on another is known as arbitrage, an accepted trading
practice. (Page 81)
A customer has a discretionary account with his agent. The objective of the account is current income. The agent purchases a speculative growth stock. Under the Uniform Securities Act, this is considered a(n)
A. wash sale
B. unauthorized transaction
C. acceptable transaction
D. matching activity
B. The customer authorized the agent to buy income-producing securities only. Wash sale and matching activities create the impression of activity in a stock by buying and selling the same stock at the same price without a change in beneficial ownership. These activities may cause others to buy or sell the security. (Page 86) [10992]
Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following is responsible for proving that a securities issue is exempt from registration?
A. Underwriter
B. Issuer
C. State administrator
D. There is no need to prove eligibility for
an exemption.
B. The burden of proof for claiming eligibility for an exemption falls to the person claiming the exemption. (Page 59
According to the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following are fraudulent or deceitful business practices?
I. Matched order
II. Phony quote
III. Material misrepresentation
IV. Wash sale
A. I and II only
B. I, II and III only
C. III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
D. Both matched orders and wash sales dis¬tort the actual trading activity in a security. Phony quotes and material misrepresentations are untrue statements of fact and therefore are prohibited. (Page 81
According to the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following is an example of market manipulation?
A. Creating the illusion of active trading
B. Omitting material facts in a presentation
C. Guaranteeing a security's performance
D. Effecting transactions that exceed a customer's financial capability
A. Creating the illusion of trading activity is a manipulation of the market. Guaranteeing a security's performance and omitting material facts are prohibited; however, these practices are not market manipulation. Trades that are too large for a customer also are prohibited because they are not suitable. (Page 82
A famous tennis player offers to record a testimonial for an investment adviser for use in a television commercial. Under the Uniform Securities Act, the investment adviser may do which of the following?
A. Use the testimonial as long as the athlete receives no compensation
B. Use the testimonial and pay the athlete
C. Use the testimonial with the state administrator's approval
D. The adviser may not use the testimonial under any circumstances.
D. Testimonials promoting investment adviser services are specifically prohibited under both state and federal law. (Page 86
An agent omits facts in which a prudent investor would be interested. Under the Uniform Securities Act, this action is fraudulent for
A. nonexempt. securities only
B. exempt securities only
C. both exempt and nonexempt securities
D. The act is not fraudulent if there was no
willful intent to omit the information.
C. The omission of a material fact in the sale, purchase or offer of a security is fraudulent. This applies whether the security is exempt or
nonexempt. (Page 79
According to the Uniform Securities Act, a person who sells securities in violation of state securities laws is civilly liable for which of the following?
I. Principal
II. Interest
III. Court costs
IV. Attorney's fees

A I, III and IV only
B. I and IV only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, III and IV
D. A person who sells the securities illegally is liable for the purchase price of the securities plus interest from the date of purchase, costs and reasonable attorney's fees. (Page 108)
Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following is (are) considered a broker dealer(s)?
I. Agent
II. Issuer
III. Corporation selling interests in an oil and gas limited partnership
IV. Credit union selling its own stock
A. I
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. III
D. A broker-dealer is defined as any person who invests for others or for his or her own account. A broker-dealer is not an issuer or an
agent. / (Page 18)
Under the Uniform Securities Act, no specific response is required from the state administrator before which of the following types of securities registrations become effective?
I. Coordination
II. Qualification
III. Filing
IV. Application

A I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, III and IV
B. Registration by filing and coordination do not require a response from the state administrator for effectiveness. Registration by qualification, however, becomes effective only at the order of the administrator. (Page 60)
According to the Uniform Securities Act, a person must register as a broker-dealer in a state under which of the following circumstances?
I. The person has no place of business in the state, but has directed offers to clients with more than 30 days' temporary residency.
II. The person has no place of business in the state and deals exclusively with broker-dealers in that state.
III. The person has no place of business in the state and effects transactions exclusively with issuers of securities in that state.
IV. The person has a place of business in the
state.
A I, II and IV only
B. I and IV only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, III and IV
B. The term broker-dealer does not include a person who has no place of business in the state and who (1) effects transactions exclusively through issuers, other broker-dealers or institutions or (2) directs an offer in the state to an existing customer who has more than 30 days' temporary residency within the state where the
offer is received. (Page 18)
An issuer pays its directors commissions to sell stock to employees. According to the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following describe the directors?
I. Agents of the issuer
II. Agents of a broker-dealer
III. Need not be licensed
IV. Must be licensed

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. IIand III
D. II and IV
B. Registration as an agent of the issuer is necessary because commissions are paid.
(Page 20)
According to the Uniform Securities Act, after an agent passes the Series 63 exam and an NASD/NYSE licensing exam, when can the agent begin to sell?
I. Immediately
II. When the agent is affiliated with a
broker-dealer
III. When the agent has been granted a registration from the state administrator
IV. When the agent gets permission from the principal in the office

