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1963 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Aiming
Stock Weld |
is the exact placement of the cheek against the stock of the rifle. The head should be as erect as possible so Seabees look straight out the aiming eye and straight through the rear sight aperture.
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Convoy
Warning order |
is issued to alert units that will participate in the planned moved. It states the general purpose of the convoy, the destination, the type of movement, and the approximate schedule.
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Define camouflage:
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Anything you use to keep yourself, your equipment, and your position from looking like what they really are. You can use natural and man-made materials for camouflage.
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Heat stroke is:
|
This is a medical emergency and can be fatal if not treated promptly and correctly. It is caused by a failure of the body's cooling mechanisms. Inadequate sweating is a factor.
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Identify the Symptoms of Heat stroke:
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Check for flushed, hot and dry skin, dizziness, confusion, headaches, seizures, nausea, rapid respiration, and rapid and weak pulse.
Look for sudden unconsciousness or collapse. |
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The RRR DAT gathers two types of information: the locations of _______________ and __________________.
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Pavement damage
UXO |
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Company Commanders use a level ____to track a project’s progress
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2
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Safety plans prevent:
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Personal injury, material and equipment damage
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What is station #2 in a personnel decontamination site?
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Overboot and hood Decon
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How many M43A1 detectors can be attached to one M42 alarm ?
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5
|
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What type of delivery system uses compressed air to disseminate chemical agents?
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Dispersion
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At what level of decontamination do you spray down equipment and perform a Personal wipe-down (without changing CPO Suits or setting up Decon Lines)
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Immediate
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Blood agents enter the body through?
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Inhalation
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Pure Energy Radiation is:
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Gamma
|
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What is the frequency range of the RT-1523?
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30 - 87.975 MHz
|
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For what purpose is the SB 22/PT used in field communications?
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Interconnecting voice circuits
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The COMSEC mission for monitoring communications for security purposes goes by what codename?
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BEADWINDOW
|
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What is the maximum number of vehicles in a unit column?
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10
|
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What determines the speed a convoy travels at?
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speed of the slowest vehicle
|
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A configured standard container is________ and contains _________?
|
20’Lx 8’Wx 8’H
cabinetry |
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The color code for this road condition is:
Relatively safe from hostile activity |
Green
|
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How many categories of HAZMAT are there?
|
6
|
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What are the qualities of the modern Navy/Marine Corps team that make it so capable of implementing our nations defense policies?
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Readiness
Flexibility self-sustainability mobility |
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Which principle of war involves concentrating combat power at a decisive time & place?
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Mass
|
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Amphibious Warfare, Expeditionary Warfare & Littoral Operations are all examples of?
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Naval operations
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Which area of naval doctrine is defined as “the exercise of authority and direction by a properly designated commander over assigned forces in the accomplishment of a mission?
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Naval command and control
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Who has responsibility for the safety of personnel and equipment in the command ?
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CO
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The term “confined space” is defined as:
|
a. A space not intended for frequent entry.
b. A space that could have limited air flow or may be oxygen deficient. c. A space where poisonous gasses can accumulate. |
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Who can certify a Confined space for safe entry?
|
A certified Gas Free Engineer or Confined Space Program Manager
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When should a person be entered into the hearing conservation program?
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When they are exposed to a noise level greater than 84dbA.
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The form OPNAV 5100/11 Report of Unsafe Unhealthful Working Conditions is used to:
|
Report of unhealthful conditions that are not being properly corrected by the chain of command.
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What are the symptoms of hypothermia?
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Look for shivering (the body's attempt to generate heat).
Look for faint or irregular pulse. Look for drowsiness, mental slowness, stiffness, and uncoordinated movement with minimal function. Look for shock, glassy eyes, slow and shallow breathing, and weak or undetectable pulse. Check for unconsciousness. |
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Deep frostbite (freezing) preceded by superficial frostbite involves:
|
freezing of the tissue below the skin, and possibly even muscles and bone.
|
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Identify the five colors of a map and what each color represents.
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Black - represents man-made features such as buildings, roads, trails, power lines, mines, and towers
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TA-312 selector switch is a three-position switch that permits a carrier of electrical current.
CBS: |
Common Battery Signaling (CBS) setting is used where power for signaling is provided by a switchboard.
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There are two types of COMSEC keys, referred to as:
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TEK's and KEK's
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P PRIORITY is a precedence significant within the organization (troop movement, displacements, tactical maneuvers, position reports, ammo reports). Action is to be taken within:
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three hours from the time of receipt.
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(BT) is used to separate the heading of the message from the text. What does BT stand for?
|
Break (BT)
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The 4 Classifications on a message are:
|
TOPSEC
SECRET CONF UNCLAS |
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While on Patrol, report any enemy activity using a _________ report.
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SALUTE
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As the enemy approaches an LP/OP, the security post personnel give warnings and observe the enemy strength, actions, and routes of approach. They avoid _______ and ________ as the enemy closes.
|
Combat
Withdraw |
|
Tactical wire entanglements are sited parallel to and along the friendly side of the __________. They are used to break up enemy attack formations and to hold the enemy in areas : ___________ .
|
final protective line
covered by the most intense defensive fire. |
|
Protective wire is normally constructed using the _________fence or
the __________fence. |
triple standard concertina
double apron |
|
If contact is made with the enemy during a patrol, they must conduct what?
|
Immediate action drills
|
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What are the four types of IDF missions?
|
Adjust Fire
Fire for Effect Suppress Fire Immediate Suppression. |
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DANGER CLOSE situation: Mortars within ____m, artillery within _____m, or naval guns within _____m.
|
400
600 750 |
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What is the EAP?
|
Emergency Action Plan
COC personnel must do whatever is necessary to ensure that enemy does not take possession of usable COMSEC. |
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What frequency is the AN/PRC-150?
|
HF
|
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What is HF Data?
|
The PRC-150 is the recent HF radio that is used to transmit and receive data in ciphered text.
WMT (Wireless Messaging Terminal) is the program used which basically merges the HF radio with Microsoft outlook. |
|
What is NSN?
|
The NSN (National Stock Number) is a 13‑digit Stock number assigned by the Defense Logistics Services Center (DLSC)
|
|
What is the AEL?
|
Allowance Equipage List, are prepared for various categories of equipage, and operating systems. Items described in an AEL generally are operating space items, such as equipment in the shipfitter or electrical shop.
|
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What is NIS?
|
Not in Stock
|
|
Items considered essential for the protection of life, requiring custodial signature, and special management control, are classified as
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Controlled Equipage
|
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What are the duties of the S-1?
|
Maintain custody and control of classified material, and registered publications.
Provide sample messages Pay and Service Records SGLI, Page 2 |
|
The ____ Officer is the communications officer.
|
S-6
|
|
What are the duties of Medical?
|
Shots / Immunizations
Medical records Disinfect Water bulls |
|
A major mishap involving a fatality or sexual assault/rape of a civilian by a military member would likely be reported using an______
|
OPREP
|
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What are the 4 elements in a MAGTF?
|
(1) Command Element (CE).
(2) Ground Combat Element (GCE). (3) Aviation Combat Element (ACE). (4) Combat Service Support Element (CSSE). |
|
Who is responsible for ensuring all workplaces receive a general safety inspection at least annually?
|
CO
|
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Who has the responsibility for planning all work assignments with full consideration of the required protective equipment and safeguards that will be required?
|
Company Commander
|
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Death from a mishap or the complication arising as a result of a mishap is the definition of a/an :
|
Fatal injury or occupational illness
|
|
The final responsibility for ensuring that an investigation of a mishap is completed and that a report is submitted rests with the
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Parent Command
|
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Each command must develop a written guideline covering respirator selection, care, issue and use; this guideline is called a/an :
|
Standard Operating Procedure
|
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A lockout device can be any device that is designed to secure a switch, valve or similar equipment in a/an
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Off or safe position
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Giving an ________person any food or drink by mouth can cause vomiting. If the victim vomits, the vomited material may enter the lungs. This could cause the victim to choke to death
|
unconscious
|
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_________burns are caused by clothing fires, contact with boiling water, and contact with exposed electrical wires to name a few.
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Third-degree
|
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Never use any chemical antidotes such as baking soda or alcohol when treating burns of the ______, and do not try to neutralize chemical agents.
|
Eye
|
|
When purifying water, how many iodine tablet(s) are added to 1 quart of water?
|
1
|
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For the below symptom, Identify the injury.
Ice crystals on the skin : |
Frostbite
|
|
Becoming acclimated to the climate, by wearing warm layered clothing, and by maintaining good discipline and training will help prevent
|
Cold Injury
|
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The MK19 heavy machine gun does not fire an______.
|
FPL
|
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Employ _________ to slow down the enemy when reaching the FPL.
|
obstacles
|
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Assign a Principal Direction of Fire (PDF).
Ensure the PDF covers the most likely ___________. |
avenues of approach.
|
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________is an alert status that requires all personnel to be at 100%
security. |
Stand-To
|
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BAS is:
|
Battalion Aid Station
|
|
If an M256 kit is available (with negative results), what are the unmasking procedures?
|
Disarm several Seabees
Unmask for them for 5 minutes Remask and monitor Seabees for 10 minutes. If no symptoms appear give the “all clear”. |
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Send a NBC-1 report with a _______ precedence.
|
FLASH
|
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What are the 3 types of Convoys?
|
March
Serial Unit |
|
In Convoys, this Key person has the following responsibilities:
Posting the warning flag |
Trail Officer
|
|
In Convoys, this Key person has the following responsibilities:
Notifying proper authorities and post traffic control |
Advance Officer
|
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__________ is the component of COMSEC which results from all
measures designed to protect transmissions from interception and exploitation by means other than cryptographic analysis. |
Transmission security
|
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___________ is placing terrain obstacles between the radio antenna and the enemy. This reduces the risk of interception and radio direction finding operations.
|
Terrain masking
|
|
Characteristics of the M16A3 Service Rifle:
|
Caliber: 5.56 mm
Muzzle velocity: 3,100 fps Maximum effective rate of fire (semiautomatic): 45 rpm |
|
When equipped with a 40-mm grenade launcher, the M16 rifle becomes the_____, and loses
its identity as the M16 rifle. |
M203
|
|
Characteristics of the M203 :
|
Area target range: 350 meters
|
|
Characteristics of the M9 :
|
Maximum Range: 1800 meters
|
|
Characteristics of the M240B :
|
Maximum range: 3725 meters
Maximum effective range (area target): 1800 meters Rates Of Fire: Rapid: 200 rpm |
|
Characteristics of the 240B :
Rapid fire can be delivered for ___ minutes before barrel must be changed. |
2
|
|
Characteristics of the 240B :
Cyclic fire can be delivered for _______ before barrel must be changed. |
one minute
|
|
Characteristics of the 240B :
Ammunition : ______ cartridges are used against lightly armored targets where armor piercing effects are desired. |
Armor-piercing
|
|
Characteristics of the 240B :
Ammunition : _________ cartridges are used for desired armor piercing effects combined with fire-producing (incendiary) effects. |
Armor-piercing incendiary
|
|
Characteristics of the 240B :
Ammunition : ___________ are used for observation of fire, incendiary effects, signaling, and during training. |
Tracer cartridges
|
|
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Weight of Tripod Mount (with T&E): |
44 lbs.
|
|
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Rates of fire: Sustained: |
40 rpm or less
|
|
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Length: Barrel: |
45 inches
|
|
CCI gear is issued to E-7 and above via a _______.
|
SF 153
|
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How many M500s are in a Battalion TOA?
|
24
|
|
How many M9s are in a Battalion TOA?
|
175
|
|
How many AN/PVS-7Cs are in a Battalion TOA?
|
35
|
|
What is an HM?
|
Corpsman
|
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What is a BM?
|
Boatswain's Mate
|
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What is an MA?
|
Master-at-Arms
|
|
What is a MR?
|
Machinery Repairman
|
|
What are the various containers used the the NCF?
|
ISO (Configured and Standard)
SIXCON TRICON Flat rack Half Height Kit Boxes Mount out Boxes |
|
What is the MIP?
|
Maintenance Index Page
|
|
In terms of 3M, what does RAR stand for?
|
Recorded Accomplishment Rate
|
|
What does T&E stand for?
|
Traversing and Elevating
|
|
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
Ammunition for the MK 19 MOD 3 HE Color: |
Yellow or gold olive in color
|
|
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
Dummy Round Color is: |
Yellow or gold olive with an indented case
|
|
What weapon is Issued as a round of ammunition?
|
M136 (AT4), HEAT, 84-mm Launcher
|
|
Characteristics of M203 ammunition :
The _____ practice round fuze arms between 14 to 27 meters |
M407A1
|
|
A ________ Fire Mission is used to engaging a point target.
|
Fixed Fire
|
|
In hot, humid climates inspect a machine gun frequently for signs of rust.
Keep the machine gun free of moisture and lightly oiled with_____. |
CLP
|
|
Like the M2, the M3 tripod is also used for the MK-19, however, the MK-19 also uses the _____ cradle.
|
MK64
|
|
Once an automatic weapon position is occupied, the machine gun must be ___________ensuring that the assigned mission (PDF/FPL) is covered.
|
manned at all times
|
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Every time the weapon is moved, a new ________ will be made.
|
range card
|
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Always have a machine gun laid on the assigned_____, ready to fire.
|
sector of fire
|
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Dig grenade sumps in fighting positions as deep as entrenching tool at about a __-degree angle.
|
45
|
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What does ROE stand for?
|
Rules of Engagement
|
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In Alfa Company, what does DTO stand for?
|
Direct Turnover
|
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A SIXCON will hold ____ gallons of either ____ or ____.
|
900
Fuel Water |
|
________ containers have closed sides and a tail gate end. They are used for drummed oil/lubricants and steel stocks.
|
Half-Height
|
|
What does MIPR stand for?
|
Military Interdepartmental Purchase Request (MIPR)
|
|
What is NORS?
What does it indicate? |
Non Operational Ready Supply,
equipment is broken and parts not available for 3 days or more. |
|
The A3 is the:
|
Alfa Co. Operations Chief (EOCS)
|
|
The A4 is the
|
Alfa Co. Maintenance Chief (CMCS)
|
|
What is the following Equipment Condition Code?
F7 |
unserviceable/repairable – good
|
|
What is the following Equipment Condition Code?
SS |
unserviceable/scrap
|
|
Tent Camp Layout:
How far are Heads from the Galley? |
100 Meters
|
|
Tent Camp Layout:
How far are Garbage pits from water supplies? |
100 Meters
|
|
Tent Camp Layout:
How far are Garbage pits from messing? |
90 Feet
|
|
What are the 4 phases of ADR?
|
Mobilization
Pre-attack Post-attack Air Field |
|
ADR Methods:
|
Cretemobile
Folded Fiberglass Matting (FFM) FRP AM2 Matting Crushed Stone |
|
The _____ Bridge is 12.5 ft wide can span up to 210 ft.
|
Bailey
|
|
What is the length and width of a 1-man fighting position?
|
1 M16 long by 1 M16 wide
|
|
In ORM, RAC ___ is the most severe and RAC ____ is the least severe.
|
1
5 |
|
What are the 4 goals of ORM?
|
Accept risk when benefits outweigh the cost
Accept no unnecessary risk Anticipate and manage risk by planning Make decisions at the right level |
|
What are 6 types of eye protection?
|
Safety Glasses
Goggles (with holes – dust, without holds – fluids) Permanent/temporary shields/walls Face Shield – face protection only (use when handling acids) Welding Shield – protect from UV rays Over-spectacle glasses – wear over your prescription glasses |
|
_________ is to verify equipment listed in Part 1 of the COSAL against actual equipment at the site; report discrepancies via the Allowance Change Request.
|
Validating
|
|
What is OPTAR 02:
|
Repair Parts (CESE)
|
|
_______ is a supply requisition for non-NSN materials.
|
NAVSUP 1250-2
|
|
______ is a Requisition form.
|
DD 1348
|
|
A ______ is a report of discrepancies – records packing or shipping errors, items received damaged.
|
SF 364
|
|
In supply, what does TAP stand for?
|
TAP – TOA As Packed – inventory per container
|
|
Classes of Supply:
Class 1 is: |
Subsistence (food, etc)
|
|
Classes of Supply:
Class 2 is: |
Individual Equipment (weapons, tents, tools)
|
|
What does FIE stand for?
|
Fly In Echelon
|
|
What does MB stand for?
|
Main Body
|
|
What does a 463L pallet weigh empty?
|
290 pounds
|
|
What is Sleeper shoring?
|
Used to prevent the vehicle from bouncing up and down
|
|
Definable Feature of Work – is a single activity (one trade) less than ___ days in duration.
|
14
|
|
How do you calculate a delay factor (DF)?
|
67/PEF
|
|
How do you calculate a Manday Equivalent?
|
ME = Daily Work hours / 8
|
|
What is the M17?
|
M17 – DECON Pressure washer
|
|
Status of Resources and Training System
What is C4? |
C4: Requires additional resources and training
|
|
What does CREO 1 mean?
|
"CREO 1" = UNDERMANNED
|
|
What does CREO 3 mean?
|
"CREO 3" = OVERMANNED
|
|
___________ is in charge of the serial column when it is detached from the march column.
|
Serial commander
|
|
____________ is in charge when detached from a serial column.
|
Unit commander
|
|
The _____ maintains the speed of the convoy as directed by the convoy commander, is in the lead vehicle.
|
Pace setter
|
|
_______ are posted at critical intersections when on non-tactical convoys.
|
Guides
|
|
The ______ is in charge of vehicles with troops on board.
|
Vehicle commander
|
|
What is the symbol for an LP/OP?
|
A Triangle
|
|
What is the 10 foot Vehicle mounted antenna?
|
AS-3900
|
|
Can the AN/VRC-90 and AN/VRC-92 use the OE-254 antenna in non-mobile conditions?
|
Yes
|
|
What does CEOI stand for?
|
Communication Electronics Operating Instructions
|
|
How many gallons of water does the TOA water trailer hold?
|
400
|
|
Wire Diagram: Telephones need to run from the COC to :
|
All Company CPs
BAS ECP REACT ACOC Galley CTR / Supply COC Sentry Comm Shack Adjacent Units CO/XO Tent Armory |
|
The M8A1 consists of:
|
M43 Detectors
M42 Alarm |
|
A ____ color appearing on M8 paper is a positive test for blister agents.
|
Red
|
|
The only positive readings on M9 tape are ______ in color.
|
Red or Pink
|
|
A ______detects nerve, blister and blood agents (liquid or vapor)
12 detectors per kit |
M256A1 kit
|
|
How many stations are there in the Detailed Equipment Decon (DED)?
|
5
|
|
What does MOUT stand for?
|
Military Operations in Urban Terrain
|
|
_____ is fire that strikes the ground from above at a considerable level. Beaten zone is considered the danger space.
|
Plunging Fire
|
|
The M500 is a __ gauge shotgun.
|
12
|
|
The Mk1 is a/an _____ grenade.
|
Illumination
|
|
The M25 A2 is a/an _____ grenade.
|
CS Riot
|
|
The M15WP/M34WP/M8
are _____ grenades. |
Smoke
|
|
When detonated, the M18A1 mine will project steel spheres over a ____ degree fan-shaped pattern approximately __ feet high and 164 feet (50 meters) wide to an optimum effective range of __.
|
60 degree
6 feet 50 meters |
|
What are the camouflage colors for light skin personnel in other than snow regions.
|
Loam & light green
|
|
All materiel is requisitioned from the MLO office is on a______.
|
1250-1
|
|
What are the 3 types of Medium Girder Bridges?
|
*Single story MGB
*Double story MGB *Linked reinforced MGB |
|
As a part of camp maintenance ___________ is conducted within the first 30 days of a deployment
|
controlled inspection
|
|
Who maintains a library of contingency plans and maps:
|
Intel (S2)
|
|
Who prepares supporting plans for combat support and disaster recovery?
|
Intel (S2)
|
|
Who is responsible for Construction quality?
|
Operations (S3)
|
|
Who operates the dining facility, barber shop, central store room, central tool room?
|
Supply (S4)
|
|
Who is responsible for scheduling and monitoring technical and military training?
|
Training (S7)
|
|
Special Staff Codes (X)
Responsible for the performance of all duties relating to religious activities. |
Chaplain
|
|
An Officer of the ________is assigned to the Battalion as a member of the staff and head of the Battalion Dental department.
|
Dental Corps
|
|
The ____________ is to be informed of the most current disaster control and recovery techniques
|
Disaster Preparedness Officer
|
|
The ____________ is responsible for maintenance, issue, and control of weapons, ammunition and infantry equipment.
|
Ordnance Officer
|
|
The ___________ determines the adequacy of physical security in the command.
|
Security Officer
|
|
The NMCB TOA is listed as the P25 and is broken down into three sub-TOA(s) to assist in quick deployment. What are the three?
|
Air Det
Air Echelon Sea Echelon |
|
Air Det (A/D): P25A or TA-41:
___ personnel, ___ pieces of CESE, ________ sh tons air cargo, _______ million is the cost, deployable in ____ hours. |
89
34 250-300 $2.86 48 |
|
Sea Echelon (S/E): P25D or TA-22:
___ personnel, ___ pieces of CESE, ______ sh tons air cargo, ______ million is the cost, deployable in ____ Days. |
25
105 0 $9.5 30 |
|
Government credit card.
–Used for local purchase when a requisition cannot be filled through the Navy Stock System and the item cost is less than $2500 –Only trained cardholders are authorized to make purchases. |
IMPAC
|
|
If there are any signs of chemical or biological agent poisoning, you should immediately ______ the casualty.
|
mask
|
|
Leg fractures must be ________ before elevating the legs as a treatment for shock.
|
splinted
|
|
What type of bleeding is slow; the blood "oozes" from the (wound) cut?
|
Capillary bleeding
|
|
What type of bleeding shows blood bright red and “spurts” from the wound?
|
Arterial bleeding
|
|
The most painful type of burns because the nerve endings are still intact even though the skin is severely damaged:
|
2nd Degree Burns
|
|
What does ADP stand for?
|
Automated Data Processing (computers and equipment)
|
|
Within each unit a series of periodic formal embarkation training briefings must be held to indoctrinate all personnel for______________.
|
specific responsibilities
|
|
Describe the tactical employment and purpose of naval Mobile Construction Battalion weapon systems.
M2 .50 cal Machine Gun: |
Provide protection for motorized movement. Destroy lightly armored vehicles. Defend against low-flying hostile aircraft.
|
|
Describe the tactical employment and purpose of naval Mobile Construction Battalion weapon systems.
MK19 40mm Machine Gun |
Used to provide direct and indirect firing.
|
|
The ________ must provide support and protection for the Automatic rifleman.
|
Rifleman
|
|
__________ is used to obtain and properly spell names and street addresses of persons involved in the mishap and all witnesses to the accident.
|
SF 91
|
|
___________ is used to carefully note weather conditions, road conditions, position of the vehicle involved, and other details.
|
SF 91
|
|
______________ a personnel carrier vehicle is accomplished by covering the inside floor of the vehicle with sandbags, removing tarps and bows, and installing a garrote bar.
|
Combat hardening
|
|
Responsible for receiving all airlifted items, and movement from airfield to deployment site.
|
Arrival Airfield Control Group
|
|
Responsible for controlling the flow of personnel, cargo, and equipment from the marshalling area to the aircraft.
|
Departure Airfield Control Group
|
|
What are the ABCs of First Aid?
|
Airway
Breathing Circulation |
|
Grazing fire is how many inches off the deck?
|
68 inches
|
|
What type of ammunition does the M500 fire?
|
12ga, 2 3/4 inches 00 buck, military round
|
|
All VHF Radios are________.
|
line of sight
|
|
The _________ will remote the radio frequency away from COC, with a max range two miles.
|
AN/GRA 39
|
|
The AN/GRA 39 has two parts local and remote. The local is placed at the:
|
Antenna Farm
|
|
How many AN/GRA 39s are needed for each radio in the Antenna Farm?
|
1
|
|
What is the VHF antenna (non-mobile) used at the Ant Farm and Alt COC?
|
OE-254
|
|
Requisition/consumption reporting document for procuring non-NSN material.
|
NAVSUP 1250-2
|
|
Requisition form that can serve as a requisition follow-up, modifier, or cancellation request.
|
DD 1348
|
|
What does HICS stand for?
|
HICS: Hazardous Inventory Control System
|
|
The three parts of ABFC are:
|
Components
Facilities Assemblies |
|
What is used for loading Crypto fills?
|
CYZ-10
or PYQ-10 |
|
What antenna is known as the bowtie?
|
TR-72
|
|
What Seabee Phone is hand cranked?
|
TA-312
|
|
What is a Kit 80006?
|
Electricians Kit
|
|
What is a kit 80019?
|
Carpenters Kit
|
|
What is NALO?
|
Naval Air Logistics Office
|
|
What is SAAM?
|
Special Assignment Airlift Mission – how the NCF obtains airlift
|
|
What does TEU stand for?
|
Twenty-foot Equivalent Unit
(3 TRICONS shipped by sea) |
|
In the Seabee TOA, what is BM?
|
Basic Module (vertical construction, HQ/B/C CO, 42 pieces of CESE) – P25B
|
|
Project Supervisor/Crew Leader uses this to track Construction Activities daily.
|
Level 3
|
|
Level of effort in man days, what you actually did:
|
Mandays Expended
|
|
The M22 Automatic Chemical Agent Alarm consists of the _____ detector and _____ remote alarm unit.
|
M88
M42 |
|
The first Seabee battalions began forming and training at Camp _________, Davisville, Rhode Island.
|
Endicott
|
|
"The Original Home of the Seabees“:
|
Camp Endicott, Davisville, Rhode Island
|
|
The first organized Seabee battalion deployed overseas to _____________ in the Pacific, where it began construction of a fuel tank farm.
|
Bora Bora
|
|
What is the optimum spacing of M88 chemical detectors?
|
300 meters? Use METT-T to determine optimum spacing.
|
|
Mount out procedures for CESE:
What are the three major areas? |
CESE Prep
Supply Prep Grinder Operations |
|
Mount out procedures for CESE:
CESE Prep |
Dispatch
Collateral Wash Shop (inspections, fuel/defuel [3/4 tank for contingency], air certification letter, reduction, repairs) Wash Final Inspection |
|
Mount out procedures for CESE:
Grinder Operations |
Weighing and marking
HAZMAT certification Load Planning Chalks AACG/DACG Joint Inspection (Regiment, embark staff, aircraft loadmaster) |
|
In_____, in response to renewed aggression by France, Congress finally established the Department of the Navy, and authorized the Marine Corps.
|
1798
|
|
Prior to 1941, the Civil Engineer Corps used ____________ to accomplish all overseas construction.
|
private contractors
|
|
World War II: ________ men served in the Naval Construction Force during the Second World War.
|
325,000
|
|
Explain the procedures for Airfield Damage Repair (ADR)
5 Steps: |
•Establish Command Center
•Establish Damage assessment teams •Establish communications network •Survey Area •Make Repairs |
|
•Establish Command Center
•Establish Damage assessment teams •Establish communications network •Survey Area •Make Repairs |
The Gunner
|
|
The main purpose for using __________ is to continuously record data on equipment performance.
|
operating logs
|
|
Can OPTAR funds be used to purchase project materials?
|
NO
|
|
The ______assigns each item in the TOA to a specific container and a specific location inside of that container
|
Master Packing Plan
|
|
What is the name of the 3 year vehicle operators license?
|
OF-346
|
|
Regarding CBR, what is DWHA?
|
Downwind Hazard Area
|
|
When using the P-405, what is the equation to calculate a MD estimate with a Delay Factor?
|
MD = (Qty of units) x (hr/unit (from P-405)) x (1/8) x DF
|
|
What is the PPR formula?
|
PMS Performance Rate
PPR = RAR x ACF |
|
What is the 3M RAR equation?
|
RAR = Accomplished Checks
Scheduled Checks |
|
What is the CESE availability factor equation?
|
Availability = 100% - Deadline% - % in shop
|
|
In the 5 step ORM process, explain the purpose of:
Identify Hazards |
What are the hazards?
|
|
In a typical camp layout, all companies man fighting positions except :
|
Headquarters Company
|
|
If the project scope is to install 4000 CMU blocks, and 1000 have been installed, what is the WIP?
|
25% = 1000/4000
|
|
What must patrols do following the execution of a patrol?
|
Submit after action report to the COC (S2 board and S3 board)
Refit |
|
For a DED decon layout, what is station #1?
|
Initial Wash
|
|
For a DED decon layout, what is station #3?
|
Contact time, Interior Decon
|
|
For a DED decon layout, what is station #4?
|
Rinse
|
|
The DED “hotline” is located between steps __ and ___.
|
4
5 |
|
What does FMFM stand for?
|
Fleet Marine Force Manual
|
|
What does MSR stand for?
|
Main Supply Route
|
|
What does ASR stand for?
|
Alternate Supply Route
|
|
What is a RTO?
|
Radio Telephone Operator
|
|
What is the function of the Watch Officer in the COC?
|
Overall Responsible for COC operations
Runs Immediate action drills Reports CCIRs Assigns routing tree for incoming messages |
|
What is the function of the Watch Chief in the COC?
|
Enforces good order and discipline in COC
Logs messages, ensures proper routing Works with S1 to keep Admin board up to date |
|
What is the function of the RTOs in the COC?
|
Send and receive messages.
