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361 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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Data entered on the DD 214 will be obtained from what?
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SERVICE
HEALTH PAY OFFICIAL ORDERS |
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Dates will be entered on the DD 214 in what format?
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YYMMMDA 06JUN06
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The DD 214WS will be used in all cases to ensure what in the final preparation of the DD 214?
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ACCURACY, COMPLETENESS AND ECONOMY
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When information is not
applicable to the member enter what in the block? |
NONE OR NA
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Whenever there is unused space in a large block type what below the last typed line?
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DIAGONAL LINE OF X’s
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When more space is required to complete or clarify the information it will be on what?
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PLAIN BOND PAPER
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You can not make any entries on what part of the DD 214?
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BACK
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What should be used to prevent error from appearing on the DD 214?
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DD 214 WS
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Corrections or changes made in the shaded areas of the DD 214 will have what on all copies by who?
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INITIALED
AUTHORIZING OFFICIAL |
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How is the name typed on the DD 214?
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ALL CAPS BAGLEY, ARMIN JASON
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If a member uses an initial instead of a first or middle name indicate by enclosing the initial in what?
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QUOTATION MARKS,
BAGLEY, “A” “J” |
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After typing in a cross-reference and more space is required what should be entered?
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CONTINUED ON
CONTINUATION SHEET |
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When information is not available to complete a block on the DD 214 and the entry has been made “See Remarks” What should you enter in block 18?
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DD 215 WILL BE ISSUED
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When a discharge has been upgraded the DD 214 will be annotate on what copies in block 18?
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COPIES 2-8
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What part of the DD 214 will be given to the member on the date of separation?
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ORIGINAL
COPY #4 |
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A locally reproduced copy of copy number 3 will be placed in the members what?
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HEALTH TREATMENT RECORD
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For officers that are separating what happens to copy number 7 of the DD 214?
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DESTROYED
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Where is copy number 8 filed and for how long from date of separation?
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ISSUING COMMAND FOLDER
2 YEARS |
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A correction request must contain what information?
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FULL NAME, RANK/RATE, SSN
AND PERIODS OF SERVICE |
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A recommendation of “Must Promote” or “Early Promote” may not be assigned with any trait assessed as what?
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2.0
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A “Promotable or higher may not be assigned with any trait grade of what?
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1.0
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It is mandatory for regular reporting seniors to sign and forward all authorized what?
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CONCURRENT REPORTS
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No promotion recommendation higher than Promotable is allowed for what paygrade?
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01 & 02
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What reports are the foundation of the performance record?
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REGULAR REPORTS
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What reports provide a record of significant performance?
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CONCURRENT REPORTS
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What reports are optional and may only be submitted on the CO’s or OIC’s by operational commanders who are not their regular reporting seniors?
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Operational Commanders
Reports |
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What blocks of the Fitrep-Eval identify the report, and define the context in which it was received?
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ADMIN BLOCKS 1-19, 22-27,
44(FITREPS) AND 48(EVALS) |
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What mark can not be assigned on an eval when a recommendation for advancement has been given in a pervious report in the same paygrade?
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PROGRESSING
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The reporting senior must retain copies of Fitreps on all Officers and Chief Petty Officer for how long?
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AT LEAST 5YRS
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When are FITREPS due?
CAPT CDR LCDR LT LTJG ENS/E9 W3-W5 W2/E7-8 |
JUL FEB
APR MAY OCT MAR JAN SEPT |
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When are FITREPS due for LT's?
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JAN
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When are FITREPS due for LTJG's?
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FEB
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When are FITREPS due for
W3-5's? |
MAR
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When are FITREPS due for CDR's?
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APR
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When are FITREPS due for ENS's?
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MAY
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When are FITREPS due for CAPT's?
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JUL
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When are FITREPS due for W2/E7-8's?
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SEPT
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When are FITREPS due for LCDR's?
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OCT
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When are EVALS due for E6's?
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NOV
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When are EVALS due for E5's?
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MAR
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When are EVALS due for E4's?
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JUN
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When are EVALS due for E1-E3's?
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JUL
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An enlisted member who receives any 1.0 trait grade loses eligibility for what?
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GOOD CONDUCT MEDAL
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Block 47 of a FITREP is used for what purpose?
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Concurrent Reports Only
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A formal occasion might include what?
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OFFICIAL CEREMONIES, RECEPTIONS, LUNCHEONS AND
DINNERS |
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When inviting a senior official how would you type it?
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POSITION, TITLE & SPOUSE NAME
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The appropriate attire should always be clearly specified where on an invitation?
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BOTTOM RIGHT
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What is never reflected on invitations extended by or to husband and wife?
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COPRS, SERVICE DESIGNATION AND RETIRED STATUS
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What former should be used on invitation to Ambassadors and others of comparable rank?
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HONOR OF THE COMPANY
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It is most appropriate for all invitations to be written in what?
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LONGHAND BLACK INK
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When addressing envelopes how is the rank showed?
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LIEUTENANT COMMANDER
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When mailing a formal invitation what time frame should you do this in?
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3 TO 4 WKS PRIOR
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These are the most formal and expensive invitations they usually bear the crest of the host or hostess?
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FULLY ENGRAVED INVITATIONS
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When replying to an invitation what invites should you only take 24 hours in doing so?
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BRUNCES, LUNCHEONS DINNER
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When does formal dinners generally commence at?
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8 or 8:30pm
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At an official dinner given by a British Official for a high-ranking U.S. Officer if present the orchestra plays what?
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THE STAR SPANGLED BANNER
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What form of wording is used for a formal invitation?
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THIRD PERSON
PRESENT TENSE |
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What should be included in a formal invitation when the function will be held aboard ship?