A I
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV
C. Passing an NASD or NYSE licensing exam qualifies an individual to solicit securities sales on a federal level. The state administrator must grant registration and the individual must be associated with a broker-dealer before he or she may engage in securities transactions.
(Page 40)
If a person is exempt from state registration but is a federally registered investment adviser, what must he or she do to practice within a particular state?
I. Pay state filing fees
II. Pass an oral or a written examination
III. Give notice to the state
IV. Become licensed as a broker-dealer

A I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. II and IV
B. While exempt from state registration, federally registered investment advisers must give written notice and pay state filing fees to practice within a given state. (Page 46) [19077]
A customer living in one state receives a phone call from an agent in a different state. A transaction between the two occurs in yet another state. According to the Uniform Securities Act, the transaction falls under the jurisdiction of the administrator(s) of
A the state in which the customer lives
B. the state in which the agent's office is located
C. the state in which the transaction took place
D. all three states involved
D. The Uniform Securities Act gives each state administrator jurisdiction over offers to buy or sell when the offers originate in, are directed to or are accepted in the administrator's state.
(Page 106)
All of the following are exempt transactions EXCEPT
A manual exemptions
B. isolated nonissuer transactions
C. unsolicited nonissuer transactions
D. commercial paper
D. While all of the items listed are exempt, commercial paper is an exempt security, not an
exempt transaction. (Page 66
Under the USA, which of the following is an investment adviser?
A Broker-dealer that receives no compensation for investment recommendations
B. Individual who provides financial advice over the Internet, with no recommendations based on specific investment situations of individual clients
C. Investment adviser representative
D. Firm with no office in the state that provides specific investment advice to 10 noninstitutional clients within the state
D. A firm with no office in a state that provides specific investment advice is not an investment adviser if its clients are investment
companies or institutions or if business communications or advice is directed to no more than five noninstitutional clients within the state. A broker dealer need not register as an investment adviser unless it receives special compensation for providing investment advice. Individuals who publish general advice (no specific recommendations to individual clients) in hard copy or electronic form need not register as investment advisers. An investment adviser representative is specifically excluded from the definition of an investment adviser under the USA. (Think of the representative as an individual person representing an investment advisory firm; the investment adviser is the firm or service in the business of providing investment advice for a fee.) (Page 22)
As defined by the Uniform Securities Act, an example of an investment adviser is a
A lawyer
B. magazine publisher
C. person paid a fee for advising customers on securities
D. person paid a commission for advising customers on securities
C. An investment adviser is any person in the business of selling investment advice.
(Page 22
Investment advisers are prohibited from which of the following activities under the USA's antifraud provisions?
A Employing any device, scheme or artifice to defraud
B. Engaging in any fraudulent or deceitful practice in the normal course of business
C. Engaging in any practice that the administrator defines by rule as unethical
D. All of the above
D. The USA's antifraud provisions prohibit all of the activities listed. (Page 78
An agent solicits orders for a primary nonexempt security (underwriting) in his home state. Within days, he learns that the underwriting is not registered in that state. Relieved that no customer orders were placed, he ceases soliciting orders in this security. In this situation, the agent acted
A. lawfully because he ceased soliciting orders immediately upon learning that the security was not properly registered
B. lawfully because no customer orders were executed
C. unlawfully because he did not mark the orders "solicited"
D. unlawfully because soliciting orders in nonexempt, unregistered securities is prohibited
D. Soliciting orders in unregistered, nonexempt securities is unlawful, regardless of whether orders are placed. (Page 83)
In the locker room at the country club, an agent overhears that Technotalk, a publicly traded company, has just lost its biggest account to a competitor. After learning this, the agent discontinues selling Technotalk common stock. In this situation, the agent acted
A. lawfully because he did not profit from selling Technotalk common stock short in his own account
B. lawfully because he did not take advantage of material, nonpublic information
C. unlawfully because he failed to report nonpublic information to the SEC
D. unlawfully because he failed to inform his customers of the negative news immediately
B. Having material nonpublic information makes the sales representative an insider. An insider may not take advantage of or repeat (disseminate) nonpublic information.
(Page 80
A customer needs $10,000 to pay for a new house within the next year. His agent suggests that he invest in a stock that has been performing extremely well the past year. The agent assures the customer that he cannot go wrong because a new product line the issuer has introduced surely will continue to dominate the market. "You're sure to make money with this," the agent states. According to the USA, this is an
I. unethical business practice
II. example of guaranteeing a profit III. example of flamboyant language
IV. unsuitable investment
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. I and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
D. All of the choices are true.
(Page 82
After careful consideration, an agent recommends that a customer buy five different securities. The customer chooses to buy one of the five securities recommended, which is a stock in which the broker-dealer makes a market. The agent, in completing the trade, charges a markup that is larger than the normal markup for a stock transaction. Is this allowable under the USA?
I. No. The markup schedule is set and cannot be changed for an individual trade.
II. Markup schedules depend on the type of security, broker-dealer risk, services that the broker-dealer provides and effort in acquiring the security.
III. No. It is a prohibited practice to charge a higher than normal markup.
IV. Yes. However, proper disclosure is required.

