Security Forces 5 Level Study Questions

Front 1

In 1943, as a result of the reorganization of the War Department, General Henry H. “Hap” Arnold established what?

Back 1

The office of the air provost marshal

Front 2

What where Military police companies in the new army air force named?

Back 2

Army air force base security battalions

Front 3

What did general order no. 1, 2 Jan 1948, accomplish?

Back 3

Military police units serving in the army air corps before separation were transferred to the air force and those individuals and individuals in them were designated “Air Police”

Front 4

What year was the name of the career field changed to “Security Police”?

Back 4

1966

Front 5

In 1971, Security Forces was split into the two separate functions, what were these functions?

Back 5

Law enforcement and security specialties

Front 6

The law enforcement specialty was responsible for providing?

Back 6

The typical police response to safeguard personnel and property

Front 7

What effect did SSgt Terrance Jensen’s death have?

Back 7

Within 2 months 149 additional K9 teams were shipped to Vietnam

Front 8

The Vietnam conflict pointed out the need for?

Back 8

Revised security thinking

Front 9

Operation SAFE SIDE provided security police with?

Back 9

Training in light infantry tactics and special weapons

Front 10

After Vietnam, what was the next large scale war security police found themselves involved in?

Back 10

Operation Desert Storm

Front 11

What was the key career field reaction to the Khobar Towers Bombing?

Back 11

Consolidation of the three distinct career fields

Front 12

Prior to March 1971, basic training graduates could be assigned to SP units without?

Back 12

Formal technical training

Front 13

When SF members perform law enforcement functions, they are referred to as?

Back 13

Security Police

Front 14

The term “SF member” is used when?

Back 14

Performing security functions

Front 15

The SF Shield serves as a figure of?

Back 15

Legal authority

Front 16

The security police shield started out as a/an?

Back 16

Military police / Air police brassard

Front 17

When was the first trial issue shield approved?

Back 17

1957

Front 18

The current security police shield was adopted in what year?

Back 18

1966

Front 19

What AFSC is awarded upon completion of the combat arms apprentice course?

Back 19

3PO31B

Front 20

What AFSC is awarded upon completion of the military working dog handler apprentice course?

Back 20

3PO31A

Front 21

Airman leadership school must be completed prior to?

Back 21

Assuming the rank of SSgt.

Front 22

Adhering to what form(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?

Back 22

Code of Conduct and SF General Orders

Front 23

What are the cornerstones of our profession?

Back 23

Ethics and integrity

Front 24

What is used as a guide for actions during war and as prisoners of war?

Back 24

Code of conduct

Front 25

Which of the following is considered a General Order?

Back 25

I will take charge of my post and protect all personnel and property for which I am responsible until properly relieved

Front 26

You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a ticket based on the violator’s race?

Back 26

Personal attitudes

Front 27

Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance with?

Back 27

AFI 31-207, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel

Front 28

How many different job titles are normally present in the typical unit structure?

Back 28

34

Front 29

The typical SF command section includes all of the following except?

Back 29

Superintendent, Resources and Training

Front 30

When officers are in charge of flights (SFO A/B/C/D), they are designated?

Back 30

Flight Commanders

Front 31

The term “every airman is a sensor…contributing to overall base defense” is the concept of?

Back 31

Integrated base defense

Front 32

During base defense the S-3 function can be compared to? (S-3 movements and communications)

Back 32

The operations officer position

Front 33

The primary task of the S-4 function during combat operations is?

Back 33

Supply and resupply

Front 34

The primary task of the S-1 function is?

Back 34

Personnel and administrative matters

Front 35

The primary task of the S-2 Function is?

Back 35

Ground combat intelligence

Front 36

The authority, capacity, power and right of the military to police their own is known as?

Back 36

Military jurisdiction

Front 37

Which legal document contains law that applies to all branches of the US Armed Forces?

Back 37

UCMJ

Front 38

Which article of the UCMJ identifies who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law?

Back 38

Article 2

Front 39

Federal statutes are laws passed by Congress and are contained in the?

Back 39

US Code

Front 40

Laws in the US Code that directly affect the Air Force are covered in?

Back 40

Title 10

Front 41

US military authority in host nation territories is governed by?

Back 41

Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA)

Front 42

What example of international law was reached at the Hague and Geneva conventions?

Back 42

Law of Armed Conflict

Front 43

The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are?

Back 43

Exclusive, concurrent, partial and proprietary

Front 44

When concurrent jurisdiction exists and there is a conflict with the state?

Back 44

The federal government prevails under the Supremacy Cause

Front 45

When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory it is known as?

Back 45

A military government

Front 46

What type of jurisdiction is in place when the federal government has sole authority to enforce the law on the installation?

Back 46

Exclusive

Front 47

What type of jurisdiction is in place when both the federal and state government have authority to enforce the law on the installation?

Back 47

Concurrent

Front 48

What type of jurisdiction is in place when both the federal and state government have some legislative authority, but neither has exclusive power?

Back 48

Partial

Front 49

What type of jurisdiction is in place when the federal government has no authority outside of that as property owner?

Back 49

Proprietary

Front 50

When concurrent jurisdiction exists and there is a conflict with the state which entity has final authority?

Back 50

The federal government prevails under the Supremacy Clause

Front 51

When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory it is known as?

Back 51

A military government

Front 52

What type of martial law exists when the civilian government continues to control its functions?

Back 52

Qualified

Front 53

When is martial law (military jurisdiction over the civilian population) authorized?

Back 53

In time of emergency

Front 54

Which type of martial law exists when military authority totally replaces civil authority?

Back 54

Absolute

Front 55

During absolute martial law, SF members have the authority to?

Back 55

Apprehend all offenders

Front 56

Which UCMJ article gives you the authority to apprehend military offenders?

Back 56

Article 7b

Front 57

Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes you to?

Back 57

Detain civilians for on base offenses

Front 58

Under exclusive jurisdiction you normally relinquish detained civilians to?

Back 58

US marshals

Front 59

What right could you invoke when apprehending any person for breach of the peace?

Back 59

Citizen’s right of arrest

Front 60

Which UCMJ article makes it a crime to disobey a lawful order from a Security Forces member in the execution of his/her duties?

Back 60

Article 92

Front 61

You can research the provisions of the Posse Comitatus Act in?

Back 61

Title 18, Section 1385 US Code

Front 62

The Defense Authorization Act of 1982 authorizes us to assist civil authorities by providing?

Back 62

Information, equipment, facilities and training

Front 63

Which title of the US Code directly affects the Air Force and its relations with civil authorities?

Back 63

Title 10

Front 64

Military working dogs (MWD) are most effective when they are visible to public; we ensure this by?

Back 64

Conducting periodic public MWD demonstrations

Front 65

Military working dogs should be kept on leash except when they must?

Back 65

Bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building

Front 66

Before releasing a military working dog to search buildings, the handler must?

Back 66

Give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog

Front 67

The releasing of a military working dog to bite or allowing it to bite while on leash is considered use of deadly force?

Back 67

False

Front 68

Who provides specific guidance on using MWD’s to conduct searches on base?

Back 68

Staff Judge Advocate

Front 69

What is the primary mission of a military working dog?

Back 69

Detect, deter, and detain

Front 70

When conducting building checks the military working dog is normally?

Back 70

On-leash

Front 71

The military working dog team should always approach buildings from the?

Back 71

Downwind side

Front 72

Who determines whether a military working dog will search a building on or off-leash?

Back 72

On-duty supervisor and handler

Front 73

The military working dog’s greatest advantage during security operations is?

Back 73

Detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility

Front 74

What is the military working dog’s role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators?

Back 74

Protect members of the apprehension team

Front 75

What instruction covers the Rules of Engagement of US Forces?

Back 75

CJCSI 3121.01

Front 76

What is defined as the imminent threat of force against US forces?

Back 76

Hostile Intent

Front 77

What is defined as an attack or other use of force against the US and US Forces?

Back 77

Hostile Act

Front 78

What are the Rules of Engagement elements of self-defense?

Back 78

Proportionality and necessity

Front 79

A written order issued by a competent military commander ordering a search is called a?

Back 79

Search authorization

Front 80

Who can issue off-base search procedures in foreign countries?

Back 80

Air Force installation commanders

Front 81

What exists when there is reason to believe that evidence sought is located in a specific place?

Back 81

Probable cause

Front 82

A search affidavit of “probable cause” supports your request for?

Back 82

Search authorization

Front 83

A person who exercises control over property given to them for safekeeping may grant consent to search that property?

Back 83

True

Front 84

Under what conditions during a lawful stop can a frisk be conducted?