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BOAT SCHEDULES AND DEPARTING DOCKS
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What type of formal invitation does not require a reply?
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CHURCH WEDDINGS
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What is always repeated when accepting an invitation?
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DATE, TIME AND PLACE
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What is not repeated when expressing regret in a reply?
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TIME
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What are the three major elements of the PFM program?
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FINANCIALEDUCATIONTRAINING, FINANCIALINFORMATIONREFERRAL FINANCIAL COUNSELING
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Four
Friends Fighting |
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At the local command level, the three elements of the
PFM program are under the control of a trained what? |
COMMAND FINANCIAL SPECIALIST
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Who provides support to all elements of the PFM program by conducting CFS training, and providing qualified Financial Educators (FEs) to function in all other areas of the PFM program?
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FLEET AND FAMILY SUPPORT CENTER
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Financial education is a continuum starting where?
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RECRUIT TRAINING.
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Chicago
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Providing current financial information and appropriate referral resources to military personnel is an integral part of what?
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PFM PROGRAM
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The CFS shall function as the command’s principal advisor on policies and matters related to PFM. The minimum paygrade for enlisted and officers is what?
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E6 FOR ENLISTED
W2/01 FOR OFFICERS. |
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E4 and below members will be approved for overseas orders if their Debt to Income Ratio does not exceed what?
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30 PERCENT
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E5, W2, and O1 members will be approved for overseas orders if what?
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No Letter of Indebtedness
Outstanding Returned Checks |
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Navy personnel who satisfactorily complete treatment at any treatment facility other than Navy should have what submit on them?
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OPNAV 5350/7
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Any enlisted person determined to be alcohol dependent with 180 days of entry on active duty may be processed for
administrative separation if the evidence shows that the member concealed a disqualifying per-service alcohol incident history as a what? |
DEFECTIVE AND FRAUDULENT ENLISTMENT
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Each command shall submit to the NAVDRUGLABs samples from 10 to 20 percent of its assigned personnel when?
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MONTHLY
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Except for unit sweeps, Echelon THREES prior approval is required for submissions in excess of what assigned personnel in any given month?
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40 PERCENT
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. What is a basic alcohol awareness training for use at Navy commands and target junior enlisted E1-E4 and junior officer 01-03?
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ALCOHOL-AWARE PROGRAM
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What program is a 24-hour prevention education and health promotions course that targets the 18-25 year age group?
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PREVENT 2000
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All Navy members in the PREVENT 2000 target age group should attend PREVENT 2000 or complete “Skills for Life” within what time frame?
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4YRS
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Proper social interaction among officer and enlisted members has always been encouraged as it enhances unit morale and what?
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ESPRIT DE CORPS
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Unduly familiar personal relationship between officers and enlisted member have traditionally been contrary to naval custom because they do what?
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UNDERMINE THE RESPECT FOR AUTHORITY
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This is traditionally used to identify personal relationships that contravene the customary bounds of acceptable senior-subordinate relationships?
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FRATERNIZATION
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Compatible with sea/shore rotation policy and the needs of the service, service members married to each other will not be assigned in what?
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CHAIN OF COMMAND
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The responsibility for preventing inappropriate relationships must rest primarily on whom?
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THE SENIOR
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Each command handling classified information will establish and maintain an active what to instruct all personnel, regardless of their position, rank or grade in security policies and procedures?
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SECURITY EDUCATION PROGRAM
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Refresher briefings for personnel who have access to classified information should be done when?
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ANNUALLY
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Counterintelligence briefings for personnel who have access to information classified Secret or above should be done how often?
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ONCE EVERY 2YRS
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Ultimately responsible for procedural violations or for compromises which result from improperly trained personnel is whom?
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SUPERVISORS
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Briefings not required as a matter of routine, but which may be governed by circumstances or other program requirements are considered to be what?
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SPECIAL BRIEFINGS
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Individuals must read and execute what at the time of debriefing, unless the debriefing is done simply because the individual is transferring from one command to another and will continue to require access to classified information?
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Security Termination Statement
OPNAV 5511/14 |
JasonJasonEbonyEbony/14
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Where is the Security Termination Statement placed for retention?
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PERSONAL SERVICE RECORD
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When the Security Termination Statement is executed at the conclusion of a Limited Access Authorization, the original will be retained where and for how long?
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Command Files
2yrs |
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What Navy correspondence course is available through the command education service officer on security?
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DON Intro to Personnel
Security Program |
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What is a retirement savings and investment plan for Federal employees?
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THE THRIFT SAVINGS PLAN
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TSP regulations are published where?
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TITLE 5
CODE OF FEDERAL REGULATIONS PARTS 1600–1690 |
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In the civilian component of the TSP, employees can contribute to the TSP if they are covered by what?
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FEDERAL EMPLOYEES RETIREMENT SYSTEM
CIVIL SERVICE RETIREMENT SYSTEM |
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Who administers the TSP?
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FEDERAL RETIREMENT THRIF INVESTMENT BOARD
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Fam
Run The Block |
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Who is responsible for determining your retirement coverage and reporting to the record keeper the dollar amount of contributions to your account each pay period?
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YOUR AGENCY
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Who processes contribution allocations, interfund transfers, loans, withdrawals and transfers of funds into the TSP from other plans, as well as participants' designations of beneficiaries?
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TSP SERVICE OFFICE
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Who is your primary contact after you separate from Federal service?
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TSP SERVICE OFFICE
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Participating in the TSP does not affect the amount of your what?