A. I and III
B. II
C. II and IV
D. III
C. Higher than average markups or commissions are not prohibited if they are justifiable and disclosed. (Page 87
Mrs. Abbot, a customer, has a joint account with her sister. She enters a sell order in the account and instructs that the proceeds
check be made out to her. Your firm sends the check, but makes it payable to both Mrs. Abbot and her sister. This is an example of
A. not following instructions, a prohibited practice under the USA
B. an unfortunate error that can be reconciled with the broker-dealer through a process called reclamation
C. a normal joint account procedure
D. an unlawful practice because the trans action was unauthorized
C. In joint accounts, either party may act; however, by law, all checks must be made payable to all owners. The firm is following required procedure. (Page 87)
For which of the following is a Series 63 license required?
A. Broker-dealer
B. Agent representing a broker-dealer to the public
C. Agent at a broker-dealer who is a silent partner
D. Issuer
B. An agent who represents a broker dealer and effects transactions with the public must be registered at the state level. A Series 63 is a requirement of the state registration process.
(Page 36)
An administrator may suspend a sales agent's registration under the USA for all of the following reasons EXCEPT the agent is
A. enjoined by a court of law from engaging in the securities business
B. discovered to be unqualified based on training, knowledge or experience
C. accused of violations of the USA's anti fraud provisions
D. convicted of willful violations of the USA
C. An accusation is not grounds for suspension under the USA; however, convictions, court injunctions and lack of qualifications are.
(Page 102
Your friend Bill is a licensed life insurance agent whose client wants to purchase a variable annuity. You are a licensed securities and insurance agent. Bill wants you to sell the policy and split the commissions with him. Is this possible?
A. Splitting commissions is an allowable activity at all times.
B. Splitting commissions in variable annuities is allowable only if the agents involved are both licensed in life insurance and securities.
C. Splitting commissions is an unethical trade practice.
D. Splitting commissions is allowable if the securities rep receives at least 60 percent
of the commissions and the insurance agent receives no more than 40 percent
B. A person must be licensed in both insurance and securities to sell variable annuities as well as to split commissions. Commissions on securities transactions can be split only with registered agents. (Page 20
A customer wants to sell a security because she read a discouraging report about the issuer's future. The agent takes the order and, before placing the customer's order,
fills a sell order for himself. The agent can do this under which of the following circumstances?
A. As long as he placed the customer's order promptly
B. As long as he entered the order
promptly and no price disparity exists between the orders
C. Under no circumstances because this is a type of market manipulation called front-end advantage
D. Under no circumstances because this is an unethical practice and called front running
D. The agent first must place the customer order. The prohibited practice of front running occurs when an agent places his or her order or an order for the firm's account ahead of a customer
order. (Page 81
An agent sells her customer $10,000 worth of 30-year U.S. Treasury bonds. The agent tells the customer that this is the best investment for him due to the" absolute safety" of Treasury securities. In this situation, the agent acted
A. lawfully because Treasury securities carry no default risk
B. lawfully because Treasury securities are the safest among all debt instruments available domestically
C. unlawfully because allocating the customer's entire $10,000 into bonds ignores the customer's need for diversification
D. unlawfully because "absolute safety" implies that the customer will make money
D. Implying or stating to customers that they will profit from a security is prohibited. Although Treasury securities carry virtually no default risk, a customer faces significant interest rate risk, particularly in light of the bonds' 3D-year
maturities. (Page 82
You are a broker having lunch with your grandfather, who is head of Datawaq. He tells you that the government did not approve a large contract, which will hurt Datawaq's profits next year. According to the Uniform Securities Act, you should do which of the following?
A Tell your best customers to sell their holdings in the corporation
B. Inform your broker-dealer of this
promptly
C. Contact the SEC because you have inside information
D. Sell Datawaq short for your discretionary customer accounts
B. If you receive inside information, you should inform your supervisor immediately so that he or she may take the appropriate steps to avoid any transaction that may be construed to violate the Uniform Securities Act.
(Page 80
A financial contract can best be defined as which of the following?
A Purchase of a whole life insurance policy
B.. Purchase of exchange-listed stock shares
C. Negotiated transaction with lawful consideration
D. Signing of an investment adviser's agreement with an investment company
C. A financial contract is a binding agreement two parties enter into to meet the objectives of both. (Page 27
Under the Uniform Securities Act, a state administrator may appoint another officer to
A serve subpoenas
B. grant registration exemptions
C. issue cease and desist orders
D. set record keeping requirements
A. An official designated by the administrator may carry out the administrator's functions with regard to investigating violations of the USA. The other activities described are responsibilities the administrator may not delegate.
(Page 105
Which of the following is an example of a nonissuer transaction as defined by the Uniform Securities Act?
A Private placement
B. Secondary offering
C. Primary issue of a corporation
D. Preemptive offering
B. A nonissuer transaction is any transaction that does not benefit the issuer. Answers A, C and D would provide the issuer with capital and, therefore, a benefit. In a secondary offering, the seller, not the issuer, benefits. (Page 17)
Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following is(are) considered a sale(s)?
I. Gift of an assessable stock
II. Gift of an ordinary stock
Ill. Security given as a bonus for purchasing a bond
IV. Offer of securities
A. I
B. I and II
C. I and ill
D. II, III and IV
C. A sale is a contract or transaction for value. Because an assessable stock may have value, the gift is considered a sale. A warrant is both an offer and a sale. Gifts of stock are not sales, and choice IV is an offer, not a sale.
(Page 26)
As defined by the Uniform Securities Act, secondary trades also are known as
A private placements
B. issuer transactions
C. nonissuer transactions
D. exempt transactions
C. Secondary transactions do not benefit the issuer. Issuer transactions and private placements are primary offerings. (Page 17
Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following can be distributed if an issuing company has applied for registration by qualification, but the security has not yet been cleared for sale?
I. Tombstone advertising
II. Red herring
III. Application with down payment
IV. Registration statement