Back 84

If you reasonably believe the person is armed and dangerous

Front 85

Probable cause is not required when searching as a result of lawful apprehensions?

Back 85

True

Front 86

What are common reasons for an interviewee’s reluctance to talk?

Back 86

Inconvenience, resentment and fear of involvement

Front 87

If a witness is reluctant to talk because of the possible reprisals they are experiencing?

Back 87

Fear of involvement

Front 88

Which type of interviewee is interviewed to develop facts?

Back 88

Victims

Front 89

Which type if interviewee is interviewed because they have pertinent information on an investigation?

Back 89

Witness

Front 90

The four step interview process includes preparing, planning, closing, and?

Back 90

Conducting

Front 91

What are the types of interview approaches?

Back 91

Alternating, direct, and indirect

Front 92

Investigative notes should contain the case number, date, person interviewed, and?

Back 92

Time of interview

Front 93

When does your pre-trial preparation begin?

Back 93

As soon as you are dispatched to an incident

Front 94

Investigators will conduct pre-trial preparation with?

Back 94

The staff judge advocate

Front 95

When should you give your opinion during court proceedings?

Back 95

Only if asked to do so by the prosecution or defense

Front 96

The budget process is broken down into which two centers of control?

Back 96

Cost centers and responsibility center

Front 97

Who is normally responsible for the responsibility center?

Back 97

Squadron commander

Front 98

Who is the approval authority for the Air Force budget?

Back 98

Congress

Front 99

The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the primary document that reflects what?

Back 99

Positions authorized to accomplish the mission.

Front 100

The Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR) contains what information?

Back 100

It describes what personnel is working what job within the unit

Front 101

What is the main reason supply discipline is mandatory?

Back 101

Conserve, protect, and maintain available government supplies, equipment, and real property

Front 102

What does the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) identify?

Back 102

Life-cycle education and training requirements, both mandatory and desirable

Front 103

Who maintains the AF Form 623, Individual Training Record?

Back 103

Individuals training supervisor

Front 104

Who is the Security Forces Manager (SFM) responsible to?

Back 104

The commander for the Stan-Eval program

Front 105

Stan-Evals will be conducted within how many duty days after an individual completes qualification training?

Back 105

30 duty days

Front 106

The goal of the Air Force Law Enforcement Terminal System (AFLETS) program is to provide what?

Back 106

Prompt police information through the use of technology

Front 107

What are the responsibilities of The Chief of Security Forces (CSF)?

Back 107

Selecting/training of personnel operating the AFLETS system

Front 108

Computerized Criminal Histories and the Interstate Identification Index are documented in what federal system?

Back 108

A federal system of records controlled under the Privacy act of 1974

Front 109

All personnel assigned against a Unit Type Code manpower position will receive firearms training based on?

Back 109

Their assigned arming group (Group A, B, or C)

Front 110

Individual weapons training programs are outlined in?

Back 110

AFMAN 36-226, Volume 1, Combat Arms Training Programs, Individual Weapons.

Front 111

Which form, signed by Combat Arms personnel, is proof of firearm qualification?

Back 111

AF Form 522

Front 112

How soon will live fire qualification with machine guns and crew served weapons expire, if the member does not complete mechanical training?

Back 112

6 months

Front 113

What form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?

Back 113

AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt

Front 114

Which form is used by personnel who are issued weapons on a day to day basis?

Back 114

AF Form 629

Front 115

What are prowords used for in radio communication?

Back 115

To shorten sending time and to simplify clear reception

Front 116

Persons will not be tasked to supervise inmates if they?

Back 116

Have an unfavorable information file

Front 117

Corrections staff personnel should complete or be scheduled to attend what course upon assuming the position?

Back 117

Service corrections course (or civilian equivalent)

Front 118

All inmates are assigned a custody status and classified as?

Back 118

Pretrial detainee, post-trial inmates or casual

Front 119

Who determines staffing requirements for Level 1 correctional facilities?

Back 119

Chief of Security Forces

Front 120

What custody grade will inmates, who pose a serious threat to themselves or others, are an extreme escape risk, or exhibit behavior which is seriously disruptive to the operation of a facility be placed in?

Back 120

Maximum custody

Front 121

What custody grade will inmates, who pose an escape risk, but do not present a significant threat to others or property be placed in?

Back 121

Medium custody

Front 122

What custody grade will inmates, who do not pose an apparent threat of escape or danger be placed in?

Back 122

Minimum Custody

Front 123

What is the correctional facility housing determination for Post Trial Male inmates with over 7 year sentences?

Back 123

Ft. Leavenworth, Kansas

Front 124

All inmates will have an initial confinement examination within?

Back 124

24 hours, or the next duty day

Front 125

What is the critical aspect of hygiene?

Back 125

Nutrition

Front 126

What can be used to clean one’s mouth effectively in the absence of other means?

Back 126

Salt water

Front 127

Boiling, iodine tablets or calcium hypochlorite are used to purify what?

Back 127

Water

Front 128

What are the four major groups for transmission of communicable diseases?

Back 128

Contact, intestinal, waterborne, and insect and animal borne

Front 129

What is one of the ways you can prevent the introduction of diseases into your body?

Back 129

Eating and drinking from approved sources only

Front 130

An effective way of defeating crawling insects is?

Back 130

Tucking your pants into the tops of your socks and boots

Front 131

What can you use to keep your clothes dry in the field?

Back 131

Waterproof clothing bags

Front 132

What is considered the most deadly hazard of the security forces career field?

Back 132

Stress

Front 133

There are many causes of stress, however, the main source of stress can be found where?

Back 133

Personal life and job

Front 134

What is the first step in finding ways to reduce stress?

Back 134

Recognizing stressors

Front 135

What is defined as an automatic physical reaction to a new, unpleasant, or life threatening situation?

Back 135

Stress

Front 136

How is the security forces career field ranked in the rate of suicides Air Force wide?

Back 136

Second

Front 137

What is defined as “saying or doing something that suggests a suicidal desire”?

Back 137

Suicidal threat

Front 138

Most often suicidal persons are overwhelmed with?

Back 138

Loss of a loved one, mental health, and divorce

Front 139

What is defined as “a conscious intent to die by means believed to cause death”? (person is still alive due to unforeseen circumstances)

Back 139

Attempted suicide

Front 140

What is defined as “symbolic but not serious threat to life”? (apparent but there is no serious intent to die)

Back 140

Suicidal gesture

Front 141

What is defined as “a self-taking of life with conscious intent”?

Back 141

Suicide

Front 142

What is the most likely age range of most suicide victims according to national statics?

Back 142

20-50

Front 143

What is the single most important source of disease transmission in the workplace?

Back 143

Blood

Front 144

What are personnel trained in emergency care that may be called on to provide such care as a routine part of his or her job and are most often the first trained professional to respond to emergencies called?

Back 144

First responders

Front 145

Microorganisms in blood that cause disease are?

Back 145

Blood borne pathogens

Front 146

What is a tactic used to reduce exposure to blood borne pathogens on the job?

Back 146

Employee work practices, PPE, and housekeeping / Engineering controls, personal protective equipment, and hepatitis B vaccine

Front 147

Range cards are a record of?

Back 147

Firing data

Front 148

How many range cards are prepared for each position?

Back 148

Two

Front 149

What does the acronym TRP stand for?

Back 149

Target reference point

Front 150

When would you fire into your secondary sector of fire?

Back 150

When ordered to fire there.

Front 151

When should range cards be prepared?

Back 151

Immediately upon arrival at position

Front 152

The final protective line is a thick dark line drawn on your range card. How far should the FPL extend on your range card?

Back 152

Only as far as the grazing fire distance of your weapon

Front 153

When should you fire outside your assigned sector of fire?

Back 153

Only when ordered to do so by higher authority

Front 154

How should you initially start clearing your fields of fire?

Back 154

Start near the fighting position and work forward at least 100 meters

Front 155

Where is the distance between your fighting position and a prominent terrain feature annotated on your range card?

Back 155

Above the barbed line drawn from the feature to your position

Front 156

Where is the azimuth between your fighting position and a prominent terrain feature annotated on your range card?

Back 156

Below the barbed line drawn from the feature of your position

Front 157

If time is critical, what is the minimum distance you must clear your field of fire?

Back 157

35 meters

Front 158

How many sectors of fire are included on a range card?

Back 158

Two

Front 159

The final protective line is the line that?

Back 159

Shoots grazing fire across your sector front

Front 160

What are target reference points?

Back 160

Natural or man made features used to quickly locate targets

Front 161

What are target reference points used for?

Back 161

Controls direct fire weapons but may be used tor indirect fire weapons

Front 162

The information included in the marginal data section of the range card is position #?

