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645 Cards in this Set
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- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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The rear area security coordinator (RSAC) monitors operations of the rear area through what two organizations?
1. Combat Service Support Operations Center (CSSOC) and the Rear Area Operations Center (RAOC) 2. Combat Operation Center (COC) and the Fire Direction Center (FDC) 3. Fire Support Center (FSC) and the Base Facility Command (BFC) 4. Combat Operation Center (COC) and the Base Facility Commander (BFC) |
Combat Service Support Operations Center (CSSOC) and the Rear Area Operations Center (RAOC)
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The Force Service Support Group (FSSG) can field a total of how many provisional mobile security platoons (PMSP)?
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
2. Two
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A commander establishes a combat operation center for wht primary purpose?
1. To ensure medical facilities 2. To ensure proper galley facilities 3. To ensure proper base facilities 4. To ensure proper centralized command and control facilities |
4. To ensure proper contralized command and control facilities
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What officer exercised supervision over the COC?
1. S-1 2. S-2 3. S-3 4. S-4 |
S-3
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When you plan the establishment of a COC, what special consideration must be considered?
1. Location 2. Size 3. Terrain 4. Accessibility |
1. Location
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Around what unit is the COC centrally located?
1. Platoon position 2. Gallery 3. Battalion aid station 4. Company command posts |
4. Company command posts
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The COC should have at least how many dismount and entry points?
1. One dismount, one entry 2. One dismount, two entries 3. Two dismounts, two entries 4. Two dismounts, one entry |
3. Two dismounts, two entries
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What is the most critical factor a COC must have in order to be successful?
1. Proper location 2. Communication 3. Light discipline 4. Security |
2. Communication
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Who maintains close communication with the battalion's Fire Direction Center?
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The Fire Support Coordinator
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Who has releasing authority on all outgoing messages?
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The COC Watch Officer
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Who ensures that all personnel entering the COC are on the access list?
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The Messenger/Security
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Who prepares written and oral briefings as required?
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The Intelligence Watch Officer
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Who is responsible for drafting messages?
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Communicators
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Who monitors all incoming messages related to the weather?
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NBC/CBR Officer
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Which of the following information is NOT likely to be posted on the operations map in the COC?
1. Location and status of patrols 2. Landing zone locations 3. Enemy equipment/weapons 4. NBC corridors/fallouts |
3. Enemy equipment/weapons
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What organization is the terminating point for all tactical and nontactical radio nets?
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Combat Operation Center
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The AN/PRC-104 has what type of frequency?
1. Low 2. Variable 3. Medium 4. High |
4. High (High Frequency (GF) Radio
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The AN/GRA-39 is primarily used for what purpose?
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Remote linkup from the antenna farm to the COC
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What does the acronym CEOI stand for?
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Communication Electronic Operating Instruction
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What radio net is associated with communication from the COC to the battalion's FDC?
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Conduct of Fire Net
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What radio net is associated with communication from the COC to higher headquarters located outside the base facility, usually by a high-frequency radio?
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Rear Area Operations Command Net
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What radio net is used to pass general information about all (or the majority) of the units within the area of operation?
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Alert/Broadcast Net
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What communication net is used by the COC for tactical purposes and for various reports such as SALUTE reports?
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Base Facility Tactical Net
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All incoming radio traffic to the COC should be written down on authorized message pads with an original plus how many copies?
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Two
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As a guide, a priority message should be handled within what time frame?
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1-3 hours
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After an incoming message has been received and checked by the communication chief, to whom does the communication chief pass the message to?
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The COC watch officer
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In support of the company commander, the company command post (CP) serves what primary function?
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Centralized command and control
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In support of the COC, the company command post serves what primary purpose?
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It is the eyes and ears for the COC
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You should establish alternate routes leading to the company command post for which of the following reasons?
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To prevent a beaten path for the enemy to follow from being established.
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Which of the following elements is NOT included in the company CP's communication network?
1. The react force 2. The platoon commanders 3. The listening post 4. The observation post |
The react force
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The platoon commanders must have constant communication with which of the following elements/personnel?
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The troops on the front lines.
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A break in communication can cause mass confusion and could result in the loss of lives/
1. True 2. False |
1. True
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Which of the following factors is a principal concern to the company commander?
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Defending the company's area of responsibility.
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The company CP is centralized around what command element to enhance command and control?
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The COC
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Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) should be established in the company CP for which of the following reasons?
1. To hold people accountable for their actions 2. To keep the COC informed 3. To avoid confusion 4. To keep the commanding officer informed |
3. To avoid confusion
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Operational requirements can be accomplished when what number of personnel are assigned to watch stations in the company CP?