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SOCIAL SECURITY BENEFIT
FERS BASIC ANNUITY |
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Unless convened by the President or the
Secretary concerned, neither the convening authority nor any member of the convening authority’s staff may prepare or review any report concerning the effectiveness, fitness, or efficiency of the military judge detailed to a what |
GENERAL COURT-MARTIAL
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Convening authorities shall at all times communicate
directly with whom? In matters relating to the what? |
STAFF JUDGE ADVOCATES
ADMIN OF MILITARY JUSTICE |
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What is the power to hear a case and to render a legally competent decision?
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JURISDICTION
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Article 77
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Principals
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Article 78
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Accessory after the fact
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AF
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Article 79
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Conviction of lesser included offenses
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Article 80
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Attempts
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Article 81
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Conspiracy
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Article 82
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Solicitation
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Article 83
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Fraudulent enlistment, appointment, or separation
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Article 84
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Effecting unlawful enlistment, appointment, or separation
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Article 85
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Desertion
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Article 86
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Absence without leave
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Article 87
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Missing movement
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Article 88
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Contempt toward officials
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Want Listen
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Article 89
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Disrespect toward a superior commissioned officer
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Article 90
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Assaulting or willfully disobeying superior commissioned officer
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Article 91
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Insubordinate conduct
warrant officer noncommissioned officer petty officer |
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Article 92
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Failure to obey order or regulation
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Forget That!!!
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Article 93
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Cruelty and maltreatment
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Article 94
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Mutiny and sedition
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Article 95
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Resistance
Flight Escape Breach of Arrest |
Run
For Everything Bad |
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Article 96
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Releasing prisoner without proper authority
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Set Free
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Article 97
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Unlawful detention
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Article 98
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Noncompliance with procedural rules
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Article 99
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Misbehavior before the enemy
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Article 100
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Subordinate compelling surrender
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Article 101
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Improper use of countersign
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Article 102
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Forcing a safeguard
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Article 103
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Captured or abandoned property
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Article 104
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Aiding the enemy
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Article 105
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—Misconduct as a prisoner
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Article 106
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—Spies
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Article 106a
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—Espionage
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Article 107
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—False official statements
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Article 108
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—Military property of the United States—sale, loss, damage, destruction, or wrongful disposition
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Article 109
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—Property other than military property of the United States—waste,
spoilage, or destruction |
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Article 110
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—Improper hazarding of vessel
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Article 111
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–Drunken or reckless operation of vehicle, aircraft, or vessel
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Article 112
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—Drunk on duty
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Article 112a
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—Wrongful use, possession, etc., of controlled substances
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Article 113
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—Misbehavior of sentinel or lookout
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Article 114
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—Dueling . .
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Article 115
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—Malingering
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Article 116
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—Riot or breach of peace
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Article 117
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—Provoking speeches or gestures
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Article 118
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—Murder
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Article 119
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—Manslaughter
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Article 120—
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Rape and carnal knowledge
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Article 121
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—Larceny and wrongful appropriation
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Article 122
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—Robbery
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Article 123
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Forgery
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Article 123a
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—Making, drawing, or uttering check, draft, or order without
sufficient funds |
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Article 124
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—Maiming
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Article 125
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—Sodomy
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Article 126
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—Arson
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Article 127—
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Extortion
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Article 128
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—Assault
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Article 129
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—Burglary
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Article 130
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—Housebreaking
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Article 131
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—Perjury
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Article 132
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—Frauds against the United States
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Article 133
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—Conduct unbecoming an officer and gentleman
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Article 134—
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General article
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What is the restraint of a person by an order, not imposed as a punishment for an offense, directing him to remain within certain specified limits?
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Arrest
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What is the physical restraint of a person?
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Confinement
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Every commander of a guard or MA to whose charge a prisoner is committed shall, within 24 hrs after that commitment or as soon as he is relieved from guard, report what to the CO?
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the name of the prisoner, the offense charged
who ordered or authorized commitment. |
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A general courts-martial, consists of what?
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Military Judge
Not Less than 5 members |
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A special courts-martial, consists of what?
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Military Judge not less than 3 members
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A summary courts-martial, consists of what?
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One Commissioned Officer
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Summary Courts-Martial have jurisdiction to try any
persons for any noncapital offense except for whom? |
Cadets
Officers Midshipmen Aviation cadets |
C
0 M A |
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Administrative
corrective measures to further the efficiency of commands or units generally fall into what three areas? |
extra military instruction, administrative withholding of privileges,
nonpunitive censure. |
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What is a bona fide training technique used for improving the efficiency of an
individual within a command or unit through the correction of some deficiency in that individual's performance of duty? |
EMI
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Final authority to withhold a privilege, however temporary, must ultimately rest with what?
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Level of authority empowered to grant that privilege.
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A nonpunitive letter is not considered punishment;
rather, the letter is issued to remedy a noted deficiency in what? |
conduct or
performance of duty. |
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What generally falls into
extra military instruction, administrative withholding of privileges, and nonpunitive censure? |
Administrative Corrective Measures
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What is defined as instruction in a phase of military duty in which an individual is deficient, and is intended for and directed towards the correction of that deficiency?
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Extra military instruction (EMI)
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The commanding officer or officer in charge has the authority to assign EMI to be performed when?
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After normal working hours is vested in the
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It is illegal for any officer or
noncommissioned/petty officer to deny to any subordinate normal liberty, or privileges incident thereto, as punishment for any offense except describe in what UCMJ article? |
15
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Members assigned to or attached to commands or units for the purpose of performing temporary duty (TDY) are subject to the nonjudicial punishment authority of what?
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Commanders of both the parent and TDY commands.