Back 162

Weapon, unit, call sign/date, meters each circle represents, sensor ID numbers

Front 163

Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?

Back 163

Marginal data section

Front 164

How is the final protective lone (FPL) sketched in on your sector?

Back 164

Thick dark line out to your weapon grazing fire distance and capping the top with an arrow

Front 165

How is dead space determined on the final protective line (FPL)?

Back 165

Having your buddy walk the FPL

Front 166

The secondary sector of fire is shown on the range card by using?

Back 166

A broken or dashed line on the boundary

Front 167

How many operating positions does the M4 stock have?

Back 167

4

Front 168

Which component of the M4 is adaptable for winter operations?

Back 168

Trigger guard

Front 169

Which component of the M4 do you inspect for pits, burrs, and wear?

Back 169

Bolt and bold carrier

Front 170

How should the bore of the M4 be?

Back 170

Clean and free from corrosion

Front 171

What is the function of the forward assist?

Back 171

Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedures

Front 172

The acronym for SPORTS stands for?

Back 172

Slap, Pull, Observe, Release, Tap, Squeeze

Front 173

The primary purpose of preventative maintenance is to keep weapons?

Back 173

Clean, dry, and lubricated

Front 174

What should you perform once your M4 carbine has been reassembled from cleaning?

Back 174

Function check

Front 175

What is the standard round used with the M4 rifle?

Back 175

M855 Ball

Front 176

What type of ammunition, used in the M4 Carbine, has no primer?

Back 176

M199 Dummy

Front 177

Which cartridge, used in the M4 carbine, has no projectile?

Back 177

M200

Front 178

How many meters is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?

Back 178

1,800 meters

Front 179

The front and rear sights for the M9 pistol are?

Back 179

Fixed

Front 180

Which part of the M9 pistol can be changed to accommodate either right or left handed operators?

Back 180

Magazine release button

Front 181

After disassembling the M9 pistol, what should you inspect the receiver assembly for?

Back 181

Burrs

Front 182

LAW lubricating oil is the only lubrication for the M9 pistol for a specific temperature. What must the temperature be to use LAW?

Back 182

-10 degrees F

Front 183

On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and?

Back 183

Loaded chamber indicator

Front 184

What ball is the standard cartridge used with the M9?

Back 184

M882

Front 185

M882 ammunition is used against what type of target?

Back 185

Personnel

Front 186

What type of ammunition does the M203 fire?

Back 186

40mm low velocity

Front 187

How many meters is the maximum effective range for a point target with the M203?

Back 187

150m

Front 188

What is the maximum range on the M203 grenade launcher?

Back 188

400m

Front 189

What weapon is the M203 attached to?

Back 189

M4 carbine

Front 190

How many meters is the kill radius for high explosive rounds?

Back 190

5m

Front 191

Under what conditions would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?

Back 191

When directed

Front 192

What type of M249 ammunition is used during dry-fire exercises?

Back 192

M199 dummy

Front 193

How many meters is the M249 maximum effective range for an area target?

Back 193

800m

Front 194

How many meters is the M249 maximum effective range for a point target?

Back 194

600m

Front 195

How many different types of 5.56mm standard military cartridges can be used in the M249 assault rifle?

Back 195

4

Front 196

In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?

Back 196

800m

Front 197

In meters what is the maximum effective range of the M870 shotgun using “00” buck shot round?

Back 197

68m

Front 198

What is the maximum range of the M870 shotgun in yards?

Back 198

700 yards

Front 199

When employed in a physical security role the M870 is effective because?

Back 199

It can be used around sensitive resources such as fuels, aircraft, and equipment

Front 200

In what role is the M870 used as a breaching tool for entering buildings?

Back 200

Emergency Service Team (EST)

Front 201

How are designated marksman employed?

Back 201

Individually or as a pair

Front 202

Some optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams are?

Back 202

Response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance

Front 203

The minimum and maximum grade authorized before being considered for sharpshooter is?

Back 203

SrA-MSgt

Front 204

The M24 is effective against point targets out to how many meters?

Back 204

800 meters

Front 205

What are the three common characteristics that hand grenades share?

Back 205

Short employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing

Front 206

How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?

Back 206

5 meters

Front 207

Historically, what is considered the most important hand grenade?

Back 207

Fragmentation grenade

Front 208

What is the effective casualty radius of a fragmentation grenade?

Back 208

15 meters

Front 209

How many meters is the average person capable of throwing a hand grenade?

Back 209

40 meters

Front 210

What are the color markings on a fragmentation grenade?

Back 210

Olive drab body with a single yellow band

Front 211

How does one remove the safety pin from a hand grenade?

Back 211

Pull the pull ring

Front 212

What could happen if you don’t maintain enough pressure on the safety lever?

Back 212

The striker could rotate, striking the primer

Front 213

Where should the grenade safety lever be positioned in relation to gripping it in your hand?

Back 213

Between the first and second joints of your thumb

Front 214

How do left-handed personnel grip a grenade differently from right-handed personnel?

Back 214

The grenade is inverted and gripped like right-handed personnel

Front 215

What is the maximum exposure time when observing the target prior to throwing a hand grenade?

Back 215

No more than 2 seconds

Front 216

What throwing method should you use when you throw the grenade?

Back 216

Overhand

Front 217

When would the kneeling position normally be used to throw a grenade?

Back 217

When throwing from behind a low wall

Front 218

The hand grenade safety clip prevents the safety lever from?

Back 218

Springing loose if the safety pin assembly is accidentally removed

Front 219

How can the M72 LAW be employed and fired?

Back 219

Shoulder, standing, sitting, prone position, and kneeling

Front 220

When extending the LAW, what shouldn’t you dispose of until you fire the weapon?

Back 220

Sling assembly

Front 221

What is the last action taken to fire the LAW?

Back 221

Depress the rubber boot on the trigger

Front 222

What may cause the mechanical delay in firing the LAW?

Back 222

A delay in operation of the firing pin

Front 223

What shoulder is the M136 AT4 designed to be fired from?

Back 223

Right shoulder only

Front 224

How far must the M136 AT4 be extended prior to firing?

Back 224

It does not need to be extended before firing

Front 225

The 440-gram shape charge explosive of the M136 AT4 can penetrate how much armor?

Back 225

14 Inches

Front 226

What are the two safety bail positions of the M57 electrical firing device?

Back 226

Safe and Fire

Front 227

What instrument is used for checking the continuity of the initiating circuit of the claymore mine?

Back 227

M40

Front 228

How many M40 test sets are contained in a packing box of claymore mines?

Back 228

1

Front 229

What is the maximum height of the steel ball projectiles from a claymore mine?

Back 229

2 feet

Front 230

What is the forward “danger radius” of the claymore mine?

Back 230

Approximately 250 feet

Front 231

For best effect, an employing squad/flight must make sure that the claymore mine can be kept under?

Back 231

Observation and covered by fire

Front 232

Primarily, where would the claymore mine best support security forces?

Back 232

Avenues of enemy approaches

Front 233

How close should the enemy be before detonating a claymore mine?

Back 233

Within 50-100 meters

Front 234

What can be used to support the claymore mine on show or extremely soft ground?

Back 234

The claymore mine bandoleer

Front 235

How should the firing wire of a claymore mine be laid?

Back 235

From the firing position to the mine emplacement

Front 236

Where is the aiming point for a claymore mine with slit-type peep sights?

Back 236

50 meters in front of the mine and 2 ½ meters above ground

Front 237

Where is the aiming point for a claymore mine with knife-edge sights?

Back 237

50 meters in front of the mine at ground level

Front 238

What parts of the claymore mine are tested with the M40 test set?

Back 238

Firing device, test set, and blasting cap

Front 239

What indication does the M40 test set give you that the blasting cap is functioning properly?

Back 239

A flashing light

Front 240

What device secures the blasting cap into the detonator wall?

Back 240

Shipping plug priming adapter

Front 241

Why should you use lightweight foliage to camouflage the claymore mine firing wire?

Back 241

To avoid secondary missile hazards

Front 242

What is the only difference between the M72A1 and the M72A2 LAW?

Back 242

The rocket

Front 243

What improvement was made to the LAW which eliminated the coupler in the M72A3 LAW?

Back 243

Rocket motor

Front 244

Where is the trigger housing for the LAW located?

Back 244

Upper surface of the outer tube

Front 245

What are the two positions of the LAW trigger arming handle?

Back 245

Safe and Arm

Front 246

What identifies whether or not a LAW has radioactive sights?

Back 246

Two yellow cross hairs in the front sight

Front 247

What must you do prior to preparing the LAW for use?

Back 247

Inspect its overall condition

Front 248

Which statement best describes the M72 LAW?