1. 1 2. 2 3. Minimum 4. Maximim |
3. Minimum
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Who is responsible to handle and process information relating to intelligence?
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Watch Petty Officer
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Who ensures all incoming and outgoing messages adhere to established procedures?
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The Watch Chief
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Who ensures that only authorized personnel enter the company CP?
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Messenger/Security
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Normally, there is a total of how many maps in the company CP?
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One
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What is the primary reason charts are posted in the company CP?
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To post a quick picture of the current situation.
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From the information listed below, select the one that is NOT usually posted on a chart?
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Company Fire Plan
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A communication plan includes which of the following information?
1. Communication network 2. Company fire plan 3. Battalion fire plan 4. Platoon fire plan |
1. Communication network (and communication elements for the company)
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From what types of communication equipment listed below, select the one that would be ideal for communication from the platoon commander's fighting position to the squad leader's fighting position.
1. SB-22 2. AN/PRC-199A 3. TA-312 4. GRA-29 |
3. TA-312
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What officer is responsible to the commanding officer for the unit's communication plan?
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The communication officer
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The radio nets that companies are required to monitor are posted in what instruction?
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CEOI
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Which of the primary information is a primary factor to consider when designing the company's radio and wire plans?
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Communication assets available to the company
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Normally, there is a total of how many frequency nets a company is required to monitor?
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Two
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Who initially received an incoming message by radio?
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The Communicator
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Who initially checks incoming messages for format?
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The Communicator
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Who prepares outgoing messages?
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The Watch Petty Officer
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Who decides on the appropriate action to take for incoming messages?
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The Watch Chief
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Who files a copy of outgoing messages before transmission?
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The Watch Chief
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What are the six areas Naval Doctrine?
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Naval Warfare, Naval Intelligence, Naval Operations, Naval Logistics, Naval Planning, Naval Command and Control
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Ref. Naval Doctrine Publiction 1
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Naval Warfare describes...
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the inherent nature and enduring principles of naval forces.
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Naval Intelligence points the way for...
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intelligence support in meeting the requirements of both regional conflicts and operations other than war.
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Naval Operations develops...
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doctrine to reaffirm the foundation of U.S. Navy and Marine Corps Expeditionary maritime traditions.
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Naval Logistics addresses...
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the full range of logistical capabilities that are essential in the support of naval forces.
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Naval Planning examines...
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force planning and relationship between our capabilities and operational planning in the joint and multi-national environment.
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Command and Control provides...
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the basic concepts to fulfill the information needs of commanders, forces, and weason systems.
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What conditions led to the formation of the U.S. Navy?
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General George Washington initiated the first sea-based offensive against the British. His armed vessels provided significant support to colonial efforts, demonstrating the value of military operations at sea.
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The initial continental fleet was comprised of...
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converted merchantmen.
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Early fleets were manned by Marines as part of ship's crews. These Marines were...
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soldiers detailed for sea service.
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After the revolutionary war both...
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the continential navy and the marine corps were disbanded.
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In 1790 a...
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fleet of 10 boats for the collection of revenue was authorized and became known as the revenue marine.
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In 1794 Congress authorized...
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the Department of War to construct frigates for the protection of American merchantmen against the Barbary corsairs.
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In 1798, in response to agression from France during its war against Great Britain...
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Congress finally established the Department of the Navy, authorized the Marine Corps, and because the first significant buildup of naval forces.
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The three maritime services of today include...
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Navy, Marine Corps and Coast Guard
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What qualities characterize most modern naval forces as instruments to support national policies?
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The qualities are readiness, flexibility, self-sustainability and mobility. These qualities characterizze most modern naval forces as political instruments in support of national policies.
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Prior to 1941, the Civil Engineer Corps used contractors to accomplish all overseas construction. The first construction units (comprised of steelworkers, electricians, carpenters, draftsman and mechanics) were organized...
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early in January 1942.
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Why is March 5, 1942 significant as it pertains to the Seabees?
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This was the date that the official permission was given to use the name Seabee (construction battalion's - CBs).
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The name Seabees is derived from...
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the first construction battalions (CB's) that were organized early in January 1942.
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Who is the father of the Seabees?
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Admiral Ben Moreell
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What did the father of the seabees do on 7 December 1942?
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He decided to activate, organize and man construction battalions after the attack of Pearl Harbor and requested specific authority for the Bureau of Navigation to recruit men for construction trades that were assigned to a Naval Construction Regiment composed of three Naval Construction Battalions.