A. I
B. I, II and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV
B. Before clearance, a red herring may be distributed to estimate customer interest. Additionally, the registration statement may be distributed, although normally it is not. A tombstone advertisement also is allowed. (Page 59)
An agent tells a customer that one of the customer's stocks is worth $10 more per share than it really is. Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following statements is true?
A It is allowed if the agent explains that the difference is a service charge.
B. It is allowed if the customer makes a profit from the end result.
C. It is misrepresentation and a fraudulent act.
D. It is misrepresentation without written permission from the branch.
C. In this situation, aside from misrepresenting the stock's value, the agent committed a fraudulent act. The USA prohibits misrepresentation and fraudulent acts. (Page 82
Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following activities are market manipulations?
I. Disseminating false information
II. Giving market quotes that can be misinterpreted easily
III. Selling securities in large amounts to
help keep prices down
IV. Entering matched buy and sell orders to
attract attention to a security
A I and II only
B. I, III and IV only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, III and IV
D. Any action taken to influence the price of a security is considered market manipulation. Stating falsehoods, misrepresenting prices,
matching and placing orders to influence prices are all examples of manipulation.
(Page 81
As defined by the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following activities is an example of churning?
A Frequent purchases one day and sales of the same stock the next day to align with a customer's investment objectives
B. Bond swaps
C. Frequent purchases and sales of front-end load mutual fund shares in a single account
D. Day trading
C. Churning is defined as excessive activity in a customer's account for the sole purpose of generating commissions. As long as the customer sanctions the trading, churning does not occur. Because mutual funds carry front-end loads and are considered long-term investment vehicles, frequent trades constitute churning.
(Page 86)
A customer placed an order with an investment adviser to sell 100 shares of ALF so the customer would have cash for an urgent purchase the next day and instructed the adviser to limit any losses. The adviser did not have discretionary authority over the account. The adviser waited to sell the shares, hoping to get a better price for the customer. The price of the shares went down, so the adviser sold 50 ALF shares to limit the customer's losses. According to the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following statements is true?
A. This is a violation because the adviser acted without discretionary authority.
B. This is permissible because the adviser is obligated to get the best price for the customer.
C. This is a violation because the adviser must execute a sell transaction immediately after the order is placed.
D. This is permissible because the adviser may not guarantee a price to a customer.
A. An investment adviser may determine the price and timing of a transaction without discretionary authority. In this situation, the adviser acted without authority changing the amount of
the security sold. (Page 86
An investment adviser is a subsidiary of a broker-dealer. The adviser is the subject of a civil lawsuit alleging a fraudulent sale of securities to a customer. Under the Uniform Securities Act, the brokerage firm may be held jointly liable for the violation EXCEPT if the firm
A. received payment or another benefit from the transaction
B. has a record of similar violations
C. could not have reasonably known about the transaction
D. discussed the purchase with the
customer
C. In general, supervisors and employers may be held jointly liable for violations committed by any person under their direct or indirect control This includes a firm that is in a position to manage or influence a subsidiary firm's activities. The controlling firm may be released from liability if it establishes that it did not know of the violation and could not reasonably have known of it. (Page 108
A customer is retired, in a low tax bracket and living on a fixed income. An agent recommends and sells to the customer a portfolio of municipal bonds. Under the Uniform Securities Act, the administrator can do which of the following?
A. Force the agent to offer rescission
B. Revoke the agent's license for selling an unsuitable investment
C. Suspend the agent's license until the bonds mature
D. Take no action because the customer agreed to the purchase
B. The keys here are "low tax bracket" and "fixed income." A portfolio of municipal bonds is an unsuitable investment in this situation. The customer would be better off to buy bonds that pay higher rates of return. Because the agent failed to make a suitable recommendation, the administrator could revoke the agent's license.
(Page 102
An agent executes a trade in a customer's individual account for the customer. Three days later, when the security is trading three points higher, the customer's husband tells the agent to liquidate the account because his wife has lost her job. Under the Uniform Securities Act, the agent can do which of the following?
A. Write the customer a personal check for the original amount and keep the appreciation as a commission
B. Cancel the trade, but retain the
commission
C. Cancel the trade and return the
commission
D. Take no action
D. The only individual who can place an order in an individual account is the person who owns the account. The husband's order cannot be accepted. (Page 81
A millionaire wants to invest in an income portfolio. His agent, acting with discretionary power, invests the customer's money in a portfolio of stock stressing appreciation
and little, if any, income. Under the Uniform Securities Act, this activity is
A. ethical because the customer will make more money
B. illegal because the customer must make the investment decision
C. unsuitable
D. all of the above
C. This investment is unsuitable because the investor wants income only. (Page 85
Under the Uniform Securities Act, an agent may NOT make which of the following statements to a customer?
A. "This security is registered with the state."
B. "The administrator has cleared this security."
C. "The administrator has approved this security for sale."
D. "This security is exempt from
registration. "
C. The state administrator does not approve anything. The other statements are statements of fact and are permitted. (Page 80
An agent receives inside information concerning the possibility of an impending
merger. Under the Uniform Securities Act, the agent may divulge the information to
A. his best customers three days before a public announcement
B. anyone three days before a public announcement
C. the broker-dealer three days after public notice
D. anyone after public notice
D. After the information has become public, it is no longer considered inside information and may be disseminated. (Page 80
When a broker-dealer's registration under the Uniform Securities Act is revoked, which of the following occur(s)?
I. The registrations of that firm's agents are no longer in effect.
II. The registrations of that firm's agents remain in effect.