Back 248

Requires little from the user other than a visual inspection and some maintenance

Front 249

Of the trigger-arming handle fails to stay in the ARM position, check?

Back 249

To see if the launcher is fully extended

Front 250

If a misfire occurs, how many seconds do you wait before removing the launcher from your shoulder?

Back 250

10

Front 251

The sights of the M136 AT4 resemble the sights of what other weapon?

Back 251

M-16 rifle

Front 252

If you decide not to fire the M136 AT4 what must you do immediately?

Back 252

Replace transport safety pin

Front 253

The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an?

Back 253

Defensive weapon

Front 254

When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role it is considered a?

Back 254

Mine or booby trap

Front 255

The two detonator wells located on the top of the Claymore allow for?

Back 255

Single or dual priming

Front 256

How is the claymore employed with used as part of the base defense obstacle plan?

Back 256

Stop, delay, and disrupt enemy attacks

Front 257

For effective coverage of the entire front of a position, place mines in a line no closer than 5 meters and no farther apart than?

Back 257

45 meters

Front 258

The final step in laying a mines is to turn legs rearward and then downward and spread each pair of legs at a?

Back 258

45 - degree angle

Front 259

When aiming mines with slit-type peep sight and knife-edge sight, how many inches to the rear of the sight do you position your eye?

Back 259

6 inches

Front 260

Where should the claymore firing position be located?

Back 260

Foxhole or covered position

Front 261

After prolong firing, the barrel of the MK19 will?

Back 261

Not overheat

Front 262

How many calendar days can the QFEBJ sustain operations before requiring resupply?

Back 262

5

Front 263

What type of ammunition is the MK-19 capable of using?

Back 263

40mm high explosive and high explosive, dual purpose ammunition

Front 264

Using the MK-19, what type of target can be effectively fired upon at a distance of 1500 meters?

Back 264

Point Target

Front 265

What is the MK-19 maximum rate of fire?

Back 265

325-375 rounds per minute

Front 266

What provides the MK-19 with good range to disrupt troop concentrations and destroy lightly armored vehicles?

Back 266

Transverse and elevation mechanism (T&E)

Front 267

What makes the MK-19 capable to respond to any position and engage the enemy?

Back 267

Mounting the weapon on a vehicle

Front 268

What types of areas is the MK-19 employed to cover?

Back 268

Fields of fire and avenues of approach

Front 269

The MK19 is most effectively employed as a?

Back 269

Mobile suppressive fire platform covering a specific zone

Front 270

The MK19 has little effect on which type of targets?

Back 270

Main battle tanks

Front 271

The MK19 is capable of producing controlled and accurate fire for?

Back 271

Point and area targets

Front 272

The M2 .50 caliber machine gun is a very effective, versatile weapon that is?

Back 272

Belt fed, recoil operated, and air cooled

Front 273

What is the maximum number of meters for the M2 .50 caliber machine gun?

Back 273

6,764m

Front 274

What is the maximum effective range of the M2 .50 caliber machine gun?

Back 274

1,830 m

Front 275

What type of ammunition would you use with the M2 to engage personnel and light material targets?

Back 275

Ball

Front 276

The M2 .50 caliber machine gun is most effectively employed when?

Back 276

On a mobile platform / mounted on a vehicle

Front 277

What type of fire should the M2 gunner strive to achieve?

Back 277

Grazing

Front 278

What weapon is considered the only indirect fire weapon in the security forces arsenal?

Back 278

M252 81mm mortar

Front 279

Which type of round for the M252 81mm mortar is used for screening, producing casualties, creating incendiary effects and signaling?

Back 279

Red/White phosphorus

Front 280

What is the maximum range of the M282 81mm mortar?

Back 280

5608 meters

Front 281

Which crew served weapons are a squad’s primary weapons against dismounted enemy forces?

Back 281

M240B & M249

Front 282

This class of fire is when most of the rounds do not rise above 1 meter off the ground?

Back 282

Grazing fire

Front 283

The placement of which two crew served weapons is critical to base defense? (They provide direct and indirect fire in support of other positions in the defensive perimeter)

Back 283

MK-19 & M252

Front 284

What factors influence employment actions of the M2 .50 caliber machine gun?

Back 284

Mission, terrain, target engagement, and rules of engagement

Front 285

Grazing fire occurs when the projectile does not rise more than how many meters above the ground?

Back 285

1

Front 286

Leaders should position weapons where they?

Back 286

Protect, avoid detection, and surprise enemy with lethal fire

Front 287

When the primary threat is from dismounted infantry, the squad leader should position weapons?

Back 287

Most likely mounted avenue of approach last

Front 288

Areas that cannot be covered by fire from a given position because of obstacle are called?

Back 288

Dead space

Front 289

Leaders select fixed positions that provide the MK19 team the opportunity to?

Back 289

Mount and utilize the accuracy of the T&E mechanism

Front 290

What is used to assist security forces and other armed personnel in identifying and interpreting the right level of force to use in the performance of duty?

Back 290

Use of Force Model (UFM)

Front 291

In Graham v. Connor, 490 U.S. 386 (1989), the U.S. Supreme Court established the fourth amendment standard of “_____________” as the standard for assessing the use of force in the context of making an arrest or other seizure of a person?

Back 291

Objective reasonableness

Front 292

The criteria supporting “objective reasonableness” is provided from three essential areas within the confrontational environment and initiated in order to gain compliance and control. What are the 3 essential areas?

Back 292

Subject action, risk perception, and officer response

Front 293

Under what article of the UCMJ, could you be subject to administrative or judicial action if you use excessive force to carry out your assigned duties?

Back 293

Article 92

Front 294

How is the use of force model structured?

Back 294

Three-sided, five-tiered

Front 295

Which color of the use of force model includes the day to day non-threatening type activities in force protection?

Back 295

Blue

Front 296

Which color of the use of force model signals a need of increased alertness due to a recognized threat of danger because of active subject awareness?

Back 296

Yellow

Front 297

What color of the use of force model indicates imminent serious bodily harm to the reasonable officer or someone else that’s been assessed?

Back 297

Red

Front 298

What color of the use of force model covers subject behavior that categorizes the person as a passive resister who may require a slight increase of verbal or physical response from the reasonable officer?

Back 298

Green

Front 299

What color of the use of force model denoted an assessment of imminent bodily harm to the reasonable officer or someone else?

Back 299

Orange

Front 300

You initiate a challenge on a person inside a restricted area because he/she is not wearing a restricted area badge. What risk perception is this?

Back 300

Professional perception

Front 301

You challenge an individual in the restricted area and you notice the person reaching into a pocket instead of complying with your commands. What risk perception level is this?

Back 301

Threshold perception

Front 302

You challenge an individual in a restricted area and the person reaches into his pocket and pulls out a handgun and says, “I’m gonna kill everyone.” What is the risk perception level?

Back 302

Lethal Threat perception

Front 303

Near the flight line area someone is taking pictures of aircraft. You inform them that they can’t take pictures. The person says, “I pay taxes, ill take pictures of what I paid for,” then pushes away from your attempts to apprehend and threatens further physical resistance. What is the subject action level?

Back 303

Assaultive (Bodily Harm)

Front 304

The progressive application of force encompasses three main elements of action and assessment. What are these three elements?

Back 304

Tools, tactics, timing

Front 305

What element within the progressive application of force includes the two broad forms of subject control; mental manipulation, and physical manipulation?

Back 305

Tools

Front 306

What element within the progressive application of force encompass the actual application into actual strategies deemed necessary in the confrontation setting?

Back 306

Tactics

Front 307

What must you base your use of force option on?

Back 307

Actions of the individual (s) with whom you are in contact

Front 308

Deadly force is authorized for protection of military resources. Which of the following cover this statement?

Back 308

Vital to national security

Front 309

Deadly force is would be authorized in which of the following instances?

Back 309

To prevent someone from killing you or doing you serious bodily harm

Front 310

The situations that are perceived by the “reasonable officer” within a confrontational environment which present a risk or potential risk to officer safety describes what component of the use of force model?

Back 310

Risk perception

Front 311

The “balanced” response the reasonable officer could and/or would select, in order to maintain or re-gain subject compliance and control describes what component of the use of force model?

Back 311

Officer response

Front 312

The action(s) perceived by the “reasonable officer” that place the subject in one or more of the model’s compliant/non-compliant categories describe what component of the use of force mode?

Back 312

Subject actions

Front 313

What element within the progressive application of force is measured in terms of immediacy and necessity?

Back 313

Timing

Front 314

You should respond to an actual incident where you reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your M4 carbine at port arms, with the safety selector on?