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Who was CM3 Marvin Shields?
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He was the first Seabee in history to receive the Medal of Honor for his heroic efforts in defense of Special Forces Camp and Vietnamese District Headquarters at Dong Zoai.
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Why is planning important to Naval Operations?
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It is fundamental to leadership. Planning provides the discipline to focus on the objectives, intentions, capabilities, and resources required to accomplish assigned missions.
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Planning also requires commanders to...
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estimate the capabilities of potential adversary and to evaluate options.
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What contributions were made by the Seabees during WWII?
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325,000 men served during WWII. Seabees built over 400 advance bases along five roads to victory. They constructed fuel tanks, airfields, supply depots, and other facilities to support missions in the Coral Sea and Solomon Islands. In the Pacific the Seabees built 111 major airstrips, 441 piers, 2,558 ammunition magazines, 700 sq. blocks of warehouses, hospitals for 70,000 patients, tanks for 100,000 gallons of gasoline and housing for 1,500,000 men.
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What contributions were made by the Seabees during Korea?
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In Korea the Seabees rose to the challenge of the Cold War. At the Inchon landing in September, 1950, Seabees positioned pontoon causeways within hours of the first beach assault and did it while under continuous enemy fire and in the face of enormously and strong tides.
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The Seabees were given 35 days to complete an airstrip at Wonson...and they...
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had the strip ready in 16 days. While building the strip the Seabees were under constant artillery bombardment from enemy forces on neighboring islands.
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The first full Seabee battalion arrived in Vietnam on 7 May 1965 to build...
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an expeditionary airfield for the Marines at Chu Lai. Seabees built schools, hospitals, utilities systems, roads and other community facilities.
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Post-Vietnam Seabees were involved in...
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new construction frontiers in the Indian Ocean, the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands, Europe, the ocean floor, and in most oceans of the globe.
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What are the two most common reports used by the companies to relay information quickly?
1. METT-T and SITREP reports 2. NBC and CASREP reports 3. SALUTE and SPOT reports 4. WIA and ZULA reports |
3. SALUTE and SPOT reports
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What type of communication is used for primarily communicating between the platoon commander's fighting position and the squad leader's fighting position?
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Radio
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You are the platoon commander and your platoon has engaged in a fire fight. What type of report, if any, should you immediately send to the company CP?
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SPOT Report
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You observe enemy activity but it does not pose a threat to the company. You should send immediately what type of report to company CP?
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SALUTE report
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Which of the following personnel maintains th situation map located in the company CP?
1. Watch Petty Officer 2. Messenger 3. Communicator 4. Watch Chief |
1. Watch Petty Officer
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What responsibility is the primary duty of the company CP?
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Defending the company's area of responsibility.
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A SPOT report is following up with what other type of report?
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A Salute report
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What critical support does the CoC depend on from the company CP?
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Accurate and concise information
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Identified by color is...
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Landing Site
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Identified by a code name...
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Landing Zone
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Identified by a two-digit number...
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Landing Point
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What data is the first factor that must be considered when you are preparing a landing zone?
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Type of helicopter using the landing zone.
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When you are preparing a Landing Zone, approaches and exits must be cleared of obstacles that are of what minimum height?
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10 meters and higher
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When you are preparing a Landing Zone, approaches and exits must be cleared of obstacles extending at least how many meters in the direction of the approach and exit path?
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50
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When determining the distance between a landing point and a high obstruction, you should use what "rule of thumb" ratio?
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10:1
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Under the rule of thumb ratio (10:1), a helicopter landing or taking off near a 40-foot tree needs at least how many feet of horizontal clearance?
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400 feet
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When you are preparing a landing zone, obstacles, such as rocks and stumps, should not exceed what height?
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1 Foot
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In order for helicopters to land safely, landing points should not have a ground slope exceeding how many degrees?
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14 degrees
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In what direction do helicopter pilots prefer for landing on a slope?
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Uphill
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Any river or stream which has a firm bottom and is no deeper than 20 inches can be used as a landing site (T/F).
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False, has to be 18 inches or less.
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A helicopter is required to land into the wind when the ground level wind exceeds how many knots?
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10 knots
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When you are using the grass drop method to determine wind velocity, what number is the angle formed between your arm and your body divided by?
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divided by 4
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You use the angle of the smoke method to determine the wind velocity. What is the velocity of the wind if the smoke blows at a 30-degree angle?
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3-5 knots
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At what angle will smoke blow when the wind velocity if between 5-7 knots?
