Self Check

Front 1

Why is lysogeny advantageous to a bacteriophage?
a. It speeds up the viral life cycle.
b. The genetic material of a phage can be passed on to future generations of cells.
c. It allows the bacteriophage to infect cells it would not normally infect.
d. It allows the bacteriophage to destroy the host cell's DNA.
e. It enables the bacteriophage to take over the cell.

Back 1

The genetic material of a phage can be passed on to future generations of cells.

Front 2

The phenomenon of transduction is associated with which stage of a bacteriophage life cycle?
a. attachment
b. assembly
c. release
d. synthesis
e. entry

Back 2

assembly

Front 3

The genome of whic of the following types of animal virus can act directly as mRNA?
a. retroviruses
b. +ssRNA viruses
c. -ssRNA viruses
d. ssDNA viruses
e. dsRNA viruses

Back 3

+ssRNA viruses

Front 4

Which of the following types of animal virus requires RNA-dependent RNA polymerase to be replicated?
a. dsRNA virses
b. ssDNA viruses
c. -ssRNA viruses
d. retroviruses
e. dsDNA viruses

Back 4

c. -ssRNA viruses

Front 5

All of the following are true statements concerning warts EXCEPT:
a. They are usually found in particular areas of the body.
b. They usually develop over a few years' time.
c. The viruses that cause warts are stable outside the body.
d. The viruses that cause warts often remain latent in neighboring cells.
e. Most type of warts are difficult to prevent.

Back 5

b. They usually develop over a few years' time.

Front 6

Genital warts are associated with cancers of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. the anus.
b. the mouth.
c. the cervix.
d. the urinary bladder.
e. the penis.

Back 6

d. the urinary bladder.

Front 7

The process of excising a prophage from the host chromosome, in order to re-enter the lytic phase, is called
a. transduction.
b. lysogeny.
c. metastasis.
d. induction.
e. exocytosis.

Back 7

d. induction.

Front 8

Urease is an important virulence factor of which of the following?
a. Porphyromonas gingivalis
b. Vibrio cholerae
c. E. coli O157:H7
d. Helicobacter pylori
e. Shigella dysenteriae

Back 8

d. Helicobacter pylori

Front 9

The DTaP vaccine protects against which of the following?
a. penumonia
b. pertussis
c. anthrax
d. the common cold
e. tuberculosis

Back 9

. pertussis

Front 10

All of the following individuals might be at increased risk for brucellosis infection EXCEPT:
a. ranchers.
b. dairy workers.
c. large animal veterinarians
d. hunters.
e. All of these have an increased risk of brucellosis.

Back 10

hunters.

Front 11

Which of the following statements concerning Francisella is false?
a. It resists phagocytosis.
b. Humans are the only known host.
c. It is extrememely infectious.
d. It cannot be treated with penicillins.
e. An attenuated vaccine is used for high-risk individuals.

Back 11

Humans are the only known host.

Front 12

Francisella can be transmitted by all of the following except:
a. a tick bite.
b. direct contact with an infected animal.
c. consumption of infected meat.
d. aerosols produced during animal slaughter.
e. direct contact with an infected person.

Back 12

direct contact with an infected person.

Front 13

All of the following are associated with Neisseria meningitidis EXCEPT:
a. transmission by inhalation of respiratory droplets.
b. close to 100% mortality in untreated patients.
c. a polysaccharide capsule and fimbriae are important virulence factors.
d. the organism typically appears as a diplococcus.
e. No vaccines are available yet.

Back 13

no vaccines are available yet.

Front 14

E. coli O157:H7 is most likely transmitted by which of the following?
a. ground beef
b. dairy products
c. eggs
d. fomites
e. pork

Back 14

ground beef

Front 15

Which of the following types of bacterial toxins is associated exclusively with Gram-negative bacteria?
a. endotoxin
b. cytotoxin
c. neurotoxin
d. Both A and B are correct.
e. Both B and C are correct.

Back 15

. endotoxin

Front 16

Endotoxin is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
a. undulating fever
b. activation of complement
c. blood clotting.
d. inflammation.
e. stimulation of cytokine release from immune cells.

Back 16

. undulating fever

Front 17

All of the following are examples of Gram-negative nosocomial bactria that cause septicemia EXCEPT:
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Eshcerichia coli
c. Kelbsiella pneumoniae
d. Niesseria miningitidis
e. Staphylococcus aures

Back 17

Staphylococcus aures

Front 18

All of the following are true statements concerning primary atypical pneumonia EXCEPT:
a. It is caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
b. The organism attaches to ciliated cells in the respiratory tract.
c. It is also known as "walking pneumonia".
d. It can last for weeks but is not usually severe enought to require hospitalization.
e. It is diagnosed by the appearance of typical "fried-egg" colonies on agar.

Back 18

It is diagnosed by the appearance of typical "fried-egg" colonies on agar.

Front 19

Staphyloccoccal scaled skin syndrome is caused by
a. coagulase
b. lipase
c. beta-lactamase
d. exfoliative toxins
e. staphylokinase

Back 19

. exfoliative toxins

Front 20

All of the following can be caused by Staphylococcus aureus EXCEPT:
a. a carbuncle.
b. a sty.
c. impetigo.
d. scalded skin syndrome.
e. erysipelas.