Immediate notification if CCIR received. |
|
What is the function of the S1 board in the COC?
|
Track Reports:
Personnel Status |
|
What is the function of the S2 board in the COC?
|
Keep S2 board up to date with:
Weather, Chemical Downwind Message MOPP level, CBR plots, Enemy activity, Challenge/Passwords |
|
What is the function of the Sentry at the COC?
|
Provide security for the COC, ensure only personnel with proper clearance enter the COC.
|
|
What does FFIR stand for?
|
Friendly Forces Information Requirements
|
|
What are the standing rules of force? (memory aid is: RAMP)
|
Return fire with aimed fire
Anticipate attack Measured force (equal to received) Protect others/yourself with deadly force only when necessary |
|
The Safety Policy Committee reviews the meeting minutes of the _______________ committee.
|
Safety Supervisor Policy
|
|
To qualify as a lost workday mishap, a Seabee must miss:
|
The entire next workday
|
|
All unintended explosions are classified as:
|
Mishaps
|
|
____ kW or more generators must be grounded.
|
5
|
|
Are Seabees authorized to make repairs to a GFCI?
|
NO
|
|
If an electrical tool is tagged with a red color tag, it means:
|
The tool cannot be operated
|
|
If an electrical tool is tagged with a yellow color tag, it means:
|
Use caution while operating the tool
|
|
What does IDLH stand for?
|
Immediately dangerous to life and health
|
|
What are the 4 irregular firing actions that result in a weapon not functioning as expected?
|
Malfunction
Misfire Cook off Stoppage |
|
A ______ is caused by dirt, no lube, or carbon build up. Immediate action is to clean the weapon.
|
Malfunction
|
|
Heat from the barrel of a weapon will cause a round to automatically fire. This is called a :
|
Cook off
|
|
Any interruption to a weapons cycle of firing is called a :
|
Stoppage
|
|
What is the breach on a weapon?
|
The rear end of the barrel
|
|
What type of Ammunition has the following color:
Orange or Red |
Tracer
|
|
What type of Ammunition has the following color:
Black |
Armor Piercing
|
|
The fragmentation grenade model number is :
|
M67
|
|
What is the model number of the incendiary grenade?
|
AN-M14
|
|
Never attempt to defuse a______.
|
hand grenade
|
|
What are the three things a CMS Manager is responsible for in terms of COMSEC Materials?
|
Distribution
Handling Control |
|
What type of restricted area is one in which someone could gain access to classified material?
|
Limited Area
|
|
In order for a Seabee to have access to classified materials, they must have:
|
A Security Clearance
|
|
What is the meaning of the brevity pro-word:
Minimize |
Minimize your traffic
|
|
What brevity pro-word is used as an alert that hostile forces are infiltrating the net?
|
Gingerbread
|
|
Who can authorized a Battalion executing the Emergency Action Plan?
|
The Commanding Officer
|
|
What telephone encrypts the signal, and can be used to transmit over a non secure telephone line?
|
STU-III
|
|
What are the general procedures for responding to HAZMAT spills?
|
Respond Immediately
Have a disposal plan Test the soils after cleanup Follow all disposal guidelines |
|
When working with HAZMAT, always understand what _____ is required.
|
PPE
|
|
What does PPE stand for?
|
Personal Protective Equipment
|
|
The best policy when performing grubbing operations is to:
|
Save as much vegetation as possible.
|
|
The toxic chemical found in older electrical equipment, used as an insulator is:
|
PCBs
|
|
What does PCB stand for?
|
Polychlorinated biphenyls
|
|
Air Echelon is capable of mounting out within _____ days.
|
14
|
|
Sea Echelon is capable of mounting out within ____ days.
|
30
|
|
In the case of _____ or ______, replacement parts are not in stock, and cannot be received within 3 days.
|
NORS
ANORS |
|
CNO is the advisor to ______ and _________.
|
SECNAV
President of the United States |
|
What does POTUS stand for?
|
President of the United States
|
|
This command exercises ADCON and OPCON to all NCF units:
|
1NCD
|
|
This person is the senior navy enlisted member:
|
Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy
|
|
In the NCF, CBUs have been replaced with:
|
CBMU
|
|
What is a CAT team?
|
Civic Action Team
Trains locals on how to build |
|
The NCFSU provides logistical support to NCF _________.
|
Regiments
|
|
In the MEG, there are ____ primary engineer assets.
|
7
|
|
What does LOAC stand for?
|
Laws of Armed Conflict
|
|
RAC 2 =
|
Serious
|
|
RAC 5 =
|
Negligible
|
|
____ is 26 Seabees deploying with heavy Alfa Co equipment.
|
Sea Echelon
|
|
Sea Echelon is capable of deploying within _____ days.
|
6
|
|
Sea Echelon is capable of arriving at its final destination within _____ days.
|
30
|
|
Cargo going by sea is palletized on :
|
A 40” x 48” wood pallet
|
|
What aircraft is used by Seabees for in theater operations only?
|
C-130 Hercules
|
|
Which aircraft can land on dirt runways?
|
C-17 Globemaster
|
|
What aircraft can be loaded from either the front or back?
|
C-5 Galaxy
|
|
Rules of the road:
___ MPH on the open road, ____ foot interval between vehicles Speed determined by _________. |
30
100 Pacesetter |
|
Tool kit boxes can carry ____ pounds per box.
|
250
|
|
Plant property is:
|
Non portable equipment
|
|
The three inspections a CESE operator performs on a piece of equipment are:
|
Pre-start (hard card) – look for damage
Operation Shutdown procedures |
|
What does ROPS stand for?
|
Roll Over Protection Structure
|
|
The United States will not use _______ weapons as a first strike.
|
Chemical
|
|
Tear gas and vomit producing gasses are known as ________ agents.
|
Harassing
|
|
Gas masks protect against particulates, but will not filter _____.
|
Gasses
|
|
A ________ measures radiation exposure.
|
Pocket Dosimeter
|
|
The effects of a nuclear explosion are:
|
Blast
Burns Nuclear Radiation EMP |
|
What are the three types of CBR surveys?
|
Point Surveillance
Route Survey (convoy/patrol) Area Survey |
|
Mixing mustard gas with STB produces:
|
A violent reaction
|
|
Leach fields use ___ to ___ inch perforated pipe.
|
4 to 6 inch
|
|
Camp Maintenance: the _______ receives calls, logs them, fills out ESAs.
|
Trouble Desk
|
|
Tracking the Bravo Company builder shop equipment is completed on a:
|
Daily Operators Log
|
|
In ABFC view, what lists line item requirements by NSN?
|
Assemblies
|
|
In terms of camp layout:
The Alfa Yard should be near _____. |
The entrance
|
|
Never put ________ water
in a water bull. |
Non-potable
|
|
Under Rapid Runway Repair, what does UXO stand for?
|
Unexploded Ordinance
|
|
A project QC plan is assembled by the __________, not the Battalion ________ department.
|
Crew leader
S3QC |
|
Only construction material needed within the next ___ weeks can be requisitioned from MLO.
|
2
|
|
A typical Seabee bridge job is to delaunch, palletize and move it forward for:
|
The Marines to reinstall.
|
|
What are the three common types of Bailey bridges?
|
Single/Single
Double/Single Double/Double |
|
A booby trap with a heavy weight falling from above is called a:
|
Dead fall
|
|
A booby trap that is a small pit with spiked boards within is called a:
|
Foot trap
|
|
An effective weapon to place at the ECP is the:
|
M2 .50 cal machine gun
|
|
Seabees don’t fire automatic weapons in this manner, it is too difficult to hit anything.
|
Free Gun
|
|
If there isn’t a foreseeable need for a piece of CESE within the next 30 days, the CESE goes into:
|
Live Storage
|
|
When applying face paint, add dark colors to ________________, and light colors around the ________________.
|
Forehead, nose
eyes |
|
Fighting positions should always be inspected from the perspective of ____________.
|
The enemy
|
|
During hours of daylight avoid walking to and from fighting positions, if communication is necessary, use the _______.
|
TA-1
|
|
Likely enemy avenues of approach will differ depending on if its _____ or _______.
|
Day
Night |
|
Face shields do not provide _____ protection.
|
Eye
|
|
A _______ report is a hasty initial report of enemy activity at the location of a fire fight.
|
SALUTE
|
|
Once wire defenses are in place, _______ must be used to regularly inspect defensive wire.
|
Patrols
|
|
In what format does a patrol leader issue a patrol order?
|
SMEAC
|
|
Primary and Alternate Fighting positions cover the same :
|
Sectors of Fire
|
|
When in a fighting position, use _________ to define a Seabee’s sector of fire.
|
Sand Bags
|
|
How many fire teams are in a squad?
|
3
|
|
A squad leader carries a _______(weapon), but only shoots _________.
|
M16A3
When necessary |
|
If the Fire Team Leader becomes a casualty, the __________ takes over as FTL.
|
Automatic Rifleman
|
|
This Seabee acts as a point man within a Fire team.
|
Rifleman #2
|
|
Don’t take an EPW’s (Enemy Prisoner of War) __________.
|
Personal Effects or Gas Mask
|
|
After following the 5 “S”s for Enemy prisoners of war, fill out an ______.
|
EPW Tag.
|
|
If caught alone behind enemy lines, remember to retain both your ______ and _______.
|
Military ID Card
Dog Tags |
|
When caught alone behind enemy lines, use firearms :
|
Only in an emergency
|
|
If caught alone behind enemy lines, avoid _________ for as long as possible.
|
People
|
|
A challenge and password must be two words that have :
|
Nothing to do with each other.
|
|
When finding an injured Seabee, look around to discover how they were injured, this will make sure that :
|
You are not injured in the same manner.
|
|
In the event of providing first aid after a CBR attack, mask ______, then mask _______.
|
Yourself
The Casualty |
|
How does you administer the NAAK injections to a Seabee in full MOPP gear?
|
Apply treatment through MOPP gear, don’t cut the MOPP suit.
|
|
Never move an injured Seabee unless:
|
Absolutely necessary.
|
|
When using a sterile bandage over a wound, tie the knot over :
|
The wound.
|
|
Elevating a wounded area to control bleeding should be used in conjunction with:
|
Direct Pressure
|
|
________ is a powder that reacts with liquids in the human body to cauterize a wound. It also causes significant damage in the process.
|
Quick Clot
|
|
Continue tightening a Tourniquet until:
|
You see the bleeding stop
|
|
When taping a piece of plastic to a sucking chest wound victim, the open side should be facing:
|
down
|
|
If a Seabee with a sucking chest wound gets worse after applying a piece of plastic to the wound:
|
Remove the plastic sheeting
|
|
When finding a Seabee with suspected spine injury assign one person to :
|
Keep the head and neck aligned.
|
|
How should batteries be installed in a TA-312?
|
One up, One Down
|
|
What is the first thing to do before sending a radio message?
|
Listen to see if the net is clear
|
|
Once a NMCB has donned Gas Masks, who can give the order to remove masks?
|
Commanding Officer
|
|
What is the best decontamination for Biological agents?
|
Warm Soapy Water
|
|
What is Palatable water?
|
Water that is pleasing to the taste, but may be unsafe to drink
|
|
What is the distance between grid lines on a combat map?
|
1 Km, or 1000 Meters
|
|
Name 2 ways to orientate a map.
|
Terrain Association
Use a Compass |
|
What does the map reading term “intersection” mean?
|
Finding the location of an unknown point by sighting two or more azimuths from known points.
|
|
What are the four fundamentals of marksmanship?
|
Steady Position
Proper Aim (Sight Picture) Breathing Trigger Squeeze |
|
What does BZO stand for?
|
Battlesight Zero
|
|
The M18A1 firing position should be in a ________ 16 meters behind the mine.
|
Fighting Position
|
|
How often is the challenge and password changed?
|
Every 24 hours
|
|
The ______ wave is that part of the radio wave which travels directly from the transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna.
|
direct
|
|
A _______ is an electronic module used to load cryptographic keys into electronic encryption machines.
|
fill device
|
|
The ________ wave is that portion of the radio wave which reaches the receiving antenna after being reflected from the surface of the earth.
|
ground reflected
|
|
______ frequency communications are capable of traveling around the world under the right conditions.
|
High
|
|
_______propagation involves the bending of the signal by the ionosphere. Frequencies are very important, as those above a certain value will not bend back to earth but will punch through the ionosphere into outer space.
|
Sky wave
|
|
______is a family of lightweight combat radios that serves as the primary means of communications for command and control and fire support on the battlefield.
|
SINCGARS
|
|
Vehicle mounted VHF equipment may communicate farther because of:
|
higher transmitter power and better antennas.
|
|
The ideal location for a radio antenna is as far away from cover as possible, such as:
|
a bare mountain top or in the middle of a large field.
|
|
What are the wet and dry distance limits of the TA-1
|
4 miles wet
7 miles dry |
|
How many pairs of terminals connect to the J-1077?
|
26
|
|
What is the maximum distance of wire that can be placed between the local and remote units of an AN/GRA-39?
|
2 Miles
|
|
How many D-Cell batteries does an AN/GRA – 39 use?
|
12
|
|
What is the GPS unit used to connect to a RT 1523 or RT 1694 to set the correct sync time?
|
AN/PSN-11
|
|
With the RT 1523, what are the four possible methods of broadcasting a radio signal?
|
Single Channel / Plain Text
Single Channel / Cipher Text Freq. Hopping / Plain Text Freq. Hopping / Cipher Text |
|
In radio communications, what does CT stand for?
|
Cipher Text
|
|
The two departments under S1 are:
|
Admin
Personnel |
|
What are the three billets in an NMCB that are in-between the CO and XO?
|
CMC
Marine Advisor Safety Officer |
|
What are the billets/departments that work in the S3 shop?
|
S3A
S3C S3QC S3E (Engineering) S3F |
|
What departments work directly under the S4C?
|
CTR
CSR ARP TOA Uniform Issue |
|
Which department works directly for the S7C?
|
Training
|
|
What are the billets/departments that work under the A3?
|
Dispatcher
Yard Boss License Examiner Collateral Equip Cranes |
|
The B3 is responsible for:
|
Projects
|
|
OPTAR actually stands for?
|
Operating Target
|
|
The 4 Mission Areas of an NMCB are:
|
Perform Horizontal/Vertical Construction while defending projects
Deploy an Air Det within 48 hours Conduct active defensive operations to protect: personnel, convoys, camp, construction sites Perform CESE maintenance simultaneously with a construction effort |
|
Mobilized Seabees will stay in Gulfport or Pt Hueneme until:
|
Deployed
|
|
When forward deployed during peacetime, the active NMCBs perform :
|
Project construction primarily for skills training and readiness.
Also Detachments, DFTs, and Joint Exercises |
|
The role of Seabees in Humanitarian Assistance Operations is to:
|
Deliver relief material.
Provide disaster assistance and evacuation. Clear and repair utilities. Provide transportation for evacuees. |
|
NMCB tactical horizontal construction includes structures such as:
|
Unpaved roads
Airstrips Mat Runways Helo Landing Areas |
|
The NCR Command Element is a command and control organization that plans, monitors, directs, coordinates, and controls ___________operations for all subordinate NMCBs, NCFSUs, and other attached units.
|
construction
|
|
______________ is the primary CSS function performed by engineers to include both horizontal and vertical construction. It is characterized by well-developed design and deliberate construction, and includes detailed planning and preparation.
|
General engineering
|
|
___________ is the reinforcement of terrain through the construction of obstacles and emplacement of minefields to disrupt, fix, turn, or block the enemy.
|
Countermobility
|
|
__________ is the degree to which a system can avoid or withstand a man-made hostile environment without losing its ability to accomplish its designated mission.
|
Survivability
|
|
NMCBs do not deploy with Class ____ supplies.
|
4 (Construction Materials)
|
|
NCRs are under the ____________of 1NCD, and exercise ______________ over subordinate
NCF units. |
OPCON/ADCON
OPCON/ADCON |
|
The ____ is the advance element of an NMCB which supports the MAGTF in the MPF offload.
|
AP
|
|
Within 30 days after return from deployment to their homeport, NMCBs shall be capable of redeploying as a complete battalion with full TOA within ___ days.
|
10
|
|
PWRMS is:
|
Prepositioned War Reserve Material Stocks
|
|
The two types of readiness most important to Seabees are:
|
Construction Readiness
Military Readiness (Combat Skills) |
|
What is Part 1 of the COSAL?
|
List of equipment actually on site
|
|
There might be a time during embark where CESE and cargo will be loaded together. This is called_______________.
|
“mobile loading”
|
|
The final step in the 48hour mount-out operation is the:
|
Joint Inspection
|
|
What are the 11 General Orders of a Sentry?
|
To take charge of this post and all government property in view.
To walk my post in a military manner, keeping always on the alert and observing everything which takes place within sight or hearing. To report all violations of orders I am instructed to enforce. To repeat all calls from posts more distant from the guard house than my own. To quit my post only when properly relieved. To receive, obey, and pass on to the sentry who relieves me, all orders from the Commanding Officer, the Officer of the Day, and all officers and non-commissioned officers of the guard only. To talk to no one except in the line of duty. To give the alarm in case of fire or disorder. To call the Corporal of the Guard in any case not covered by instructions. To salute all officers and all colors and standards not cased. To be especially watchful at night and during the time for challenging, to challenge all persons on or near my post, and to allow no one to pass without proper authority proper authority. |
|
There is no such thing as an ____________ convoy in a tactical environment!
|
Administrative
|
|
Tactical Convoys should always have access to the common _________ picture.
|
Operational
|
|
The primary method of providing information to convoy leaders is :
|
A Strip Map
|
|
METT-T (Time)
Time in regards to mission planning is: |
Complete the plan as quickly as possible to allow for subordinate preparation and implementation.
|
|
___________ provide a convoy with additional firepower to deter/destroy an enemy threat.
|
Gun Trucks
|
|
What does HMMWV stand for?
|
High Mobility Multipurpose Wheeled Vehicle.
|
|
A gun truck is a vehicle where the primary weapon system is ________________________________and usually hardened for protection of vehicle and crew.
|
a CSW with a 360 degree field of
fire capability |
|
The overall responsibility of a Convoy to “break contact” or “remain and fight” is determined by the:
|
Convoy Commander
|
|
The 4 principals for mounted movement of tactical convoys are:
|
360 degree security
Deterrence Agility Unpredictability |
|
In a Convoy, the driver’s primary mission is to operate the vehicle and should only engage targets if the vehicle is halted unless:
|
there is no one else who can neutralize the threat from that side.
|
|
What are the three methods for a convoy to clear an overpass?
|
Deliberate High Clear
Deliberate Low Clear Hasty Clearing |
|
In a convoy, a downed driver is replaced by :
|
The vehicle commander
|
|
In a convoy, a ________ vehicle moves out while pulling a disabled vehicle behind it.
|
Recovery
|
|
The order given to end a Convoy dismount and get back into the vehicles is:
|
Remount
|
|
When in a convoy suddenly attacked, yet the convoy is able to continue along its route, execute a :
|
Blow Through (Hasty attack Suppress)
|
|
In a vehicle convoy the two methods of hasty attack are:
|
Suppress : Shoot while continuing to move
Assault: Assault team dismounts and attacks enemy combatants |
|
_____ is basically an e-mail system to use while in the field.
|
BATLAN
|
|
__________ : The PRC-150 is used to send in ciphered text.
|
HF DATA
|
|
How many Seabees are in a fire team?
|
4
|
|
How many Squads in a Platoon?
|
3
|
|
What is the standard Bivouac Equipment?
|
Poncho
Tent E-tool Canteens |
|
What are the two pins that keep the upper receiver and lower receiver of an M16 together called?
|
Takedown Pin
Pivot Pin |
|
In an M16, what are all the items in the bolt carrier group?
|
Firing pin retaining pin
Firing Pin Bolt Carrier Cam Pin Bolt |
|
The sights on the M16 are adjustable for both _________ and _______.
|
Windage and Elevation
|
|
Do not expose ________ to sunlight for any length of time.
|
ammunition
|
|
________ is the curved path of a bullet in its flight through the air.
|
Trajectory
|
|
Fire on the final protective line during periods of good visibility is ________ and ________ fire.
|
aimed and adjusted
|
|
In the absence of instructions, the usual rate of fire for a section on a final protective line is the ______rate for the first 2 minutes, then the medium rate until ordered to cease firing.
|
rapid
|
|
Immediate Decon must be performed within ____ minutes.
|
15
|
|
Operational Decon must be performed within ____ hours.
|
6
|
|
Sector limits on a fire plan or range card are shown as ________ unless they are PDFs or FPLs.
|
Dashed lines
|
|
The three keys to automatic weapons on a Final Protective Line are:
|
Flanking
Interlocking Grazing |
|
Army Combat Heavy Battalions are capable of constructing or repairing:
|
Landing Strips
Airfields MSRs Buildings Bridges |
|
What does the BEEF in Prime BEEF stand for?
|
Base Engineer Emergency Force
|
|
A Combat Engineer Battalion belongs to what branch of the U.S. Military?
|
Marines
|
|
What do CEBs do for the U.S. Marine Corp?
|
Enhance Mobility, Countermobility, and Survivability of the Marine Division through close combat engineering support
|
|
What is an ESB?
|
U.S. Marine Engineer Support Battalion
|
|
What are the capabilities of an ESB?
|
General Engineering.
Heavy Equipment, Utilities, and Construction |
|
What is a MWSS?
|
Marine Wing Support Squadron
|
|
What is a MWSS capable of constructing?
|
Expeditionary Airfields (EAFs)
|
|
How does the Navy support the MAGTF?
|
The Navy provides general engineering support to MAGTFs. This support consists of NCF units under the operational control of a MAGTF. These NCF units are necessary to reinforce and augment the MAGTF’s limited engineering capability.
|
|
Navy Civil Engineers construct _________ and perform ___________ repair to support MAGTF operations
|
advanced bases
battle damage |
|
The US Ambassador is responsible to the President for directing, coordinating, and supervising all US Government (USG) elements in the host nation except those under the command of:
|
A combatant commander (COCOM)
|
|
Tactical control is the detailed ________ and ________ of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish assigned missions or tasks.
|
Direction
control |
|
The MAGTF CE engineer support consists of:
|
Engineering Officer
NCF LNO |
|
The MAGTF GCE engineer support consists of:
|
Combat Engineer Battalions
|
|
The MAGTF ACE engineer support consists of:
|
MWSS
Marine Wing Support Squadron |
|
The MAGTF CSSE engineer support consists of:
|
ESB
Engineer Support Battalions |
|
How many NMCBs support a MEF?
|
4
|
|
How many NMCBs support a MEU?
|
1
|
|
What does NSE stand for?
|
Naval Support Element
|
|
COCOM force sourcing determines:
|
Who goes where, when, and for how long…
|
|
A Unified Command is a command with:
|
A broad continuing mission under a single commander with two or more military departments.
|
|
The QDR does what?
|
Looks ahead and offers a solution on how to best position the U.S. military to meet all existing threats.
|
|
An OPLAN identifies the ______ and _______ required to execute the CINC’s Strategic Concept and a movement schedule of these resources to the theater of operations. The forces and supplies are identified in ____files.
|
Forces
Supplies TPFDD |
|
What is the difference between doctrine and concepts?
|
Doctrine deals with today, concepts are potential future capabilities.
|
|
What does OMFTS stand for?
|
Operational Maneuvers from the Sea
|
|
What is OMFTS?
|
Landing Marines skip setting up on the beach, instead they go directly to the objective.
|
|
What does RFF stand for?
|
Request for Forces
|
|
Are the ACBs NCF units?
|
No
|
|
Marine Force Size:
MEF :_________ people MEB:_________ people MEU:_________ people |
60,000
17,000 2,200 |
|
M16A3 Weapon Condition Codes:
Condition 1 |
Magazine inserted, round in chamber, bolt forward, safety on and ejection port cover closed.
|
|
CONDITION CODES FOR THE M203
Condition 1 |
Round in chamber, action closed, safety on.
|
|
COMMANDS:
UNLOAD |
Place the M16A3 in condition 4.
|
|
What is a HANGFIRE?
|
a delay in the propellant charge igniting.
|
|
M9 COMMANDS
LOAD |
Place the M9 pistol in condition 3.
|
|
COMMANDS:
UNLOAD, SHOW CLEAR |
Taking the weapon from any condition to condition 4.
|
|
Estimate distance to target by eye:
|
1) Visualize a 100-meter distance on the ground
2) With this unit of measurement, mentally determine how many of these 100-meter units are between your position and the target. NOTES: Mental estimates should be checked by pacing off distance. The average man takes about 130 steps per 100 meters. |
|
CLP -
|
cleaner, lubricant, and preservative
|
|
M9 CONDITION CODES
Condition 3 |
Magazine inserted, chamber empty, slide forward, and decocking/safety lever on.
|
|
Terrain and Weather - KOCOA
|
Key Terrain
Observation and Fields of Fire Cover and Concealment Obstacles Avenues of Approach |
|
M9 CONDITION CODES
Condition 4 |
Magazine removed, chamber empty, slide forward, and decocking/safety lever on.
|
|
M9 COMMANDS
UNLOAD, SHOW CLEAR |
Take the M9 pistol from any condition to condition 4, pausing with the slide locked to the rear to allow for a secondary inspection of the chamber.
|
|
Types of Convoys
|
a) Administrative Convoys
1) Contact with the enemy is remote or improbable. 2) Example of administrative convoys are troops movement, general cargo movement, POL movement and ammunition movement. b) Tactical Convoys The likelihood of enemy contact is the basis for tactical classification. |
|
Convoy
Movement order |
is issued by a convoy commander covering the details for a move of his/her command. It includes current situation; mission of the convoy; concept of operations for the movement; administrative and logistic procedures and responsibilities; and command, control, and communications assignments and techniques.
|
|
If a HARDENED vehicle is FORCED to stop in the kill zone:
If no cover is available after dismounting: |
after dismounting, an IMMEDIATE frontal assault may be executed.
|
|
LSA -
|
weapons lubricating oil, semi fluid
|
|
Use the HIGH CRAWL when:
|
a) The route you have selected provides good cover and concealment.
b) Poor visibility reduces enemy observation. c) Greater speed of movement is required. |
|
COMMANDS:
LOAD |
Place the M16A3 in condition 3.
|
|
What is a MISFIRE?
|
a failure to fire.
|
|
M9 COMMANDS
UNLOAD |
Place the M9 pistol in condition 4.
|
|
How deep is a Hasty fighting Position?
|
18 Inches into the ground.
|
|
CONDITION CODES FOR THE M203
Condition 4 |
Chamber empty, action closed, safety on.
|
|
Key personnel in a convoy
Trail Maintenance Officer |
1) Rides at the rear of the column with maintenance personnel and equipment.