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60 degrees
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When using smoke to mark a landing zone, you should never tell the pilot the color of the smoke (T/F).
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True
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When using the vector instruction method, you use what device to quide the aircraft to the landing zone?
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A radio
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LSE signal to guide a helicopter downward
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Arms out to sides and motion downwards
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LSE signal for guiding a helicopter forward.
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arms out in front and motioning towards self (arms bent)
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LSE signal used to hover a helicopter above the ground
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Armes straight out to sides (horizontal)
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LSE signal used for informing the helicopter pilot to prepar for guidance.
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Armed straight up in air...palms in.
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LSE signal used for guiding a helicopter right or left
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arms out to sides and motion with the approp. arm (upwards)
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LSE signal used for informing the pilot to move the helicopter back
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arms slightly in front of body and motion backwards (towards back)
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What does a Builder do?
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Performs construction, maintenance, and repair of wood, concrete, masonry structures and concrete pavement.
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What does a Construction Electrician do?
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Install, operate, service, repair and overhaul electrical generating and distribution systems
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Construction Mechanic
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Performs maintenance, repair, and overhaul of automotive, material-handling and construction
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Engineering Aid
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Performs construction surveying, drafting, planning, estimating and quality control.
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Equipment Operator
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Performs operation of automotive material-handling, weight-handling, and construction equipment.
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Steelworker
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Perform fabrication, assembly, erecting, positioning, and joining of structural materials.
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Utilitiesman
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Perform maintenance, and repair of plumbing, heating, steam, compressed air, fuel storage, water refrigeration equipment, sewage collecting and disposal facilities.
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The purpose of the CEC
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The purpose of the Civil Engineer Corps is for planning construction, and public works functions at Navy and Marine Corps bases worldwide, and for leading the NCF.
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The SECNAV is the...
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civilian in charge of the DON under the direction and control of the SECDEF. Responsible for the policies and control of the DON.
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The CNO is the...
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senior military officer of the DON and outranks all other Naval officers, unless another naval officer is serving as the chairman of the Joint Chief of Staffs (JCS). Principle Naval advisor to the President and SECNAV on the conduct of war.
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Fleet Commander in Chief
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Commanders of operational forces:
CINPACFLT, CINCLANTFLT, CINUSNAVEUR, CINCEUR |
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Naval Construction Bridgade is responsible to...
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exercise administrative and operational control of assigned NCF units.
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Duties and responsibilities of the CO...
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directly responsible for the timely preparedness and successful completion of all construction projects and disaster recovery operations assigned to the NCF unit by higher authority.
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Duties and responsibilities of the XO...
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Direct rep. of, and principal assistant to, the CO. Executes the policies and instructions of the CO. While in the execution of his/her duties, the XO takes precedence over all persons under the command of the CO.
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Duties and responsibilities of the CMC...
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Not only provides the CO with a senior enlisted asst., but also provides a direct channel for communications between the enlisted personnel and the command on problems or questions that cannot be resolved through normal command channels.
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The S1 Admin. Officer...
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is the senior assistant to the XO for administrative details and personnel administration. Normally divided into two sections (Administrative and Personnel).
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Intelligence Officer
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Maintains library of contingency plans and maps. Supporting plans for combat support and disaster recovery. Operates the Armory.
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The Operations Officer
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Is resp. to the CO to manage the construction and disaster preparedness programs. In keeping with the responsibility, he/she is granted direct supervisory auth. over the utilization of the BNs construction resources, personnel, equipment and materials.
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The Supply Officer
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Senior officer of the Supply Corps assigned to the BN and is the S4 of the executive staff and is head of the BN Supply Dept. Responsible to procure, receive, store, issue, ship, transfer and account for supply items, equipage, repair parts and construction materials. Operates Enlisted Dining Facility and disbursement and accounting for funds for BN purchases and military pay are also functions of S4.
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S7 Training Officer
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Responsible for scheduling and monitoring technical and military training in the NMCB. Also schedules classrooms, ranges and spaces for training and prepares homeport training plan.
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A Company Commander is responsible for...
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administrative of the company. The responsibilities incl. the following: Morale and welfare of the men/women assigned to the company; training and readiness of the company; economical use of materials and funds; safety; recreation; discipline of the men/women within the company; directing, correspondence and reporting
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The Platoon Commander...
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is generally a CPO. He/she is resp. for the training, discipline, control and tactical deployment of the platoon. In addition they are responsible for overall planning, scheduling, safety, quality controls, and project management of those projects to the platoon by the Company Commander
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The Right Guide...