Back 314

Safe and your finger not in the trigger guard

Front 315

What is your first action once you detect an unidentified individual inside the restricted area?

Back 315

Notify SFCC, or MSC of the situation through the communication system on post

Front 316

In Graham v. Connor (1969), what did the US Supreme Court dictate the reasonable officer’s decision to handcuff be based on?

Back 316

Sound professional judgment and facts of a specific incident

Front 317

Handcuffing is considered which of the following?

Back 317

Never automatic

Front 318

In applying handcuffs during an apprehension, what must you consider to achieve and maintain control of the detainee?

Back 318

Reasonable level of force

Front 319

Which of these is the correct procedure for a weak side standing search of the suspect’s upper body?

Back 319

Precautionary check, handcuff, search hair and head, weak side of suspect’s back, up side to armpit, and then down chest to waistline.

Front 320

What must be done if you move evidence prematurely at a crime scene?

Back 320

Record its original position in your notes or via photographs

Front 321

Which of these is the correct procedure for changing your position from searching the weak side to the strong side standing search?

Back 321

Switch hands on linking chain, place strong hand on suspect’s shoulder, have suspect turn head, and then switch your feet position.

Front 322

What type of search is primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent, or so drunk or drugged that they cannot stand under their own power?

Back 322

Standing search

Front 323

Which search is ideal for multiple apprehensions?

Back 323

Prone search

Front 324

Which is the correct procedure to begin a prone search of a suspect’s upper body?

Back 324

Switch hands on linking chain, search weak side of the back and ribs to the shoulder, collar and head, down outside of arm, up the inside of arm to armpit

Front 325

When you arrive at security forces control center (SFCC), after transporting someone of the opposite gender, what information must you provide to the controller?

Back 325

Time arrived and ending mileage reading

Front 326

In which portion of the use of force model, can you generally expect to use physical apprehension and restraint techniques (part)?

Back 326

Resistive (active)

Front 327

Which of the following are you to base your decision on to apprehend a suspect?

Back 327

Probable cause

Front 328

What are the three principle target areas for the baton?

Back 328

Arms, legs, and knee

Front 329

The baton is primarily used as what type of weapon?

Back 329

Impact

Front 330

What should the security forces member do once they have struck a suspect with the baton?

Back 330

Act to calm the individual through verbal directions

Front 331

What is described as a highly concentrated form of pepper or similar synthetic and naturally occurring inflammatory agent affecting the mucous membranes of humans and animals?

Back 331

Pepper spray

Front 332

At what level in the use of force model can pepper spray first be utilized on a subject?

Back 332

Third level

Front 333

Direct one second bursts of pepper spray canister at the subject’s what?

Back 333

Eyes, nose, and mouth

Front 334

What type of force is pepper spray considered?

Back 334

Non-lethal

Front 335

If the pepper spray is effective, the officer should notice disorientation, closing of the eyes, difficulty breathing, loss of motor control, and complaints of intense burning within how much time?

Back 335

2 to 3 seconds

Front 336

Pepper spray effects are temporary but may last up to how long if untreated?

Back 336

45 minutes

Front 337

Which rifle fighting technique is used to disarm an opponent?

Back 337

Slash

Front 338

What rifle fighting technique is used to stop the forward movement of a suspect or move an aggressive suspect backwards?

Back 338

Thrust

Front 339

What would a class A mishap involving extensive property be considered?

Back 339

A major accident

Front 340

What is an accident involving nuclear weapons?

Back 340

Broken arrow

Front 341

What is the accidental or unauthorized launching of a nuclear weapon that could create the risk of war?

Back 341

Nucflash

Front 342

What is an incident involving nuclear weapons?

Back 342

Bent spear

Front 343

What major accident phase includes actions like response, suppressing, or containing and controlling the accident?

Back 343

Response

Front 344

What major accident phase is a warning used when forces working at an accident are in imminent danger of being injured or killed by an explosion, the release of toxic materials, or the collapse of a structure?

Back 344

Withdrawal

Front 345

Regardless of its size, who establishes and controls an on-base cordon?

Back 345

Security Forces

Front 346

What is the cordon size of an accident involving chemical agents?

Back 346

1 mile upwind, and crosswind, and 2 mile down wind

Front 347

In what direction is the entry control point initially located on a cordon perimeter?

Back 347

Upwind from the accident

Front 348

What is the only base office that may release information to the media about a major accident?

Back 348

Public affairs

Front 349

What should you do if someone takes photographs of classified material at an off base accident site after you tell them not to take photographs?

Back 349

Contact civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film

Front 350

What federal agency is designated for coordinating US Government actions to resolve terrorist and high-risk criminal incidents that occur on-base?

Back 350

Department of Justice – DOJ

Front 351

Who provides the responsibility for initial and immediate response to an incident?

Back 351

Installation commander

Front 352

What is defined as physical injury or emotional disturbance, inflicted by means other than accidental?

Back 352

Abuse

Front 353

What is defined as failure to provide with the basic necessities of life?

Back 353

Neglect

Front 354

What type of spousal abuse includes harassment, threats, and deprivation of food and sleep (also accompanied by a history of at least one other type of spousal abuse)?

Back 354

Psychological battering

Front 355

Where should the responding patrol park their vehicle at the scene of a crisis situation?

Back 355

At least one house away

Front 356

What should be done if a patrol becomes aware that a crime was committed at a crisis situation scene?

Back 356

Apprehend the violator

Front 357

What form is used by security forces to record an incident?

Back 357

AF Form 3545 and AF form 53

Front 358

What is DD form 2701?

Back 358

Awareness of rights for victims and witnesses of crime

Front 359

Who determines the degree of control required over personnel entering or and leaving the base?

Back 359

Installation commander

Front 360

What is an installation entry point check classified as?

Back 360

An examination

Front 361

What do you do if you find illegal contraband during an entry point check?

Back 361

Stop the check and obtain a consent, or search authorization

Front 362

If you have probable cause to search a vehicle for a stolen 27-inch TV, can you search in the glove box and under the seat?

Back 362

No

Front 363

How are vehicles selected when conducting installation entry point checks?

Back 363

Randomly

Front 364

Who is normally tasked with conducting a complete vehicle search?

Back 364

AFOSI

Front 365

When you need to obtain authority to conduct a search, which form do you need to acquire?

Back 365

AF Form 1176

Front 366

When you need to obtain consent to conduct a search, which form do you need documented?

Back 366

AF Form 1364

Front 367

What area search is being used when you go to the first apparent piece of evidence, visually observe evidence and then move to the next piece of evidence?

Back 367

Item-to-item search

Front 368

What area search is conducted in small outdoor areas when patrol believes evidence has been dropped or placed a distance from the crime scene?

Back 368

Concentric circle search

Front 369

What type of area search is being used when you divide the area into strips approximately 4 feet wide, and start at one end them move back and forth across the area from one side to the other side?

Back 369

Strip and Grid search

Front 370

What type of area search is being used when you divide the area into sections, where individuals are assigned to search each section near the crime scene and work outward?

Back 370

Zone or sector search

Front 371

In what supply item classification would items listed on a custodian authorization/custody receipt listing be found?

Back 371

Equipment authorization inventory

Front 372

In what supply item classification would items issued to you for use in a performance of your duties be found?

Back 372

Individual clothing and equipment

Front 373

When conducting a foot challenge and it is not feasible to remove the suspect from the restricted or controlled area, what must be done before completing the challenge?

Back 373

Face away from resource

Front 374

How do you make positive identification of a (foot) challenged suspect?

Back 374

Have suspect place identification on the ground and take steps forward

Front 375

During a vehicle challenge, after you have the suspect(s) disembark the vehicle, where would you have them place their identification?

Back 375

On the hood of the vehicle

Front 376

Why is it important to keep witnesses of a crime separated?

Back 376

So they don’t distort each other’s impression

Front 377

What does full body coverage include when you are in a contaminated area?

Back 377

Hood, surgical mask and eye protection

Front 378

How many photographs are taken of each piece of evidence at a crime scene?

Back 378

3

Front 379

A rough sketch of a crime scene must be drawn to scale?

Back 379

No

Front 380

What type of evidence tends to prove or disprove a fact?

Back 380

Direct

Front 381

What type of evidence tends to involve a person in an offense?

Back 381

Circumstantial

Front 382

What must evidence be in order for it to be admissible in court?

Back 382

Competent and relevant to the case

Front 383

What federal law requires law enforcement personnel to save all field notes, rough drafts, and statements made by SF, witnesses, victims, and suspects?

Back 383

Jencks Act

Front 384

When is evidence collected at a crime scene?

Back 384

After photographs and sketches

Front 385

What should you do if you touch an item of evidence and your fingerprints are transferred to the evidence?