2) In a small convoy, the trail officer and the trail maintenance officer may be the same individual. |
|
If a HARDENED vehicle is FORCED to stop in the kill zone:
|
ALL available weapons are used to return fire IMMEDIATELY.
Personnel remain in the vehicle. On first slackening of fire, personnel dismount. Personnel deploy as directed by the vehicle commander. Lay down base fire to cover the dismount of the four sentries. |
|
For the Claymore mine, the M57 is:
|
The Firing Device
|
|
There are two types of sights on the M18A1 claymore mine:
|
the slit type peep sight
the knife-edge sight. |
|
Convoy Ambush
IMMEDIATE ACTION through the kill zone: |
A driver must pull his/her vehicle far enough forward, or off of the path of travel, to allow other vehicles to clear the kill zone. If a vehicle stops as soon as they are free of the kill zone, they risk "bottle necking" and forcing all vehicles behind them to stop in the kill zone and face decimation.
Corner sentries return fire IMMEDIATELY. Vehicles halt when they clear the kill zone and personnel dismount and take IMMEDIATE action. |
|
Troops and Fire Support Available - HAS
|
Higher
Adjacent Support |
|
Issue the Order - SMEAC
|
Situation
Mission Execution Admin and Logistics Command and Signal |
|
Key personnel in a convoy
Vehicle Commander |
Directs vehicle hardening operation and conducts immediate action drills.
|
|
The illumination radius of the M49A1 trip flare is:
|
300 Meters of illumination radius.
|
|
OPORDER Command and Signal elements:
|
Special instructions on communications, including prearranged signals, password and countersign, radio call signs and frequencies, emergency signals, radio procedures, pyrotechnics, and restrictions on the use of communications.
Locations of the platoon commander, the platoon right guide, and the squad leader. |
|
What is NAPP?
|
Nerve Agent Pyridostigmine Pretreatment (NAPP), a standard issue pre-treatment used in combating nerve agent poisoning, will counteract the effects of the agent, depending on the length of exposure to and concentration of the agent.
|
|
React to aerial flares
If you are in an open area and are caught in the light of a flare: |
Then crouch low or get in the prone position and remain motionless.
|
|
React to incoming rounds if in a motorized convoy.
If the vehicle is immobilized: |
Then immediately disembark, move away from the vehicle, and hit the deck, taking the best cover available.
|
|
Third degree burns can be caused by :
|
can be caused by flame, ignited clothing, immersion in hot water, contact with hot objects, or electricity. Temperature and duration of contact are important factors in determining the extent of tissue destruction.
|
|
Warning Shots are:
|
Only allowed by the EOF involving vehicles.
|
|
What is CANA?
|
Chemical Agent Nerve Antidote
|
|
Name three Movies that the Seabees are prominently displayed:
|
The Fighting Seabees
The Sands of Iwo Jima The Green Berets |
|
Execute "Immediate Action - Firing Stoppage"
BANG: |
Sight and fire.
|
|
Identify first degree burns:
|
a) Check for redness or discoloration.
b) Check for mild swelling and pain. c) Check for rapid healing. |
|
MOPP Level 3:
|
Mask: Worn
Overgarment: Worn Vinyl Overboot: Worn Gloves: Available Helmet Protective Cover: Worn |
|
NCF Units:
NCFSU |
Naval Construction Force Support Units (2)
|
|
Enemy - SALUTE
|
Size
Activity Location Unit Time Equipment |
|
The M18A1 is:
|
A Claymore Mine
|
|
When establishing a project safety plan, project crew members reference the:
|
1910.29 CFR
|
|
All convoys regardless of size are composed of at least three functional parts:
|
a) Head
b) Main Body c) Trail |
|
Identify second degree burns:
|
a) Check for deeper tissue destruction than first-degree burn.
b) Check for red or mottled appearance of skin. c) Check for development of blisters. d) Check for considerable swelling over a period of several days. e) Check for wet appearance on the surface of the skin due to the loss of body fluids through the damaged layers of the skin |
|
React to incoming rounds if in a motorized convoy.
If the vehicle continues to move: |
Then remain in the vehicle and assume the lowest possible position.
|
|
In the Advanced Base Functional Component system, what code identifies assemblies required for use in the North Temperate
Zone? |
N
|
|
What is the purpose of leach fields?
|
Dispose of sewage
|
|
How Deep is a one man fighting position?
|
Armpit deep.
|
|
When a DAT deploys, it should deploy in :
|
a harden vehicle and MOPP gear.
|
|
What are the symptoms of shock?
|
restlessness, thirstiness, skin paleness, and rapid heartbeat.
calmness and tiredness. sweating, and cool, clammy skin. gasping breath or shallow, rapid breathing. staring blindly into space. blotchiness or bluish coloring around the mouth |
|
The low crawl and high crawl are not suitable :
|
Not suitable at night when you are very near the enemy. They cause a shuffling noise, which is too easily heard.
|
|
What is the United States policy on Biological Warfare?
|
a) To limit its research program to defensive measures.
b) Not to use biological agents including toxins. |
|
What type of camp maintenance includes large repetitive jobs that require over 40 man-hours?
|
Standing job order
|
|
What does MLC stand for?
|
Military Load Class
|
|
What is the text color and background color of a NATO Radiological Marker?
|
Black inscription on white background
|
|
Do not use a Kevlar Helmet to:
|
heat water
hammer dig |
|
Identify third degree burns:
|
a) Check for deep tissue destruction.
b) Check for white or charred appearance of skin. c) Check for complete loss of all layers of the skin |
|
What is station #3 in a personnel decontamination site?
|
Over garment removal
|
|
The primary purpose of the quality control plan is to provide:
|
a. Customer satisfaction
b. Quality construction c. Prevent Rework |
|
To protect your night vision during from a burning flare:
|
To protect your night vision, close your shooting eye while the flare is burning.
|
|
MOPP Level 1:
|
Mask: Carried
Overgarment: Worn Vinyl Overboot: Available Gloves: Available Helmet Protective Cover: Available |
|
NCF Units:
NMCBs |
Naval Mobile Construction Battalion (1, 3, 4, 5, 7, 11, 14, 15, 17, 18, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 40, 74, 133)
|
|
How long is the CPO Suit good for in an uncontaminated environment when removed from its sealed bag?
|
45 Days
|
|
When is an operator required to inspect an assigned item of CESE?
|
Before, during and after operations
|
|
Define concealment:
|
Anything that hides you from enemy
|
|
When donning the MCU-2/P mask, how do you test to ensure that you have a proper, airtight seal?
|
Place hand over canister inlet and inhale deeply until the mask collapses around your face, this indicates a good seal
|
|
P-437, Volume 1,part 1 contains_________________
|
Component sheet site plans
|
|
An FPF (Not FPL) is:
|
an immediately available interlocking, prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede enemy movement across defensive lines or areas.
|
|
What does CPO (Suit) stand for?
|
Chemical Protective Overgarment
|
|
How long is NAVFAC 11260/2 valid for and when does it expire?
|
2 years, to expire on the operators birth date, consistent with year of birth.
|
|
What does the term DEADLINE mean?
|
When a piece of equipment cannot be returned to service to perform all functions and repair parts are not obtainable within 3 days
|
|
Which form is used to report equipment discrepancies?
|
NAVFAC 9-11240/13
|
|
The P-437 is divided into___________ volumes.
|
2
|
|
What is the purpose of grounding rods?
|
a. Protect life
b. Protect equipment from damage c. Protect the distribution system |
|
The 5 S’s for Enemy Prisoners of War are:
|
Search
Segregate Silence Speed Safeguard |
|
Key personnel in a convoy:
|
a) Convoy Commander
b) Vehicle Commander c) Pacesetter d) Trail Officer (Senior Enlisted.) e) Trail Maintenance Officer f) Security Team Leader |
|
A smooth level II contains all the _________________for one project?
|
master activities
|
|
PKP can extinguish what types of fires?
|
Class A,B,C
|
|
What is station #1 in a personnel decontamination site?
|
Individual Gear Decon
|
|
Use the RUSH when :
|
when cover is limited and when speed is essential.
|
|
What are the tactical requirements for a camp layout?
|
Sufficient space for proper dispersal of the command
Concealment from ground and air observation Protection against bombing of strafing attacks |
|
What type of CESE is included in a basic allowance of equipment?
|
Organic
|
|
SINCGARS Stands for:
|
Single Channel Ground Airborne Radio System
|
|
VX, Soman, Sarin are:
|
Nerve Agents
|
|
NCF Units:
UCTs |
Underwater Construction Teams (1 and 2)
|
|
What company is responsible for the operation and maintenance of automotive, construction and MHE assigned to the battalion ?
|
ALFA
|
|
What type of delivery system employs heat to disseminate chemical agents?
|
Thermal
|
|
The characteristics of the C-17 are:
ACL : 463L Pallet positions : Max passengers : |
90,000 Lbs.
18 102 |
|
What is the order for administering the NAAK?
|
1. Atropine
2. 2-Pam Chloride |
|
Name in order the Three levels of decontamination.
|
Immediate
Operational Thorough |
|
Deployment military training and GMT is reflected on a level_________
|
1
|
|
CHRIMP provides life cycle management of HAZMAT and reduces what?
|
HAZ WASTE
|
|
Second-degree burns are :
|
those burns resulting from deepened sunburn, contact with ignited liquids, such as gasoline, kerosene, or similar products.
|
|
What are the six categories of HAZMAT (A-F)?
|
A. Toxic Hazardous
B. Supply Medical C. Admin D. Shipboard E. Operating Forces F. Students |
|
Which publication provides policy and procedures in management of WHE and testing and licensing of operators?
|
NAVFAC P-307
|
|
Which decontamination kit contains a charcoal pad with a two-finger insert for pat down of contaminated body parts?
|
M291 Kit
|
|
What does MSDS stand for?
|
material safety data sheet
|
|
Which factors affect field radio communications capabilities?
|
a. towers
b. low lying areas c. valley’s |
|
Which area of naval doctrine results in coordination and unified efforts among different participants, and also in effective use of resources throughout and engagement?
|
Naval Planning
|
|
Who controls day to day use of assigned equipment?
|
Dispatcher
|
|
A Bailey M2, Panel Bridge is:
|
A through-type metal truss bridge with heavy timber decking
|
|
Where must an Operator’s Report of a Motor Vehicle Accident form be completed?
|
Site before leaving the scene of the accident
|
|
Which command manages the Navy’s Hazardous Material Control and Management program?
|
Occupational Safety and Health Agency
|
|
Which is a configuration of the RT-1523 that Seabees can use as a VHF Base Station?
|
AN/VRC-92A
|
|
What is the official birth date of the Seabees?
|
March 5 1942
|
|
At what level of decontamination do you perform a detailed troop, equipment and aircraft decon to reduce the risk to a negligible level?
|
Thorough
|
|
The first priority for a ADR organization is to ?
|
Establish the MOS
|
|
What is the primary method of communicating in a defense area?
|
Wire
|
|
The Vapor contamination control line is between steps ___ and ___ .
|
7
8 |
|
The Globemaster III is a:
|
C-17
|
|
What color on the Hazardous Warning label represents:
Reactivity |
Yellow
|
|
What is the literal translation of “Construimus Batuimus”
|
“We build, we fight”
|
|
The liquid contamination control line is between steps ___ and ___ .
|
4
5 |
|
During Claymore installation, the M57 firing device must be kept :
|
beside the Seabee installing the mine to prevent accidental firing by another Seabee.
|
|
What OF-13 rating is primarily responsible for the erection of pre engineered buildings (PEBs)?
|
SW
|
|
Who can clear a HAZMAT Spill area to resume work?
|
industrial hygienist
|
|
What regulation ensures the safe and effective use of hazardous materials?
|
Hazardous Communication Standard
|
|
The M8A1 alarm can be used indoors when :
|
a special outlet filter is attached
|
|
The Starlifter is a:
|
C-141
|
|
When was the name Seabee officially authorized for use?
|
March 5 1942
|
|
The Annual Industrial Hygiene survey gives us what information about the types of hazards in a workplace?
|
a. Lighting hazards
b. Noise Hazards c. Breathing hazards |
|
Far Ambush Distance (Convoy)
|
(greater than 50 meters) - By keeping convoy moving, break contact
Attempting to rush will in result in annihilation. |
|
The Hercules is a:
|
C-130
|
|
An Air Det is self sufficient for 30 days except for
|
a. food
b. ammunition c. fuel |
|
What is the identification marking for augment equipment CESE?
|
White background / Red numerals
|
|
In regards to Patrols, the APL is:
|
Assistant Patrol Leader
|
|
What is the purpose of training for embarkation?
|
a. To accomplish smoothness & efficiency
b. Indoctrinate personnel on specific responsibilities c. Ensure key petty officers have the ability to transform planning into reality |
|
A gun loop is effective because one leg can be cut:
|
and communications can still be effective.
|
|
What category of HAZMAT has a flash point below 200 degrees Fahrenheit?
|
flammables
|
|
What is an 1114 card?
|
Stock record card
|
|
Who should unsafe or unhealthful working conditions be reported to first?
|
Verbally to the immediate supervisor.
|
|
Linked reinforced MGBs:
|
a. Permit longer military load class(MLC)70 bridges
b. Are added under each girder for additional support c. Can carry a maximum load of MLC 70 (T) up to 150’ |
|
What is the best way to protect yourself against biological warfare?
|
a) Receive appropriate shots prior to deployment
b) Maintain camp and personal cleanliness |
|
Hazardous inventory control system tracks HAZMAT from where?
|
cradle to grave
|
|
During the Korean Conflict, Seabees participated in an operation to build an airfield at Yo Do in the Bay of Wonson for damaged aircraft. The name of this operation was _________________.
|
“Operation Crippled Chick”
|
|
What are the three major types of wire entanglements?
|
Protective
Tactical Supplementary |
|
The characteristics of the C-5 are:
ACL: Pallet positions : Max passengers : Max Passengers over water: |
150,000 Lbs.
36 343 329 |
|
What is the primary antenna associated with the AN/VRC-90A?
|
AS-3900
|
|
Who is the only Seabee to earn the Medal of Honor, and what conflict did he earn it?
|
CM3 Marvin Shields
Vietnam |
|
How many packets total are contained in the M291 personal decontamination kit?
|
6
|
|
If you feel you are faced with an unsafe situation and you or your crew may be in danger, what is your responsibility?
|
Stop the operation and consult your immediate supervisor.
|
|
The five steps of operational risk management in order are:
|
Identify hazards
assess hazards make decisions implement controls supervise |
|
Which are the four main sources of intelligence?
|
HUMINT
SIGINT COMINT ELINT |
|
First-degree burns are:
|
those burns resulting from overexposure to the sun, light contact with hot objects, or scalding by hot water or steam. The severe sunburn should receive medical care as soon as possible.
|
|
The “blast” from a nuclear attack is characterized by which description?
|
A large explosion that emits Alpha and Beta particles
|
|
Which publication provides policy for the management, acquisition, and use of motor vehicles?
|
NAVFAC P-300
|
|
Should you self-administer the CANA?
|
Never self-administer. Use it only as a buddy aid. If you think that you need it--you don't!
|
|
What are the safe low and high percentages for oxygen levels in an atmosphere?
|
19.5%-23.5%
|
|
The characteristics of the C-141 are:
ACL: Pallet positions : Max passengers : Max Passengers over water: |
50,000 Lbs.
13 200 153 |
|
After submitting a MEDEVAC request, establish Communication with the Helicopter pilot. What three things must be done before the helicopter safely lands?
|
Give the pilot the landing zone brief
Mark the landing zone Guide helicopter using hand-arm signals |
|
What is the text color and background color of a NATO Chemical Marker?
|
Red Inscription on Yellow Background
|
|
The site chosen for the RRP should offer what?
|
cover, concealment, and be out of the direct line of friendly small arms fire.
|
|
What system does Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) and his staff use to review, evaluate and assess threats and propose action?
|
Joint Strategic Planning System
|
|
React to aerial flares
If you are in a heavily wooded or vegetated area and are caught in the light of a flare: |
Then FREEZE in place until the flare burns out.
|
|
Poisonous by-products of organisms are:
|
Toxins
|
|
Identify the five colors of a map and what each color represents.
Blue: |
Blue - represents hydrography or water features such as streams, rivers, ponds, lakes, swamps, and reservoirs
|
|
What type of NCF unit was established in the middle 1960s?
|
UCT
|
|
What chemicals can M9 Tape detect?
|
Nerve and Blister agents
|
|
In regards to Patrols, the IRP is:
|
Initial Rally Point
|
|
Identify the five colors of a map and what each color represents.
Brown: |
Brown - represents contour lines
|
|
Who is responsible for the operation of the MOCC?
|
XO
|
|
The first Seabee sighting an attacking aircraft Shout:
|
AIRCRAFT, FRONT (RIGHT, LEFT, OR REAR).
|
|
Lockout and Tagout procedures are used on:
|
a. Electrical power sources
b. Air lines or steam lines c. Hydraulic Systems |
|
Patrol members should maintain visual contact with the patrol leader when?
|
at all times.
|
|
In the AN/PRC-119
SC is: |
Single Channel
|
|
What are the duties of Legal?
|
Wills
Power of Attorney Legal Matters SOFA |
|
What is the Master Chief Rating for either EO or CM?
|
EQCM
|
|
What is X1?
|
Chaplain
|
|
What color on the Hazardous Warning label represents:
Fire hazard |
Red
|
|
What is the range of the AN/PRC-150 with a :
Dipole Antenna |
1000+ miles
|
|
How do you purify water with calcium hypochlorite?
|
Fill the canteen with the cleanest water available. Leave an airspace of 1 inch or more below the neck of the canteen.
Fill a canteen cup half full of water and add the calcium hypochlorite from one ampule. Stir with a clean stick until the powder is dissolved. Fill the cap of a plastic canteen half full of the solution in the cup. Add it to the water in the canteen. Place the cap on the canteen. Shake it thoroughly. Loosen the cap slightly and invert the canteen. Let the treated water leak onto the threads around the neck of canteen. Tighten the cap on the canteen and wait at least 30 minutes before using the water for drinking or cooking. |
|
What are the duties of the S-7?
|
Scheduling and monitoring technical and military training in the NMCB
|
|
To orient a map using the North star, rotate the map so that the ________ arrow on the declination diagram is pointing towards the North Star.
|
True North
|
|
What is a PMSR?
|
Project material status report
|
|
A geographical finger is :
|
a short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge or hill.
|
|
What instruction manual provides policy, assign action, and provide guidance and procedures for the management of CESE assigned to NMCB?
|
COMCBPAC/COMCBLANTINST 11200.1 Series
|
|
What are the two methods to adjust IDF?
|
Bracket
Creep |
|
For _________, the victim will display are flushed, very dry and hot skin, constricted pupils, and a fast, strong pulse.
|
Heat Stroke
|
|
Partially embedded __________ particles must be continuously flushed with water while the first aid provider removes them with whatever tools are available.
|
White Phosphorous
|
|
For the below symptom, Identify the injury.
Deepest, white, or charred skin : |
Third-degree burn
|
|
How many TOTAL pressure points are there on the human body?
|
22
|
|
Which command can designate material as Hazardous Waste?
|
EPA
|
|
Prior to first use, temporary electrical power sources are inspected, certified safe, and
|
Tagged
|
|
What agent is also known as the “Canister Cracker”?
|
Blood Agent.
|
|
What color on the Hazardous Warning label represents:
Specific Hazard |
White
|
|
To orient a map using a compass, place the compass along the _____ line.
|
Magnetic North Arrow on the Declination Diagram
|
|
The AN/PRC-119F uses what Transmitter Receiver?
|
RT- 1523
|
|
Who is responsible for the timely movement of personnel and cargo from terminal airfield to deployment site?
|
Arrival airfield control group
|
|
How many MOPP levels are there?
|
5
|
|
The _____ officer is responsible for procuring, receiving, storing, issuing, and accounting for all equipment, repair parts, and construction materials. In addition, the _____ officer disburses government funds for battalion purchases and military pay.
|
S-4
|
|
A person who is in shock has had a serious disruption in the
|
circulation of blood
|
|
List the 6 areas of Naval Doctrine:
|
Warfare
Intelligence Planning Logistics Operations Command and Control |
|
This fire is usually fixed in direction and elevation and can be fired under all conditions of visibility.
|
FPL
|
|
Z FLASH is a precedence of significant emergency/urgency (enemy contact, enemy movements, medevac, and artillery/air support. Action is to be taken:
|
As soon as possible but not to exceed 10 minutes.
|
|
The Galaxy is a:
|
C-5
|
|
Lines within the grid square are read:
|
"RIGHT, THEN UP."
|
|
In regards to Patrols, the POD is:
|
Point of Departure
|
|
The ____officer is responsible for scheduling and monitoring technical and military training in the NMCB.
|
S-7
|
|
Who is responsible for storing, issuing, and accepting unused portions or empty containers?
|
HAZMINCEN
|
|
What is the standard MPH for a convoy on hardtop road in a tactical environment?
|
30 MPH
|
|
The least secure communication is radio because radio is particularly susceptible to_________.
|
interception
|
|
BAMCIS
|
Begin Planning
Arrange for Reconnaissance Make Reconnaissance and Coordination Complete the Plan Issue the Order Supervise |
|
What are the three types of locations for Fighting Positions?
|
Primary
Alternate Supplementary |
|
In very cold climates, Tight-fitting socks, boots, and gloves are:
|
especially dangerous
|
|
___________is cooling of the entire body. It can be caused by continued exposure to low or rapidly dropping temperatures, cold moisture, snow, and/or ice.
|
Hypothermia
|
|
What are the 2 techniques for Thorough decon?
|
Detailed Troop Decon (DTD)
Detailed Equipment Decon (DED) |
|
Ensure that the FPL obtains the maximum _______ fire.
|
grazing
|
|
Which of the following actions should be taken if serious equipment problems are found before an operation inspection?
|
Complete and return the operator’s inspection guide / trouble report to dispatch
|
|
Define cover:
|
Anything that gives protection from bullets, fragments of exploding rounds, flame, nuclear effects, and biological and chemical agents. Cover can also conceal you from enemy observation. Cover can be natural or man-made.
|
|
What color on the Hazardous Warning label represents:
Health Hazard |
Blue
|
|
In Convoys, this Key person has the following responsibilities: Leads/enforces march order of the convoy
|
Convoy commander
|
|
What is on a “Page 13”?
|
a chronological record of Significant miscellaneous entries that are not provided for elsewhere in the service record.
|
|
When examining a person with a chest injury, in what position should the victim be kept?
|
Standing
|
|
What is the operator preventive maintenance acronym?
|
Feel
Inspect Tighten Clean Adjust Lubricate |
|
What are the 3 techniques for immediate decon?
|
Skin Decon
Personal Wipedown Operators spraydown |
|
EEFI Beadwindow Code
01: |
01 Position
FRIENDLY POSITION, MOVEMENT OR INTENTED MOVEMENT: Position,course, speed, altitude or designation of any air, sea or ground element, unit or force. |
|
What is the range of the AN/PRC-150 with a :
AS-2259 |
300 miles
|
|
What is on a “Page 4”?
|
chronological history of your occupational and training related qualifications and your awards and commendations.
|
|
Naval Construction Force units are commissioned and assigned to the fleet by:
|
CNO
|
|
Who maintains the legal office?
|
S-1
|
|
What are the 5 leadership positions in a Company Formation?
|
1. Company Commander
2. Platoon Commander 3. Right Guide 4. Squad Leader 5. Fire Team Leader |
|
In the AN/PRC – 119
FH is: |
Frequency Hopping
|
|
Any Navy person may submit a written report of an unsafe or unhealthful working condition directly to the activity OSH office. To make a written hazard report, ___________form is used for this purpose.
|
OPNAV 5100/11
|
|
The battalion MLO is tasked with:
|
procuring, receiving, storing, issuing and inventorying project material
|
|
Naval Mobile Construction Battalions are required to conduct semi-annual and mid-deployment:
|
Field Exercises
|
|
What are the 3 types of COMSEC material supercession?
|
Regular – Perform in intervals as instructed
Irregular – Perform when directed Emergency – Contingent Operations |
|
Characteristics of the M16A3 Service Rifle:
Maximum effective range (Point Target): |
550 meters (individual or point target)
|
|
The most secure means of transmission is_________, followed by _______.
|
Messenger
Wire |
|
In land navigation, a well-defined object on your line of march from which you can guide is called:
|
A steering mark
|
|
Which principle of war dictates that there is a clearly defined, attainable goal before the outbreak of hostilities?
|
Objective
|
|
BMNT is:
|
begin morning nautical twilight
|
|
NCF Units:
CBMUs |
Construction Battalion Maintenance Unit (202 and 303)
|
|
What are the three types of fighting positions?
|
Hasty
One Man Two Man |
|
When the order for emergency destruction is given what material and or equipment should be destroyed first?
|
top secret
|
|
The AN/PRC-104B has a range of _______ miles with the AT-217A 10ft whip antenna.
|
10
|
|
EEFI Beadwindow Code
02: |
02 Capabilities
FRIENDLY CAPABILITIES OR LIMITATIONS: Force composition or identity, capabilities, limitations or significant casualties to special equipment, weapons systems, sensor units or personnel. Percentages of fuel or ammunition remaining. |
|
What are the three types of communication?
|
Radio
Wire Messenger |
|
Shock creates a vicious cycle; the worse it is…_________
|
the worse it will become.
|
|
EEFI Beadwindow Code
06: |
06 ComSec
FRIENDLY COMSEC LOCATIONS: Linkage of codes or code words with plain language, compromise of changing frequencies or linkage with line numbers, circuits designators, linkage of changing call signs with previous call signs or units. |
|
Use the column formation to:
|
(1) permit rapid, controlled movement.