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A person in the Navy or
Marine Corps who is attached to or embarked in a vessel does not have the right to demand what in lieu of of nonjudicial punishment? |
Trial by courtmartial
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Restriction, with or without suspension from duty, imposed upon commissioned and warrant officers, when imposed by a commanding officer below the grade of major or lieutenant
commander may not exceed what? |
15 consecutive days
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Normally the immediate commanding officer of the accused will designate the amount and character of what?
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Extra duties
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If forfeiture of pay and reduction in grade is
suspended, and the suspension is later vacated, these punishments take effect for all purposes when? |
Date suspension is vacated.
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A punitive letter is issued as nonjudicial punishment or as the result of a sentence
from what? |
Court-Martial.
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What is a statement of adverse opinion or criticism of an individual's conduct or
performance of duty expressed by a superior in the member's chain of command? |
Censure
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In what time frame should an appeal of nonjudicial punishment shall be
submitted? |
5 working days,
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Those officers who are
empowered to convene general and special courtsmartial may convene what? |
summary courts-martial
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A summary courtmartial
convening authority is authorized to direct a pretrial investigation under what UCMJ article? |
32
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What serves as an analytical tool to determine whether additional investigation is warranted and, if so, how it is to be conducted?
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preliminary inquiry
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What provides an excellent
opportunity to expedite workflow processes and reduce storage space, mailing costs, and collection time? |
Storing Electroncially
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Information collections must only collect information that is what?
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When it is needed
Actually needed Most efficient format |
W
A M |
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What manual establishes policies and assigns responsibilities
for the management and control of DON forms and information requirements (reports)? |
SECNAVINST 5210.16
DON REPORTS MANAGEMENT PROGRAMS |
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What is the precedence that should be followed when forms are required?
|
GSA Standard or Optional
DD Existing DON forms. |
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When a form is required and a new one has to be made who has to assign a form number and approve this?
|
Service Forms Manager
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Information requirements shall not be initially
authorized no longer than what from the date of the implementing document? |
Three years
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When a junior walks, rides or sits with a senior, the junior takes position on what side?
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Left
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When serving with the Armed Forces and group also rate a salute?
|
Public Health Services
National Oceanic Atmospheric Admin Officers |
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When should you execute the first position of the hand salute?
|
Six Paces
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To open ranks on the command March how many paces do each rank take?
|
First - Two
Second - One Third - None |
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Within ranks, the space between the chest of one person and the back of the person ahead is how many?
|
40 inches
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When do Navy personnel normally wear full dress uniforms?
|
Change of Command
Visist w Honors Foreign men of war Official Dignitaries |
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If a junior officer is walking with a Senior Officer and a salute is warranted who salutes first?
|
Senior
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At noon on what day does all saluting ships and all naval stations having a saluting battery fire a 21 minute-guns?
|
Memorial Day
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|
On what days does ship render a 21 gun salute?
|
President's Day
Independence Day |
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|
In what precendence do Navy personnel wear awards?
|
Military Decorations
Unit Awards Nonmilitary Dec Foreign Dec |
M
U N F |
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|
Navy personnel wear a gold star instead of a second or subsequent award of a military decoration except for what medal?
|
Air Medal
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What individuals awards for act of service involving direct participation in combat operations may be authorized to wear a bronze letter V?
|
Legion of Merit
Bronze Star Medal Joint Service Com NAM & COM |
L
B J N |
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|
What Medal/Ribbon has the highest order of percedence of campaign & service awards?
|
Good Conduct Medal
|
|
|
|
What Unites States decorations may the Navy legally award to foreign personnel?
|
Navy Cross, Bronze Star, Air Medal, NCM Distinguished Service, Silver Star Legion Merit, Flying Cross
|
|
|
|
What nonmilitary decorations may be earned by Navy members?
|
Persidential Medal Freedom
Nation Security Medal |
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|
What awards do not have medals and medal pendants authorized?
|
Unit Awards
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|
Who designates the representative to receive a posthumous award?
|
President
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|
What US decorations may not be awarded to personnel of foreign nations?
|
Medal of Honor
MSM NAM Purple Heart Combat Ribbon |
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|
CO's are not authorized to CAP non-designated strikers in ratings requiring what?
|
Special Selection
"A" School Required |
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In no case may the total what exceed the Maximum authorized quotas?
|
Annual CAP Advancement
|
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Conduct a periodic review of directives with empphasis on what?
|
Cancellation Consolidation
Compliance w Standard Procedures |
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|
Formal written guidance that informs and instructs DON personnel in the communications of policy and procedures in their duties?
|
Directives
|
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|
What are the exceptions for issuing by directives?
|
Navy Regs
Top Secret Documents Register PUBS |
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|
When information must be transmitted before a regular change or revision to the basic document can be published what should be issued?
|
Notice
|
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|
|
How long should a Notice be issue for?
|
6 months or less
|
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|
To cancel a single directive, usually because it is superseded by a revision should be done how?
|
Cancellation Paragraph
|
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|
When cancelling serveral directives issue a consolidate list of the canceled directives in what?
|
One Notice
|
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|
The consolidated Notice should included what information?
|
Subject
Form # Directive # Date issue Orig Code Date Canceled - Reason Canceled |
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|
This form is useed as a record-keeping tool to track actions taken on directives?
|
OPNAV 5215/8
|
|
|
|
File instructions together regardless of issuing authority according to what?
|
SSIC #
Consecutive # Issuing Authority |
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|
This a directive that has a one time or brief nature and has a self-cancelling provision?
|
Notice
|
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|
Notices may not be in effective for how long?
|
More than 1yr
|
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|
When a sponsor can not determine the exact date on which requried action will be completed what should be added?