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generally a first class petty officer who performs the admin. functions the platoon command directs. He/she is responsible for supply and timely re-supply of the platoon in combat and often performs a similar task on the job site.
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The Squad Leader...
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...generally a first class petty officer, carries out the orders of the squad leader and is responsible to him/her for discipline, appearance, training, control, and conduct of the squad at all times. In combat, he/she has important resp. of fire discipline, fire control, and maneuvering the squad.
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Fire Team Leader...
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Generally a second class petty officer. Carries out orders of the psquad leader and is resp. for the effective employment of the fire team. Primary resp. is to control the fire team in combat. In addition, the fire team leader is resp. for the case and condition of the weapons and equipment of the fire ream.
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Normally a landing zone brief is broken down into a total of how many lines?
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16
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What information is contained in line 3 of a landing zone brief?
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Location of the landing zone
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What information is contained in line 9 of a landing zone brief?
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Friendly positions, directions and distance.
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What information is contained in line 10 of a landing zone brief?
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Location of enemy forces, positions, direction and distance.
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What command element/unit makes the final decision concerning a MEDEVAC request?
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The DADC
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As a platoon commander, what action should you take when you need a MEDEVAC but are unable to communicate with the COC, the BAS, or the Company CP?
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Route a MEDEVAC request to the next higher authority?
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On a MEDEVAC request, what information is documented on line 9?
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Landing zone call sign
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On a MEDEVAC request, what information is documented on line 4?
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Landing zone location (or pick up coordinates)
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Under an ideal situation, litter bearers should be personnel from what company?
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Headquarters Company
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Normally, what total number of litter bearers per company is considered adequate?
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2
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After administrating basic first aid to a critically wounded person in your company, you should take what course of action next?
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Quietly pass the word to the company CP that a corpsman is needed.
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What is the primary function of an ambulance?
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To prevent the prolonged carrying of litters.
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Prior to medical evaluation, casualties are brought to what central location?
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The battalion aid station
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What person has the final say on whether a casualty needs to be evaluated?
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A member of the medical staff
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What title is given to the person on the security team that controls all movements of the wounded to the landing zone?
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Pit Bosses
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What factor dictates the weapons and personnel required to secure a landing zone?
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The size and terrain of the landing zone.
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A total of how many radios are required for communication in a landing zone.
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Two
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How are casualties transported from the battalion aid station to the landing point?
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By any means available
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Before the arrival of helicopter, which of the following is a primary way casualities are arranged at the landing point?
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By the capacity of the helicopter...
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What person is responsible for directing the helicopter representative to the senior medical staff personnel in charge?
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The landing signalman
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What is the primary reason helicopter evacuation should be used with discretion?
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Helicopters draw enemy fire (and numbers limited)
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Normally, the battalion security area is located at what distance in front of the defensive perimeter?
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500 meters...
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Which of the following elements are NOT a Seabee force located in the security area?
1. Listening posts 2. Observation posts 3. Patrols 4. Machine gun teams |
machine gun teams
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The forward defense area extends rearward from the defensive lines to the rear boundary of what command organization?
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The frontline companies
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The composition of the forward defensive echelon is planned according to what concept?
|
the type of defense used
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The reserve force serves what purpose in the overall defensive plan?
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To add depth to the defensive position.
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What factor virtually decides the positioning of platoons in the defense?
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Terrain
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The analysis of weather and terrain is known by what acronym?
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KOCOA:
Key Terrain Observation and fields of fire Concealment and cover Obstacles to movement Avenues of approach |
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What is KOCOA?
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Key Terrain
Observation and fields of fire Concealment and cover Obstacles to movement Avenues of approach |
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In comparison to aviation units, service support units require what type of terrain for combat operations?
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Suitable terrain to construct roads for moving supplies
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When you are planning the defense, what consideration is so closely related to fields of fire that they are considered together?
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Observation
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When established fields of fire for a weapon, you must know what information about the weapon?
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The capabilities of the weapon.
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When engaging the enemy within the field of fire of a M60E machine gun, you should adhere to which of the following rules?
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Engage the enemy as far out as possible.
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Entaglements are primarily used for what purpose?
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To channel the enemy into a beaton zone.
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What is the primary factor that HAMPERS the achievement of mutual fire support?
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The widespread separation of units.
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A convoy has travelled out of the range of their unit's organic weapons. What action is taken to ensure the convoy is protected?
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Before departing, the convoy commander coordinates for mutual support from adjacent units.
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What direction from his position must be platoon commander be prepared to defend against?
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All directions
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When a Seabee unit is attached to a MAGTF, what element provides early warning of airborne attacks?