(2) favor fire and maneuver to the flanks. |
|
What form is used to change the COSAL?
|
If there are any discrepancies, the work center needs to fill out (OPNAV 4790/CK) and give it to supply in order to update the COSAL
|
|
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Weight of Total: |
128 lbs. (approx)
|
|
What is CTR?
|
The Central Tool room manages that portion of the NMCB TOA which consists of items such as hand and power tools, trademan's tool kits, and other special tools.
|
|
Define COMSEC:
|
COMSEC is defined as that protection resulting from all measures designed to deny unauthorized persons information of value from the study of communications.
|
|
Identify the five colors of a map and what each color represents.
Green: |
Green - represents vegetation such as orchards, forests, and shrubs
|
|
Characteristics of the M9 :
Muzzle Velocity - |
375 meter/sec or 1230.3 Feet Per Second
|
|
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
Length: |
43.1 inches
|
|
The MK 19 MOD 3 is:
|
40-mm Grenade Machine Gun
|
|
What is the Frequency of the VRC-92?
|
VHF
|
|
MOPP Level 4:
|
Mask: Worn
Overgarment: Worn Vinyl Overboot: Worn Gloves: Worn Helmet Protective Cover: Worn |
|
The _____ is the tripod for the M2 .50 cal machine gun.
|
M3
|
|
Characteristics of the 240B :
Ammunition : ________ cartridges are used with a Blank Firing Attachment (BFA) during training when simulated live fire is desired. |
Blank
|
|
Consider mounted M2/MK 19 firing positions when:
|
Enough firepower can be employed from a vehicle to accomplish the mission
The section may have to displace quickly. |
|
_________burns are usually the result of spending too much time in the sun, short contact with chemicals, or minor scalding with hot water or steam.
|
first- degree
|
|
How many 240Bs are in a Battalion TOA?
|
16
|
|
For the below symptom, Identify the injury.
Vomiting dark blood : |
Skull Injury
|
|
What does EPMAC stand for?
|
Enlisted Personnel Management Center
|
|
Cyanogen Chloride, Arsine are:
|
Blood Agents
|
|
What form must be used by manufacturers of chemical products to communicate to the users the chemical, physical, and hazardous properties of their product?
|
MSDS
|
|
What is the mission of an NMCB?
|
The mission of an NMCB is to provide military construction support to the Navy, Marine Corps, and other forces engaged in military operations. In addition, an NMCB constructs base facilities and conducts defensive operations as required by the circumstances of the deployment situation. When an emergency or a disaster occurs, NMCBs conduct disaster control recovery operations and emergency public works operating functions.
|
|
What publication is entitled “Management of Civil Engineering Support Equipment”?
|
P-300
|
|
What is CMS?
|
Communications Security Material System
|
|
When decontaminating the hood and mask using the M291 skin decon kit,
use decon packet ____ first, then decon packet _____. |
2
1 |
|
What does EEFI stand for and what radio transmission is associated with disclosure of EEFI on an uncovered circuit?
|
Essential Elements of Friendly Information
Beadwindow |
|
What are blister agent symptoms?
|
Immediate and intense pain, particularly in the eyes and respiratory tract
Inflammation and blisters Blindness Wheals or welts/small hard blisters Coughing up blood Shock |
|
In WWII, Seabees were involved primarily in the war against _____________?
|
Japan
|
|
Unmasking procedures when the M256A1 kit is not available will take
approximately _____ minutes. |
35
|
|
An _______ nuclear report may be prepared as the result of radiological monitoring or when survey or monitoring data has been requested by higher headquarters.
|
NBC 4
|
|
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
Rates of fire: Rapid: |
60 rpm
|
|
Who counsels subordinate petty officers?
|
CMC
|
|
What is defined as a sharp pulse of radio frequency that is produced when an explosion occurs in an unsymmetrical environment?
|
EMP
|
|
What phone does a Platoon leader use to communicate with the Company CP?
|
TA-312
|
|
Characteristics of the M16A3 Service Rifle:
Maximum effective rate of fire (automatic): |
90 rpm (limited by magazine changes)
|
|
When terrain and situation permit, employ machine guns in_____.
|
pairs
|
|
Characteristics of the M16A3 Service Rifle:
Sustained rate of fire: |
12 to 15 Rounds Per Minute (rpm).
|
|
When is the DD 200 form used?
|
To document the report of survey and certify the survey process when property is gained or lost by the government.
|
|
What does NFELC stand for?
|
Naval Facilities Expeditionary Logistics Center
|
|
What is the M136?
|
(AT4), HEAT, 84-mm Launcher
|
|
_____________ results from all measures taken to deny unauthorized persons information of value that might be obtained from interception and analysis of compromising emanations from cryptographic equipment and telecommunications systems.
|
Emission security
|
|
_________blood is usually brick red in color.
|
Capillary
|
|
What are the three types of controls in risk management?
|
Engineering controls
Administrative controls Personal Protective Equipment |
|
Use the wedge formation to:
|
(1) permit good all around control.
(2) provide all around security (overlap sectors of observation or fire). (3) make formations flexible. (4) ensure that fire support is adequate in all directions. |
|
M136 (AT4), HEAT, 84-mm Launcher
Length: |
40 inches
|
|
What are the duties of the S-4?
|
Request funding
Meals Gear needed Logistics Support Credit Cards |
|
What is a PS?
|
Personnel Specialist
|
|
During hours of low visibility, you may have to feel inside the M2 receiver and chamber to ensure that_______
|
no rounds are present.
|
|
______is the process of adjusting the point of aim to coincide with the strike of the rounds by adjusting the sights until a good sight picture is obtained on the point of impact.
|
Zeroing
|
|
In the AN/PRC-119
PT is: |
Plain Text
|
|
_____ (CESE) do not go into live storage.
|
Cranes
|
|
What is a ADR DAT?
|
Airfield Damage Repair Damage Assessment Team.
|
|
How many MK-19s are in a Battalion TOA?
|
6
|
|
Many chemical agents have similar symptoms at the onset; for example:
|
headaches, nausea, dizziness, and tightness in chest or difficulty in breathing.
|
|
What is an IT?
|
Information Systems Technician
|
|
Ground Fault Circuit Interruption – all temporary power must have one and be properly ground to the earth, it trips at:
|
0.5 mAmps
|
|
A ___________ mask protects personnel from dust and is an Air Purifier, but does not provide oxygen.
|
Filter Type
|
|
What is the maximum range of the TA-1/PT?
|
4 miles
|
|
What is ALE?
|
Automatic link establishment.
The use of several HF frequencies programmed into radio. The radio will automatically try to communicate on a frequency and move to the next until a good link can be established. |
|
Except when engaging other targets, machine guns will continually be laid on their assigned___.
|
FPL
|
|
Military compounds are used for which of the following reasons?
|
a) Training
b) Riot Control |
|
What type of CESE is requested when an assigned project requires equipment beyond the P-25 TOA?
|
Augment
|
|
What are the duties of the S-3?
|
Write the OPORDER
Tailor the Air Det Monitor Projects (LEVEL 1) Assign each project to a prime contractor or project manager for execution. Construction Combat Disaster Preparedness |
|
The most important first aid treatment for venomous snakebites is:
|
reducing the circulation of blood through the bite area.
|
|
Pulling the retracting handle of the M2 machine gun to the rear once to ____ , and repeat again to ____.
|
Half Load
Fully Load |
|
EENT:
|
end of evening nautical twilight
|
|
How many frequencies can be preprogrammed into the RT-1523 when it is being used in SC mode?
|
8
|
|
When performing CPR, the ratio of breaths per minute to heart compressions is
|
12 to 90
|
|
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Rates of fire: Rapid: |
40 rpm or more
|
|
TOD of a message is:
|
Time of Delivery of an outgoing message
|
|
What is the frequency range of the RT-1209 (the transceiver associated with the AN/PRC-104)?
|
2 - 29.9999 MHz
|
|
URGENT MEDEVAC is required:
|
Casualty must be moved immediately to save life or limb, or to prevent complication of a serious illness
|
|
What are the 4 types of shoring?
|
Sleeper
Rolling Parking Approaching |
|
ROUTINE is a precedence that is significant to the unit in administrative matters (resupply, weather reports, and motor transport maintenance). Action
should be taken within: |
six hours from the time of receipt of the message.
|
|
What 8x8x20 cargo container has open sides and top?
|
Flat-rack
|
|
What is BATLAN?
|
This is basically an email system while in the field.
It is laptops connected to a server running Microsoft outlook. |
|
What is TACLAN?
|
A VHF system which allows the transfer of messages via data.
|
|
On a range card, MAG AZ stands for:
|
Magnetic Azimuth
|
|
A ____________Fire mission is used to engage oblique targets.
|
Searching Traverse
|
|
The A3 departments are:
|
1. Transportation Supervisor
2. Yard Boss 3. Dispatcher 4. Collateral Equipment 5. Road Master 6. License Examiner |
|
What are the “Top 4” items to consider when setting up a camp defense?
|
Automatic Weapons
LP/OPs Wire Plan Patrols |
|
Who supervises movement of battalion materials?
|
Supply Officer
|
|
_________– lists all repair parts and components (part II of the COSAL)
|
APL – Allowance Parts list
|
|
What does POE stand for?
|
Projected Operational Environment
|
|
Clear the LZ area of rocks, debris, stumps, and other obstacles over ______ high.
|
1 Foot
|
|
The symptoms of __________are excessive sweating that may result in painful cramps in the muscles of the abdomen, legs, and arms.
|
heat cramps
|
|
What is an SK?
|
Store Keeper
|
|
What are the 2 types of frostbite?
|
Superficial
Deep |
|
What does TOA stand for?
|
Table of Allowance
The TOA identifies and quantifies the basic personnel, material, and equipment for the performance of the unit's mission(s) in contingency, wartime, and disaster recovery operations. |
|
What are the 8 Major groups of the M240B?
|
Barrel Assembly
Butt stock and Buffer Assembly Driving Spring Rod Assembly Bolt and Operating Rod Assembly Trigger Mechanism/Housing Assembly Cover Assembly Feed Tray Receiver Assembly with Handguard |
|
An automatic weapon firing position must have:
|
limiting stakes
a water trench grenade sumps a parapet overhead cover |
|
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Weight of Barrel: |
24 lbs. (approx)
|
|
Radio Diagram: The COC must communicate via radio to who?
|
Company CPs
Patrols Convoys Projects ACOC MAGTF ANT FARM Emergency Broadcast Station |
|
Assign a Principal Direction of Fire (PDF) for a machine gun only when the terrain does not allow for ___________.
|
effective FPL fires.
|
|
Characteristics of the 240B :
Ammunition : ________ cartridges are used during training. |
Dummy
|
|
In Alfa Company, the parts common kit is known as:
|
Modifier Code 96
And Modifier Code 97 |
|
What must be considered when setting up a decontamination station?
|
a) Wind direction
b) Cover and Concealment c) Drainage |
|
Status of Resources and Training System
What is C5? |
C5: Not prepared to undertake mission
|
|
The best method for removing ticks is to coat them with:
|
petroleum jelly, baking powder paste, or clear nail polish.
|
|
Which of the following is a type of RESPIRATOR most often used in the battalion?
|
Air Purifying
|
|
Characteristics of the M16A3 Service Rifle:
Weight: Approx. |
8.79 lb (with 30 round magazine)
|
|
What is the GPCP?
What is the maximum purchase amount? |
GPCP – Government Purchase Card Program – purchases less than $2,500
|
|
Assignment of a Principal Direction of Fire (PDF).
Ensure the position covers: |
Ensure the position covers likely avenues of approach.
|
|
What is OPTAR 04:
|
Per diem and TAD travel
|
|
Characteristics of the M203 :
Minimum safe firing range from HE: |
31-meters/102 ft. (combat)
|
|
What is an ET?
|
Electronics Technician
|
|
What form is used to change any allowance list?
|
1220-2 Allowance Change Request
|
|
Who provides advice and expertise in small arms?
|
Military Advisor
|
|
What number on the Hazardous Warning label represents:
Degree of Hazard = No Hazard |
0
|
|
What is the purpose of a mishap investigation?
|
To prevent similar mishaps
|
|
What does EOF stand for?
|
Escalation of Force
|
|
Blood from _______is dark red in color
|
veins
|
|
What does CREO 2 mean?
|
"CREO 2" = MANNED AT DESIRED LEVELS
|
|
No attempt should be made to put a dislocated bone back into place, unless it is known that medical assistance cannot arrive within ___ or ___ days.
|
3 or 4 days
|
|
What is the range of the RT-1523 with a:
OE-254 |
36 miles
|
|
Blood circulates throughout the body by means of three different kinds of blood vessels:
|
arteries
veins capillaries |
|
What is on a MSDS?
|
physical/chemical characteristics
health hazard data reactivity data |
|
What is the LOEP?
|
List of Effective Pages
|
|
What does PPRS stand for?
|
Pre-Planned Responses
|
|
For the below symptom, Identify the injury.
Eyes are irritated : |
Flash burn
|
|
Ensure that you locate supplementary fighting positions in areas that provide protection against
_________________. |
surprise enemy attack
|
|
What are the 6 types of grenades?
|
Fragmentation
Incendiary Illumination Chemical Smoke Practice/Training |
|
The Battalion _________ is responsible for maintaining the health of the personnel of the command.
|
Medical Officer
|
|
_____ can be military police or other personnel for a non-tactical convoy, during a tactical convoy may be armed guards, armed aircraft infantry, armored units as required to protect or accompany the convoy.
|
Escorts
|
|
When clearing fields of fire, ensure that you clear in an___________, which will not reveal the position of the machine gun.
|
irregular pattern
|
|
What are the camouflage colors for all personnel in snow regions?
|
Loam & white
|
|
Ensure that FPL dead space can be covered by:
|
alternate weapons (munitions, M203 grenade launchers, mortars, claymore mines).
|
|
UHF: Ultra High Frequency is ____ to ____MHz
|
300 to 3,000
|
|
How many empty 463L pallets can be safely stacked up?
|
30
|
|
Classes of Supply:
Class 3 is: |
Petroleum Oil and Lubricants (POL)
|
|
What is an RFI?
|
Request for information – questions on design/plans
|
|
What is the Navy Occupational
Safety and Health (NAVOSH) Program Manual. |
OPNAVINST 5100.23D
|
|
Characteristics of M203 ammunition :
The multipurpose round (buckshot)________, contains no mechanical type fuze. |
M576
|
|
What does ROC stand for?
|
Required Operational Capabilities
|
|
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Maximum range: |
6800 meters (approx)
|
|
Describe the tactical employment and purpose of naval Mobile Construction Battalion weapon systems.
Automatic Rifleman: |
M16 rifle, backbone of the defense of the squad. Positioned first by the squad leader. The remainder of the fire team is positioned around the automatic rifles.
|
|
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
Rates of fire: Cyclic: |
325-375 rpm
|
|
If you receive a green color on an M9 paper, what does that signify?
|
Perform further testing, possibly a false reading
|
|
Characteristics of the M203 :
The two most common types of 40-mm ammunition used with the launcher are: |
High Explosive (HE) and Training Practice (TP).
|
|
DO NOT permit manpack or vehicular whip antennas to come in contact with:
|
high-power lines or other sources of electricity; injury or death could result.
|
|
Classes of Supply:
Class 5 is: |
Ammunition
|
|
While on patrol, the RRP is:
|
Re-entry rally point
|
|
What does DRMO stand for?
|
Defense reutilization marketing office (DRMO)
|
|
Characteristics of the 240B :
Length: |
49 inches
|
|
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
Rates of fire: Cyclic: |
325-375 rpm
|
|
Tools borrowed from another unit must be inspected by CTR before :
|
put into use.
|
|
______ ensures requirements for supplies still exist (cancels material no longer needed, needs receipt to close out) – Completed Quarterly
|
MOV – Material Obligation Validation program
|
|
What is a FR?
|
Force Revision
|
|
The _____officer is responsible for contingency planning and intelligence collection.
|
S-2
|
|
D. Eisenhower first promulgated the Code of Conduct for members of the Armed Forces of the United States on August 17, _____.
|
1955
|
|
What are the three Antennas used at the Ant Farm?
|
AS-2259 (HF)
OE-254 (VHF) TR-72 (HF) |
|
A ______ kit detects nerve, blister and blood agents in water
25 test per kit |
M272A1
|
|
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Maximum range: |
6800 meters (approx)
|
|
Describe the tactical employment and purpose of naval Mobile Construction Battalion weapon systems.
Automatic Rifleman: |
M16 rifle, backbone of the defense of the squad. Positioned first by the squad leader. The remainder of the fire team is positioned around the automatic rifles.
|
|
Who is responsible for Planning, scheduling, and managing of battalion construction, combat, and disaster recovery Ops?
|
Operations (S3)
|
|
What are the duties of the S-6?
|
Establish Comms for the COC
Issue Comm gear Review Comm requests |
|
If there is nerve agent poisoning to a downed Seabee, administer the antidote using whose injector/ampoules?
|
The casualty’s
|
|
What is an NC?
|
Navy Counselor
|
|
Characteristics of the M203 :
Point target range: |
150 meters
|
|
A full-time military motor vehicle operator will not drive a motor vehicle during any period if that duty period was not preceded by
|
8 consecutive hours off duty
|
|
Tent Camp Layout:
How far are Heads from the water supply? |
100 Meters
|
|
The purpose of a mishap investigation is to determine:
|
How the mishap can be prevented in the future
|
|
What does the COC stand for?
|
Combat Operations Center
|
|
The color code for this road condition is:
Subject to limited hostile activity |
Yellow
|
|
Ensure that you locate alternate fighting positions where the machine gun teams can continue to accomplish the_____________.
|
primary mission
|
|
What is a FAR?
|
Field Adjustment Request – field change from NMCB (changes based on materials, experience, efficiencies)
|
|
In terms of COMSEC, what does PDS mean?
|
Practices Dangerous to Security
|
|
Characteristics of the M16A3 Service Rifle:
Maximum effective range (Area Target): |
800 meters
|
|
Establishing equal opportunity programs for each command is the purpose of :
|
Command Managed Equal Opportunity Program
|
|
What is the 17th master activity?
|
Expeditionary structures
|
|
After the sucking chest wound is sealed and dressed, the victim should be placed on the ________side unless there are back injuries.
|
wounded
|
|
Can a Tricon fit on a 463L pallet?
|
Yes
|
|
What is the principle element of command and control?
|
Command
|
|
A white phosphorus burn to the skin is complicated because the white phosphorus particles
|
ignite upon contact with the air.
|
|
This weapon can be used against antiarmor, gun emplacements, and bunkers.
|
M136 (AT4), HEAT, 84-mm Launcher
|
|
What is Rolling shoring?
|
Used to protect the aircraft parking ramp, floor, and loading ramps (used especially for tracked or cleated vehicles)
|
|
Who are the 3 enlisted who work directly for the CO?
|
CMC
Military Advisor Safety Chief |
|
What are the characteristics of the M500?
|
Manually operated, Single shot, Magazine feed (tubular), Pump action, Shoulder-fired weapon
|
|
Use the LOW CRAWL when:
|
a) The route you have selected provides cover or concealment less than one foot high.
b) Visibility provides the enemy good observation. c) Speed is not required. |
|
Following confinement of oil spills on water, what 2 Methods of removing the confined liquid are used.
|
Adsorbents
Skimming |
|
What Radio is in the Company CPs?
|
AN/PRC-119
|
|
What does MOCC stand for?
|
Mount Out Control Center
|
|
In the 5 step ORM process, explain the purpose of:
Implement Controls |
Implement control measures
|
|
For the below symptom, Identify the injury.
Blood coming from the nose : |
Skull injury
|
|
What is a kit 80013?
|
Mechanics Kit
|
|
What field telephone is DSN capable?
|
TA-838
|
|
________ is responsible for the convoys action during movement. He initiates the march, issues and enforces march orders, and supervises the movement.
|
Convoy commander
|
|
Who maintains battalion library on directives and pubs:
|
Admin/Personnel (S1)
|
|
The PRC-117 (UHF/SATCOM) uses what RT?
|
RT 1796
|
|
A draw is :
|
a short, continuous sloping line of low ground, normally cut into the side of a ridge or hill.
Often, there is a small stream running down the draw. |
|
The M240B uses the ____ tripod with T&E mechanism.
|
M122
|
|
How many hazard categories of hazardous material (HAZMAT)?
|
6
|
|
What bridge is 12’-6” wide, can span up to 210’
|
Bailey Bridge
|
|
Engaging point, wide, deep, and oblique battlefield targets from a tripod-mounted gun is known as:
|
transition firing
|
|
________ bleeding is life threatening and difficult to control.
|
Arterial
|
|
A means for others to positively locate your gun position. The line is drawn from a prominent terrain feature that is located behind friendly lines.
|
Magnetic Orientation Line
|
|
During initial emergency treatment, it is imperative that a ____________be sealed with an airtight dressing.
|
sucking chest wound
|
|
What does this formula calculate: 67/PEF?
|
A delay factor (DF)
|
|
What does AP stand for?
|
Advance Party
|
|
What are the camouflage colors for dark skinned personnel in other than snow regions?
|
Sand & dark green
|
|
For camp layout Keep BAS near the ______ (overflow BAS) and near the ___.
|
Chow Hall
LZ |
|
Due to the Amplifier and height of antennas, range of the VRC-92 is increased to ______miles. Since RT is the same, operation of radio is the same as a PRC-119.
|
25-30
|
|
Mount out procedures for CESE:
Supply Prep |
Mobile loading (filling up empty spaces)
|
|
You have a HAZMAT spill of a highly dangerous product, what is your first procedure in response?
|
evacuate the area
|
|
Air Det Weapons
___ M2 50 cal ___ M19 Grenade machine guns ___ M240B machine gun ___ M203 ___ M500 |
2
2 4 12 12 |
|
What does CHRIMP stand for?
|
Consolidated HAZMAT Reutilization Inventory Management Program
|
|
Sporadic damage to a runway that looks like shrapnel wounds is called a:
|
Spall
|
|
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun :
The "HB" designation stands for_______ . |
"heavy barrel."
|
|
What is the function of the S3 in the COC?
|
Keeps the S3 board up to date with:
Patrols, Convoys, Projects |
|
What is the primary mission of a Battalion after an airfield attack?
|
Airfield Damage Repair
|
|
Who is responsible for tactical communications training, equipment, and procedures?
|
COMM/ADP (S6)
|
|
What does CAS stand for?
|
Construction Activity Summary
|
|
How long is the CPO Suit good for in a contaminated environment?
|
6 Hours
|
|
What are ALL the enlisted rating in Alfa Co?
|
CM
EO HT MR |
|
What are the three major types of respirators?
|
Supplied Air
Self Contained Air Purifying |
|
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun :
Is it equipped with a safety? |
No
|
|
For the M240B, each click of elevation or traverse on the elevating hand wheel or the traversing
knob equals______. |
one mil
|
|
What is a GM?
|
Gunner's Mate
|
|
Using the M203, a gunner is expected to hit a window openings within :
|
100 meters
|
|
Positioning Seabees in some terrain features, like_____, will expose them to increased hazards from a biological/chemical attack. These areas retain moisture and block sunlight. These characteristics will allow biological agents (germs, mosquitoes, ticks, lice, and fleas) to thrive.
|
wooded areas or jungles
|
|
The AN-M14 is a/an _____ grenade.
|
Incendiary
|
|
Process by which units move equipment, cargo, and personnel to temporary staging area near embarkation points.
|
MARSHALLING
|
|
Characteristics of the M203 :
Maximum range: |
400 meters
|
|
______ fire is delivered over the heads of troops. It is usually plunging fire.
|
Overhead Fire
|
|
The M8 is a _______ grenade.
|
Smoke
|
|
For all Wire Communication plans: everything should be assembled into _______________.
A loop for fire teams/squad leader, a loop for squad leaders/platoon commanders, and a loop for Platoon Commanders to the Company Command Post. |
Gun Loops
|
|
Do not attach grenades to______ or ________.
|
Do not attach grenades to______ or ________.
|
|
Military Role in Domestic Disasters:
|
Response – sustaining life (major role)
Recovery – returning infrastructure and services Restoration – long term (limited role) |
|
What is the following Equipment Condition Code?
A1-A3 |
Serviceable/Unused - Good/Fair/Poor
|
|
The manual switchboard is the ____,
The automatic switchboard is the___. |
SB-22 (Manual)
SB-3614 (Automatic) |
|
What is the formula for calculating Manday Capability?
|
MC = WD x AF x CS x ME
|
|
The two methods of firing a M18A1 are:
|
Controlled
Uncontrolled |
|
Who functions as the prime contractor and/or subcontractor?
|
Company Commander
|
|
Which of the following forms is used to report equipment discrepancies?
|
NAVFAC 9-11240/13
|
|
EEFI Beadwindow Code
05: |
05 Personnel
FRIENDLY KEY PERSONNEL: Movement or identity of friendly or enemy flag officers, distinguished visitors, unit commanders, movements of key maintenance personnel indicating equipment limitations. |
|
In the Seabee TOA, what is MH?
|
Heavy Module (horizontal, water well, 49 pieces of CESE) – P25H
|
|
This round of M203 ammo lands on the deck and bounces up 2m to explode. 5m-casualty radius. Arms within 14m to 27m.
|
HE Air Burst
|
|
What is OPTAR 03:
|
Camp Maintenance
|
|
Identify the five colors of a map and what each color represents.