III. The agents' registrations are held in escrow until a hearing.
IV. The administrator chooses a local broker-dealer to oversee activities of the agents until the broker-dealer's registration is reinstated.
A. I
B. I and III
C. II
D. II and IV
A. An agent's license remains effective only as long as that agent is associated with a registered broker-dealer. (Page 36
Which of the following stocks qualifies for the blue chip exemption provided by the
Uniform Securities Act?
A. Stock of a corporation with $10 million in net worth
B. Stock of a corporation listed on the NYSE
C. Stock of a bank holding company
D. Stock of a municipal issuer
B. Companies with securities listed on a national exchange, such as the NYSE or AMEX, qualify for the blue chip exemption. Listed companies must provide periodic reports concerning their firms, and the reports must be available to
prospective investors. (Page 66
Under the Uniform Securities Act, a registered agent could sell securities during the underwriting period and before the effective date of registration in which of the fol-
lowing circumstances?
I. Never
II. With the use of a red herring
III. If the securities are not exempt
IV. Only if a bona fide registration statement has been filed properly with the state administrator and the SEC
A. I
B. II
C. II, III and IV
D. II and IV
A. During the cooling-off period, indications of interest may be solicited with the use of a red herring. No offers or sales can be made before the registration's effective date. (Page 70
If an agent receives a commission from both a broker-dealer and an issuer, under the Uniform Securities Act she is considered an
agent of

A. Me issuer
B. the broker-dealer
C. both the issuer and the broker-dealer
D. neither the issuer nor the broker-dealer
C. For securities purposes, it is necessary only that the individual represent the broker dealer or the issuer. Receiving a commission from the sale of securities from either the broker-dealer or the issuer satisfies the basic definition of an agent. (Page 20)
A president of a bank sells shares of the bank and receives a commission. Under the
Uniform Securities Act, he is

A. a broker-dealer for the bank
B. an agent of the issuer
C. an investment adviser
D. none of the above
D. Bank securities are exempt, and a person who transacts business only in exempt bank securities is exempt from agent registration under the
USA. (Page 20
Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following is(are) NOT considered a security(ies)?
I. Secondary sale of a bank mortgage as a pass-through certificate
II. Limited partnership unit in a cattle breeding program
III. Purchase of a condominium as a vacation home
IV. Franchise agreement that promises a profit

A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I and III
D. III
D. A vacation home is not a security; however, if the condominium was purchased to rent out, it may be a security. (Page 12
Which of the following transactions are exempt from the USA's filing and antifraud provisions?
A. Transactions in unregistered exempt securities
B. Nonissuer transactions in securities subject to Section 12 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 that have met all required reporting requirements for one year
C. Transactions between issuers and underwriters
D. None of the above
D. Although certain transactions are exempt from filing requirements under the USA, no securities transactions are exempt from its antifraud provisions. (Page 65
An investment adviser may NOT have custody of a customer's funds and securities under the Uniform Securities Act if
A. a rule bars such custody
B. the adviser fails to tell the customer that he has custody
C. the adviser is not a registered broker dealer
D. the customer has not received a wrap fee brochure
A. If a rule bars custody, under no circumstances may the adviser have custody of customer
funds or securities. (Page 87
According to the Uniform Securities Act, a person representing an issuer of which of the following securities must be registered as an agent?
I. Commercial paper
II. Municipal bonds
III. Securities of a U.S. bank
IV. Investment contracts issued in connection with an employee stock purchase, savings, pension, profit-sharing or similar benefit plan