|
Contingency Cancellation Paragraph
|
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|
|
Where is the cancellation paragraph added in a notice?
|
Last Paragraph of Notice
|
|
|
|
This paragraph states the action or events that must occur prior to canceling a notice?
|
Contingency Cancellation Paragraph
|
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|
The day of cancellation is always the what
|
Last Day of month
|
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|
If the Notice cancels another directive what part of the notice is the cancellation paraghraph?
|
Second Para
|
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|
If the sole purpose of a notice is to cancel another directive where can the cancellation statement be contained?
|
Purpose Para
|
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|
This is the last para of a notice when the cancellation is for record purposes and contains the cancellation contingency?
|
Cancellation Contingency Para
|
|
|
|
When an instruction is reiussed as a revision the numbering of change transmittals does what?
|
Begins w 1
|
|
|
|
The proper format when writing a change transmittal?
|
SECNAVINST 5215.1D CH-1
|
|
|
|
Change transmittal for a Notice
|
CNINOTE 5215 OF 6 JUN 06 CHANGE TRANSMITTAL 2
|
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|
|
CH-1 OF 6 JUNE 2005 is the correct format for what?
|
Changed First Page
|
|
|
|
The body of directives are numbered in what format?
|
Arabic
|
|
|
|
Where is the classification marks in a directive?
|
Subj in (S)
|
|
|
|
This is the first para of a directive?
|
Purpose
|
|
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|
If the notice is canceled on a
given date, with no contingency, the cancellation date is shown how? |
Canc: Jun 02
|
|
|
|
What represents the machinery by which an organization plans and accomplishes its assigned responsibilities?
|
Elements of Adminstration
|
|
|
|
Administration is comprised of what fundamental elements?
|
Organization
Command and control Communications |
|
|
|
What should be delegated to
the lowest level of competence commensurate with the subordinate's assigning responsibility and capabilities? |
Delegating Authority
|
|
|
|
Terrorist ____ vary in sophistication according to the level of training the individual or group has received
|
tactics
|
|
|
|
Under Terrorist Force Protection Conditions, please name the Force Protection condition- Declared when a general threat of possible terrorist activity is directed toward installation, vessels or personnel, the nature of which are unpredictable and where circumstances do not justify full implementation of FP condition BRAVO
|
ALPHA
|
|
|
|
Under terrorist attack methodology- (please enter what phase is discussed in the statement) Once a terrorist or terrorist group decides to conduct an attack they begin the process of target selection.
|
Target Operations
Phase One- Target Operations |
|
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|
Under Terrorist Levels (Please name the 4 DOD threat levels)- Terrorist groups are present but there is no indication of anti-U.S. activty. The operating environment favors the host nation
|
Moderate
|
|
|
|
Under Terrorist Levels (Please name the 4 DOD threat levels)- No terrorist group is detected or the group activity is nonthreatening
|
Low
|
|
|
|
This type of terrorist activity involves a building or object that has value in the eyes of the audience.
• [A] hostage taking • [B] seizure • [C] raids • [D] kidnapping |
seizure
|
|
|
|
A ___ group's selection of targets and tactics is often a function of the group's affiliation, level of training, organization, sophistication and opportunity
|
terrorists
|
|
|
|
A critical factor in understanding terrorism is the ______ impact of the terrorist act on an audience other than the victim
|
emotional
|
|
|
|
This type of terrorist activity is sometimes employed as a means of escape, is normally carried out to produce a spectacular hostage situation.
|
hijacking
|
|
|
|
This type of activities on facilities are usually undertaken for one of three purposes: to gain access to radion or television broadcast capabilities in order to make a statementl; to demonstrate the government's inability to secure critical facilities or national symbols; or to acquire resources.
|
Raids
• Attacks |
|
|
|
Under Terrorist Levels (Please name the 4 DOD threat levels)-An anti-U.S. terrorist group is operationally active and uses large casualty producing attacks as their preferred method of operation. There is substantial DOD presence and the operation environment favors the terrorist.
|
High
|
|
|
|
"This" is the crime of maliciously setting fire to a building or the property of another person.
[A] Bombing • [B] Arson • [C] raids • [D] weapons of mass destruction |
Arson
|
|
|
|
Under Terrorist Force Protection Conditions, please name the Force Protection condition- Declared when a terroist attack has occured in the immediate area or intelligence indicates a terrorist action against a specific location or person is likely. Declared only as a localized warning
|
DELTA
|
|
|
|
Under terrorist attack methodology- (please enter what phase is discussed in the statement)- Based on the phase two surveillance, the terrorist selects a target, or set of target
|
Phase Three- Target Selection
|
|
|
|
In "type" of warfare, actions are taken to achieve information superiority by affecting adversary information, information-based processes, information systems and computer based networks while leveraging and defending one's own information, information systems and computer based networks
|
Information Warfare
|
|
|
|
Under Terrorist Levels (Please name the DOD threat level assement methodology)- Recently demonstrated anti-US activity or stated or assessed intent to conduct such activity.
|
Activity
|
|
|
|
Under terrorist attack methodology- (please enter what phase is discussed in the statement)- Detailed and often long term, surveillance is then conducted against the chosen potential target(s)
|
Phase Four- Detailed Surveillance
|
|
|
|
This terrorist activity is usually a covert seizure of one or more specific persons in order to exact specific demands
• [A] Hostage • [B] Hijacking • [C] skyjacking • [D] kidnapping |
kidnapping
|
|
|
|
Terrorist threat levels do not address when a ____ attack will occur and do not specify a Force Protection condition status.
|
terrorist
|
|
|
|
This type of terrorist activity is an overt seizure of one or more indivduals with the intent of gaining publicity or other concessions in return for release of the hostages.