Back 385

Record it in your notes

Front 386

How do you “mark” items of evidence?

Back 386

Place your initials, date and time of discovery in a place that does not alter the appearance of the item

Front 387

Who can authorize the destruction of evidence in law enforcement storage?

Back 387

Staff judge advocate

Front 388

What is the goal behind employing blast and fragmentation mitigation?

Back 388

Reducing the number of casualties associated with terrorist bombings

Front 389

What type of barriers is typically employed for counter mobility or blast/fragmentation around entry control points and approach avenues?

Back 389

Concrete barriers

Front 390

What protection level is assigned to a resource that would result in great harm to the strategic capability of the United States if it were destroyed?

Back 390

Protection level 1

Front 391

Which is an example of a protection level 1 resource?

Back 391

Designated critical space and launch resources

Front 392

What would a close-in security area contain?

Back 392

Nuclear weapons

Front 393

What is an area that doesn’t fall under the jurisdiction of the DOD and is being secured to a off-base Air Force aircraft crash?

Back 393

National defense area

Front 394

Response force elements consist of how many personnel?

Back 394

15

Front 395

Which team is used exclusively for helping hand/covered wagon situations?

Back 395

3 person security response teams (SRT’s)

Front 396

Which team provides additional heavy weapon support?

Back 396

Mobile fire team

Front 397

Where does the two-person concept apply?

Back 397

No-lone zone

Front 398

What other areas are synonymous with “No-Lone Zones”?

Back 398

Close-in security and exclusion areas

Front 399

What is your function as the close-in-sentry for a “no-lone-zone”?

Back 399

Make sure that at least two authorized persons enter

Front 400

What purpose does security fencing serve at an area boundary?

Back 400

Legal and physical demarcation

Front 401

How big are the openings in chain-link type “A” fencing used at restricted areas?

Back 401

2 inches

Front 402

How high above the ground surface must type “A” fencing be at restricted areas?

Back 402

7 feet

Front 403

How close to the ground surface must type “A” fencing be at restricted areas?

Back 403

2 inches

Front 404

What is the minimum distance from the base perimeter a fence line for a restricted area can be located?

Back 404

250 feet

Front 405

What type of padlock is required on manually operated gates that do not have an electric lock?

Back 405

Type III

Front 406

What type of effect does restricted area lighting have on a possible intruder?

Back 406

Psychological

Front 407

What type of security lighting illuminates restricted area outer clear zones, fence lines, and sector zones?

Back 407

Boundary lighting

Front 408

What type of security lighting is used to illuminate the interior of the restricted area and aid in the detection and tracking of intruders after they have breached the restricted area?

Back 408

Area lighting

Front 409

How large is the clear zone between the inner and outer fence line around permanent restricted areas?

Back 409

30 feet

Front 410

Restricted area signs should be spaced at how many intervals along the restricted area boundary?

Back 410

100 feet

Front 411

Where are line sensors predominately used?

Back 411

Outdoors around perimeter of a restricted area

Front 412

What type of sensors uses magnetic switches and contacts installed on doors and windows?

Back 412

Mechanical sensors

Front 413

What type of sensors uses electromagnetic, microwave, ultrasonic, or infrared to detect movements?

Back 413

Volumetric sensor

Front 414

What is the meaning of immediate visual assessment?

Back 414

Visually assessing the cause of the alarm

Front 415

What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood?

Back 415

The community setting local police priorities

Front 416

What air force program was established by AFOSI that enlists the eyes and ears of the base populous and surrounding community in the war on terror?

Back 416

Eagle eyes

Front 417

Which community policing program encourages residents to permanently mark their property with an identifying number?

Back 417

Operation identification

Front 418

What is the main purpose of traffic enforcement?

Back 418

Reduce traffic violations

Front 419

What is the correct positioning of your vehicle in relation to the violators vehicle during a traffic stop?

Back 419

Two vehicle lengths behind and three feet to the left

Front 420

During a traffic stop, how often should you relay your status until you are physically clear of the stop?

Back 420

Every 5 minutes

Front 421

Where do you position yourself at the violator’s door during a traffic stop?

Back 421

At rear edge of the drivers door

Front 422

How many hours after an accident occurs must it be reported?

Back 422

72 hours

Front 423

What form is used to document all major vehicle accidents?

Back 423

AF Form 1315

Front 424

What should you be alert for when you approach a traffic accident?

Back 424

Vehicles fleeing the scene

Front 425

How should you position your vehicle at the scene of a traffic accident?

Back 425

To safeguard the scene

Front 426

What is the most important factor in directing vehicular traffic?

Back 426

Knowing where to stand

Front 427

Which of the following is a field sobriety test used by the Air Force?

Back 427

Walk and turn

Front 428

What is the minimum amount of clues a suspect must exhibit on the walk and turn field sobriety test to implicate at least a .10 BAC?

Back 428

2 clues

Front 429

What is the “distinct jerkiness at the maximum deviation” in the horizontal-gaze Nystagmus field sobriety test?

Back 429

Suspect’s eye jerks as the stimulus is held for a few seconds at a point where the eye has gone as far as it can

Front 430

What is the “onset of jerkiness to 45 degrees” in the in the horizontal-gaze Nystagmus field sobriety test?

Back 430

A point where the eye starts jerking, which indicated the sooner the jerking the higher the BAC

Front 431

What form is used to record the results of performance tests and other data conducted on people who are suspected to be under the influence of alcohol?

Back 431

DD Form 1920

Front 432

How many clues are possible on the horizontal-gaze Nystagmus field sobriety test?

Back 432

6 clues

Front 433

How far from the suspect’s eye should you hold the stimulus of the horizontal-gaze Nystagmus?

Back 433

12 to 15 inches

Front 434

What does the angle of onset nystagmus refer to?

Back 434

The point at which the eye is first seen jerking

Front 435

Anyone who operates a motor vehicle on a military base is deemed to have given consent to a chemical test of blood, breath, or urine to determine alcohol and/or drug content. What is this called?

Back 435

Implied consent policy

Front 436

Which breath instrument uses chemicals to test blood alcohol content?

Back 436

Breathalyzer

Front 437

What is the most accurate test to determine blood alcohol content?

Back 437

Blood

Front 438

What two factors would produce high breath test results?

Back 438

Residual mouth alcohol and breath contaminant

Front 439

What is the first step in writing a report?

Back 439

Gather the facts

Front 440

What is the next step to report writing after you write the report?

Back 440

Evaluate the report

Front 441

Which report is an official/permanent record of events?

Back 441

AF Form 3545, incident report

Front 442

If you write a report that is no opinionated, fair, and impartial, you’re fulfilling which characteristic of a well written report?

Back 442

Objective

Front 443

Which sentence is an example of an active voice?

Back 443

SSgt Smith searched Amn Jones

Front 444

What would indicate whether you use one form per item or record several items of evidence in the AF Form 52, evidence tag?

Back 444

Circumstances of the acquisition

Front 445

When used to record receipt of evidence or acquitted property, where do you affix the first copy of the AF Form 52?

Back 445

Attached to the item

Front 446

Where does the second copy of the AF Form 52 go?

Back 446

The person relinquishing the property

Front 447

How long after the last entry are AF Form 1109, visitor registration logs maintained?

Back 447

90 days

Front 448

What happens to the pink copy of the DD Form 1408, armed forces traffic ticket?

Back 448

It’s given to the violator with written reporting instructions on the back of the copy

Front 449

What form is used when releasing a detained individual to another competent authority?

Back 449

DD Form 2708

Front 450

What is a TA 312?

Back 450

Telephone

Front 451

What types of service functions are available on the TA 312 selector switch?

Back 451

Common battery, local battery, and common battery signaling

Front 452

How many BA 30 batteries are needed to power the TA 312?

Back 452

2

Front 453

Which selector switch position on the TA 312 provides battery power for voice?

Back 453

Common Battery Signaling

Front 454

What must the user ensure when operation the TA 312 in the common battery or common battery signal mode with the H-60 handset?

Back 454

INT-EXT switch is on INT

Front 455

The first step in connecting the line to the TA-312 is?

Back 455

strip away 1 inch of insulation from he ends of the two wires

Front 456

To operate the TA-312/PT in LB mode you must?

Back 456

place the INT?EXT switch to INT position

Front 457

When operating the SB-22 the operator uses the generator hand wheel to?

Back 457

signal the called party when calls are extended

Front 458

After you locate a grounding site and dig your hole, drive the grounding rod in until the?

Back 458

top of the grounding rod is about 3 inches above the bottom of the hole

Front 459

When should hard wire lines be inspected?