Back 20

erysipelas.

Front 21

An infection of a hair follicle at the base of an eyelid is called a
a. pimple.
b. sty.
c. furuncle.
d. carbuncle.
e. macule.

Back 21

. sty.

Front 22

Pathogenic streptococci of the upper respiratory tract (such as S. pyogenes) exhibit which of the following types of hemolysis?
a. alpha
b. beta
c. gamma
d. Both A and B are correct.
e. Both A and C are correct.

Back 22

beta

Front 23

Impetigo can be caused by
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Both A and C are correct
e. Both B and C are correct.

Back 23

Both A and C are correct

Front 24

All of the following are true statements concerning inhalation anthrax EXCEPT:
a. It is the most severe form of anthrax.
b. It is transmitted by endospores.
c. A variety of drugs can be used to treat anthrax.
d. It can be spread from person to person.
e. an effective vaccine is available.

Back 24

It can be spread from person to person.

Front 25

Tetanus vaccine contains
a. antibodies against C. tetani.
b. inactivated C. tetani endospores.
c. antibodies agains C. tetani endospores.
d. fragments of C. tetani cell walls.
e. inactivated tetanospasmin

Back 25

. inactivated tetanospasmin

Front 26

All of the following are true statements concerning botulism EXCEPT:
a. It is not usually a true infection.
b. Death occurs from paralysis of the diaphragm.
c. Botulism toxin is the deadliest toxin known.
d. Transmission can be prevented by destruction of Clostridium endospores.
e. Antibiotics are used in the treatment of all forms of botulism.

Back 26

Antibiotics are used in the treatment of all forms of botulism.

Front 27

Which of the following is NOT an effective treatment for gas gangrene?
a. surgical removal of dead tissue (debridement)
b. acyclovir
c. antitoxin
d. intravenous penicillin
e. oxygen under high pressure

Back 27

b. acyclovir

Front 28

All of the following are true statements concerning diphtheria EXCEPT:
a. It is uncommon in industrialized countries.
b. A diffuse rash is the major sign of diphtheria.
c. The signs and symptoms of the disease are directly caused by a bacterial toxin.
d. It can be treated with penicillin.
e. It may cause a blockage of the airway due to the formation of a pseudomembrane over the trachea.

Back 28

A diffuse rash is the major sign of diphtheria.

Front 29

Hansen's disease is caused by
a. Mycobacterium leprae.
b. coxsackie A virus.
c. prions.
d. Streptococcus agalactiae
e. Neisseria meningitis

Back 29

Mycobacterium leprae.

Front 30

All of the following are true statements concerning leprosy EXCEPT:
a. Diagnosis rests on signs and symptoms, accompanied by microscopic evaluation of specimens.
b. It is difficult to transmit.
c. Long-term antimicrobial treatment is usually necessary.
d. It develops in the cooler regions of the body.
e. Humans are the only natural hosts.

Back 30

Humans are the only natural hosts.

Front 31

The tuberculin response is mediated by
a. memory T cells
b. mast cells
c. B lymphocytes
d. plasma cells
e. eosinophils

Back 31

. memory T cells

Front 32

Which of the following is considered normal flora of the central nervous system?
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Haemophilus influenzae
e. None of these.

Back 32

None of these.

Front 33

Which of the following causative agents of bacterial meningitis is transmitted by contaminated food?
a. Neisseria meningitidis
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Haemophilus influenzae
d. Listeria monocytogenes
e. Streptococcus agalactiae

Back 33

Listeria monocytogenes

Front 34

In trachoma, whihc of the following becomes scarred and filled with blood vessels, resulting in blindness?
a. the retina.
b. the conjunctiva.
c. the sclera.
d. the cornea.
e. the fibrous tunic.

Back 34

the cornea.

Front 35

Clostridium botulinum

Back 35

Infections result in flaccid paralysis.

Front 36

Clostridium tetani

Back 36

Able to enter the body through any break in skin.

Front 37

Strepococccus penumoniae

Back 37

The leading cause of meningitis in adults.

Front 38

Haemophilus influenzae

Back 38

At one time mistakenly thought to have caused flu pandemics of 1890 and 1918.

Front 39

Mycobacterium leprae

Back 39

Typically requires years for symptoms to show up.

Front 40

The causative agent of bubonic and pneumonic plague is

a. Clostridium perfringens.
b. Yersinia pestis.
c. Francisella tularensis.
d. Borrelia burgdorferi.
e. Toxoplasma gondii.

Back 40

Yersinia pestis.

Front 41

Which of the following is associated with Yersinia pestis infections?
a. petechiae
b. a "bull's eye" rash
c. jaundice
d. arthritis
e. buboes.

Back 41

e. buboes.

Front 42

A bull's eye rash is associated with infections of which of the following?
a. Francisella tularensis
b. dengue fever virus
c. Borrelia burgdorferi
d. Epstein-Barr virus
e. Yersinia pestis

Back 42

. Borrelia burgdorferi