Red: |
Red - represents major roads and other cultural features such as populated areas and boundaries
|
|
Equipment is placed in _______when there is no foreseeable need for the equipment for a period of two preventive maintenance (PM) cycles or 80 working days and also it must be in A5 or better condition.
|
live storage
|
|
Supply, maintenance, transportation, engineering, health services, and other services (billeting, disbursing, etc.) are_________.
|
Functional areas of naval logistics
|
|
Bailey Bridge Configurations:
Single / Single Bridge: ___ ft Double / Single Bridge: ___ ft Double / Double Bridge: ___ ft |
100
140 180 |
|
A listing of equipment and its support material, which allows a unit to be self-sufficient for 1,800 construction hours or 90 days, is found in the
|
COSAL
|
|
M136 (AT4), HEAT, 84-mm Launcher
There is a back-blast of ___ meters (casualty area) and ___ meters (danger area). |
5
60 |
|
RAC 4 =
|
Minor
|
|
When a piece of CESE is deadline or anticipated to be, it is designated as_______ or __________.
|
NORS
ANORS |
|
What is EKMS?
|
Electronic Key Management System
|
|
What is OPTAR 08:
|
Training, DET swings, Emergency Leave
|
|
The Safety Policy committee is made up of ?
|
Company Commanders and Department Heads
|
|
What are the Eight Steps of the M16 Firing Cycle?
|
Feeding
Chambering Locking Firing Unlocking Extraction Ejection Cocking |
|
Air Det is self sufficient for ____ days minus food (___ days), fuel (__ days), and ammo (___ days).
|
30
5 3 15 |
|
Air Det is capable of mounting out within ____ hours.
|
48
|
|
How many M2 .50s are in a Battalion TOA?
|
6
|
|
Who is authorized to certify a confined space as safe for entry by personnel?
|
Gas-free engineer
|
|
What are the 6 types of chemical agents?
|
Blood
Blister Nerve Chocking Incapacitating Military Compounds |
|
The maximum extent of the grazing fire is _____ meters for the M240B or _____meters for the M2 if there is no sharp rise or fall in terrain at a closer distance.
|
600
1,000 |
|
What is the length and width of a 2-man fighting position?
|
1 M16 Long by 2 M16s Wide
|
|
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Weight of Receiver Group: |
60 lbs.
|
|
___________ is a unit reporting format utilized to summarize a unit’s training and operational readiness to higher headquarters and the theater commanders.
|
SORTS
|
|
Who disburses funds for purchases, pay, and allowances?
|
Supply (S4)
|
|
What does SLRP stand for?
|
Surveillance Liaison and Reconnaissance Party
|
|
Broken damage through the runway is called a :
|
Crater
|
|
The four elements relevant to each functional area of naval logistics are:
|
Acquisition, Distribution, Sustainment & Disposition
|
|
For indirect fire, there are three methods of target location:
|
Polar plot
Grid Shift from a known point |
|
What is X4?
|
Medical
|
|
Regarding the USMC, what does MEB stand for?
|
Marine Expeditionary Brigade
|
|
What are ALL the HQ enlisted ratings?
|
CS
SK LN HM PS YN BM IT ET PC SH NC MC MA GM Military Advisor (USMC) Air force MTSG |
|
The purpose of the ACR is to
|
submit an allowance change request to any published allowance list.
|
|
TALCE is:
|
Tanker Airlift Control Element
|
|
A campsite should not have been occupied by other units in last ____ months.
|
2
|
|
What type of Ammunition has the following color:
Violet |
Blank
|
|
Who drafts and produces internal pubs (POW):
|
Admin/Personnel (S1)
|
|
What are examples of FFIRs?
|
Battle space Commander
Adjacent Units Comm assets in the area ROE Call for fire / Medevac |
|
Who Operates the mail system?
|
Supply (S4)
|
|
What is the most common cold injury?
|
Frostbite
|
|
In Alfa Co. the Repair Parts Peculiar is also known as :
|
Modifier Code 98
Or Mod 98 |
|
What is the max height one can load a 463L pallet?
|
96 inches
|
|
MOPP gear exchange is the removal of ____________ and is performed in conjunction with hasty decon operations.
|
gross liquid contamination
|
|
Divers belong to this NCF unit:
|
UCT
|
|
Who is responsible for organizing and/or conducting workplace safety inspections to identify violations?
|
Safety Officer
|
|
A dislocation is when:
|
a joint, such as a knee, ankle, or shoulder, is not in proper position.
|
|
Before working on electricity, hydraulics, engines, or batteries, they must be
|
Locked/tagged out
|
|
What is the cost of a single
AN-PVS/7C? |
$6253
|
|
Characteristics of the 240B :
Muzzle velocity: |
2,800 fps
|
|
_____ is used to change quantity on an allowance list (item failure rate is more/less than expected, new mission requirement, technological improvements)
|
NAVSUP 1220-2, Allowance Change Request (ACR)
|
|
Partially embedded ___________ particles must be continuously flushed with water while the first aid provider removes them with whatever tools are available.
|
White Phosphorous
|
|
What is DAPA?
|
Drug and Alcohol Program Advisor (DAPA).
|
|
The PLGR antenna can be swiveled :
|
to improve reception.
|
|
Just because a Seabee has clearance to view classified material, doesn’t automatically mean _____ will be granted.
|
Access
|
|
What is an SH?
|
Ship's Serviceman
(Barber, laundry, tailor, cobbler) |
|
When developing a patrol plan, use ________ to plan based on the remaining time available.
|
Backwards planning
|
|
____ Company Is responsible for the operation and maintenance of the automotive, construction and materials-handling equipment assigned to the battalion.
|
Alfa
|
|
What is the function of the Messenger in the COC?
|
Deliver messages to assigned locations. Most secure, can deliver yellow canneries to CPs when comms fail.
|
|
What is available for equipment Decon?
|
M295 – oven mitt like with 4 individual packets (activate charcoal)
M100 – Chemical DECON for vehicles M17 – Pressure washer |
|
What is the SSAP?
|
Seabee Skills Assessment Program: continuously update member skills (general/rating/military/construction)
|
|
What are the HF (non-mobile) antennas used at the Ant Farm?
|
TR-72
AS-2259 |
|
______ company is responsible for water, sanitary sewer, power distribution systems, fuel systems, and communications projects.
Also serves as a mini public works department providing for maintenance and operation of the unit’s camp. |
Bravo
|
|
In the 5 step ORM process, explain the purpose of:
Supervise |
Supervise personnel
|
|
The M15WP, and M34WP are:
|
Smoke Grenades
|
|
A bone that has been forcibly displaced from its joint is____________.
|
dislocated
|
|
Requisition/consumption reporting document used by submarine force and non-automated units.
|
NAVSUP 1250-1
|
|
Never heat a frost bitten areas with :
|
An open fire.
|
|
How many M203s are in a Battalion TOA?
|
48
|
|
What is the MPP?
|
MPP – Master Packing Plan – packed with TOA during mount out, assigns item to a specific container.
|
|
What is a PC?
|
Postal Clerk
|
|
The P-437 is no longer in publication and has been replace by :
|
ABFC View web based database
|
|
A ________is the opposite direction of a particular azimuth. It is the same as doing an "about face."
|
back azimuth
|
|
In areas where noise levels consistently exceed ____ dB sound level, a combination of insert type and circumaural (muff) type hearing protective devices must be worn by personnel.
|
104
|
|
What do you use to measure actual ground distance on a map?
|
The bar scale
|
|
There is no antidote for _____ agents.
|
Blood
|
|
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
What is the gun mount? |
M64 Mount
|
|
If mandays earned is greater than mandays expended then the project is ahead of / behind Schedule.
|
Ahead of
|
|
Name the members of a crew served gun team:
|
Team Leader
Gunner Ammo Bearer #1 Ammo Bearer #2 |
|
A patrol leader will receive a warning order for a patrol, from that order, what are the two orders that will be issued by the patrol leader?
|
Patrol Warning Order
Patrol Order |
|
Place _____________in front of the defensive perimeter to conceal the exact line of tactical wire.
|
supplementary wire
|
|
Characteristics of M203 ammunition :
HEDP is what? |
High Explosive Dual Purpose
|
|
What are the 3 levels of ORM?
|
Time Critical
Deliberate In-Depth |
|
What are the three types of labor?
|
Direct
Indirect Overhead |
|
Warning sent over the net to alert operators that hostile forces are attempting to intrude on the net by Imitative Communications Deceptions.
|
GINGERBREAD
|
|
When under NBC attack, when do you give warning?
|
After you mask
|
|
What is the MSC?
|
Military Sealift Command
|
|
Regarding the SB-22, how many lines can be connected:
Single Stacked |
12
29 |
|
RAC 1 =
|
Critical
|
|
What does FLOT stand for?
|
Forward Line of Troops
|
|
The __________ is responsible for the interpretation and application of the Uniform Code of Military Justice.
|
Legal Officer
|
|
Which principle of war constantly aims to keep the enemy at a disadvantage through the constant shifting of ones own force?
|
Maneuver
|
|
What does CREO stand for?
|
Career Reenlistment Objectives
|
|
The _________ are a lightweight, gas- operated, air-cooled, magazine-fed, shoulder- fired weapon that can be fired either on automatic or semiautomatic.
|
M16A3 service rifles
|
|
The ___________ officer is responsible for the orderly and efficient embarkation of the entire NMCB or any portion thereof.
|
Embarkation Officer
|
|
Any breach or possible breach of Security or classified material is known as a _____ and must be dealt with immediately.
|
compromise
|
|
A cliff is:
|
a vertical or near vertical terrain feature.
|
|
Any material that absorbs HAZMAT, becomes _________.
|
HAZMAT
|
|
In terms of camp layout:
Disperse berthing, don’t face tents towards _______. |
The forward line of troops.
|
|
What does the “WD” stand for in
WD-1? |
Wire Drum
|
|
When deployed, NMCBs shall be ready to redeploy with their entire TOA within ___ days.
|
6
|
|
Organic CESE allowances are not designed to meet every_______
|
need.
|
|
What are the three billets that work directly for the S4?
|
S4A
MLO S4C |
|
ABFC stands for:
|
Advanced Base Functional Component
|
|
What is ECCM?
|
Electronic Counter - Countermeasures
|
|
What does ECP stand for?
|
Entry Control Point
|
|
A grenadiers position is near the __________.
|
Squad Leader
|
|
Air Echelon is self-sustaining for ___ days, except for Class I, III, V.
|
60
|
|
What batteries are used in a TA-1?
|
None, it’s sound powered
|
|
Under Airfield Damage Repair, what does BXO stand for?
|
Buried Unexploded Ordinance
|
|
The effective radius of the M67 is:
|
15 Meters
|
|
What are the three types of Medium Girder Bridges?
|
Single Story
Double Story Linked Reinforced |
|
A monthly statement of a command's enlisted personnel account:
|
Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR)
|
|
What are the three types of chemical weapon delivery methods?
|
Ground burst
Air burst Thermal |
|
There are ____ categories of Production Efficiency Factors. The default value for each PEF is _____. The final PEF is found by calculating an _________ of the values.
|
8
67 Average |
|
During Mopp gear exchange, when no material is provided on which the decontaminated equipment may be placed, such as____________, then decontaminate a poncho and place it upwind of the column.
|
a plastic sheet or poncho
|
|
Classes of Supply:
Class 9 is: |
Repair Parts
|
|
What is the VHF vehicle mounted antenna?
|
AS-3900
|
|
Who works directly under the H6?
|
H5
|
|
What is the Junction box model number?
|
J-1077
|
|
What are the Convoy immediate action drills?
|
Deliberate high clear (overpass)
Deliberate low clear (overpass) Hasty overpass Clearing Hasty Attack (suppress) Hasty Attack (assault) Hasty Defense (dismount) Hasty Recovery (tow with chain) Hasty Recovery (Push-Through) Bail out cold side (use vehicle as cover) IED discovery (5 “C”s) |
|
Where is the FLOT located in relation to the three echelons of Defense?
|
Between the Security area and Forward Defense Area.
|
|
_________ wire entanglements are located to prevent surprise assaults from points close to the defensive area.
|
Protective
|
|
NMCB companies all fall under the control of the:
|
S3
|
|
What are the two types of emergency classified information destruction?
|
Precautionary
Complete |
|
What is the maximum effective distance of a TA-312 field phone in wet and dry climates?
|
14 Miles Wet
22 Miles Dry |
|
There are _____ steps to developing planning a patrol.
|
12
|
|
What are the 12 steps of a patrol?
|
1. Study the mission
2. Plan the use of time 3. Study the terrain 4. Organize the patrol 5. Select the personnel, weapons and equipment 6. Issue the warning order 7. Coordinate the logistics and entry/exit point locations 8. Make recon 9. Complete detail plan 10. Issue patrol order 11. Supervise rehearsal – inspect/reinspect 12. Execute the Mission |
|
What is a Class C fire?
|
Electrical
|
|
How long is the wire associated with an M18A1?
|
100 feet
|
|
What are the 4 types of bridges used in the NCF?
|
Mabey Johnson
Bailey Medium Girder Heavy Timber |
|
What are the steps for purifying water with iodine tablets?
|
Remove the cap from your canteen and fill the canteen with the cleanest water available.
Put two tablets in the canteen. Replace the cap and wait 5 minutes. Shake the canteen. Loosen the cap and tip the canteen over to allow leakage around the canteen threads. Tighten the cap and wait another 25 minutes before drinking (total of 30 minutes). |
|
The unit’s senior military member present at the project site shall direct all military personnel engaged in the work. At no time will Seabees be directed by_____.
|
non-Navy personnel
|
|
What is the NMCB mission in the MPS?
|
Beach improvements
Survivability structures (earthen berms) Airfield Improvements |
|
What is the following Equipment Condition Code?
F8 |
unserviceable/repairable – Fair
|
|
For a DED decon layout, what is station #2?
|
DS2 Application
|
|
What are the three antennas that can be used with the AN/PRC-119?
|
3 foot tape
10 foot Whip OE-254 |
|
M136 (AT4), HEAT, 84-mm Launcher
Caliber: |
84-mm
|
|
What does 3M stand for?
|
Maintenance and Materials Management
|
|
There are three methods for disinfecting water for drinking. These include the use of:
|
iodine tablets
calcium hydrochloride ampules boiling |
|
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
Rates of fire: Sustained: |
40 rpm
|
|
Putting diesel fuel in a coke bottle requires informing users of the new contents, this is called:
|
Secondary Labeling
|
|
What does ICAM stand for?
|
Improved Chemical Agent Monitor (replaced the CAM)
|
|
Classes of Supply:
Class 4 is: |
Construction Material
|
|
A joint force based solely on functional capabilities is commanded by a:
|
Functional Commander
|
|
What type of bleeding shows blood dark red or maroon, and flows in a steady stream?
|
Venous bleeding
|
|
When should an evader attempt to contact friendly troops when nearby?
|
When there is enough light available to be identified by friendly forces
|
|
What batteries are used in a TA-312?
|
2 D-Cell
|
|
Determining real communications from fake is the purpose of :
|
Authentication
|
|
Thermite burns at a temperature of about ____ F.
|
4,300
|
|
Who in a convoy is responsible to enforce traffic control?
|
Trail Officer
|
|
Who performs workplace monitoring to determine exposure to hazards?
|
Industrial Hygienist
|
|
The full title of PHIBCB is:
|
Amphibious Construction Battalion
|
|
___________ is that component of COMSEC that results from the
provision of technically sound cryptographic systems. |
Cryptographic security
|
|
________ precedes the column and is in charge of the point in tactical ops. Non-tactical operations reconnoiters the route of march selects alternate routes posts traffic control personnel, and notifies proper authorities of the approach of the column
|
Advance officer
|
|
If chemical or biological attack, mask victim immediately. If a nerve agent is present give the victim their ________ kit. If there is a chemical attack do not expose__________.
|
NAAK
wounds |
|
Reports are used by a command to report logistical requirements to higher headquarters:
|
Logistical Requirements (LOGREQ)
|
|
METT-T (Enemy)
When preparing a Convoy Order, where do you find into on Threats/Enemy? |
R2 and S2
|
|
The _______is a two-wire, battery-operated field telephone. It is rugged, lightweight, and
waterproof. It may be used inside or outside under all conditions. |
TA-312/PT
|
|
The navigation method where one identifies terrain features and compares it to what is shown on a map:
|
Terrain Association
|
|
What are the 4 hazards listed on a Hazardous Warning Label?
|
Health
Fire Reactivity Specific |
|
What are the 2 techniques for operational decon?
|
MOPP Gear Exchange
Vehicle Washdown |
|
In terms of camp layout:
The Antenna farm should be on the ______ of a hill. |
SIDE
Antennas should not silhouette the skyline |
|
______ is a requisition used for open purchase items, services, or shipping.
|
DD 1149
|
|
When using METT-T to analyze the military aspects of terrain (KOCOA) for convoys, simply using a _____ will not be sufficient to accurately analyze the route.
|
Map
|
|
In a three-man machine gun team, the ______ digs a one-man fighting position to the flank where he can provide security for the machine gun, observe and fire into the team's primary and alternate sectors of fire, and also can see the gunner and team leader.
|
ammunition bearer
|
|
Decontaminating Solution #2 is more commonly known as:
|
DS2
|
|
A battalion is self sustaining for ___ days after Air Det, Sea Echelon, and Air Echelon have arrived.
|
90
|
|
Advancement in rate, retention and reenlistment, and special training are some of the purposes for the
|
Enlisted Evaluation
|
|
M9 COMMANDS
MAKE READY |
Place the M9 pistol in condition 1.
|
|
Logistic operations between a company and the battalion supply department are an example of logistics on a _________ level.
|
Tactical
|
|
What is the mission of JLOTS?
|
Unloading cargo, fuel, and water from a ship without port facilities (unimproved shorelines)
|
|
Regarding the USMC, what does MAW stand for?
|
Marine Aircraft Wing
|
|
COMMANDS:
MAKE READY |
Place the M16A3 in condition 1.
|
|
_______ lists all the material a unit is supposed to have for a particular piece of equipment.
|
AEL – Allowance Equipage List
|
|
What type of fire extinguisher should be used on a class B fire?
|
Dry chemical or CO2
|
|
METT-T (Terrain)
To identify standard military aspects of terrain, use the acronym: |
KOCOA
|
|
In the 5 step ORM process, explain the purpose of:
Assess Hazards |
What are the end results of the hazards?
|
|
What is the bore of a weapon?
|
The internal measurement inside the weapon barrel. It can be rifled or not.
|
|
Describe the tactical employment and purpose of naval Mobile Construction Battalion weapon systems.
AT4: |
Used against armored personnel carriers. Can be used to disable a battle tank (mobility kill) if struck properly.
|
|
What are the three safety devices on the M9?
|
Safety lever, Decocking mechanism, Half cock
|
|
What is the range of the RT-1523 with a:
10 foot antennal |
3-10 miles
|
|
The XTS 5000 has ___ channels, ______ MHz, and a range of _______ miles.
|
15 channels
VHF: 153 – 168 MHz Range 1 – 3 miles |
|
Total weight of the M203 including the M16A3 is _______ pounds fully loaded.
|
12.39
|
|
Maximum performance with the AN/PRC-119 is to the _____when the set is on the operator’s back with a 3-foot whip antenna.
|
Front
The operator should then try facing in the direction of distant communications. |
|
In COMSEC, what does ICD stand for?
|
Imitative Communications Deceptions
|
|
On a Range Card, the FPL needs no direction reading since the traversing slide is positioned to the ______of the traversing bar.
|
extreme right or left
|
|
The AN-M14 incendiary grenade contains 26.5 ounces of :
|
Thermite mixture
|
|
When was the Department of the Navy formally created?
|
30 APR 1798
|
|
Who is the immediate supervisor for all the X codes?
|
XO
|
|
Vietnam: The first full Seabee battalion arrived in Vietnam on _______ to build an expeditionary airfield for the Marines, at _____.
|
7 May 1965
Chu Lai |
|
________ is a system to send VHF data via a RT 1523
|
TACLAN
|
|
The FIRST NCD, and its subordinate NCF units, are under the _____ of US Fleet Forces Command.
|
ADCON
|
|
The AN/VRC-92 has how many RT-1523s?
|
2
|
|
Under Airfield Damage Repair, what does RQC stand for?
|
Repair Quality Criteria
|
|
What does PIR stand for?
|
Priority Information Requests
|
|
How long should you apply pressure when using the NAAK auto injector?
|
10 seconds
|
|
The objective of _________ pressure is to compress the artery against the bone, thus shutting off the flow of blood from the heart to a wound.
|
Pressure point
|
|
What is the advantage of a two man fighting position?
|
One person is on watch while the other sleeps.
|
|
Your fellow Seabee has just taken a 7.62mm to the chest, is covered in blood, and ---has a large hole in his chest, your first action should be?
|
Return fire and assess ABC’s when safe
|
|
On the front sight of the M16, rotating the sight in the same direction as the “UP” arrow will move the impact of the round ______.
|
UP
|
|
The Battalion Safety Officer reviews project _________, conducts ___________, and coordinates _________.
|
Safety Plans
Safety Inspections Corrective Actions |
|
What is the AUL?
|
Authorized user list
|
|
_______ of NCF units forward deployed to the European theater is maintained by the theater COCOM, which is U.S. European Command (EUCOM), and is exercised via U.S. Naval Forces Europe (CNE) via the FIRST NCD and TWENTYSECOND NCR.
|
OPCON
|
|
_______ (NCF Unit) is an established unit in the Naval Beach Group (NBG)
|
Amphibious Construction Battalions
|
|
A ____ color appearing on M8 paper is a positive test for V Nerve Agents.
|
Green
|
|
He is responsible for changing the barrels during firing (M240B).
|
Team Leader
|
|
NCF Units:
SRGs |
Seabee Readiness Group (20th and 31st)
|
|
What is the total system weight of the MK-19?
|
143 Pounds
|
|
Symptoms of nerve agent poisoning:
|
Unexplained runny nose
Unexplained sudden headache Drooling Difficulty with vision (dimness of vision) Tightness in chest/difficulty in breathing Localized sweating/muscle twitching in contaminated area of the skin Stomach cramps Nausea |
|
When a vehicle in a convoy becomes disabled, the two methods of hasty recovery are:
|
Tow with chain or strap
“Push through” |
|
A saddle on a map is:
|
a dip or low point between two areas of higher ground.
|
|
How many stations are there in a personnel decontamination site?
|
8
|
|
Heat cramps are due to:
|
insufficient salt in the body
|
|
What is the built in back up if the batteries fail in a TA-312?
|
Talk in the ear piece as a sound powered telephone
|
|
Using the M203, a gunner is expected to hit a bunker within :
|
150 meters
|
|
M136 (AT4), HEAT, 84-mm Launcher
Range: Max. Effective: |
300 meters
|
|
Mustards, Arsenic, Urticans are:
|
Blister Agents
|
|
What billet works directly under S7?
|
S7C
|
|
React to aerial flares
If you hear the firing of a flare: |
Then hit the deck, taking the best cover available.
|
|
What is STB?
|
Super Tropical Bleach
|
|
What is the CMSR?
|
Camp Maintenance Storeroom
|
|
OPORDER Mission element:
|
A clear, concise statement of the task the squad must accomplish.
|
|
What are the dimensions of a Tricon?
|
6.5 x 8 x 8 ft
|
|
EUCOM is an example of a :
|
COCOM
Combatant Command |
|
M9 CONDITION CODES
Condition 2 |
Not applicable to the M9.
|
|
M16A3 Weapon Condition Codes:
Condition 2 |
Not applicable to the M16A3
|
|
What does NMETL stand for?
|
Navy Mission Essential Task List
|
|
What are the departments under the A4?
|
- Cost Control – DTO clerk, PM clerk, Parts Expeditor, Tech Librarian, Tool Room
- Light Shop Sup - Heavy Shop Sup - Support Shop Sup (steel, machine, paint, 5000, tire, and battery shops) - Live Storage - Inspectors |
|
For the below symptom, Identify the injury.
Blood coming from the ears : |
Skull Injury
|
|
What is NC?
|
Not Carried
|
|
When applying a Tourniquet, use a strap that is one inch wide. Too narrow of a cord will:
|
Cut into the skin
|
|
Briefly state the purpose of the following immediate action drills:
Condition Gunsmoke |
Intruder in camp
|
|
The definition of automatic retrans is:
|
signal enters 1st radio, passes through cable and exits 2nd radio on a different frequency
|
|
Who is responsible for Evaluation of received OPORDS, prepare internal OPORDS for battalion?
|
Operations (S3)
|
|
The Acronym SURVIVAL stands for:
|
Size up the Situation
Undue haste makes waste Remember where you are Vanquish fear and Panic Improvise Value Living Act like the Natives Learn Basic Skills |
|
What is the M295?
|
M295 – oven mitt like with 4 individual packets (activate charcoal)
|
|
Command asbestos policy is extremely important since asbestos is recognized as a/an :
|
Major health hazard
|
|
OPORDER Execution elements:
|
Concept of Operations - The concept of the operation is the squad leader's brief summary of the tactical plan the squad is to execute and the commander's intent.
Subordinate Tasks (Missions) - In each succeeding paragraph, missions are assigned to each fire team and any attached units. Coordinating Instructions |
|
The color code for this road condition is:
Impassable |
Black
|
|
What does VBIED stand for?
|
Vehicle Borne Improvised Explosive Device
|
|
Of the three types of Safety controls, which is most desirable?
|
Engineering controls,
they will always be in place. |
|
NCF Units:
PHIBCBs |
Naval Amphibious Construction Battalions (1 and 2)
|
|
What does CLS stand for?
|
Combat Life Saver
|
|
What are the 9 steps in response to a chemical attack?
|
Apply First Aid
Conduct DECON Check food and water supplies Mark all contaminated equipment and areas Assess chemical downwind threat Leave or avoid contaminated areas Assess combat capability Send NBC 1 report Send NBC 4 report |
|
The _________ Officer is responsible for procuring, receiving, stowing, issuing, shipping, transferring, and accounting for all construction project material.
|
MLO
|
|
What is PSE?
|
Personnel support equipment.
Some examples are beds, mattresses, wardrobes, desks, chairs, tables, lamps, bookcases, compact refrigerators, rugs, and drapes. |
|
Aiming
Sight Alignment |
The relationship between the front and rear sight and the aiming eye. This relationship is critical to the aiming process and must remain consistent from shot to shot. There are three factors involved: stock weld, eye relief, and the relationship between the front and rear sight.
|
|
For the Claymore Mine, the M40 is:
|
The Test set.
|
|
The AN/GRA 39 has two parts local and remote. The remote is placed at the:
|
Combat Operations Center
Or Command Post |
|
Supply operations involving movement of a large quantity of material from CONUS to a European theater of operations is an example of logistics on a ___________ level.
|
Strategic
|
|
This person is the senior military officer in the Navy:
|
CNO
|
|
According to the type of HAZMAT, certain storage procedures must be applied.
For example, do not mix flammables and____________, or flammables and____________, together. |
toxic materials
corrosives |
|
Particles remaining 0-3” off the ground are:
|
Alpha Particles
|
|
React to ground flares by:
|
1) Move quickly and away from the lighted area.