Back 459

Before installation and daily when installed

Front 460

When confronted with a culvert obstacle while running field wire, the wire?

Back 460

should be passed through a culvert, if possible

Front 461

What is a hot loop?

Back 461

continuous line connected to every phone and switchboard

Front 462

Why should you recover field wire after an operation?

Back 462

So the next deployment squad doesn't use it

Front 463

After the conductors have been cut, how many inches should they be staggered when splicing field wire?

Back 463

6 inches

Front 464

Which channel on the analog/portable radio communications (AN/PRC) 139 is reserved for priority use?

Back 464

Channel 1

Front 465

To remove the antenna from the receiver of an (AN/PRC) 139 you must?

Back 465

turn the antenna clockwise

Front 466

During initial power up, how many seconds will the frequency fill device execute a display segment?

Back 466

1 second

Front 467

What is the RX IF bandwidth programmable for?

Back 467

136-174 MHz receiver

Front 468

Which statement is a step in base-station installation?

Back 468

Installing the power supply

Front 469

When installing the power supply, select a flat surface?

Back 469

6 feet from the base station

Front 470

Where is the guard receiver-transmitter installed in the base station

Back 470

Left Side

Front 471

When is the programming cable used with the base station?

Back 471

For external programming of the portable radio communication (PRC 139)

Front 472

What is one of the causes for failure of the PTT button on the (PRC 139)

Back 472

Dirt

Front 473

What has the tendency to cause rusting and malfunctions in radios?

Back 473

submersion in 6 inches of water

Front 474

what is the first step in erecting the antenna mast?

Back 474

Selecting an unobstructed site

Front 475

How many personnel are required to erect the assembled antenna mast?

Back 475

Two

Front 476

One of the elements of signal operating instructions is?

Back 476

complete supplemental instructions

Front 477

Signal operating instructions (SOI) will allow base defense forces to ensure that communications are?

Back 477

speedy and simplistic

Front 478

Which of the concepts listed is necessary for effective communications?

Back 478

brevity codes

Front 479

One of the three rules to remember when using the Authentication Sheet is to?

Back 479

remember the last letter you receive must be an even and set

Front 480

What action or initiative provides the means for joint forces to dictate battlespace operations?

Back 480

Offensive

Front 481

One of the ways responsiveness is achieved is through?

Back 481

early detection of the threat

Front 482

how many basic fundamentals of defense are there?

Back 482

5

Front 483

For defense to be effective, it must have?

Back 483

depth

Front 484

Who provides the foundation of the integrated base defense concept?

Back 484

Security Forces

Front 485

Under which phase of integrated base defense do we tailor defense plans to proactively counter enemy threats?

Back 485

Understand First

Front 486

Which principle of MOOTW applies appropriate military capability prudently?

Back 486

Restraint

Front 487

How many types of military operations other than war do not involve combat?

Back 487

6

Front 488

Which military operations other than war uses physical presence to demonstrate US resolve?

Back 488

Show of force

Front 489

What is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?

Back 489

Department of State

Front 490

What is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur inside of the US?

Back 490

Department of Justice

Front 491

Aircraft are the preferred hijacking target of terrorist, however, they have also hijacked?

Back 491

Ships

Front 492

Terrorist in the future may be more likely to use chemical and biological weapons because?

Back 492

the cost is cheap and they are easily available

Front 493

What are terrorists most important gain even when the actual mission fails?

Back 493

Publicity

Front 494

Which terrorist group operates independently?

Back 494

State supported

Front 495

Which terrorist group operates Autonomously?

Back 495

Non-State Supported

Front 496

Which terrorist group operates as an agent of the government?

Back 496

state directed

Front 497

How many force protection conditions are there?

Back 497

5

Front 498

Which force protection condition is a terrorist action against installations and personnel imminent?

Back 498

Charlie

Front 499

What threat assessment factor exists when there are confirmed intentions of a terrorist group?

Back 499

Intentions

Front 500

Existence or capability must be present, and history may or may not be present in threat level?

Back 500

low

Front 501

Which of the following security disciplines is closely coordinated with Operations Security?

Back 501

Information Security

Front 502

Denying exploitation of open source information is the primary focus of OPSEC?

Back 502

analysis

Front 503

OPSEC enables friendly force information superiority by?

Back 503

neutralizing adversary information activities

Front 504

What is the last step in the OPSEC process?

Back 504

Application of appropriate measures

Front 505

Specific items of information are usually only critical for a prescribed?

Back 505

Period of time

Front 506

The centerpiece of OPSEC is?

Back 506

risk management

Front 507

Masking and controlling friendly actions to prevent the collection of critical information is?

Back 507

the primary goal of OPSEC

Front 508

Which aircraft is a low density/high demand asset?

Back 508

U-2

Front 509

What does a surge trigger point show?

Back 509

requirements begin to exceed the capabilities of the two AEF's and available LD/HD forces

Front 510

Which base is austerely manned but is capable of expanding into a full scale air base operation?

Back 510

Limited base

Front 511

An effective tool to control air base defense operations is?

Back 511

base sectorization

Front 512

What should a flight sector sketch show?

Back 512

flight and squadron identification

Front 513

When did the US ratify the Geneva Conventions for the Protection of War Victims?

Back 513

12 august 1949

Front 514

The Geneva Conventions became effective in?

Back 514

1956

Front 515

What is the fifth step in Captives, Detainees, and Prisoners (CDP's) processing?

Back 515

Safeguard

Front 516

Which part of the Captives, Detainees, and Prisoners (CDP's) capture tag is retained by the capturing unit?

Back 516

Part B

Front 517

To avoid receiving and electrical shock when disconnecting the battery from the Electronic Security System (ESS)?

Back 517

remove the positive lead first

Front 518

How can we enhance assessment of intrusions using Electronic Security System (ESS)?

Back 518

Wide area surveillance thermal imager (WSTI)

Front 519

The area of Electronic Security System (ESS)? that includes thermal imigers to assist in identifying the source of an alarm is called?

Back 519

Assessment

Front 520

Which Electronic Security System (ESS) function provides transmission of data between the sensors and annunciators?

Back 520

Communication

Front 521

How do you reset the mini portable monitor after an alarm is received?

Back 521

Shake it or turn the unit upside down

Front 522

Where does the security forces member begin the 50 meter overlapping strip method of search?

Back 522

The terrain nearest to his or her position

Front 523

The majority of targets detected on the battlefield are due to?

Back 523

improper camouflage

Front 524

When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is?

Back 524

Aiming point

Front 525

If a soldier adapts to the dark before donning goggles, the individual gains full dark adaptation within?

Back 525

2 minutes after removing the goggles

Front 526

When burying the mini magnetic sensor, how deep must you bury the magnetic sensor head?

Back 526

6-8 inches deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach

Front 527

The components that make up the Mini Active Infrared Detection sensor are?

Back 527

an emitter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

Front 528

What type of protection does the 385 monostatic microwave sensor provide?

Back 528

Three dimensional protection in outdoor environments

Front 529

Microwave sensors are relatively insensitive to?

Back 529

rain, snow, vibration, and small wind blown objects

Front 530

Which sensor system alarms only if an object breaks more than 98.5% of at least one beam?

Back 530

ECSI Active Infared Sensor

Front 531

When the Wide-Area Surveillance Thermal Imager (WSTI) tripos is fully extended, it is 20ft high and the legs are approximately?

Back 531

20 ft apart at the base

Front 532

The surface that supports the (WSTI) display control unit must be able to handle?

Back 532

200 Lbs

Front 533

What component do we use to adjust the elevation on the AN/PVS-4 night vision sight?

Back 533

Reticle Adjustments

Front 534

How do we clean the AN/PVS-4 night vision sight metal surfaces?

Back 534

Lint Free Cloth

Front 535

What is the most common method of employing the AN/PVS-7 night vision goggle?

Back 535

Facemask centered on forehead

Front 536

Why do we use demist shields on the AN/PVS-7 night vision goggle?

Back 536

Prevent foggy lenses

Front 537

What part of the AN/PVS-7 night vision goggle does the sacrificial window protect?

Back 537

Glass objective lens

Front 538

One ancillary function of the Hand Held Thermal Imager is?

Back 538

any monitor can be used in conjunction with the system

Front 539

What is the disadvantage of direct observation?

Back 539

Physical condition of the observer may affect the power of observation

Front 540

What do we call arranging material around an object so that it appears to be part of the background?

Back 540

Blending

Front 541

Approximately how long does it take for your eyes to get accustomed to the lack of light?

Back 541

30 min

Front 542

When camouflaging your skin around the eyes, nose, and chin, use?

