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87 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
If engine shutdown or failure occurs in flight, consider the use of crossfeed to balance the fuel load, unless fuel system contamination is suspected.
T/F |
True
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The base of the emergency escape hatch is 4.5 (1 Nolta) above the ground with the landing gear extended, use caution when using the exit.
T/F |
True
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With dual remote tuning unit (RTU) failure, how can VHF guard (121.5) be tuned?
|
Pulling and resetting the VHF circuit breaker
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NAV auto-tuning is disabled when the RMT TUNE switch is in the DSABL position.
T/F |
True
|
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How will you know if you have an AIR Data Computer (ADC) failure?
|
Boxed ADC on the altitude and MACH/speed indicators
Audible warning "ADC failure" |
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If a tire failure occurs after S1, ___
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Do not retract the gear and burn down fuel
Do not change the flap configuration |
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Securing an engine after a failure/fire on takeoff should not be accomplished prior to ___
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400ft AGL (1500 optional)
Clear of obstructions |
|
If an engine fire occurs immediately after takeoff when using the ACM OFF procedure, the bleed air selector may be turned to NORM at any time.
T/F |
False
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If a spin is entered (how do you recover): ___
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Simultaneously reduce power to idle, apply full rudder opposite spin direction, forward elevator control and neutral roll control
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During a windmilling airstart, should the temperature rise indicate a hot start, place the throttle to CUTOFF and windmill the engine for ___ second before attempting another start.
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30
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When both generator master switches are placed to EMER and the battery selected OFF, all electrical power except ___ is lost.
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DC standby power
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If the AIR COND FAIL annunciator illuminates, the system will switch from normal to emergency pressure mode automatically.
T/F |
True
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The emergency descent procedures are intended to be used for a maximum rate descent to quickly escape the high altitude environment.
T/F |
True
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Initiate the level-off after an emergency descent only when pressurization is no longer required.
T/F |
False
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During a controllability check, the aircraft speed should be decreased to a point where full control deflection is required to maintain controlled flight.
T/F |
False
|
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Do not attempt an actual single engine go-around after selecting flaps to 30.
T/F |
True
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To execute a forced landing with no power ___
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High Key 4000ft AGL over landing area
Low Key 2000ft AGL abeam landing area Gear should be lowered at high key or delayed if altitude is low to make low key on alt |
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When accomplishing a side window landing, landing distance will increase approximately ___
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20%
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If the landing gear cannot be extended, secure all loose equipment and make a normal approach with a 10 flap setting
T/F |
False
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Prior to contacting the water during a ditching maneuver, all crew members except the pilot should unstrap in order to provide the quickest escape.
T/F |
False
|
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Electrical loads up to ___ amps are permissible for single generator operation above 32,500ft
|
280
|
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If cruising below 32,500ft, single generator operation load capacity is ___ amps.
|
400
|
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When both generator master switches are placed to EMER, ___
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Both the battery feed emergency bus and DC standby bus are powered
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When both generator master switches and the battery switch are placed in EMER, the engine anti-ice valves will ___
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Open
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During a dual generator failure situation, if the generators fail to reset and flight conditions permit, attempt to reset by turning both generator switches OFF, and reset them one at a time.
T/F |
True
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Illumination of the AC BUS SHED annunciator is advisory only and indicates a combination inverter/load bus malfunction that will result in the loss of flap position indicator and both oil pressure indicators.
T/F |
True
|
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Which of the following will cause the BATTERY FDR FAIL light on the over(nugget) panel to illuminate?
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Failure of the emergency bus feeder
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When the BATT CUT-OFF annunciator is illuminated, it means the battery ___
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relay is open
|
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The following hydraulic powered systems will not be functional when electrical power is lost___
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Normal landing gear extension
Flaps Speed brakes Anti-skid system |
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If one hydraulic pump fails, ___
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All hydraulic systems will operate normally
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Flight in visible moisture without pitot heat may result in erratic operation of the airspeed/mach indicator.
T/F |
True
|
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When using the horizontal stabilizer deice backup switch, activate the system every ___
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2 minutes
|
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The AIR COND FAIL annunciator will illuminate when the air conditioning system ___
|
Temp exceeds 400F
Pressure exceeds 53psi |
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Land as soon as possible:
|
An emergency will be declared
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During a Tailpipe Fire (on the ground), typically, there will be ___ to the aircrew
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No indication visible
|
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During a Tailpipe Fire (on the ground), if the LH/RH ENG FIRE PUSH annunciator illuminates, the fire ___.
|
Has spread beyond the tailpipe. Accomplish the Engine Fire During Ground Operations checklist
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Emergency braking is accomplished with ___
|
stored nitrogen pressure
|
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The emergency brake cylinder provides pressure for ___
|
At leaset 7 applications
|
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The parking brake may not be functional when hydraulic pressure is lost.
T/F |
True
|
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___ protection is not available during emergency braking
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Anti-skid
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Emergency ground egress
Do not endanger crew and passengers in an attempt to accomplish all items of this checklist. ___ |
Primary consideration should be given to safely evacuating the aircraft
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If a malfunction occurs with an associated loss of brakes, immediately ___
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place the anti skid switch to the off position
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To maximum brake properly, immediately ___
|
depress the toe brakes fully in one smooth continuous application
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If gear is retracted with a blown tire, possible damage to the wheel well area could occur.