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MAW
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Of the items listed below, which one is NOT included in a coordinated fire plan?
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Anti-personnel mines
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What primarily influences the dispersion of squads in the defense?
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The terrain
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In a rifle company, what person has the primary duty for positioning squads in the defense?
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The platoon commander or squad leader
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Compared to infantry units, mechanized units use what type of terrain to attack?
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Fields and open terrain
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Seek to fire on the enemy when he cannot fire on you and do not let the enemy fire on you when you cannot fire on him?
1. True 2. False |
1. True
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Which of the following sectors of fire, if any, is assigned to a squad leader?
1. An individual sector sector of fire. 2. A sector of fire that overlaps a fire team. 3. A sector of fire covering a flank of a fire team. 4. None |
4. None
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You should examine an assigned sector of fire from what position?
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The prone position
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Which of the following elements is assigned to a alternate firing position?
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Crew-served weapons
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What is the sector of fire for the alternate firing position?
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The primary position's sector of fire.
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What is the firing mission for a supplementary position?
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To protect against an attack from an unexpected direction
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A total of how many PDFs may be assigned to a weapon (Principal direction of fire)
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One
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What factor is used by the squad leader and the fire team leader to show forward and lateral limits?
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Terrain features
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Within a fire team, what distance is used as the interval between fighting positions?
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5-20 meters
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What distance is used as the interval between single-fighting positions?
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5 meters
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What distance is used as the intervals between double-fighting positions in open terrain?
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20 meters
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At what location is the fire team leaders positioned within the fire team?
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In the center of the fire team.
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What is the purpose of the magnetic north line on a fire plan sketch?
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To show the direction the fire team is facing.
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What person assigns each squad a defensive mission?
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The platoon commander
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Which of the following factors dictates the effective placement of fire teams in the defense?
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Terrain
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Which of the following weapons are positioned before the positioning of squads?
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Crew-served weapons
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Normally, what person designates the general firing position for a specific automatic weapon?
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Platoon Commander
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What is the position of the squad leader in relation to the fire team?
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To the rear and center of the fire teams.
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Which of the following positions is NOT included in a squad fire plan sketch?
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Position of the company command post.
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What officer assigns a frontage to a platoon?
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Company commander
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Other than the size of the company battle area, what other factor dictates the frontage assigned to a platoon?
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Terrain
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The depth of a platoon defense is the distance between the squad's primary positions and the rearward extension of what other position?
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Supplementary positions
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Which of the following areas is important for the platoon commander to know when a patrol is entering that area?
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Security area
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Which of the following types of fire are used to cover a gap between adjacent platoons?
1. Grazing Fire 2. Plunging Fire 3. Indirect Fire 4. Direct Fire |
Indirect Fire
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Which of the following information is NOT included in a platoon fire plan sketch?
1. On-Call targets 2. Barriers 3. Location of listening posts 4. Location of the fire team leader |
Location of the fire team leader
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What officer establishes the order of priorities for organizing the platoon in the defense?
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Company Commander
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What tasks is performed as soon as you clear the fields of fire?
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Assign sectors of fire
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What task should be performed first?
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Establish security
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What task is performed as soon as you assign sectors of fire?
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Prepare fighting positions
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What task is normally done before establishing supplementary positions?
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Prepare alternate positions
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What crew-served weapon can be used for direct or indirect fire?
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M19 Grenade Launcher
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What crew-served weapon provides massive rapid fire for penetrating lightly armored vehicles?
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.50 caliber machine gun
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What crew-served weapon serves as the basis for a FPF in the overall defensive fire plan?
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M60E Machine Gun
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What crew-served weapon is used primarily against armored personnel carriers?
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AT4 Antitank Weapon
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A machine gun squad consists of a total of how many machine gun teams?
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Two
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A machine gun team consists of a total of how many personnel?
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Four
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Both machine guns of a squad are positioned a minimum of how many meters apart?
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35 meters
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Normally, a sector of fire for a machine gun does not exceed a total of how many mils?
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800
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A machine gun cannot be assigned both a final protective line and a principle direction of fire? True/False
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True
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What type of platoon normally has positioned assault squads?
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Supplementary platoons
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What means of communication does the weapons platoon commander use to communicate with assault squads?
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Messenger
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A single mortar is assigned what area of coverage for a final protective fire?
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50 by 50 meters
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The final protective fire of a mortar should be directed at least how many meters from the FEBA?
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60
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A company is requesting a fire mission. What element of the battalion should they contact?