• [B] Hijacking • [C] Skyjacking • [D] Seizure |
Hostage
|
|
|
|
Under terrorist attack methodology- (please enter what phase is discussed in the statement)- The attack plan will be developed, the attack team assembled and trained and logistics preparation made
|
Phase five - Training and Preparation
|
|
|
|
Under Terrorist Force Protection Conditions, please name the Force Protection condition- Applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activy exists but warrants only a routine secuirity posture.
|
NORMAL
|
|
|
|
DEFFINITION OF ____: A term generally applied to the killing of promiment persons and symbolic enemies as well as traitors who defect from the group.
|
Assassination
|
|
|
|
Under Terrorist Levels (Please name the DOD threat level assement methodology)- The circumstances of a the country under consideration
|
Operating environment
|
|
|
|
What are the intelligence's system for articulating and categorzing the terrorist threat worldwide?
|
threat levels
|
|
|
|
Under terrorist attack methodology- (please enter what phase is discussed in the statement)- One phase five is accomplished the terrorists wait for the right set of circumstances to make their attack
|
Phase Six - The Attack
|
|
|
|
Under Terrorist Force Protection Conditions, please name the Force Protection condition- Declared when a increaed threat and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists
|
BRAVO
|
|
|
|
have accounted for over one half or all recorded international terrorist attacks since 1938.
|
Bombing
|
|
|
|
Terrorists _____ may include attracting publicity for a group's cause, demonstrating the group's power or the existing government's lack of power, extracting revenge or causing government overreaction.
|
objectives
|
|
|
|
Under Terrorist Levels (Please name the 4 DOD threat levels)- An anti-U.S. terrorist group is operationally active and attacks personnel as their preferred method of operation, or a group uses large casualty producing attacks as their preferred method and limited operational activity. The operating environment is neutral
|
Significant
|
|
|
|
Under Terrorist Levels (Please name the DOD threat level assement methodology)- Actions indicative of preparations for specific terrorist operations
|
Intentions
|
|
|
|
Under terrorist attack methodology- (please enter what phase is discussed in the statement) During this phase each of the potential targets will receive some degree of light surveillance to determine its acceptability for further consideration.
|
Phase Two- Selection Surveillance
|
|
|
|
Under Terrorist Force Protection Conditions, please name the Force Protection condition- Declared when an incident occurs or intelligence is recieved indicating that some form of terrorist action against installations, vessels or personnnel is imminent.
|
CHARLIE
|
|
|
|
This terrorist activity is the destruction of property or obstruction of normal operations or treacherous action to defeat or hinder a cause or endeavor.
• [A] Seizure • [B] Bombing • [C] Sabotage • [D] Information warfare |
Sabotage
|
|
|
|
Under Terrorist Levels (Please name the DOD threat level assement methodology)- The acquired, assessed or demonstrated level of capability to conduct terrorist attacks
|
Operational capability
|
|
|
|
What 3 areas should you
look for when assess your workers performance? 1. attitude, knowledge, work habits 2. popularity, work habit, attitude 3. rank, knowledge, attitude 4. knowledge, rank, appearance |
attitude
knowledge work habits |
|
|
|
What is used to maintain
an inventory of people available on a command? 1. muster sheet 2. PRD 3. EDVR 4. CO call EDVR |
EDVR
|
|
|
|
What does EDVR stand for?
1. enlisted developement verification report 2. equal division variations report 3. even division verification report 4. enlisted distribution verifcation report |
4. Enlisted distribution
verification report |
|
|
|
What provides a chronological
record of significant miscellaneous entries not provided on other pages of service record? 1. pg 1 2. pg 2 3. pg 13 4. all info on the right side of a service record |
3. page 13
|
|
|
|
You can recommend
subordinates with how many different types of recognition? 1. 1 2. 3 3. 5 4. no limit |
3.5
|
|
|
|
Authority falls under what
2 categories? 1. admin and discipline 2. chiefs and petty officers s 3. general and organizational 4. officers and chiefs |
3. general
organizational |
|
|
|
What are the 2 types of naval messages?
1. general and routine 2. naval and routine correspondence 3. flash and immediate 4 all of the above |
2. naval message
routine naval correspondence |
|
|
|
All message directives are automatically canceled after how many days?
1. 30 2. 60 3. 90 4. never |
3. 90 days
|
|
|
|
Who ensures that commands do not wait for discriminatory
incidents to occur? 1. police 2. maa 3. cmeo 4. dept heads |
CMEO
|
|
|
|
What does CMEO stand for?
1. command material equal oppurtunity 2. command managed equal oppurtunity 3. command management equal oppurtunity 4. common managed equal oppurtunity |
2. Command Managed Equal Oppurtunity
|
|
|
|
Equal opportunity can be
observed from what 2 perspectives? 1. mines and yours 2. personnel and administration 3. chain of command and maa 4. co and xo |
2. Personnel and
Administration |
|
|
|
Command personnel make up what 2 teams that evaluate
and assess its equal opportunity status? 1. blue and gold 2. port and stbd 3. cat and ctt 4. red and blue |
. CAT (command assessment)
2. CTT (command training) |
|
|
|
Which team performs NR&R
workshop? 1. cat 2. ctt 3. both 4. blue |
2. CTT
|
|
|
|
What are the 3 methods to
enforce equal oppurtunity? 1.warning ,njp, discharge from the military 2. emi, extra duty, warning 3. nothing is done 4. both 1 and 2 |
1. Warning (counseling)
NJP Discharge from the Navy |
|
|
|
Article 15 requires the appeal to be mad within
how many days? 1. 3 2. 5 3. 7 4 10 |
5 days
|
|
|
|
Recruits are tested within how many hours of arrival
at basic training? 1. 12 2. 24 3. 36 4. 48 |
48 hrs
|
|
|
|
What percent is legally presumed sober and in condition to drive a motor vehicle?