A. I and II
B. I, III and IV
C. II and IV
D. None of the above
D. An individual is not considered an agent when representing the issuer in each of the cases cited. Note that for purposes of the exam and unless otherwise stated, all commercial paper is considered to mature in 270 days or less.
(Page 20)
An issuer compensates its officers and directors for selling newly issued shares of the company. To comply with the Uniform Securities Act, the officers and directors must be registered as agents of
A. the issuer
B. the broker-dealer
C. the broker-dealer and the issuer
D. neither the broker-dealer nor the issuer because the transactions are exempt
A. The definition of agent includes an individual representing an issuer in a transaction for the benefit of the issuer unless the individual does not receive compensation. (Page 20
A corporate issuer pays its directors commissions to sell stock to employees. Under the Uniform Securities Act, which of the following statements are true?
I. The directors are agents of the issuer.
II. The directors are agents of a broker dealer.
III. The directors need not be licensed.
IV. The directors must be licensed.

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV
B. Registration as an agent of an issuer is necessary because commissions are paid.
(Page 20
Advisers of private investment companies can be compensated by which of the following fee structures that typically may not be used to compensate other types of investment advisers?
A. Commission
B. Hourly rate
C. Performance fee
D. Percentage of profits
C. Advisers of private investment companies may be compensated based on a performance
fee. (Page 88)
According to the Uniform Securities Act, after an agent passes the Series 63 exam and a Series 6, 7 or 22 exam, when can he or she begin to sell?
I. Immediately
II. When the agent is affiliated with a broker-dealer
III. When the state administrator has granted the agent a registration
IV. When the agent gets permission from the principal in the office

A. I
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV
C. Passing the Series 6 (mutual funds and variable annuities), Series 7 (general securities) or Series 22 (direct participation programs) qualifies an individual to solicit securities sales on a federal
level. The state administrator must grant registration and the individual must be associated with a broker-dealer before he or she may engage in securities transactions. (Page 40)
Under the Uniform Securities Act, an employee of a licensed broker-dealer firm may sell exempt securities as an unregistered agent under which of the following circumstances?
A. When the securities are exempt
B. When the transactions are exempt
C. When the employee is paid no commissions or salary
D. Under no circumstances
D. It is unlawful for a person to transact business as a representative of a broker-dealer
unless that person is registered, even if the securities are exempt. (Page 40
Which of the following requirements are common to the registration of agents, state¬registered investment advisers and broker dealers under the Uniform Securities Act?
I. All must file, along with their applications, a consent to service of process.
II. The registration for all is two years in length.
III. All may be required to pass a written exam.
IV. All may be required to post a surety bond.
A. I and III only
B. I, III and IV only
C. II and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
B. Broker-dealers, agents and state-registered investment advisers must file consent to service of process forms with initial applications for registration. The consents to service give the administrator rights over the applicants. Each applicant may be required to pass an exam and post a surety bond. Federally registered investment advisers must give notice and pay filing fees in any state in which they conduct business.
(Page 47
Harry has been sales representative Sam's customer for nine years. While Harry is in Europe, two limit orders fill, resulting in a $750 margin call to Harry. Sam is unable to contact Harry. Because Sam believes Harry is a good credit risk, he deposits his personal check into Harry's account so the account is not sold out for failure to satisfy margin requirements. When Harry returns from Europe, he gratefully gives Sam a check for the $750. In this situation, the agent acted
A. lawfully because he served the customer's best interests
B. lawfully because the margin call was less than $1,000
C. unlawfully because the agent's funds never may be commingled with a client's
D. unlawfully because the agent was not operating under a trading authorization (power of attorney)
C. A sales representative depositing a personal check into a customer's account constitutes commingling, which is prohibited. This prohibition prevails regardless of whether the account is
discretionary. (Page 81
A registered broker-dealer gives investment advice as part of its business. One of its registered representatives gives investment advice outside the scope of his employment at the firm. Under SEC Release IA-I092, which of the following statements is (are) true?
I. The broker-dealer must register as an investment adviser.
II. The rep must register as an investment adviser.
III. The rep need not register as an investment adviser.
IV. The broker-dealer need not register as an investment adviser.