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FDC (Fire Direction Center)
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What element within the battalion approves all fire missions?
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FSC (Fire Support Coordinator)
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When you are firing a FPF without instructions, what is the rate of fire for the first 2 minutes for a mortar?
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Nine rounds per minute (six rounds per minute after)
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A total of how many range cards are prepared for each machine gun position?
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Two
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During defensive coordination planning, what weapon serves as the base from which to build the defense around?
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The machine gun
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In preparing a range card, you should use what type of format?
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Universal format
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There are two methods used on a range card to locate a gun position positively. Which method uses a single-solid line drawn from a prominent terrain feature to the gun position with several arrow heads pointing in the direction of the gun position?
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The magnetic orientation line method
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One degree is approximately equal to 17.7778 mils. An azimuth of 150 degrees is equal to how many mils?
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2,666
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Sector limits are drawn as broken lines ending in arrow heads. When a weapon is assigned an FPL, how many sector limit lines are drawn on a range card?
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One
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Which of the following fire plans is complied and used primarily as the company fire plan?
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Platoon commanders' fire plan
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What instruction provides guidance for convoy procedures?
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COMSECONDNCB/COMTHIRDNCBINST 3122.1
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A common characteristic of an ambush is that an ambush will occur in how many phases?
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Two
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A total of how many sand bags is required to harden a 6X6 cargo truck?
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70 to 100
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When "hardening" the sides of a 6x6 cargo truck, you should stack sandbags how many layers high?
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Five
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Which of the following personnel is normally designated as a vehicle commander in a convoy?
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Squad leader
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A shotgun rider for a vehicle in a convoy is normally armed with what type of weapon?
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M203
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During maneuvers by the occupant squad of a vehicle, what manuever is carried out by the shotgun rider?
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Remain seated in the vehicle
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Which of the following personnel provide cover fire for the debarkation of occupants of a vehicle that is halted in the ambush killing area?
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The sentries
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When traveling with a squad of a convoy, the machine gun team is assigned what position in the vehicle.
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Facing the rear of the vehicle.
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What is the maximum number of people that should occupy the bed of a hardened 6x6 truck?
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13
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Which of the following convoy vehicle positions is NEVER occupied by the convoy commander?
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The lead vehicle
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Which of the following commanders must attend the convoy commander's briefing?
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Vehicle commanders (and all drivers)
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Which of the following commanders designates a second in command for the convoy?
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Convoy commander
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A vehicle is fired upon in the killing zone. What action is taken by the driver?
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Immediately attempt to drive through the killing zone.
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A "hardened" vehicle is forces to halt in the killing zone of an ambush. What action is taken by the occupants?
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Remain with the vehicle at all times.
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A "soft" vehicle if forces to halt in the killing zone of an ambush. What action is taken by the occupants?
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Immediately dismount the vehicle.
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What is the most effective counteraction from elements not in the killing zone of an ambush?
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A flanking maneuver against the enemy.
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What is the best counter ambush action for an armored vehicle, such as a tank?
|
Move into the killing zone.
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What course of action, if any, is taken when vehicles and cargo must be abandoned during a convoy?
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Destroy all vehicles and cargo upon orders from the convoy commander.
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What are not effective guidlines in decreasing damage by mines in convoy operations?
|
When possible, drive on the shoulder of the road.
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What course of action is taken when a convoy encounters sniper fire?
|
Passive action
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Normally, small-arms fire is not effective against an air attack from an altitude equal to or greater than how many meters?
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350
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Personnel should stand air guard duty for what maximum time?
|
30 minutes
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What factor is the key to effective small-arms fire against aircraft?
|
The volume of small-arms fire.
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Which of the following is NOT a good tip for small-arms air defense.
|
Fire at the belly of an aircraft.
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What sort of column formation offers an advantage in that fewer vehicles are likely to be damaged from air-delivered rockets, cannons, or cluster bumb units?
|
Open Column
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What column formation prevents crowds from coming between the convoy and disrupting the movement of the convoy?
|
Close column
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What column formation provides the best passive defense against hostile observation and attack?
|
Open column
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What column formation makes control more difficult for the convoy commander to give orders.
|
Infiltration column
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What column formation provides the least active defense capability if individual or small groups of vehicles are attacked?
|
Disperse column
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What column formation has a disadvantage in that, if attacked, its defense is less effective because small-arms fire is less concentrated?
|
Open column
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During an air attacj, the convoy commander chooses the option to stop the convoy. What is the disadvantage of this option?
|
The stopped convoy makes a good target for enemy troops.