2) Look for other members of your squad and attempt to link up with them. |
|
The most widely employed tactical radios provide integrated communications security (COMSEC) and _________through frequency hopping.
|
jam resistance
|
|
The ________________ and the ___________________provide a means of quickly locating the presence or absence of nerve- and mustard-agent contamination on personnel and equipment.
|
Chemical Agent Monitor (CAM)
Improved CAM (ICAM) |
|
He carries spare barrel kit, M122 tripod, and one bandoleer of ammo and armed with a 9mm pistol.
|
M240B Team Leader
|
|
It is imperative a ___________ be sealed with an airtight dressing to prevent air from entering the chest cavity through the wound.
|
Sucking Chest Wound
|
|
What does OPP stand for?
|
Offload Preparation Party
|
|
Key personnel in a convoy
Trail Officer (Senior Enlisted) |
decides whether to recover, repair, or destroy the equipment that impedes the progress of the convoy.
|
|
Standard issue 782 gear:
|
1) Pistol belt 1 each
2) Pack combat medium 1 each 3) Suspenders 1 each 4) Ammo pouch 2 each 5) Canteen cover, canteen, and canteen cup 1 set 6) First aid packet 1 each 7) Entrenching tool and cover 1 set 8) Poncho 1 each 9) Shelter half with one tent pole, five tent pins and guy line 1 set 10) Mess kit with knife, fork, and spoon 1 set 11) Bayonet or K-bar** 1 each 12) Kevlar helmet 1 each 13) Camouflage cover 1 each 14) Hat and mosquito net 1 set |
|
MOPP gear exchange sites are usually located as close to the ___________ area possible to preclude the spread of contamination.
|
contaminated
|
|
The Motorola portable VHF base station MODP1755 requires:
|
a hand held Saber radio for proper operation
|
|
What departments work under the S4A?
|
Disbursing
Barracks Galley Barbershop Post Office |
|
How long is the OF-346 valid for and when does it expire?
|
3 years, on operators birthday
|
|
M9 CONDITION CODES
Condition 1 |
Magazine inserted, round in chamber, slide forward, hammer down and decocking/safety
|
|
Prior to a battalion movement, an ________ is used to request a cruise box shipment.
|
NAVSUP 1149
|
|
Why are berthing tents placed at least 35 meters apart?
|
To minimize losses due to a single mortar round
|
|
M136 (AT4), HEAT, 84-mm Launcher
Muzzle velocity: |
950 fps
|
|
OPORDER Situation elements:
|
Enemy Forces - Consists of the composition, disposition, location, movement, capabilities, and recent activities of enemy forces.
Friendly Forces - A statement of the mission of the next higher unit, location and mission of adjacent units, and the commander's intent from two levels higher. Attachments and Detachments - Units attached to or detached from the squad by higher headquarters, including the effective time of the attachment or detachment. |
|
The goal of wearing hearing protection is to prevent:
|
Hearing Loss
|
|
Name two methods of delivery used for chemical weapons?
|
Spray, Thermal, Dispersion Burst (Ground or Air Burst)
|
|
What number on the Hazardous Warning label represents:
Degree of Hazard = Extreme |
4
|
|
What does BEEP stand for?
|
Battalion Equipment Evaluation Program
|
|
A Confirmation brief is used to:
|
Confirm that the details in an OPORDER are clearly understood. Also called a back brief.
|
|
What are the 3 categories of supplies for loading?
|
Vehicles
Bulk Unitized |
|
The 240B fires from the ______ bolt position.
|
OPEN
|
|
The “hard card” is the:
|
11240/13
|
|
What does NCTC stand for?
|
Naval Construction Training Center
|
|
A Bailey M2, Panel Bridge is constructed and launched via:
|
Manpower, roller system
|
|
The most effective way to stop an attack on a convoy is to:
|
Kill the attackers
|
|
What is the M100?
|
M100 – Chemical DECON for vehicles
|
|
_________ wreck gas mask canisters quickly.
|
Blood Agents
|
|
What is COG?
|
Two character Alpha-numeric codes that may be prefixed to national stock numbers to identify and designate the cognizant inventory manager who exercises supply management over specified categories of material.
|
|
At which MOPP Level do personnel don their protective over-garments and boots while carrying their mask and gloves?
|
MOPP Level Two
|
|
What is Approaching shoring?
|
Used to decrease the approach angle for aircraft ramps (tall or long vehicles usually require this)
|
|
The acronym ORM stands for :
|
Operational Risk Management
|
|
Grubbing operations increase ______ and reduce ________.
|
Soil erosion
Oxygen, Wildlife |
|
The TA-1/PT is a lightweight, ______ powered, field telephone.
|
sound
|
|
Describe the tactical employment and purpose of naval Mobile Construction Battalion weapon systems.
M240B |
Support the rifleman in the offense and defense. Provide heavy volumes of controlled fires. Provide FPF’s. Cover likely avenues of approach. Provide grazing fire.
|
|
The burning period of the M49A1 trip flare is:
|
55 to 70 seconds of illumination.
|
|
ACL is:
|
Allowable Cabin/Cargo Load
|
|
Who is the Senior assistant to the XO:
|
Admin/Personnel (S1)
|
|
This should only be used, as a last resort for severe, life threatening bleeding that cannot be controlled by any other method.
|
A Tourniquet
|
|
Who serves as head of Safety Policy Committee?
|
XO
|
|
What is name of the enlarged part of the breech of a weapon that holds the round of ammunition?
|
The Chamber
|
|
What does MPSRON stand for?
|
Maritime Pre-positioning Ship Squadron
|
|
________ Supply requisition for NSN materials.
|
NAVSUP 1250-1
|
|
Which category of HAZMAT can burn skin and corrode metal?
|
corrosive
|
|
Who is responsible for installation, training, and maintenance of all ADP equipment?
|
COMM/ADP (S6)
|
|
A _______ can accomplish limited construction tasking, but is normally employed only in the operational phase of an advance base life-cycle.
|
CBMU
|
|
How many Grenadiers are in a Platoon?
|
3
|
|
Enemy – DRAW-D
|
Defend
Reinforce Attack Withdraw Delay |
|
A _________ mask has time limitations for use.
|
Self Contained
|
|
What phone does a Squad leader use to communicate with a Platoon Leader?
|
TA-1 or TA-312
|
|
What are the three types of inspections performed on camp facilities?
|
Controlled inspections
Annual Inspection Summary Operator Inspections |
|
What are the dimensions of a SIXCON?
|
6.5 x 8 x 4 ft
|
|
The _____ Bridge is a metal truss bridge with heavy timber decking, roadway carried between two main girders.
|
Bailey
|
|
Why couldn’t civilian contractors build all the island facilities necessary to win WWII?
|
They couldn’t defend themselves, and if they did, they could be shot as guerillas under the rules of war
|
|
Strong ___________ coordination between rifleman up to MAGTAF and beyond can ensure a victorious outcome for any combat mission assigned to a Seabee organization.
|
Communication
|
|
The ___________ provides “ADVICE” in the areas of military training, small arms and defensive tactics.
|
Military Advisor (typically a Marine)
|
|
A card to bin, bin to card inventory is conducted to check the validity of____________?
|
project material
|
|
How do you load M-16 Magazines in a magazine pouch?
|
Loaded magazines are down, empty ones are up.
|
|
An amphibious operation is an attack that is:
|
Launched from Sea by Naval and Landing forces on a hostile shore.
|
|
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Rates of fire: Cyclic: |
450 to 550 rpm
|
|
___________ CESE is requested when an assigned project requires more equipment than the organic allowance supplies.
|
Augment
|
|
Why should Equipment Operators keep their equipment clean, serviceable, and safe?
|
To keep the equipment ready and avoid costly repairs
|
|
M16A3 Weapon Condition Codes:
Condition 3 |
Magazine inserted, chamber empty, bolt forward, safety on and ejection port cover closed.
|
|
________ is considered unsafe for drinking.
|
Non potable water
|
|
OPCON is the only command and support relationship appropriate and authorized when Seabee units are:
|
employed within the MAGTF organization.
|
|
What is the magazine capacity for the M16?
|
30 rounds max
|
|
What is the identification marking for organic CESE?
|
Red background with white numerals
|
|
________ is a supply computer program that: *Manages money, *Produces financial reports, *Processes orders, *Automatically processes NSN orders (1250-1), and *Assigns requisition numbers for open purchases (1250-2).
|
Micro Snap II
|
|
What is the range of the Saber hand held radio?
|
1-3 miles
|
|
What phone does a fighting position use to communicate with the squad leader?
|
TA-1 or TA-312
|
|
Supports airlift missions where command control, mission reporting, and/or support functions are limited or do not exist.
|
U.S. Air Force Airlift Control Element
|
|
The time available for preparation and distribution is the most important factor in the method used to issue a/an :
|
OPORDER
|
|
NBC 1 reports are sent by ________ precedence.
|
FLASH
|
|
When a convoy makes a short or long halt, ________ is called by the Convoy Commander to establish a perimeter around the convoy.
|
dismount
|
|
Tape ____(number) sides of a piece of plastic to a sucking chest wound.
|
3
|
|
What is the Master Chief Rating for either CE or UT?
|
UCCM
|
|
______ can burn out most unprotected electronic equipment.
|
An EMP
|
|
Usually an OP/LP consists of two to four men located up to ____ meters
forward of the platoon position or as the terrain dictates (OPs during the day and LPs during the night). |
500
|
|
Which procedure is completed before electrical portable tools are issued?
|
Inspected and tested by Central Tool Room
|
|
There are no passengers in a _________ convoy.
|
Tactical
Every person has a role/function to perform. |
|
What is the background color of the Chemical Contamination marker?
|
Yellow
|
|
When notifying the battalion coordinator of a HAZMAT spill you give what information?
|
location, material spilled & quantity, known hazards, telephone number & designated point of contact
|
|
In regards to Patrols, the POR is:
|
Point of Return
|
|
If the enemy throws a grenade into a fighting position, kick or throw it into one of the sumps to absorb most of the blast, and if possible, _______
|
exit the position.
|
|
Three basic types of Convoy formations are:
|
Close column
Open Column Infiltration |
|
MOPP Level 2:
|
Mask: Carried
Overgarment: Worn Vinyl Overboot: Worn Gloves: Available Helmet Protective Cover: Worn |
|
What is station #4 in a personnel decontamination site?
|
Overboot and gloves removal
|
|
What does SOI stand for?
|
Signal Operation Instructions
|
|
Supplementary wire in front of the defensive perimeter is used to conceal the exact line of:
|
tactical wire.
|
|
The _____ officer is responsible for the planning, scheduling and managing of battalion construction, combat, and disaster preparedness operations.
|
S3
|
|
Use a _______ form to report lost or stolen equipment.
|
DD200
|
|
Convoy Organization
Elements generally include: |
a) Transport element
b) Escort and security element c) Various support elements d) Command and Control element |
|
Keep victim calm. Prevent the victim from seeing their wounds. Place victim on their back on a bed, cot, or stretcher with feet 12 inches higher than their head. This is treatment for:
|
shock
|
|
All hands are required an annual HAZCOM refresher of how long?
|
30 Min
|
|
What type of radiation is pure energy and released during the initial detonation of a Nuclear blast?
|
Gamma
|
|
PHIBCBs are also known as:
|
ACB's
|
|
A BFA is:
|
Blank Firing Attachment
|
|
Regarding CBR, what is a CDM?
|
Chemical Downwind Message
|
|
What are the steps for unmasking procedures when an M256A1 chemical agent detector kit is not available?
|
Use M8 or M9 detector paper to check the area for possible liquid contamination.
Select two or three Seabees of varying heights, builds, and weights. Expose eyes to air for 15 seconds, Monitor for 10 minutes Take 2-3 breaths, remask, observe for 10 minutes Unmask for 5 minutes, and then remask. Observe for 10 minutes. Unmask all personnel, but continue to monitor |
|
CONDITION CODES FOR THE M203
Condition 3 |
Not applicable to the M203.
|
|
UCT stands for:
|
Underwater Construction Team
|
|
How many fire teams are in a platoon?
|
9
|
|
The range of the AN/PRC-119 with a 3’ tape antenna is:
|
3-5 miles
|
|
What is the CSR?
|
Central Storeroom personnel are responsible for Maintaining and managing the inventory and issue of administrative and consumable NMCB TOA stock items, such as safety consumables, forms, nuts, bolts, chemical compounds, paints, electronics and weapons repair parts
|
|
A report given to the COC after enemy contact is called a ______ report.
|
SPOT
|
|
How many personal are to be trained to ADR operations ?
|
46-Level I
20 Level II 6 cretemobile |
|
What is the principle system within Department of Defense for translating policy decisions into OPLANS and OPORDS?
|
JOPES
|
|
For a DED decon layout, what is station #5?
|
Check and Monitor
|
|
Position the LZ landing point at a distance ____ times as far from an obstacle as the obstacle is
High. |
10
|
|
The live storage maintenance cycle is based on what number of working days?
|
80
|
|
Trash and Garbage are properly disposed of where?
|
In a landfill
|
|
The Air force equivalent to a Navy Seabee Battalion is:
|
Red Horse
|
|
What are confidential, secret, and top secret examples of?
|
Classifications
|
|
When not deployed, NMCBs are :
ADCON to: ________ TACON to:________ |
Seabee Readiness Group (SRG)
Seabee Readiness Group (SRG) |
|
What does JLOTS stand for?
|
Joint Logistics Over the Shore
|
|
Requisition invoice/ shipping document used for open purchase items or services.
|
NAVSUP 1149
|
|
The characteristics of the C-130 are:
ACL : 463L Pallet positions : Max passengers : Max Passengers over water : |
25,000 Lbs.
6 90 74 |
|
The EDVR is distributed monthly by__________________.
|
the Enlisted Personnel Management Center (EPMAC).
|
|
A ______ bridge is 13.2 ft wide.
|
Medium Girder
|
|
What are three types of fall protection?
|
Netting
Harness Railing |
|
The Mount Out Control Center controls, coordinates, and monitors the movement of :
|
all personnel, supplies, and equipment to the embarkation staging area
|
|
What is the range of the RT-1523 with a:
3 foot whip antenna? |
1-3 miles
|
|
The _____ deploys to the MPF Squadron 4 days prior to offload to prepare the equipment for debarkation.
|
OPP
|
|
Characteristics of the 240B :
Rates Of Fire: Cyclic: |
650 to 950 rpm
|
|
Cargo going by air is palletized on a:
|
463L pallet
|
|
You are performing a 3M spot check. How do you validate the MRC card used for the PM check?
|
Validate the MRC with the MIP, then validate the MIP with the LOEP.
|
|
The_______ houses repair parts for in-camp preventive maintenance.
|
CMSR
|
|
DACG is:
|
Departure Airfield Control Group
|
|
What are the 9 key billets in the COC?
|
Watch Officer
Watch Chief Comm Sup RTO Messenger S1 Board S2 Board S3 Board COC Sentry |
|
A PDF is :
|
Principle Direction of Fire.
is the direction of fire assigned or designated as the main direction in which a weapon will be oriented. It is selected based on the enemy, mission, terrain, and weapons capability. |
|
When did George Washington create the Navy?
|
13 OCT 1775
|
|
RAC 3 =
|
Moderate
|
|
What is the number of Nerve Agent Antidote Kits (NAAK) that must be given as immediate first aid treatment for nerve agent poisoning?
|
3
|
|
List the Six types of chemical agents.
|
Blood, Blister, Choking, Nerve, Incapacitating, Military Compound.
|
|
The P-437 has two parts
Volume 1:_________ Volume 2:_________ |
Drawings
Data |
|
Characteristics of the 240B :
Weight: |
27.1 pounds
|
|
What is the basic ammunition load with the M16A3 rifle?
|
210 rounds. 7 magazines with 30 rounds each.
|
|
Using the M203, a gunner is expected to hit a open emplacements within :
|
300 meters
|
|
What are the three echelons of defense?
|
Security Area
Forward Defense Area Rear Area |
|
The AN/GRA 39 has two parts :
|
Local
Remote |
|
Stars will always move from ____ to ______.
|
East to West
|
|
What is the process of changing intelligible information into unintelligible information?
|
encryption
|
|
_________ are used used to determine cause, not fault.
|
Mishap Investigations
|
|
Operator logs document:
|
Performance and maintenance of equipment (steam temperature, pressure gages, etc…)
|
|
What is the 3M ACF formula?
|
Accomplishment Confidence Factor
ACF = Performed Spot Checks Scheduled Spot Checks |
|
The AS-____ is a HF non mobile antenna.
|
2259
|
|
FTX is a real time tactical scenario, which exercises battalion’s, _______, _______, and _____________ functions:
|
Embark
Tactical Command and Control |
|
The Chief Master at Arms reports directly to:
|
XO
|
|
EEFI Beadwindow Code
04: |
04 EW/EMCON Intentions
FRIENDLY EW/EMCON, INTENTIONS, PROGRESS OR RESULTS: Intention to employ ECM, results of friendly or enemy ENCL, objectives of ECK, results of friendly or enemy ECCK, results of ESK, present or intended EMCON policy, equipment effected by EMCON policy. |
|
Providing underwater engineering, construction, and repair is the mission of the :
|
UCT
|
|
The major function of HAZMINCEN is:
|
Hazardous Minimization Center
Issues, receives, prepares for disposal, and stores excess stock of HM. |
|
How many NAAK injections should be administered in rapid succession to an unconscious person?
|
3
|
|
The AN/PRC-150 uses what Transmitter Receiver?
|
RT-1694
|
|
This fighting position is only used in the prone position.
|
Hasty Fighting Position
|
|
What does the acronym TPI stand for?
|
Two Person Integrity
|
|
What is the EDVR?
|
Enlisted Distribution Verification Report
|
|
What does PEL stand for?
|
Permissible Exposure Limit
|
|
A _________burn usually results from deep sunburns or flash burns from gasoline fires.
|
Second-degree
|
|
In the NCF, what type of system is available and used to detect biological agents?
|
There is currently no system available and used to detect a biological agent
|
|
What is the CSMP?
|
Current Seabee Maintenance Projects
|
|
What is Parking shoring?
|
Used to protect the aircraft floor during flight to eliminate metal on metal (if you use rolling shoring then you must use parking shoring or the tongue on a trailer)
|
|
How many mils are in 1 degree?
|
17.777
|
|
Air Det (P25MCA)
__ personnel (officers and enlisted) __ pieces CESE __ pieces of rolling stock CESE __ Tool Kits _______ short tons of cargo Deploys within __ hours |
89
42 34 30 250-300 48 |
|
The role of an NMCB in a MOB (mobility) mission is to:
|
1. Prevent and Control Damage (including CBR)
2. Operate from a Ship (MPF instream operations) 3. Maintain Mount Out Capabilities 4. Maintain the health and well being of the crew (protection from hazards) 5. Maintain Reserve Unit Mobilization Readiness 6. Conduct operations ashore (operate in the rear of a combat zone, conduct limited defensive combat operations). |
|
EEFI Beadwindow Code
07: |
07 Inappropriate Transmission
INAPPROPRIATE TRANSMISSION: Information requested, transmitted or about to be transmitted which should not be passed on the subject circuit because it either requires greater security protection or is not appropriate to the purpose for which the circuit is provided. |
|
What does PEF stand for?
|
Production Efficiency Factor
|
|
Who is responsible for procuring, receiving, storing, issuing, and accounting for all equipment, repair parts, and construction material?
|
Supply (S4)
|
|
A Fire Team Fire Plan shows:
|
Key terrain features and distances.
Fire team's primary fighting positions. Individual sectors of fire. PDF or FPL for automatic rifleman. Magnetic north indicator to show direction fire team is facing. A line drawn around the fire team fighting position shows the forward edge, flanks, and rear of individual fighting positions. A symbol indicating unit size and identification is placed within a break along the rear edge. |
|
A significant tool available to the COC for responding to emergency situations inside camp is :
|
REACT
|
|
Minor Property – Costs greater than ______ but less than ______ (computers, comms, etc).
|
$300
$5000 |
|
Position the LZ landing point such that the ground slope does not exceed ____ percent or ____ degrees.
|
14%
8 Degrees |
|
The M49A1 is:
|
A trip flare.
|
|
The three types of fire, based on trajectory, are:
|
Grazing
Plunging Overhead |
|
In the NCF, what type of system is available and used to detect biological agents?
|
There is currently no system available and used to detect a biological agent
|
|
A _________burn usually results from deep sunburns or flash burns from gasoline fires.
|
Second-degree
|
|
What is the standard resistance for a generator grounding rod?
|
25 Ohms or less
|
|
The authority to assign tasks and to designate objectives is the definition of :
|
OPCON
|
|
What is the average battery life of the BA-5590 used in the AN/PRC-119A, assuming HI power and a talking to listening ratio of 9:1 is used?
|
18 hours
|
|
For _______, the victim will appear ashen gray; skin will be cold, moist, clammy, normal or subnormal temperature; and the pupils may be dilated.
|
Heat Exhaustion
|
|
____ exercises OPCON over the deployed NMCB in Europe via 1NCD and 22NCR. However, NCRs may also be assigned OPCON to a _____ or ________.
|
Commander Naval Forces Europe
MEF MAGTF |
|
What is the Master Chief Rating for either BU, SW or EA?
|
CUCM
|
|
Who is considered the “Father of the Seabees”?
|
ADM Ben Morrell
|
|
Besides vertical and horizontal construction, NMCB tactical construction also includes:
|
Utilities (power and water purification)
Beach Improvements Above water construction (with UCT) |
|
What is the minimum distance a garbage pit can be located from messing facilities?
|
30 yards
|
|
On the SORTS report, is it C1 or C5 that means the NMCB is fully capable of meeting its wartime mission?
|
C1
|
|
A class C fire can be extinguished with :
|
CO2
|
|
Storing hazardous materials on the job site requires the use of approved containers. These containers must be placed a minimum of ____ feet away from any ignition device or source.
|
50
|
|
Mk-19 rounds should not be fired in a _______, as they contain significantly more _______.
|
M203
Gun powder |
|
What does PDDE stand for?
|
Power Driven Decon Equipment
|
|
What are the two types of leach field pipe layouts?
|
Right angle
Herringbone |
|
Artillery or Indirect Fire at a Convoy
Three defense options may be used: |
(1) Halt in place
(2) Continue the convoy (3) Disperse quickly to concealed positions. |
|
What is station #5 in a personnel decontamination site?
|
Monitor
|
|
Why is housekeeping important on a job site or shop?
|
a. It eliminates unnecessary hazards on the site.
b. Eliminating tripping hazards, helps the job run smoother. c. Dust & fumes not cleaned up can cause explosive hazards. |
|
Classes of Supply:
Class 8 is: |
Medical
|
|
__________is a cold injury resulting from prolonged exposure to wet, cold temperatures just above freezing. It is often associated with limited motion of the extremities and water-soaked clothing.
|
Immersion foot
|
|
What is an MC?
|
Mass Communications Specialist
|
|
Characteristics of the M16A3 Service Rifle:
Cyclic rate of fire: |
Approx. 800 rpm
|
|
Classes of Supply:
Class 6 is: |
Personal Demand
|
|
If a confined space is left, upon return a Gas Free Engineer must:
|
Re-certify the confined space to ensure re-entry is safe
|
|
What is the maximum distance in front and upwind of the FLOT should the M43A1 detector(s) be placed?
|
150 Meters
|
|
This M203 round is a high explosive that can penetrate 2 inches of steel.
|
High Explosive Dual Purpose
|
|
What is OPTAR 01:
|
Consumables and Services
|
|
Give the command ___________ to have the unit stop firing and stand easy.
|
"CEASE FIRE"
|
|
______are prepared immediately upon arrival to a position regardless of the
anticipated length of stay and should be continuously revised throughout the occupation of the position. |
Range cards
|
|
Who maintains service records:
|
Admin/Personnel (S1)
|
|
Garbage Pit: 4x4 pit 4 feet deep and will service ____ people for one day cover with 1 ft of dirt
|
100
|
|
Characteristics of the 240B :
During Sustained fire, the weapon can fire this rate of fire (with six to nine round bursts) for ___minutes before the barrel must be changed. |
10
|
|
ROUTINE MEDEVAC is required:
|
Casualty has minor injury, KIA casualty must be picked up within 72 hours
|
|
A ____ color appearing on M8 paper is a positive test for G Nerve Agents.
|
Yellow
|
|
Before morning nautical twilight (BMNT) and end of evening nautical twilight (EENT) are defined as the first and last time of the day that an individual can:
|
engage a target at the maximum effective range of his/her weapon system, unaided.
|
|
What is an LN?
|
Legalman
|
|
All _____ radios are line-of-sight use only.
|
VHF
|
|
What does UNAAF stand for?
|
Unified Action Armed Forces
|
|
Seabees were unable to get enough practice with _______ (weapon), hence, it was deleted from the NMCB TOA.
|
Mortars
|
|
What is station #8 in a personnel decontamination site?
|
Reissue point
|
|
For TOR, what is
T: I : F: |
Time message received
Initials of Operator Freq |
|
When donning a gas mask, clear it first before breathing because:
|
The initial air in the mask once donned contains chemical agents.
Clear the mask with air from your lungs first, then breath normally. |
|
Characteristics of the M9 :
Maximum Effective Range - |
50 meters
|
|
On Sept. 1, 1942, elements of the 6th Naval Construction Battalion went ashore at Guadalcanal; Using mostly captured Japanese equipment, they finished ____________.
|
Henderson Field.
|
|
Ensure that there are at least _____ meters between each 240B machine gun.
|
35
|
|
What container is used to haul POLs?
|
Half Height
|
|
What type of funding is PH/IT?
|
Port Handling/Inland Transportation
|
|
With continued heat loss, there is a numbness of the affected area due to reduced circulation. As ice crystals form, the frozen extremity appears white, yellow-white, or blotchy blue and white, and it is cold, hard, and insensitive to touch or pressure. This describes what?
|
Frostbite
|
|
Status of Resources and Training System
What is C2? |
C2: Capable of Bulk wartime mission
|
|
What is a CEB?
|
Combat Engineer Battalion
|
|
The term _______refers to all Navy-owned personal property acquired for immediate use in the Navy shore establishment. This property has an estimated or actual unit cost of greater than $300 but less than $5,000.
|
minor property
|
|
What is the function of the Comm Supervisor in the COC?
|
Supervise the Radio Telephone Operators
|
|
Characteristics of the M16A3 Service Rifle:
Maximum range: |
3534 meters
|
|
What are the three general locations for possible nuclear explosions?
|
Air Burst
Surface Burst Underwater Burst |
|
The ________________ is the command information center during embarkation of the Air Detachment.
|
Mount-Out Control Center (MOCC)
|
|
These containers are used to haul lumber and plywood.
|
Flat Racks
|
|
O IMMEDIATE is a precedence with significant importance within the unit or organization (FRAG order, coordinated attacks, spot report, and SALUTE report).