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. III
C. Broker-dealers and registered reps who give advice as part of their normal business need not register as investment advisers; however, if a registered rep provides investment advice outside his or her scope of employment at the broker¬dealer, the rep must be registered. Thus, both choices II and IV are true statements.
(Page 22
Although the broker-dealer with which he is registered is not aware of his actions, an agent has raised capital from his customers with which he and his brother-in-law will build a small shopping center. The customers who contributed the capital received certificates of ownership in the shopping center, as well as full disclosure of their risks and participation in income from renting mall space to retail businesses. In this situation, the agent acted
A. lawfully because he disclosed the risks of the transaction to the customers in writing
B. lawfully because interests in a shopping mall are not securities .
C. unlawfully because the agent gave his broker-dealer no opportunity to supervise his activities relative to its customers
D. unlawfully because the agent's brother in-law is not a registered agent (sales representative)
C. The agent acted unlawfully in effecting private securities transactions involving the broker-dealer's customers without proper supervision by the firm. Interests in a shopping center generally fall under the definition of a security.
(Page 81
The Uniform Securities Act prohibits all of the following practices EXCEPT
I. borrowing money from a customer
without the customer's written
permission
II. failing to determine adequately the suitability of an investment for a customer
III. offering rescission
IV. telling a customer that an investment's past history is not indicative of future results
A. I and II
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. III and IV
D. Offering rescission and explaining that performance is not guaranteed are permissible under the USA. (Page 109
Broker-dealers are exempt from state registration under which of the following circumstances?
A. The broker-dealer is federally registered.
B. The broker-dealer is also an investment adviser.
C. The broker-dealer's client has less than 30 days' temporary residency within the state.
D. The broker-dealer transacts business in exempt securities only.
C. A broker-dealer with no office in a state and clients with less than 30 days' temporary residency is exempt from state registration.
(Page 36)
A customer buys $20,000 worth of stock with a required 50 percent initial margin deposit of $10,000 in cash. When he places the order, the customer tells the agent he cannot risk more than $4,000 in the stock market. Following a highly unfavorable news release causing a significant price drop, regulators halt trading in the stock. When the stock is permitted to reopen, its price is half the client's purchase price, and the client receives a maintenance margin call for $3,000. The customer is outraged that he has an unrealized loss of $10,000 and must deposit $3,000 more to maintain the position. In this situation, the agent acted
A. lawfully because the customer agreed to the risk of margin trading when he signed the margin agreement
B. lawfully because the agent cannot control regulatory trading halts
C. unlawfully because the agent did not urge the customer to enter a stop loss order on the stock
D. unlawfully because the agent failed to warn the customer of the true risk of margin trading
D. The sales representative acted unlawfully by not fully informing the customer that trading on margin involves leverage that could lead to substantial loss. The agent failed to fully disclose the facts and circumstances of a securities
transaction. (Page 85
An agent has municipal bonds available at a favorable price for the next five minutes. A specific customer has told the agent that she would like to purchase municipal bonds for her individual trading account. These bonds appear perfectly suited to the customer's objectives, but the agent cannot get in contact with the customer. The agent should do which of the following?
A. Put bonds in the customer's account if her spouse approves the transaction
B. Place bonds in the customer's account, mark the order ticket "pending" and send a fax for the customer's signed acceptance of the transaction
C. Purchase bonds for the agent's own account for later resale to the customer
D. Take no action without the customer's authorization
D. It is prohibited to take action in a customer's account without that customer's direction unless the account has been approved for discretionary trading. (Page 82
An agent's customer says that ABC Corporation is "about to be bought out." The customer wishes to place an order to buy ABC common stock based on this unreleased information, which he claims he learned from "someone very high up in the company." In this situation, the agent should do which of the following?
A. Accept the customer's order and mark it " solicited"
B. Bring the information to the attention of the state securities administrator (commissioner)
C. Discuss the matter with other, more experienced agents of the firm who may be better able to evaluate the validity of the information
D. Bring the information to the attention of the firm's supervisory principal named in the supervisory procedures manual to handle such matters.
D. The customer seeks to place an order based on inside information or rumor. The agent should not accept the order before discussing it with his or her supervisor or principal. Under no circumstances should the agent repeat the information to fellow sales representatives. No rule requires that such information be reported to the state securities administrator (commissioner).
(Page 80)
Your customer called to check on her account value at 9:00 a.m. You were unavailable to talk to her at the time. It is now 2:00 p.m., and you are able to call her back. Between 9:00 a.m. and 2:00 p.m., her account value dropped from $11,500 to $10,000. Which of the following should you say to her?