T/F |
True
|
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Passing Vco + ___ retract the flaps. At Vco + ___ set MCT power and continue climb at Vco + ___ to 2200 feet above airfield elevation.
|
10
15 15 |
|
Single engine best rate of climb speed:
|
170
|
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The ACM must remain OFF until ___ or ___ which ever is ___, to assure aircraft performance.
|
2200ft AGL
Clear of obstacles Higher |
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Securing the engine should not be accomplished prior to reaching ___ and ___.
|
400ft AGL
Clear of obstructions |
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If fuel crossfeed is required, the ___ must be turned ___ to ensure crossfeed capability
|
Boost pump
On |
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If the engine is being shutdown with no mechanical difficulty, ___
|
stabilize ITT at IDLE thrust for 1 minute
|
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What is used for all inflight starter assisted air starts? (regardless of the position of the GEN Reset)
|
Battery Power
|
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A relight should normally be obtained within ___ seconds after the ___ is positioned to ___ and will be confirmed by fuel flow indication and increase in rpm and ITT
|
10
Throttle IDLE |
|
Windmilling Airstart
In the event of a hot start, ___ |
Windmill engine for 30 seconds before attempting another start
|
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Do not reset a popped circuit breaker in the fuel system
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Do not reset a popped circuit breaker in the fuel system
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With the EFC off, the throttle ___
|
angle to achieve similar thrust settings will be different
|
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If the L OR R F FLTR BYPASS annunciator illuminates:
|
Land as soon as posible
Unfiltered fuel is being supplied to the engine |
|
While operating on emergency and/or standby power, what hydraulic powered systems will not be functional?
|
Normal landing gear extension
Flaps Speed brakes Anti-skid systems |
|
Do not reset popped BUS FDR circuit breakers
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Do not reset popped BUS FDR circuit breakers
|
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BATTERY FDR FAIL
|
Battery feeder protection circuit has lost power
|
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BATTERY FDR FAIL + EMER BUS FDR FAIL
|
Emergency bus feeder circuit has failed
Emergency bus is powered by the Left Load bus only |
|
BATTERY FDR FAIL + EMER BUS FDR FAIL + BATT CUT OFF
|
Battery Relay is open
Battery cutoff from system |
|
Electrical Fire
If it has not or cannot be visibly verified that the fire is extinguished, |
land as soon as possible
|
|
The extinguishing agent and its combustion products can produce toxic effects if inhaled.
T/F |
True
|
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When the trim interrupt switch is engaged, all trim systems except the emergency pitch trim are ___
|
interrupted and the autopilot and yaw damper are diesngaged.
|
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Can you engage the autopilot with the pitch trim selector switch in EMER?
|
No
|
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If aircrew suspects a binding control surface, visually ___
|
ensure that the autopilot switch is disengaged.
|
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Observe maximum speed limits appropriate to flap position of the ___. The flap position indicator shows position of ___.
|
most extended flaps
right flap only |
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With speed brakes extened, do not ___
|
extend flaps beyond 10 degrees
|
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Controllability Check
The aircraft must never be decreased to the point at which ___ |
full control deflection is required
|
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With all occupants breathing oxygen, attempt to keep the cabin at or below ___ft, but in no case allow it to exceed ___ft.
|
18k
25k |
|
Prolonged use of emergency pressurization can result in the __
|
melting of aircraft trim panels near the rear bulkhead and potential smoke and fumes in the cockpit
|
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If the AIR COND FAIL annunciator illuminates, the system will ___
|
switch from normal to emergency pressure mode automatically
|
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Cracking of the thin outer glass ply layer presents ___ but can significantly ___
|
no structural integrity problems
impede vision through the windshield |
|
If aircraft structural failure is suspected, limit the ___
|
maximum airspeed to the current airspeed or as appropriate
|
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Normally, single-engine landings will be made with flaps set at ___ degrees with an approach speed of ___ KIAS
|
10
Vref+10 |
|
Side window landing
Landing will increase |
Approximately 20%
|
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After prolonged flight in cold temperaures, followed by rapid descent, ___ when gear down is selected.
|
one or both H PMP PRESS LO annunciators may illuminate momentarily
|
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Without hydraulic pressure, the following systems will be inoperative:
|
Flaps, Landing gear normal extension, Anti-skid, Power brakes, and Speed brakes
|
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For 0 hydraulic pressure, increase computed 30 flap landing distance by ___ due to ___
|
90%
the increased threshold speed of a flaps up landing |
|
Landing with Nose Gear Up and both Main Gear Down
|
Gently fly the nose down to the runway
Do not drop the nose down to the runway Do not drop the nose abruptly to the landing surface |
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If any ice accumulation is visible on the leading edges, use ___
|
10 flaps for landing
|
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Approach airspeed of ___ is required for ice accumulation of approximately 1.5 inches. Accumulation of less than 1.5 inches may allow approach airspeeds slower than ___ if no aerodynamic buffet is observed.
|
Vapp+35
Vapp+35 |
|
When landing with a flat nose tire, ___
|
Move weight to rear
Hold nose of aircraft off of runway as long as possible |
|
AIR COND FAIL
|
Temp >400F
PSI >53 |
|
BL AIR DCT FAIL
|
PSI 3.5+-0.5
Temp > 350F |
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DEFOG AIR OV HT
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Defog air Temp >200F
|
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CABIN AIR OV HT
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Cabin area high temp in excess of 235F
|