Back 542

Light colors

Front 543

One of the simplest ways to distort the outline of a weapon is?

Back 543

Wrap it with burlap garnishing or strips of dyed cloth

Front 544

For camouflage of your equipment to be successful it mus?

Back 544

blend with its surroundings

Front 545

What could you use as a hasty firing position in built up areas?

Back 545

roof

Front 546

While on the offensive, the squad uses obstacles to?

Back 546

isolate objectives

Front 547

What principle of employment reduces the enemy's ability to remove or breach obstacles?

Back 547

Covered by observation and fire

Front 548

When setting up a concertina roadblock, place the concertina rolls or coils about?

Back 548

10 meters in depth

Front 549

Surface trip flares outwardly resemble?

Back 549

antipersonnel mines

Front 550

How much candlepower illumination does the M49A1 give off?

Back 550

40,000

Front 551

What is the purpose of the safety clip on the M49A1?

Back 551

Secures the spoon

Front 552

When moving tactically, your survival depends largely on your ability to?

Back 552

execute basic movements

Front 553

An example of artificial cover is a?

Back 553

Foxhole

Front 554

What type of cover are ravines, reverse slopes and hollows?

Back 554

Artificial

Front 555

Bushes, grass and shadows are examples of?

Back 555

Natural cover

Front 556

Which movement technique is preferred when you are under enemy observation or fire?

Back 556

Crawl

Front 557

Allowing your weapon to extend past the edge of a corner we call?

Back 557

Flagging

Front 558

What position should you assume to observe around corners of buildings?

Back 558

Prone

Front 559

Which method do you use to clear a corner when speed is required?

Back 559

Pie-ing

Front 560

Likelihood of enemy contact are divided into what three categories?

Back 560

not likely, possible and expected

Front 561

What areas do you avoid because they outline you against the lighter sky?

Back 561

Skylines

Front 562

Squads use movement techniques to?

Back 562

Traverse terrain

Front 563

Factors we use to determine movement techniques are control, dispersion, speed and?

Back 563

Security

Front 564

Which movement technique doe we use when speed is essential and enemy contact is not likely?

Back 564

traveling

Front 565

In the traveling formation the team leader is best located?

Back 565

With the fire team

Front 566

In the traveling overwatch formation, the trailing fire team is located?

Back 566

50 meters behind the lead fire team

Front 567

When moving as a fire team in an urban area, the fire team crosses open areas?

Back 567

in a group

Front 568

In a near ambush, when do airman in the kill zone assault through the ambush, using fire and movement?

Back 568

immediately

Front 569

What are the two basic formations for an ambush?

Back 569

Linear and L-shaped

Front 570

When does the security element rejoin the flight after a hasty ambush?

Back 570

Before the force leader clears the kill zone

Front 571

What is a retrograde operation?

Back 571

Organized movement to the rear or away from the enemy

Front 572

Which rally point is tentative until the objecftive is pinpointed?

Back 572

Objective

Front 573

How does the leader prevent vehicles from sky-lining?

Back 573

Make us of natural cover and concealment

Front 574

Which method of movement is used when enemy contact is possible and speed is desirable?

Back 574

Traveling overwatch

Front 575

If vehicles are not already painted to blend with the terrain, what can you use to break the outline?

Back 575

Mud

Front 576

One advantage to pulling vehicles to the shoulder of the road in a herringbone pattern is?

Back 576

volume and density of organic weapons is higher

Front 577

An effective way to decrease damage by mines in convoy operations is?

Back 577

wear protective equipment

Front 578

How are map editions numbered if you have more than one edition?

Back 578

Numbered consecutively

Front 579

In the marginal information, where is the elevation guide normally found?

Back 579

Lower right margin

Front 580

What is the framework of the map?

Back 580

Projection System

Front 581

Where can you find the note indicating a maps security classification?

Back 581

Upper and lower margins

Front 582

Two minor terrain features are the?

Back 582

Draw and Spur

Front 583

What terrain feature is an area of low ground surrounded by higher ground in all directions?

Back 583

Depression

Front 584

What do contour lines show you when you look at a map?

Back 584

Relief and elevation on a standard map

Front 585

What does the term SOSES Stand for?

Back 585

Shape, orientations, sizes, elevations, and slopes

Front 586

The primary purpose of a profile is to determine if?

Back 586

A line of sight is available

Front 587

A rough (4-digit) grid coordinate puts you within approximately?

Back 587

1,000 meters of the point you want to identify

Front 588

A refined (6-digit) grid coordinate puts you within approximately?

Back 588

100 meters of the point you want to identify

Front 589

What is the most common unit of measure used in expressing direction?

Back 589

Degree

Front 590

What part of a map is located in the lower margin of large scale maps and indicates the angular relationships of true north, grid north, magnetic north?

Back 590

Declination diagram

Front 591

What color on a map represents special features?

Back 591

Red

Front 592

What color on a map is used for the symbol of a creek or spring?

Back 592

Blue

Front 593

What color on a map represents orchards and vineyards?

Back 593

Green

Front 594

What color on a map illustrates contour lines?

Back 594

Brown

Front 595

What color on a map is used on the symbol of a railroad?

Back 595

Black

Front 596

Where on a topographical map would you find information to help you convert map distances to group distances?

Back 596

Bar Scale

Front 597

On a topographical map, what is indicated by short arcs of vertical green lines?

Back 597

High grass areas

Front 598

On a topographical map, what is indicated by blue dots with a short, wavy line coming out if it?

Back 598

Spring

Front 599

Two roughly parallel streams cutting draws down the side of a ridge usually form what?

Back 599

Spur

Front 600

What are contour lines used to determine?

Back 600

Elevation

Front 601

What type of contour line represents every fifth line starting from zero elevation or sea level?

Back 601

Index

Front 602

How would you read a topographical map to determine a grid coordinate?

Back 602

Left to right, Bottom to top

Front 603

How close will a rough 4-digit grid coordinate get you to a specific point?

Back 603

1000meters

Front 604

What are the tic marks on the outermost edge of a protractor measured in?

Back 604

Mils

Front 605

How are true north lines indicated in the declination diagram of a topographical map?

Back 605

They are capped with a star

Front 606

How is magnetic north symbolized on a topographical map?

Back 606

With a half arrow

Front 607

How is Grid North depicted on a topographical map?

Back 607

With a Y

Front 608

What is the safe clearing distance from a truck, tank, or field gun in reference to interference with a compass' operation?

Back 608

18 meters

Front 609

What is the most stable way to hold a compass to check or set an azimuth?

Back 609

Centerhold method

Front 610

If your presetting your azimuth by the click method, how do you determine the number of clicks to rotate the bezel ring?

Back 610

Divide your azimuth by 3

Front 611

What method are you using when you calculate your own location on a map by determining the grid azimuth to at least two well defined or easily recognized locations that you can pinpoint on the map?

Back 611

Resection

Front 612

What is the first step for a navigator when using terrain to navigate?

Back 612

Orient the map

Front 613

The meter scale used in air base defense operations and is usually for distances that run out to?

Back 613

5,000 meters

Front 614

The bezel ring is a ratchet device that when rotated fully?

Back 614

contains 120 clicks; each click is equal to 3 degrees

Front 615

To ensure proper functioning of a compass, the safe separation distance from telephone wire is?

Back 615

10 meters

Front 616

One of the most important parts to inspect on the compass is the?

Back 616

Floating Dial

Front 617

How often must you check your compass on a known line of direction?

Back 617

Periodically

Front 618

During limited visibility, to preset your azimuth by the click method, find the desired azimuth then?

Back 618

divide by 3

Front 619

Why would you use the deliberate offset method to set an azimuth to one side fo your target?

Back 619

to compensate for possible compass or map errors

Front 620

Which method lets you locate a position using two well defined locations pinpointed on a map?

Back 620

resection

Front 621

What method of navigation would you use when the area you are moving through is devoid of features or when visibility is low?

Back 621

Dead reckoning

Front 622

What are linear features like roads and highways, railroads, power transmission lines, ridge lines or streams that run roughly parallel to your direction of travel?

Back 622

Handrails

Front 623

What does the term OCOKA stand for?

Back 623

Observation/fields of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach

Front 624

What is the purpose of observation?

Back 624

see the enemy but not be seen by the enemy

Front 625

What is the first step in navigating using terrain association?

Back 625

orient your map to the terrain you see

Front 626

What mnemonic is being used when leaders consider tactical factors other than military aspects of terrain in conjunction with terrain during movement planning and execution?

Back 626

METT-TC

Front 627

What is the function of the obstacle?

Back 627

disrupt, turn, fix, or block

Front 628

What are the two types of obstacles?

Back 628

Existing and reinforcing