1. 0.05 2. 0.06 3. 0.05 4. 0.07 |
0.05
|
|
|
|
What is Level 1?
1. caac 2. Local command program 3. rehab center 4. warning |
Local command program
|
|
|
|
What is level 2?
1. caac 2. Local command program 3. rehab center 4. warning 1. |
CAAC (counseling and assistance center)
|
|
|
|
What is level 3?
1. caac 2. Local command program 3. rehab center 4. warning |
3. Residential rehab program
|
|
|
|
How long is a person to remain
in an aftercare status 1. 30 2. 60 3. 90 4. 180 |
4. 180 days
|
|
|
|
Who conducts onboard alcohol
screening as directed by the CO. 1. caac 2. dapa 3. drb 4. divo |
DAPA
|
|
|
|
When typing a classified letter, how would the subject line appear?
|
c. Subj: CLASSIFICATION MARKINGS (U)
|
|
|
|
When typing a Joint Letter, the senior official signs where?
a. Left Side b. Center of Page c. Right Side d. Left side above the other signatures |
C Right Side
|
|
|
|
How many major subject identification codes are found in the SSIC manual?
a. 11 b. 12 c. 13 d. 14 |
C 13
|
|
|
|
What is the proper way to mark an enclosure to be sent under separate cover?
a. Enclosure: (1) SECNAVINST 5216.5D (sep cover) b. Enclosure: (1) SECNAVISNT 5216.5D (s/c) c. Encl: (1) SECNAVINST 5216.5D (sep cover) d. Encl: (1) SECNAVINST 5216.5D (s/c) |
C Encl: (1) SECNAVINST 5216.5D (sep cover)
|
|
|
|
What publication governs the Navy Personnel Security Program?
a. OPNAVINST 5510.1H b. SECNAVINST 5550.1F c. BUPERSINST 5210.40 d. SECNAVINST 5510.30A |
d. SECNAVINST 5510.30A
|
|
|
|
What publication(s) gives detailed instructions for preparing and distributing of the DD214?
a. MILPERSMAN b. BUPERSINST 1900.8 c. NAVMILPERSCOMINST 1900.1 d. Both a and b |
b. BUPERSINST 1900.8
|
|
|
|
Statutory age retirement for regular officers shall be on the first day of the month following the month in which he/she becomes what age?
a. 55 b. 58 c. 62 d. 64 |
c. 62
|
|
|
|
By policy how many members are on a Special Courts-Martial board?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
c. 3
|
|
|
|
What directive gives policy on how official files must be destroyed or forwarded to records center?
a. SECNAVINST 1650.1F b. SECNAVINST 5212.5C c. SECNAVINST 5213.11D d. SECNAVINST 5200.18 |
b. SECNAVINST 5212.5C
|
|
|
|
Where are per diem rates found for estimating cost of TEMADD travel?
a. JFTR b. MILPERSMAN c. Foreign Clearance Guide d. DJMS Manual |
a. JFTR
|
|
|
|
When typing a naval message, what is the maximum # of character per line?
a. 65 b. 66 c. 67 d. 69 |
d. 69
|
|
|
|
Which of the following qualities should Navy leadership exhibit?
1. Administrative ability 2. Moral principals 3. Personal example 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
|
|
When followed, which of the following moral principals provides direction and consistency to leadership?
1. Integrity 2. Loyalty 3. Honesty 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
|
|
To make sure an order to a job will get it done,orders need to be given so they can be followed. Orders should be given in what way?
1. Simple only 2. Clear only 3. Simple, clear, and complete 4. Complex |
3. Simple, clear, and complete
|
|
|
|
To be a good leader, you need to carry out your orders in which of the following ways?
1. Promptly 2. Cheerfully 3. To the best of your ability 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
|
|
What is the primary goal of the Continuous Improvement Program?
1. Increased productivity only 2. Produce better quality through leadership only 3. Increase productivity and produce better quality through leadership |
3. Increase productivity and produce better quality through leadership
|
|
|
|
List the elements of a good Navy leader.
|
Personal example
Administrative ability Moral principles |
|
|
|
List the principles of conduct that give direction,
solidity, and consistency to leadership. |
Honesty
Integrity Loyalty |
|
|
|
What is another term used to describe
administrative ability? |
good management practices
|
|
|
|
List three followership qualities.
|
Loyalty
Initiative Dependability |
|
|
|
Describe the purpose of a reprimand.
|
teach
|
|
|
|
List the ways you can help build morale.
|
Pride
Integrity Keeping personnel informed |
|
|
|
How many security classifications does the Navy use to identify classified material?
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
|
|
If you need to find the rules for transmitting classified material, you should refer to what
instruction? 1. 5510.36 2. 5510.30A 3. 5510.3 4. 5510.3A |
1. 5510.36
|
|
|
|
What term defines classified material that is lost, stolen, captured, salvaged, or seen by unauthorized personnel?
1. Secure 2. Abandoned 3. Compromised |
3. Compromised
|
|
|
|
The Status of Forces Agreement covers what topics?
|
Taxes
Criminal jurisdiction Passport requirements |
|
|
|
How are classified material such as videotapes,cassettes, and computer disks marked?
|
tags
stickers decals |
|
|
|
What form is used to record bomb threats received over the phone?
|
Telephonic Threat Complaint, OPNAV Form 5527/8.
|
|
|
|
Pay you get for certain types of duty that are usually considered hazardous.