Action is to be taken within: |
thirty minutes from time of receipt.
|
|
The ____ is a detachment of personnel who deploy as the lead element in support of an MPF operation.
|
SLRP
|
|
______ Company is the administrative and military organization for all enlisted personnel assigned to the NMCB's executive and special staffs. The Company provides support to the line companies in construction and disaster recovery operations.
|
Headquarters
|
|
A ridge is :
|
A series of hills that are connected to each other near the top.
A ridgeline may extend for many miles. It may be winding or quite straight. |
|
When was the first naval construction unit organized, and what was its nickname?
|
February 1942
“Bobcats” |
|
Estimating range by firing a zeroed in machine gun is called________.
|
registration fire
|
|
Protective Wire is close enough to the defense area for____________ observation and far enough away to prevent the enemy from using ________effectively from points just beyond the obstacle, normally ___ to ___ meters.
|
day and night
hand grenades 50 meters 100 meters |
|
LAW -
|
Weapons lubricating oil arctic.
|
|
Who acts as project superintendent :
|
Platoon Commander
|
|
A respirator SOP tells the user:
|
the limitations of their respirator, procedures for its care and storage and how to select proper filters.
|
|
A complete fire command consists of six elements:
|
ALERT: "SQUAD," "FIRE TEAM," etc.
DIRECTION of target: "RIGHT FRONT," DESCRIPTION of target: "ROCK PILE IN DRAW," "TALL TREE AT EDGE OF RANGE setting: "ONE-SEVEN-FIVE," ASSIGNMENT: "AUTOMATIC RIFLEMAN” CONTROL: "COMMENCE FIRING," "ON MY SIGNAL," "AT MY COMMAND..." |
|
What does IED stand for?
|
Improvised Explosive Device
|
|
Status of Resources and Training System
What is C3? |
C3: Capable of Major wartime mission
|
|
Who manages the battalion safety programs?
|
Safety Officer
|
|
The safety _________at each command is chaired by the XO.
|
policy committee
|
|
What are the three rates of fire?
|
Sustained
Rapid Cyclic |
|
What is the CESE Availability Goal?
|
Above 90%
|
|
Nerve, Blood, Blister, and Choking are all known as ______ agents.
|
Casualty
|
|
What does TPFDD stand for?
|
Time Phased Force Deployment Data – personnel, cargo and equipment, and movement data – “Deployment Schedule”
|
|
Administrative, Clerical, Classroom
Category Hazard Level : |
C Low
|
|
M9 COMMANDS
FIRE |
Place the M9 pistol in condition 1 with the safety lever placed in the fire position and engage target.
|
|
What is the AN/PSN-11
|
Global Positioning System
|
|
Expect a biological attack to be made at _____since most biological agents are sensitive to
________. |
Night
Sunlight |
|
What should be checked after securing a piece of equipment?
|
All items listed on the hard card
|
|
What type of restricted area is one in which secret equipment cannot be covered from view?
|
Exclusion Area
|
|
What is the MAGTF?
|
MARINE AIR GROUND TASK FORCE
|
|
What is the standard protective Equipment?
|
Kevlar
Camouflage cover Mosquito Net |
|
Priority of Work
S: A: F: E: F: I: L: M: A: S: |
Security
Automatic Weapons Fields of Fire Entrenchment Fire Support Install Tactical and Supplementary Wire Lay and bury comm cable Make Obstacles Alternate Fighting Positions Supplementary Fighting Positions |
|
The M203 cannot be fired without installing it to a ______.
|
M16
|
|
Survey form as well as a report for lost, stolen, or damaged items
|
DD 200
|
|
The NMCB TOA is listed as the P25 and is broken down into ______ sub-TOA(s) to assist in quick deployment.
|
3
|
|
TA-312 selector switch is a three-position switch that permits a carrier of electrical current.
LB: |
Local Battery (LB) setting is used when all power needed to operate the telephone is supplied by (2) BA-30, dry cell batteries within the telephone. This is the most commonly used setting.
|
|
A significant traffic accident on local highways with a government vehicle where no fatalities were involved, would be reported on a________
|
SITREP
|
|
Tactical wire in a defensive position is used to:
|
Funnel enemy combatants into choke points
|
|
Alleged danger situations will be investigated by the Occupational Safety and Health office within how many hours?
|
24
|
|
Aiming
Sight Picture |
is the placement of the tip of the front sight post in relation to the target while maintaining sight alignment. The tip of the front sight post is placed at the center of the target.
|
|
What are the four safety rules for handling weapons?
|
Treat every weapon as if it were loaded.
Never point a weapon at anything you do not intend to shoot. Keep finger straight and off the trigger until you are ready to fire. Keep weapon on safe until you intend to fire. |
|
M136 (AT4), HEAT, 84-mm Launcher
Range: Minimum arming: |
10 meters
|
|
What is the definition of a Seabee?
|
Any enlisted person in an OF-13 rating, or any officer or enlisted person serving in a NCF unit
|
|
Emergency Service Authorizations are classified as:
|
Less than 16 man-hours and less than $100 in material costs
|
|
What is a MOS?
|
Minimum Operation Strip
|
|
How do you prevent frostbite?
|
Wear sufficient clothing that is dry and loose, or wear several layers of warm coverings for protection against cold and wind.
In high winds, take special precautions to protect your face. |
|
Does Charlie Company have a C4?
|
No
|
|
Which NMCB Company commander has a direct line to the XO?
|
Bravo Company Commander (camp maintenance)
|
|
Seabees figure most into what functional area of logistics?
|
Engineering
|
|
What type of Chemical warfare uses: morphine, drugs, stimulants.
|
Incapacitating
|
|
Who assists the Safety Officer with enforcing policies and instructions within their work centers?
|
CC/OIC/S-codes
|
|
What radio uses the RT 1796?
|
PRC-117: UHF/SATCOM
|
|
What type of radiation is an internal and external hazard which poses the greatest threat after a nuclear blast and during fallout?
|
Beta
|
|
Which NCF unit provides logistical support to the Regiments?
|
NCFSU
|
|
The United States policy on chemical warfare states that we will not engage in Chemical warfare as a first strike attack. Chemical warfare can used:
|
as a retaliation if approved by the President.
|
|
How many normal categories of master activities are there?
|
16
|
|
If an operator on a voice link hears the word BEADWINDOW followed by a number, that operator must immediately acknowledge with “_______" and immediately secure the circuit.
|
Roger, out
|
|
Nerve agents enter the body through?
|
a) Skin
b) Inhalation |
|
The ___________ assists the XO in maintaining good order and discipline.
|
Chief Master-at-arms
|
|
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Muzzle velocity: |
3,050 fps or 2,080 mph
|
|
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Maximum effective range (Point): |
1830 meters
|
|
What type of restricted area is one in which security guards are posted at the door?
|
Controlled Area
|
|
The SORTS _________ contains 2 parts: Data, and Narrative Comments.
|
Naval Message
|
|
Proper Radio procedures :
_____ this is ____ , Over. |
(You), this is (me), over
|
|
Characteristics of the M9 :
Magazine Capacity |
15 rounds
|
|
Super-chlorination: Chlorinate drinking water to at least _____ ppm and hold for 4 hours (used to disinfect _______)
|
100
Water Bulls |
|
A real time tactical scenario, which exercises battalion’s, embark, tactical, and command and control functions:
|
Field Training Exercise (FTX)
|
|
What are the roles and duties of the EA rating?
|
Planning, estimating, Quality Control
|
|
The P- ___ is the standard peacetime construction estimating guide.
|
P-405
|
|
When possible, construct the supplementary wire at the same time you construct your:
|
tactical wire.
|
|
Formal embarkation training prepares ____________________________
for conducting an orderly mount out. |
only a small portion of the unit’s personnel
|
|
Planning provides the discipline to focus on the ____, ____, ____, _____ to accomplish assigned missions.
|
objectives
intentions capabilities and resources required |
|
Chlorine present at 100 parts per million is known as:
|
Super Chlorination
|
|
What is X2?
|
Dental
|
|
Execute "Immediate Action - Firing Stoppage"
RACK: |
Pull the charging handle to the rear and release.
|
|
This person’s primary job is to provide extra ammo to the Automatic Rifleman, and will take over as AR if they become a causality.
|
Rifleman #1
|
|
___________is a means of immobilizing fractures and dislocations.
|
Splinting
|
|
The two commands above a Battalion are:
|
Regiment
Division |
|
What does SORTS stand for?
|
Status of Resources and Training System
|
|
Tactical wire is normally constructed using:
|
the triple strand concertina fence.
|
|
How many vehicles are in the March Column?
|
30
|
|
After severe burns ________ is common as the body tries to clear out dead cells.
|
Kidney Failure
|
|
Never become trapped between your wire obstacle and the enemy; always keep the wire obstacles:
|
between you and the enemy.
|
|
List an example of Escalation of Force (oncoming vehicle):
|
200 Meters - Bullhorn or audible signal
150 Meters - Pop flair, Star Cluster 100 Meters - Warning shot, disable vehicle 50 Meters - Shoot to kill, aim for driver |
|
Registration fire is not the recommended way to determine the range to your target due to prematurely:
|
giving your machine gun position away.
|
|
Air Force Prime BEEF specializes in what missions:
|
Fire
EOD NBC |
|
What is the order of arrival for the three echelons?
|
Air Det
Air Echelon Sea Echelon |
|
What is CCI?
|
Controlled Cryptographic Items
|
|
The ____________ handles any major news items, request photographs as required and keep scrapbook on battalion activities.
|
Public Affairs Officer
|
|
What is station #6 in a personnel decontamination site?
|
Mask Removal
|
|
How many people are in a Squad?
|
14
|
|
State the purpose of COMSEC.
|
The purpose of COMSEC is to deny unauthorized persons valuable information that could be obtained from studying our communications information.
|
|
A __________ Fire mission is used to engaging wide targets.
|
Traverse
|
|
Which company typically mans the ECP?
|
Alfa Company
|
|
When deployed, NMCBs are :
ADCON to: ________ OPCON to:________ |
U.S. Fleet Forces Command (via NECC, 1NCD, NCR)
Theater supported COCOM (ex. In Europe: EUCOM via CNE) |
|
Who schedules classrooms, ranges, and spaces for training?
|
Training (S7)
|
|
The diagram that shows the angular difference between magnetic, grid, and true North is called a:
|
Declination Diagram
|
|
Air Det is self-sustaining for ___ days, except for Class I, III, V.
|
30
|
|
What is the maximum distance a double story MGB can span with a MLC 16?
|
162 feet
|
|
What is the normal Alfa Co deadline goal?
|
Less than 5%
|
|
What is station #7 in a personnel decontamination site?
|
Mask Decon
|
|
A closed fracture is:
|
a broken bone that does not break the overlying skin. Tissue beneath the skin may be damaged.
|
|
Regarding a Seabee camp, the Fire Plan must match up with the:
|
Camp Layout
|
|
Give the command ___________ to have the unit stop firing and to remain alert.
|
"HOLD FIRE"
|
|
The _______ is a lightweight, sound-powered, field telephone.
|
TA-1/PT
|
|
782 Gear is broken down into 4 categories. They are:
|
Fighting Load
Bivouac Protective Equip Special Issue |
|
OPORDER Admin and Logistics elements:
|
This paragraph contains information or instructions pertaining to rations and ammunition; location of the distribution point, corpsman, and aid station; the handling of prisoners of war; and other administrative and supply matters.
|
|
The 463L pallet has an exterior dimension how big?
|
108”x 88”
|
|
The ________________ administers the Battalion’s Special Service Program (MWR).
|
Special Services Officer
|
|
What is a kit 80001?
|
Plumbers Kit
|
|
What is a Class D fire?
|
Metal
|
|
Characteristics of the 240B :
Ammunition: |
7.62-mm NATO
|
|
M2, .50-Caliber HB, Browning Machine Gun
Length: Gun (overall): |
65 inches (approx.)
|
|
TA-312 selector switch is a three-position switch that permits a carrier of electrical current.
CB: |
Common Battery (CB) setting is used when all power needed to operate the telephone by a switchboard. System is being supplied a switchboard.
|
|
What does RSO&I stand for?
|
Reception
Staging Onward Movement Integration |
|
The Code Of Conduct was enacted after the ________ war.
|
Korean
|
|
Who assigns enlisted personnel to departments, companies, and detachments?
|
Operations (S3)
|
|
Convoy personnel should always expect an _________ after an IED detonation.
|
Ambush
|
|
The _______ is a listing of all material and its status.
|
PMSR: Project Material Status Report
|
|
For the Claymore Mine, the M7 is:
|
The Bandoleer for a Claymore Mine.
|
|
What is ARP?
|
The Automotive Repair Parts outlet is responsible for the receipt, storage, issue, and inventory control of repair parts for CESE and material handling equipment.
|
|
What is ANORS?
|
Anticipate Non Operational Ready Supply, part isn’t broken but will be soon.
|
|
What is the name of the civilian Contractor on higher for all Navy support services?
|
CONCAP
|
|
The AN/VRC-90 has how many RT-1523s?
|
1
|
|
A hasty position should be positioned behind whatever _______is available. It should offer as much frontal cover and concealment as possible from enemy direct fire but should still allow firing to the__________.
|
natural cover
front and oblique |
|
In terms of Convoys what does TRAVLR stand for?
|
Time convoy is departing
Reason for convoy Area of location convoy is departing from Vehicles/personnel in convoy (#) Location convoy is going to Routes taken to destination and return |
|
Like the Squad Leader, the Fire Team Leader only shoots :
|
In critical situations.
|
|
What are the symptoms of choking agent poisoning?
|
Hacking cough
Rapid shallow breathing Red/pinkish sputum Shock |
|
The Role of an NMCB in support of Amphibious Operations is to:
|
provide development of the beach support area and beach throughput,
and enhance the reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (RSO&I) |
|
Which security classification is given to information that, if disclosed to unauthorized personnel, could be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security?
|
TOP SECRET
|
|
Which area of naval doctrine has a mission to, “provide & sustain operational readiness by getting the right support to the right place at the right time?
|
Naval logistics
|
|
The AN/PRC-119 can be used during ADR, as it will not :
|
Set off explosives
|
|
Regarding the USMC, what does MEF stand for?
|
Marine Expeditionary Force
|
|
How do you treat symptoms of Heat Cramps?
|
1) Move the casualty to a shaded area or improvise shade.
2) Loosen his clothing. 3) Have him drink at least one canteen full of water slowly. 4) Seek medical aid if cramps continue. |
|
How does a convoy conduct a deliberate low clear of an overpass?
|
Two vehicles cover the overpass from below, one stops before the overpass, the other passes under and covers from the other side.
|
|
What are the departments in the A4 shop?
|
RPPO/DTO
Tech Library Expeditor Cost Control Heavy Shop Light Shop 5000 Shop |
|
METT-T (Mission)
When preparing a Convoy Order, where do you find into on your mission? |
The OPORD from higher headquarters states specified and implied tasks, as well as the Commanders Intent.
|
|
All temp power must have a ______, and be re-inspected every _____ weeks.
|
GFCI
2 |
|
What are the 4 defensive principals of war?
|
Surprise
Security Unity of Command Mass |
|
Air Echelon personnel are composed entirely of Seabees in ________.
|
Main Body
|
|
A permissible exposure limit is set by:
|
OSHA
|
|
For the M2 Machine gun, _________must be set when the machine gun is assembled, when the barrel or any major group or assembly within the receiver is replaced, or when there is doubt that it is set properly.
|
headspace and timing
|
|
What are the Communication devices in a Company Command Post?
|
TA-312 : comms with Platoon Commanders
Laptop TA-838 : comms with COC |
|
What radio has SATCOM capabilities?
|
AN/PRC-117
|
|
Chlorination for water treatment is :
|
2-5ppm for 2 hours
|
|
The Safety supervisors committee is a forum to:
|
Reviews mishap trends, and makes recommendations to the Council for policy changes.
|
|
What does the map reading term “resection” mean?
|
Finding YOUR position on a map by sighting azimuths from two or more known positions that can be pinpointed on a map.
|
|
What is the GPS model?
|
AN/PSN-11
|
|
Characteristics of M203 ammunition :
The danger radius of high explosive (HE) grenades is________. |
130 meters (427 ft)
|
|
Combining the ______ module and the ______ module will support an Air Det of 250 Seabees.
|
P25MCA
P25MC |
|
The 463L pallet has a shell made of _______ and a core of _________?
|
aluminum
balsa wood |
|
How do you treat a blood agent casualty?
|
Due to the rapid effects of this chemical agent, there is currently no antidote to combat it.
|
|
_______ is a condition in which the circulation of the blood is seriously disturbed. This can cause lack of oxygen to body systems.
|
Shock
|
|
Who in a convoy is responsible for route recon?
|
Advance Officer
|
|
Initial respirator training is given to personnel at the time of fit testing; the training should last a minimum of :
|
1 hour
|
|
4-hole burnouts are an example of a Camp maintenance ___________.
|
Standing Job Order
|
|
The color code for this road condition is:
Hostile activity is imminent |
Red
|
|
NMCBs construct advance base facilities in support of :
|
the Navy, Marine Corps, and other armed services engaged in military operations.
|
|
How does the AN/GRA-39 local unit communicate with the remote unit?
|
WD-1 wire
|
|
What is a kit 80031?
|
Mechanics Metric Kit
|
|
The handle on an M16 used to go from condition 3 to condition 1 is called :
|
The charging handle
|
|
Regarding the USMC, what does FSSG stand for?
|
Force Service Support Group
|
|
What is the EAC report?
|
EAC: Estimate at Completion – tells you your project financials
|
|
Every mishap involving a Navy motor vehicle must be reported on what form?
|
SF 91
|
|
Plastics, oily waste, paint, metal and wood can be turned into __________ for recycling.
|
DRMO
|
|
AN/PRC-119F, Manpack Radio Set Components:
|
1) RT-1523 (Series) Transmitter Receiver
2) Antenna - Radiates / receives signal for RT |
|
Ensure accountability of a casualty’s___________________.
|
weapon and individual equipment.
|
|
What is LSAT?
|
Lubricating oil semi-fluid weapon Teflon
|
|
What is X3?
|
Legal
|
|
COMSEC or CMS is a mission that provides security to naval :
|
communications and communication material.
|
|
What type of Ammunition has the following color:
Green |
Standard Ball Ammo
|
|
What is a Class B fire?
|
Petroleum products, oil, gas, plastic
|
|
All electrical tools must be inspected prior to use on a _________ basis.
|
Daily
|
|
What container has the dimensions of 8x4x20?
|
Half height
|
|
In the Seabee TOA, what is MCA?
|
Core Module (125 Air DET) – P25MCA
|
|
What is the following Equipment Condition Code?
A4-A6 |
Serviceable/Used – Good/Fair/Poor
|
|
What Does CESE stand for?
|
Civil Engineer Support Equipment
|
|
What does DFOW stand for?
|
Definable feature of work
|
|
What is the APL?
|
Allowance Parts List lists all the repair parts installed in the equipment or component to which it applies.
|
|
TOR of a message is:
|
Time of Receipt of an incoming message
|
|
METT-TSL
|
Mission
Enemy Terrain and Weather Troops and Fire Support Available Time Available Space Logistics |
|
Where should you look to find out what PPE is required for the procedure you are doing?
|
MSDS
|
|
What are the three types of restricted areas?
|
Exclusion Area
Limited Area Controlled Area |
|
What is the last thing you should do after a clean up is over?
|
refill spill kits
|
|
A 4 hole burnout will support ____ people for one day.
|
100
|
|
What is the BEEP?
|
A program that provides a relieving Battalion with realistic condition evaluation of CESE allowance, facilities, tools and materials.
|
|
The _________ is responsible for enlisted career service.
|
Career Counselor
|
|
Who establishes priorities and construction schedules?
|
S-3
|
|
The sea echelon is composed of ____ personnel and 1 officer; it brings the remaining TOA and should arrive within____ days.
|
25
30 |
|
CONDITION CODES FOR THE M203
Condition 2 |
Not applicable to the M203.
|
|
Each “click” on a lensatic compass equals _____ degrees.
|
3
|
|
Aiming
Eye Relief |
is the distance between the rear sight aperture and the aiming eye. Varies from one position to another and is controlled by stock weld. Normally, 2-6 inches from the rear sight aperture.
|
|
The AN/GRA-39 control group has a range of ________.
|
2 Miles
|
|
EEFI Beadwindow Code
03 |
03 Operations
FRIENDLY OPERATIONS, INTENTIONS, PROGRESS OR RESULTS: Operational or logistic intentions, assault objectives, mission participants, flying programs, mission situation reports, results of friendly or enemy operations. |
|
Execute "Immediate Action - Firing Stoppage“
TAP: |
Slap the bottom of the magazine.
|
|
What is the O-T line?
|
The Observer-Target line.
|
|
What tactical acronym follows the five steps of ORM closely?
|
BAMCIS
|
|
Using the M203, a gunner is expected to hit a area targets within:
|
350 meters
|
|
A _______is an injury to the ligaments that support a joint such as an ankle.
|
sprain
|
|
Temporary repairs to runways and facilities are performed under which ADR phase?
|
Post attack
|
|
This is not classified Information because it does not involve national security, but it is of such a nature that it cannot be divulged to everyone:
|
For Official Use Only (FOUO)
|
|
Determining how shortages and excesses of personnel will be distributed is the purpose of the
|
Naval Manning Plan
|
|
The three major tasks of the MOCC are:
|
CESE preparation
Cargo Preparation NODE Chart tracking (admin tasks) |
|
Which of the following documents contains a record of the vehicles destination, time of departure and arrival, and odometer reading?
|
DD Form 1970, Motor Equipment Utilization Record
|
|
Generator sheltering can be described as:
|
a. Protects / prolongs the life of advanced base generators
b. Good noise discipline during contingency operation |
|
The Navy requires personnel to wear hearing protective devices when they enter or work in an area where the operations general noise level is greater than _____ dB sound level and _____ dB peak sound level pressure.
|
84
140 |
|
An _______is an angle measured in a clockwise direction from a predetermined base line. |
azimuth
|
|
The “average” PEF is 67, if a PEF category (such as supervision) is very experienced, the PEF will be (higher or lower)?
|
Higher (example: 80)
|
|
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
Effective Range: point target: |
1500 meters
|
|
This person is the civilian that works for SECDEF:
|
SECNAV
|
|
For the below symptom, Identify the injury.
Rapid swelling and discoloration : |
Sprain
|
|
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
Ammunition for the MK 19 MOD 3 HE is a: |
High Explosive Grenade
|
|
Seabees are issued ____ or ____ detector paper as a component to their field protective masks.
|
M8
M9 |
|
A running password is used during:
|
passage of friendly lines when enemy contact prohibits the more time-consuming process of the challenge and password procedure. A running password is usually comprised of a short, two-word phrase that is continuously shouted by a Seabee who is running back through friendly lines.
|
|
MSDS has a minimum of how many sections?
|
10
|
|
Muscle twitching and pinpointed pupils are symptoms of?
|
A nerve agent
|
|
If you need to use a M256 kit, then you also need to be at ______.
|
MOPP 4
|
|
What is the “average” production efficiency factor number?
|
67
|
|
What does CSW stand for?
|
Crew Served Weapon
|
|
What are the 4 ways of controlling bleeding?
|
Direct Pressure
Elevating Pressure points Tourniquet |
|
Describe the tactical employment and purpose of naval Mobile Construction Battalion weapon systems.
Grenadier |
M203 grenade launcher, positioned to cover the dead space in the defense.
|
|
What is the procedure used when occupants of a vehicle must bail out and use the vehicle as cover?
|
Crew on the cold side dismounts are returns fire
Crew on the hot side returns fire, dismounts on cold side Assume firing positions using the vehicle as cover |
|
Wait _____ months before occupying a camp site used by another battalion.
|
2
|
|
How many range setting are on the AN/PRC-119?
|
3
|
|
The billets/shops that work under the B4 are:
|
Trouble Desk
Expediter Shop Foreman MCD PM/COSAL |
|
What is a NBG?
|
Naval Beach Group
|
|
Characteristics of the 240B :
Maximum effective range point target: |
800 meters-point target
|
|
NCF Units:
NCD |
Naval Construction Division (1st)
|
|
When the distance to the target is unknown, use this type of fire:
|
Searching Fire
|
|
Show of force posture from a ____________is usually enough to ward off civilian vehicles that challenge convoy with aggressive driving.
|
gun truck
|
|
What is the primary intent of the Emergency Action Plan?
|
To protect all classified materials and equipment (radios). Secure, Remove, or Destroy
|
|
How many Mils are in 360 Degrees?
|
6400
|
|
What are the two billets that work directly for the A5?
|
A4
A3 |
|
PRIORITY MEDEVAC is required:
|
Casualty requires prompt medical care, casualty must be picked up within 24 hours
|
|
What does EAP stand for?
|
Emergency Action Plan
|
|
Regarding the USMC, what does MAU stand for?
|
Marine Amphibious Unit
|
|
At the remote sites where SAMMS is not available, which of the following forms is used as the operator’s daily PM report?
|
NAVFAC 11240/13
|
|
The _______ is spring activated and works against nerve agents.
|
NAAK
|
|
Status of Resources and Training System
What is C1? |
C1: Capable of Full wartime mission
|
|
M8 is ______ and M9 is ______.
|
Paper
Tape |
|
__________ is to be used for each item of automotive equipment & trailers on a daily or trip basis.
|
DD 1970
|
|
Company Level, used to track Master Activities, weekly (submitted every 2 weeks).
|
Level 2
|
|
Z O P R located at the top left corner of the message format is the precedence of a
Message. What are they? |
Z FLASH
O IMMEDIATE P PRIORITY R ROUTINE |
|
What is the name of the Heavy Equipment Operators license?
|
NAVFAC 11260/2
|
|
_______ work under the 1NCD and help the NMCBs attain their highest possible readiness.
|
Regiments
|
|
It is not authorized for Seabees to use claymore mines in an ______ manner. In almost all cases, mines will be fired electrically with the ____ firing device.
|
Uncontrolled
M57 |
|
What is the flow of CESE through the embarkation process?
|
Dispatch
Collateral De-fueling Wash-rack Shop (inspect/fix) Mobile loading Weighing and Marking Marshalling Chock Assignment |
|
The KY-99A/TSEC is required for secure communications with the _____________ Radio.
|
AN/PRC-104B
|
|
There is a tendency for untrained Seabees to fire at night when hearing noises or at imaginary targets, and gives away their position to the enemy. This is a result of a lack of:
|
Fire Discipline
|
|
______ radios are used primarily in air-to-ground communications.
|
UHF
|
|
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
TP is: |
TP Training Practice
|
|
COMMANDS FOR THE M203
"MAKE READY" |
Place the M203 in condition 1.
|
|
The most notable feature of a weapon in Condition 2 is:
|
The hammer must be forward
|
|
How are earned mandays calculated?
|
(Estimated MDs) x %WIP = Earned MDs
|
|
Supply/Transportation, Medical, Mechanics, RDT&E: Engineers, test mechanics and laboratory personnel involved in the research, development, evaluation and test of systems.