A. "At the time that you called your
account had a value of $11,500."
B. ' Your account value cannot be determined until the market closes."
C. "Your account is valued at $10,000 at this time."
D. "Your account was down to $9,700 earlier today, but it is up to $10,000."
C. All other answers are clearly misrepresentations of account status. (Page 82) [
An agent's former college roommate urges him to invest in his toy company, which plans to launch a new line of baby dolls. Because the issuer has no intent to issue its securities to the general public, it does not register them. The agent and his spouse invest in the business. The agent does not recommend this transaction to any customers and does not discuss the transaction with his firm. In this situation, the agent acted
A lawfully because the agent entered into the transaction in a private and personal capacity
B. lawfully because the issuer had no intention of offering securities to the general public
C. unlawfully because the transaction involved unregistered, nonexempt securities
D. unlawfully because the agent did not receive permission from his broker dealer before entering the transaction
B. Here, the agent acted in a private capacity. Because he did not recommend the transaction to the broker-dealer's customers, he need not get its permission to enter into the transaction personally. (Page 81
An agent has more than 200 customers. After extensive research on initial public offerings issued by solar energy companies, she recommends that all of her customers purchase shares in Solargen, Inc. She discusses the risk of buying Solargen stock with each customer. In this situation, the agent acted
A lawfully because she presented the risk to her customers
B. lawfully because she performed due diligence analysis on the recommended company
C. unlawfully because the recommendation does not consider each customer's financial objectives
D. unlawfully because solar energy is an industry that depends significantly on local weather conditions
C. In recommending the same stock to 200 customers, the sales representative failed to consider each customer's investment objectives and financial abilities. The chance that an initial public offering is suitable for all 200 of the agent's customers is virtually impossible. (Page 85)
An agent showed the account statement of his best and wealthiest customer to a more experienced agent for advice on additional securities to recommend to the customer. Some of the securities discussed were nonexempt, unregistered, private placement securities. In this situation, the agent acted
A. lawfully because seeking advice from a more experienced agent is in the customer's best interests
B. lawfully because the customer's high net worth made it suitable to purchase additional securities
C. unlawfully because some of the securities considered were unregistered, non¬exempt private placements
D. unlawfully because the agent did not receive permission to reveal the client's personal financial information to the other agent
D. The agent acted unlawfully in revealing the client's personal or financial information to another agent without permission from the customer. (Page 87
An agent has been recommending that customers buy common stock in XYZ Company. On a visit to XYZ, he overhears that the firm has just lost its biggest account. Which of the following actions may the agent pursue after hearing this unreleased news?
I. The agent may discuss the situation with his supervisory principal.
II. The agent may continue to recommend the security to customers and prospects.
III. The agent should stop recommending the security to customers and prospects.
IV. The agent may sell the stock short in his brother's account.
A I
B. I and III
C. I, III, and IV
D. III
B. Whenever a sales representative has concerns about matters involving the broker dealer's customers, he or she should share the concerns with the agent's supervising principal. It is appropriate that the agent stop recommending XYZ stock to customers and prospects. He could not continue to do so without either omitting material information or repeating inside (unreleased) information. Furthermore, the agent should not 11'8e inside information in conjunction with a trade for a relative or another customer.
(Page 80
Under the USA, an administrator may do all of the following EXCEPT
A. issue a stop order to revoke a registration statement's effectiveness
B. issue a cease and desist order without a prior hearing
C. issue an injunction to force compliance with one of the administrator's rules
D. revoke a previously allowed exemption
C. Administrators cannot issue injunctions. They may, however, petition a court to issue injunctions against, or enjoin, certain activities.
(Page 104
Joe, an agent at a broker-dealer firm, is very excited about new earnings projections he
has received from TechEd. TechEd sells at a market value of $10 and has paid a $1 dividend this past year. Earnings projections for the next year amount to an increase of
30 percent. Joe calls his clients based on this news, soliciting purchases of TechEd stock. In his solicitations, Joe says that if his clients buy now at $10 per share they will realize a yield of 13 percent. Joe should
A. show his clients how he came to his calculations, sending to them his charts that have been approved by his principal
B. say nothing yet because this is inside information
C. practice due diligence and call TechEd to verify that these earnings predictions are still current
D. refrain from making any such statement because it is a misrepresentation
D. This is a clear case of misrepresenting dividends, and Joe must stop this activity immediately. (Page 82
Adell, a retiring social worker, has some money to invest. A registered rep suggests she look into investing in a private placement security that is raising money to build apartment buildings in Puerto Rico. According to the USA, which of the following statements are true?
I. Building projects are not appropriate for retirees, who typically need immediate income.
II. Private placements usually are not appropriate for retiring individuals because they are not liquid.
III. Because the rep has only offered, not sold, the product, no rule has been violated.
IV. If the customer lives in Puerto Rico, the proposed investment may be suitable because there may be a ready market.
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. II and IV
A. This type of investment normally is not suitable for a non accredited investor like Adell. More importantly, retiring individuals usually look for low-risk investments. Private placements
do not offer this safety. (Page 85
A customer buys 200 shares of a common stock at $30 per share. On a day when the stock's price is down $5, the customer calls her agent and inquires as to its current price. "It's around where we bought it," the agent says. In the next few weeks, the stock's price turns around, and the customer liquidates the shares at $35 per share, realizing a $5 profit per share, excluding commission. In this situation, the agent acted
A. lawfully because the agent prevented the customer from losing a profit opportunity
B. lawfully because the interim price fluctuation did not affect the customer's profit
C. unlawfully because agents must provide accurate quotes to customers at all times
D. unlawfully because the customer could discern easily that the price the agent quoted did not match readily available quotes in the financial media
C. Agents must provide customers with accurate market quotes at all times.
(Page 82
Jack Nelson was soliciting sales in XYZ stock six months ago when the market value was $16 per share. One of Jack's more aggressive clients, Frank, did not purchase the stock at the time. Since then, Jack has read that a class action lawsuit is pending against XYZ, and the market value has dropped to $5 per share. If Frank were to contact Jack now and ask to purchase, Jack should say or do which of the following in accordance with the USA?
A. Enter the order
B. Point out that the price has dropped and that Frank can purchase almost three times the number of shares he could
when Jack first contacted him
C. Point out that the lawsuit is pending
D. Refuse the order
C. Agents and broker-dealers must state all material information about a security.
(Page 87