1. Basic pay 2. Incentive pay 3. Special pay 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
2. Incentive pay
|
|
|
|
You are entitled to an annual clothing
maintenance allowance after you have been on active duty for what length of time? 1. 12 months 2. 6 months 3. 3 months 4. 9 months |
2. 6 months
|
|
|
|
An allotment is money you have withheld
from your pay and paid directly to someone else. There are how many categories of authorized allotments? 1. Six 2. Five 3. Three 4. Four |
2. Five
|
|
|
|
Under certain circumstances, what is the maximum number of days special liberty a CO can grant?
1. 1 day 2. 2 days 3. 3 days 4. 4 days |
4. 4 days
|
|
|
|
As an E-4, you have served more than 4 years of active-duty service. How often will you receive a longevity raise?
|
2 years.
|
|
|
|
What material is used to make
government-issue dress blue jumpers and trousers? 1. Navy twill 2. Wool serge 3. Nylon 4. Rayon |
2. Wool serge
|
|
|
|
What material is used to make government issue
dress white jumpers and trousers? 1. Navy twill 2. Wool serge 3. Nylon 4. Rayon |
1. Navy twill
|
|
|
|
According to grooming standards for women,what is the maximum length of fingernails (as measured from the tip of the finger)?
1. 1 inch 2. 1/2 inch 3. 3/4 inch 4. 1/4 inch |
4. 1/4 inch
|
|
|
|
You are not required to salute in which
of the following situations? 1. When standing and talking with an officer and a senior officer approaches 2. When guarding prisoners and an officer passes within saluting distance 3. When standing at a bus stop and a car passes carrying officers 4. When walking and passing an officer going in the same direction |
2. When guarding prisoners and an officer passes within saluting distance
|
|
|
|
Your ship is about to render honors to another ship passing close aboard to starboard. In what order are the appropriate whistle signals
given? 1. One blast, one blast, two blasts, three blasts 2. One blast, one blast, three blasts, one blast 3. Two blasts, two blasts, two blasts, three blasts 4. Two blasts, two blasts, three blasts, three blasts |
1. One blast, one blast, two blasts, three blasts
|
|
|
|
Gun salutes are normally fired at what time interval?
1. 5 seconds 2. 10 seconds 3. 15 seconds 4. 20 seconds |
1. 5 seconds
|
|
|
|
On Navy ships not under way, where is
the union jack displayed? 1. The highest possible point 2. The flagstaff on the stern 3. The jack staff on the bow 4. The gaff |
3. The jack staff on the bow
|
|
|
|
The national ensign is hoisted and lowered
in which of the following ways? 1. Hoisted ceremoniously, lowered ceremoniously 2. Hoisted ceremoniously, lowered smartly 3. Hoisted smartly, lowered smartly 4. Hoisted smartly, lowered ceremoniously |
4. Hoisted smartly, lowered ceremoniously
|
|
|
|
When using the mouthpiece of a
sound-powered phone set to report contacts,how far from your mouth should you position the mouthpiece? 1. 1/2 to 1 inch 2. 1 to 2 inches 3. 2 to 3 inches 4. 3 to 4 inches |
1. 1/2 to 1 inch
|
|
|
|
Why should you unplug a phone’s headset
when it’s not in use? 1. To keep the user costs down 2. Earpieces will pick up noise and transmit it over the circuit 3. Carbon will build up at the connectors 4. Calls from other circuits won’t go through |
2. Earpieces will pick up noise and transmit it over the circuit
|
|
|
|
Aboard ship, there are how many categories of shipboard sound-powered phone circuits?
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
|
|
What category of shipboard telephone circuits is designed to maintain vital communications and are preceded by the letter X?
1. Primary system 2. Auxiliary system 3. Supplementary system 4. Command circuit |
2. Auxiliary system
|
|
|
|
What regulation applies
uniform, consistent, and cost-effective policies and procedures to the classification, safeguarding, transmission and destruction of classified information? |
SECNAVINST 5510.36
DON INFORMATION SECURITY PROG |
|
|
|
Who is the primary internal security agency of the U.S. Government?
|
FBI
|
|
|
|
Who coordinates the
intelligence efforts of the Department of the Army, Navy, and Air Force and is reeponsible for development of standard, implementation, and operational management of the SCI compartments for the DoD? |
Defense Intelligence Agent
|
|
|
|
Who is responsible for the effective management of the ISP within the command?
|
Commanding Officer
|
|
|
|
Where does the classified
markings appear on a document? |
Face and Back cover
Top and Bottom Center |
|
|
|
This requirement eliminates any doubt as to which
portions of a document are classified? |
Portion Marking
|
|
|
|
What shall used for the identification of NATO RESTRICTED or Foreign Government RESTRICTED information?
|
Letter R
|
|
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Where is the ‘Declassify on line on a document appears?
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below the
Classified by Reason lines Derived from |
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What markings are spelled out in their entirety on the face of the document?
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Intelligence control markings
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Each classified enclosure must be identified in the instructions where?
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top left corner
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A classified letter of transmittal contains
Confidential information and has a Secret enclosure, therefore, its highest overall classification level is what? |
Secret
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Classified sound recordings shall include an audible statement where?
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beginning and end of each recording
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What is conducted by DSS and is requried to support suitability determination on officers and Secret & Confidential Security Clearance?
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National Agency Check with Local Agency and Credit Checks
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What is usually a investigation basis for Top Secret access eligibility determinations?
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SSBI
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When preparing a same-page endorsement when can you omit the SSIC, Subject and basic letter's identification symbols?
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As long as the entire page will be photocopy
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