Category Hazard Level : |
B Moderate
|
|
Characteristics of M203 ammunition :
The _____practice round is completely inert and contains no fuze. |
M781
|
|
Air Det is ______ tailored to support a specific mission.
|
task
|
|
What does IMPAC stand for?
|
International Merchant Purchase Authorization Card
|
|
What are the three levels of planning?
|
Strategic, operational, tactical
|
|
Classes of Supply:
Class 7 is: |
Major End Items
|
|
What are the 5 methods of communication?
|
Audio
Visual Wire Messenger Radio |
|
A Tourniquet should be tied ____ inches above a wound.
|
4
|
|
Key personnel in a convoy
Pacesetter |
(1) Placed in the lead vehicle as the head of the convoy.
(2) Maintains the rate of march necessary to meet the schedule. (3) The slowest vehicle in the convoy. |
|
What is CLEP?
|
College Level Exam Program
|
|
_______ containers have open sides and top with fixed end walls. They are used to stow bulk items such as lumber and pipe.
|
Flatrack
|
|
An initial report given to the COC during enemy contact is called a ______ report.
|
SALUTE
|
|
______ are used at critical intersections during convoy operations to direct traffic.
|
Guides
|
|
The ______ post warning flags, picks up guides, checks convoy discipline, ensure care is given to any injured personnel
|
Trail officer
|
|
What are the max cargo dimentions for the C-130?
|
115” wide x 105” high
|
|
Where is sewage properly disposed of?
|
Sewage Treatment Plant
|
|
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
M64 Mount weight: |
21 lbs.
|
|
State the duties and responsibilities of the Company Chief:
|
As an assistant to the Company Commander his/her duties and responsibilities include.
•Enforcing the policies of the Company Commander •Supervision and administration of the company •Inspect company berthing and work spaces •Provide guidance and counsel to company personnel |
|
What does SERE stand for?
|
Survival, Evasion, Resistance, and Escape
|
|
What does TTP stand for?
|
Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures
|
|
Use _________ to evaluate terrain for offensive or defensive operations.
|
KOCOA
|
|
Who rides in the back of a convoy, responsible for all breakdowns?
|
Maintenance Officer
|
|
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
TP Color is: |
Blue or silver olive
|
|
What is the night vision sight for the crew served weapon?
|
AN/PVS-5
|
|
What is the range of the AN/PRC-150 with a :
10 Foot Whip |
10 Miles
|
|
“Node Charts” contain a series of ______________that must be complete prior to the deployment of the Air Detachment.
|
administrative tasks
|
|
Coordinating training, logistic support, and movement of personnel is the definition of
|
ADCON
|
|
What are the two types of deterrence that a strong naval force can practice?
|
Nuclear & conventional
|
|
Mishaps investigations are conducted on:
|
all mishaps
|
|
The initial outfitting of repair parts is designed so that each CESE item has a list of parts, this is called the:
|
APL
Allowance Parts List |
|
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
Ammunition for the MK 19 MOD 3 HE Casualty radius: |
15 meters
|
|
What is a DCD?
|
Design Change Directive – direction coming from higher
|
|
What are the 2 types of patrols?
|
Security
Reconnaissance |
|
What is a YN?
|
Yeoman
|
|
What does ASP stand for?
|
Ammo Supply Point
|
|
The Mk I grenade provides about ____ candlepower for a period of ____ seconds.
|
55,000
25 |
|
COMMANDS:
FIRE |
Take the M16A3 off safe, engage targets
|
|
What is on a “Page 2”?
|
An immediately accessible, up-to-date record of emergency data for casualty reporting and notification of the next of kin.
|
|
________ is important, as it allows airplanes already in the air a place to land.
|
Airfield Damage Repair
|
|
What frequency is the AN/PRC-119?
|
VHF
|
|
The safest practice concerning hazardous material is to _____ only the amount of material that can be used that day.
|
Draw
|
|
_____ Company is the NMCB's general construction company.
Responsible for prime contracts and an occasional subcontract; normally equal in strength and capabilities; they function as prime contractors for vertical construction. |
Charlie/Delta
|
|
The area on the ground where machine gun fire hits is called the :
|
Beaten Zone
|
|
On range cards, Show no higher unit designation than the _____level for security reasons.
|
company
|
|
_________ are used to dispose of sewage and grey water into the ground.
|
Leach Fields
|
|
The term cGyph/hr is the standard unit of measure when discussing
dose rates. cGyph/hr is: |
Centigray per hour
|
|
Walking to and from fighting positions during daylight hours will alert the enemy to:
|
Their exact locations.
|
|
Particles primarily present in the Nuclear fallout are:
|
Beta
|
|
What does CSE stand for?
|
Convoy Security Element
|
|
What must patrols do while executing a patrol order?
|
Inform the COC upon exit, and call in at all check points.
Provide SALUTE, SPOT reports as required Periodic radio checks Gather Intel regarding terrain and enemy activity BPT medevac or call for fire Request permission to reenter camp |
|
How many lines are available in a single SB 3614?
|
30
|
|
Resistance on all grounding rods must be less than _______, if not, then _________.
|
25 Ohms
Install another grounding rod |
|
What are all the S codes in a NMCB?
|
S1, S2, S3, S4, S6, S7
|
|
The primary mission of Navy Civil Engineers is to:
|
provide quality facilities, proactive operational support, and expert engineer services to our nation and its military forces.
|
|
Characteristics of the 240B :
Rates Of Fire: Sustained: |
100 rpm
|
|
The Team Leader and Gunner in a gun crew are armed with :
|
M9 Pistols
|
|
How does a convoy conduct a Hasty Clearing of an overpass?
|
As each vehicle approaches the overpass one weapon is raised to cover, after vehicle passes under, weapon is turned rearward to cover overpass.
|
|
M240B barrel changes should happen within_________.
|
30 seconds
|
|
Use the WALK when :
|
when enemy presence and location are not known.
|
|
The M67 is a/an _____ grenade.
|
fragmentation
|
|
What is the minimum distance a latrine can be located from a mess facility?
|
100 Meters
|
|
Chlorinate drinking water to at least ____ ppm with a final residual of at least ____ ppm.
|
5
2 |
|
What is Part 2 of the COSAL?
|
List of all repair parts and components
|
|
What is a M256A1?
|
Chemical Agent Detector kit. Takes approximately 15 minutes. Can test for vapor hazards and various agents.
|
|
A _______Fire mission is used to engage deep targets.
|
Search
|
|
What are the 4 types of security included in Communication Security (COMSEC)?
|
Emission Security
Transmission Security Crypto Security Physical Security |
|
This group is responsible for moving equipment and personnel from the marshalling area to an aircraft.
|
DACG
|
|
What is an ERO?
|
Equipment Repair Order
The Equipment Repair Order is the sole authority to perform work on CESE in the field or in the shop. |
|
Who is responsible for submitting the quality control plan for a project?
|
The prime or lead company
|
|
How many SB 3614 switchboards can be stacked together?
|
Up to 3
|
|
What are the 5 “C’s” of convoys approaching an IED?
|
Confirm it is an IED through visual means.
Clear Leave the immediate area; detonation may be imminent, secondary devices may be present. Cordon Establish perimeter (300m small device/1000m up to van-size/2000m water truck or semi). Control Maintain a visual (Binos/scopes) observation to ensure no one tampers with the device; maintain security. Call EOD Immediately contact your supporting EOD to respond(9 line IED/UXO Spot Report. |
|
For the below symptom, Identify the injury.
Body temperature drops and progressive shivering : |
Hypothermia
|
|
The two types of harassing chemicals are:
|
Tear
Vomiting |
|
The absence of women or children in a city or village means:
|
Local enemy combatant activity is likely.
|
|
What type of Ammunition has the following color:
Aluminum |
Armor Piercing / Incendiary
|
|
On an M-16, the front end of the barrel is known as the :
|
Muzzle
|
|
What is CBR?
|
Chemical Biological and Radiological Warfare
|
|
What phone does a Company CP use to communicate with the COC?
|
TA-838
|
|
Regiment/Battalion Level – used to track projects monthly.
|
Level 1
|
|
_________ is the capability of military forces which permits them to move from one geographic location to another while retaining the ability to fulfill their primary mission.
|
Mobility
|
|
How many vehicles are in the
Unit Column? |
10
|
|
A joint force based solely on geographic location is commanded by a:
|
Region Commander
|
|
How many M16A3s are in a Battalion TOA?
|
650
|
|
After applying a tourniquet to a wounded Seabee, mark their forehead with :
|
A large “T”
The time the tourniquet was installed |
|
Air Echelon (A/E): P25C or TA-31:
___ personnel, ___ pieces of CESE, ______ sh tons air cargo, ______ million is the cost, deployable in ____ Days. |
659
103 1250 $17.9 14 |
|
______ does not do any Asbestos work.
|
The NCF
|
|
What does MOPP Stand for?
|
Mission
Oriented Protective Posture |
|
NCF Units:
NCRs |
Naval Construction Regiment (22nd, 30th, 1st, 3rd, 7th, 9th)
|
|
Immersion foot and trench foot are injuries that occur from :
|
fairly long exposure to cool and wet socks and boots or tightly laced boots which impair circulation. This can be very serious and can lead to loss of toes or part of the foot.
|
|
The voice transmission range for the TA-1/PT is 4 miles using _______ field wire.
|
WD-1/TT
|
|
Characteristics of the M16A3 Service Rifle:
Length: |
39 5/8 inches (w/ compensator)
|
|
A _____ Bridge is a Two girder deck bridge launched and delaunched via roller system/5 T truck
|
Medium Girder
|
|
What does CBMU stand for?
|
Construction Battalion Maintenance Unit
|
|
_________are one third of a standard 20-foot container. They are built as two types. Three can be linked together with connectors to form a Twenty-Foot Equivalent (TEU) and fit the envelope of a Standard 20-foot container.
|
TRICONs
|
|
What system is designed specifically to protect the security of communications?
|
CMS
|
|
An area of high ground is a:
|
Hilltop
|
|
Who died from a Terrorist attack on TWA Airplane, and had a DDG named after him?
|
SW3 Robert Stethem
|
|
The only Seabee to fire an M16A3 in Full Automatic mode is the:
|
Automatic Rifleman
|
|
What does FEBA stand for?
|
Forward Edge of the Battle Area
|
|
What is a HT?
|
Hull Technician
|
|
What are the dimensions of a straddle trench?
|
4-foot long, 2 1/2 feet deep and 1 foot wide.
|
|
The ____officer is the senior Assistant to the XO for administrative details and personnel administration.
|
S-1
|
|
What is MHE and WHE?
|
Material Handling Equipment (Forklifts)
Weight Handling Equipment (Cranes) |
|
Assign a sector of fire for each machine gun squad.
Ensure that the sector does not exceed _____ mils, or ____ degrees. |
800 mils
45 degrees |
|
What is a CS?
|
Culinary Specialist
|
|
What are the 3 aircraft used by Seabees?
|
C-130 Hercules
C-17 Globemaster C-5 Galaxy |
|
What is MOPP 0?
|
The condition when a Seabee has all the MOPP gear available, but is not wearing it
|
|
The mandays accrued by closing out CAS sheets are called:
|
Mandays Earned
|
|
In cold climates (consistently below 0 degrees F), lubricate the machine gun with _________and keep it covered as much as possible.
|
Lubricating Oil, Arctic Weather (LAW)
|
|
Bacteria and Virus are:
|
Pathogens
|
|
What is SIM?
|
SIM – Selected Inventory Management – high demand items
|
|
In Convoys, this Key person has the following responsibilities:
Responsible for the CESE maintenance |
Maintenance Officer
|
|
It may be difficult to detect a _________ attack initially because there are no alarms for detecting it.
|
biological
|
|
Toxins include what type product?
|
pesticides
|
|
Describe the tactical employment and purpose of naval Mobile Construction Battalion weapon systems.
Rifleman: |
M16 rifle, positioned so they can cover the entire fire team sector. The position must provide support and protection for the Automatic rifleman.
|
|
Whenever possible, use the most expedient method available to check the area. M8 or M9 paper can be used to check for _______ contaminants and the M256A1 for________.
|
Liquid
vapors |
|
Industrial Operations, Heavy Equipment Operations and Maintenance, Toxic/Hazardous Materials Handling.
Construction, Other: Exposures to heat, cold, diving salvage, heights, or other high-risk work Category Hazard Level : |
A High
|
|
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
Weight: |
Weight: 75.6 lbs.
|
|
COMMANDS FOR THE M203
"UNLOAD" |
Place the M203 in condition 4.
|
|
What does COCOM stand for?
|
Combatant Command
|
|
What are the dimensions of a “Standard 20”
|
8 x 8 x 20 ft
|
|
What is the max weight a 463L pallet can be loaded to?
|
10,000 pounds
|
|
Range Cards must be neat and prepared using a _____ format.
|
universal
|
|
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
Effective Range: area target: |
2212 meters
|
|
The Safety Supervisor Committee is chaired by __________.
|
The Safety Officer
|
|
Tactical wire can be used to funnel enemy into choke points, at night these choke points can be lined with ______ to alert of an enemy presence.
|
Trip Flares or Noise makers
|
|
What does EPW stand for?
|
Enemy Prisoner of War
|
|
What program tracks, bar codes and creates requisitions for HAZMAT?
|
CHRIMP
|
|
What type of grenade MUST be thrown if the pin is pulled?
|
Illumination
|
|
What is a Garrote bar?
|
A piece of pipe or metal may be affixed to the front of the vehicle in a vertical position extending above the driver's head.
(a) It is used to prevent decapitation if wire is stretched across the road. (b) If none is available, remove windshield and leave windshield FRAME in place. |
|
When more than ______ rounds have been fired from a M2 in a 2-minute period, the barrel is hot enough to produce a cook-off.
|
150
|
|
With this operators license, a Seabee can drive a 1 ¼ pickup up to a 20 ton tractor.
|
OF-346
|
|
What is the MRC?
|
Maintenance Requirements Card
|
|
What testing kit is used to detect chemical agents in water?
|
M272A1
|
|
The RT-1523(C)/U Transceiver is also known as a ________ ICOM radio.
|
SINCGARS
|
|
A zig and zag line is used to indicate whether a __________is behind or ahead of schedule.
|
Construction Activity
|
|
M16A3 Weapon Condition Codes:
Condition 4 |
Magazine removed, chamber empty, bolt forward, safety on and ejection port cover closed.
|
|
For the MK 19 MOD 3 40-mm Grenade Machine Gun :
Ammunition for the MK 19 MOD 3 HE Kill radius: |
5 meters
|
|
All materials shipped/transferred to DRMO shall be accomplished in what Single line item release/receipt document?
|
DD Form 1348-1
|
|
Construction Activity Summary Sheets are designed to:
|
Ensure a smooth flowing project
|
|
How much time must elapse between NAAK kit injections?
|
10-15 minutes
|
|
A _______ is a complete failure of a weapon to fire. Immediate action is “tap-rack-bang”.
|
Misfire
|
|
What are the three phases of Quality Control?
|
Preparatory
Initial Follow up |
|
Heat exhaustion is due to:
|
a loss of water through sweating without adequate fluid replacement.
|
|
A ________must follow a MedEvac request. Direct Air Support Center (DACS) is informed when the MedEvac is completed.
|
CASREP
|
|
How many vehicles are in the Serial Column?
|
20
|
|
This exercise should
never be used to discipline or harass Seabees : |
the mask confidence exercise
|
|
What is an:
AN/PVS-7C |
Night Vision Goggles
|
|
The 4 types of fire, based on enemy position, are:
|
Frontal
Flanking Oblique Enfilade |
|
The rate of the A5 is usually:
|
EQCM
|
|
Characteristics of the 240B :
Ammunition : ________ are used against light targets such as houses and personnel, and during training. |
Ball cartridges
|
|
During Mopp gear exchange, space the teams in columns of two's, perpendicular to wind direction, with ___ to ___ meters between each team.
|
1
3 |
|
What are the 6 proper masking procedures?
|
1. Stop breathing and close your eyes
2. don protective mask 3. clear mask 4. check the seal of the mask 5. sound the alarm to alert others 6. continue the mission |
|
"First Seabee to visually detect the enemy", give the silent signal for:
|
FREEZE.
|
|
What must patrols do prior to stepping off?
|
Use BAMCIS to plan the patrol
Attend Intel (S2) and Ops(S3) briefs in COC Coordinate Entry and Exit point Prepare 2 overlays for COC, 1 to CP Provide patrol brief to COC Rehearse immediate action drills, Inspections Request permission to step off |
|
There are _____ principal pressure points on each side of the body.
|
11
|
|
A _______ report always follows a SALUTE report.
|
SPOT
|
|
It is usually located directly adjacent to the Alfa maintenance shops. Issue, order, receives and stows all maintenance related repair parts.
|
Automotive Repair Parts.
|
|
Mount Out Process for CESE:
The MOCC tracks using a ____ chart and _____. |
NODE chart
Status Boards |
|
Never allow (CS) grenades in the confidence chamber.
CS grenades will act as an obscurant and will reduce the _________ level. |
oxygen
|
|
Identify symptoms of Heat Exhaustion
|
1) Look for weakness or faintness, dizziness or drowsiness, cool, pale (or gray), moist (sweaty) skin, headaches, and loss of appetite.
2) Check heat cramps, nausea (urge to vomit) with or without vomiting, urge to defecate, chills (gooseflesh), rapid breathing (shortness of breath), confusion, or tingling of hands or feet. |
|
Classes of Supply:
Class 10 is: |
Non Military Programs
|
|
From the Allowance Parts List (APL) data, a publication called a ________ is prepared and distributed to the NCF unit being supported.
|
Consolidated Seabee Allowance List (COSAL)
|
|
What is the model number of the CS Riot grenade?
|
M25A2
|
|
"Seabee nearest the enemy", open fire and shout:
|
CONTACT, FRONT (RIGHT, LEFT, OR REAR).
|
|
Who prepares admin reports, maintains tickler file on recurring reports:
|
Admin/Personnel (S1)
|
|
When constructing a parapet for a fighting position, ensure that at least ____ inches of dirt is between you and the enemy.
|
36
This is the depth required to stop small arms fire. |
|
What is a Class A fire?
|
Combustible Materials, wood, paper, clothing
|
|
When a convoy is approaching a danger area :
|
Scan the area
Use UAVs Use dismounts to conduct a sweep of the area |
|
All respirators are periodically turned into the respirator facility as scheduled by the :
|
Respirator protection program manager
|
|
Amount of passengers/cargo that may be transported by a specific aircraft:
|
Allowable Cabin/Cargo Load
|
|
What chemical rapidly breaks down the mask filter elements?
|
Blood Agents
|
|
During FEX, Headquarters company typically runs :
|
The Galley
Supply |
|
The radiological contamination below the negligible risk level is _____ centigray per hour.
|
0.33
|
|
_________ is the component of communications security which results from all necessary physical measures taken to safeguard classified equipment, material,
and documents against loss, theft, capture, or disclosure. |
Physical security
|
|
How many circuits can the SB-22/PT handle when stacked with the accessory line packs installed?
|
29
|
|
The M256A1 takes approximately ______ minutes to operate. The M8
and M9 take only ________. |
15
Seconds |
|
Tent Camp Layout:
How far are Heads from berthing? |
50 Feet
|
|
The _____ is used to load store and fill crypto in electronic communication devices.
|
CYZ-10
|
|
What is MLO?
|
The Material Liaison Office is responsible to the Battalion Supply Office and ensures the receipt, issue, storage, maintenance of records, accounting, submission of reports, and expenditures of project materials at the main body are in accordance with NAVSUP Publication 485.
|
|
The Material Liaison Office is responsible to the Battalion Supply Office and ensures the receipt, issue, storage, maintenance of records, accounting, submission of reports, and expenditures of project materials at the main body are in accordance with NAVSUP Publication 485.
|
Army
|
|
Phosgene and Diphosgene are:
|
Choking Agents
|
|
The effective causality producing radius of a M67 grenade is:
|
15 meters
|
|
Near Ambush Distance (Convoy)
|
(50 meters or less) - Assault through ambush
|
|
M136 (AT4), HEAT, 84-mm Launcher
Weight: |
14.8lbs.
|
|
Snow blindness is due to:
|
a glare on unprotected eyes from an ice field or a snowfield. It is more dangerous on cloudy or hazy days when Seabees are less wary.
Once you have had snow blindness, you are more susceptible to further injury. |
|
When should we employ the ORM process?
|
In everything we do where even a moderate chance of risk to life, limb, or property exists.
|
|
The NCR Command Element provides administrative and operational control over two or more NCF units operating in a specific geographic area or operating in support of a specific military operation and is the __________________________element for all subordinate Seabee units assigned to support a MEF sized MAGTF.
|
command and control
|
|
A ______ mask is hosed, but limited by length of hose.
|
Supplied Air
|
|
What is the maximum range of the TA-312/PT?
|
14-22 miles
|
|
What does COSAL stand for?
|
Consolidated Seabee Allowance List
|
|
VHF: Very High Frequency is ___ to ____ MHz
|
30 to 300
|
|
During a convoy dismount order by the Convoy Commander, __________ remain fully manned, and __________ do not dismount.
|
Crew Served Weapons
Drivers |
|
The __________Is allowed to sign requisitions for priority ”A” material.
|
Operations Officer
|
|
Between Nerve, Blood, and Blister agents, which causes the most casualties?
|
Nerve
|
|
Don’t give a Seabee suffering from a sucking chest wound anything to:
|
Drink
|
|
What brevity pro-word is used to identify a EEFI violation?
|
Beadwindow
|
|
MOPP gear exchange is generally performed using ________ units in order to provide control, prevent confusion, control the spread of contamination, and facilitate speed of the operation.
|
squad-size
|
|
What is the maximum number of NAAK injections a person receives without proper medical supervision?
|
3 sets of injections
|
|
The M18A1 will kill within ___ meters and produce casualties out to ___ meters.
|
50
100 |
|
Can a TA-1 be connected to a
TA-312? |
Yes
|
|
A sprain is:
|
when the connecting tissue of the joints has been torn.
|
|
What is Contingency Operations?
|
Requires plans, rapid response & special procedures to ensure safety readiness
The military’s response to emergencies |
|
What is the night vision sight for the M16A3 rifle?
|
AN/PVS-12A
|
|
What are the two most common malfunctions of the MK–19?
|
Runaway gun
Sluggish Action |
|
Which proword is used to pass extremely critical messages?
|
FLASH
|
|
For the ___________ method of target location, the firing unit does not need to know the location of the LP/OP.
|
Shift from a known point
|
|
Convoy TTPs for Crowd Dispersal.
|
Increase weapons conditions to show an escalation of force.
For this technique to work effectively, a small number of personnel are designated to be at a lesser weapons condition during execution in order to show escalation of force. |
|
The instruction for ORM is :
|
OPNAVINST 3500.39
|
|
How often is the QDR rewritten?
|
After every presidential election
|
|
___________ is a security measure Designed to protect a communication system against fraudulent transmissions.
|
Authentication
|
|
What are the duties of the S-2 Officer?
|
Provides Intel on country/weather.
Ammo Requisition Weapons Maps / Intel data Manage and maintain the battalion tactical communication equipment. |
|
M136 (AT4), HEAT, 84-mm Launcher
Range: Max: |
2100 meters
|
|
What frequency band consists of frequencies from 3-30 MHz?
|
HF
|
|
When not deployed, NMCB as ADCON/OPCON to :
|
U.S. Fleet Forces Command (via NECC, 1NCD, NCR)
|
|
If a Command/Combat Control Center is put out of commission, command is shifted to the
|
ACOC
|
|
_____ is not less than 1m above and no higher than 68 inches above the ground. Can exist for 700m over level or evenly sloping ground.
|
Grazing Fire
|
|
Who prepares the homeport training plan?
|
Training (S7)
|
|
Which report does the observing unit use to provide CBR attack data?
|
NBC-1
|
|
HF: High Frequency is ___ to ___MHz
|
3 to 30
|
|
The first Seabee unit to debut in a combat zone did so on Sept. 1, 1942, when elements of the 6th Naval Construction Battalion went ashore at___________.
|
Guadalcanal
|
|
Any powered electrical receptacle in an existing building used to supply electricity to perform construction is considered a/an
|
Temporary Power Source
|
|
The amount of money estimated for a unit to perform its mission is referred to as the
|
OPTAR
|
|
A directional, fixed-fragmentation mine that is designed primarily for use against massed infantry attacks.
|
M18A1 Claymore mine
|
|
How does a convoy conduct a deliberate high clear of an overpass?
|
One vehicle drives up the overpass and visually covers the overpass until the convoy has passed.
|
|
If a HARDENED vehicle is FORCED to stop in the kill zone:
If cover is available: |
take cover and IMMEDIATELY build a suppression of fire and employ a maneuver element against the enemy position.
|
|
____________ mines are often used to start an ambush.
|
Command detonated
|
|
_______blood is usually bright red in color.
|
Arterial
|
|
The voice transmission range for the TA-1/PT is _____ using WD-1A/TT field wire.
|
4 miles
|
|
The M57 is a/an _____ grenade.
|
Practice
|
|
The P-437 is the:
|
Facilities Planning Guide
|
|
Construction materials (Class IV) are NOT part of the TOA and must be planned for and provided
by the___________. |
supported command or unit
|
|
Iodine tablets are ______ in color and contained in the personal first aid kit. Tablets that have become completely ________or completely brown should be discarded and not used.
|
Purple
Bright yellow |
|
Which NMCB Company commander has a direct line to the CO?
|
Alfa Company Commander (CESE)
|
|
The ______may be hand-held or mounted on the M16 rifles, the M203 grenade
launcher, and the M240B machine gun. |
AN/PVS-4
|
|
Job Hazard Categories __________ can be Hazard Level High, Moderate, or Low depending upon the specific duties assigned to the individual.
|
D, E, and F
|
|
Which NCF unit maintains established bases or recently constructed bases?
|
CBMU
|
|
Under Airfield Damage Repair, what does EOR stand for?
|
Explosive Ordinance Report
|
|
NMCB tactical vertical construction includes structures such as:
|
Prefabricated buildings, bunkers, and towers
|
|
When retracting the slide handle to the rear on the M2 or M240B, a person should operate the cocking handle with their palm facing _______.
|
Up
|
|
What is the standard Special Issue Equipment?
|
Flack Jacket
Sleeping bag Sleeping mat |
|
Frostbite is when _______ form in the skin.
|
Ice Crystals
|
|
What are the 7 OF-13 Ratings?
|
EO
CM UT CE BU SW EA |
|
What are the 3 base lines on a map?
|
Magnetic North
True North Grid North |
|
In the 5 step ORM process, explain the purpose of:
Make Risk Decision |
What are the risks associated with the hazards?
|
|
The ________ officer is at the rear of the convoy.
|
Maintenance
|