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During an air attack, the convoy commander chooses the option to disperse the convoy. What is the disadvantage of this option?
|
Makes it easier for the enemy pilot to detect the vehicles.
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What is the purpose of conducting immediate action drills?
|
They are drills covering every contingency possible.
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During a vehicle unloading drill, which of the following personnel provide a cover of fire while the occupants dismount?
|
The sentries
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Which of the following drills is undertaken when a unit has sighted guerrillas but the guerrilles have not sighted the unit?
|
Freeze and hasty ambush drill
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During a freeze and hasty ambush drill, you should move to what side of the trail if the enemy is traveling the same trail?
|
Same side as the originator spotting the enemy.
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During a freeze and hasty ambush drill, in which a unit member other than the unit leader is fired upon, what personal initiates the ambush?
|
The individual being fired upon.
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|
A tactic used during an unexpected encounter at close quarters.
|
Immediate assault drill
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|
The drill undertaken when the unit has sighted guerrilles approaching but has not yet been seen by them.
|
Freeze and hasty ambush drill
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The drill undertaken when the entire unit is in the kill zone of an ambush.
|
Immediate assault drill
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The drill undertaken when a vehicle is forced to halt in the killing zone of an ambush and the occupants must debark.
|
Vehicle unloading drill
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What person initiates an immediate assault drill?
|
The unit leader
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When only the foremost elements of the unit are caught in the killing zone, what type of attack is used against the enemy?
|
Immediate encircling attack
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|
A battalion to required to have a minimum of how many six-man teams per company qualified to conduct decon operations?
|
One
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|
What are the three MAJOR forms that CBR contamination can be delivered.
|
Solids, liquids, or gases.
|
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|
Generally, when a transfer or spread hazard exists, a vapor hazard could also exist (True/Falue).
|
True
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Generally, when a transfer or spread hazard exists, a vapor hazard could also exist (True/False).
|
True
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|
What MINIMUM protection is required if you are operating a vehicle that has absorbed a nerve agent?
|
A protective mask and gloves.
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|
For decon purposes, radiation can be thought of existing in what state of matter?
|
Solid
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|
Which of the following ranges does the AN/PDR-27 instrument provide for radioactivity detection?
|
Low range only
|
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|
Which of the following ranges does the AN/PDR-43 instrument provide for detection of radioactivity?
|
High range
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|
Using the "7-10 rule of thumb," if 3 hours after a burst your radiation reading is 100 Centigray (cGy) (rad) per hour, then how many hours after the burst can you expect a reading of about 10 (cGy)?
|
21
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|
Negligible risk levels for biological and chemical contamination are contamination that will cause mild incapacitation among no more than what percent of unprotected troops operating for 12 continuous hours within 1 meter of a contaminated surface?
|
5%
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Which of the following measurements for radiological contamination is considered a negligible risk level?
|
.33 cGy or less
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Which of the following agents should you decontaminate first if your unit is contaminated by a mixture of agents?
|
Chemical agent
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|
The decon methods for biological agents are also effective for neutralizing or removing chemical and radiological contamination (True/False)?
|
False
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|
|
What are appropriate decon measures based on?
|
After thoroughly identifying all agent hazards.
|
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|
Within 30 days after the initial opening of the original protective package, the chemical protective overgarment (CPO) is good for a total of how many hours in an UNCONTAMINATED environment?
|
140 hours (within 30 days)
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|
What happens to an overgarment after it comes in contact with Pols?
|
Overgarment must be replaced
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When wearing a chemical protective overgarment for a cumulative wear time of 138 hours and the environment becomes CONTAMINATED, you may wear the suit for how many additional hours?
|
6
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Chemical protective overgarment provides protection in a CONTAMINATED environment for what maximum persiod of time?
|
6 hours
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|
The battle dress overgarment (BDO), currently not in the Battalion's TOA, provides protection for how many hours after becoming contaminated with liquid chemical agents?
|
24
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Which principle allows decon to begin earlier and limits the spread of contamination to other areas?
|
Decontaminate only what is necessary.
|
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Which principle consists of cleaning important items of equipment first and the least important items last?
|
Decontaminate by priority
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Which principle emphasizes not to waste precious resources by decontaminating everything?
|
Decontaminate only what is necessary
|
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|
Of the four decon principles, which one is considered the most important?
|
Decontaminate by priority
|
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Which principle must be considered first before you consider any other principle?
|
Decontaminate as soon as possible
|
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|
Which level of decon aims at sustaining operations, reducing the contact hazard, and limiting the spread of contamination?
|
Operational decon
|
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What level of decon is designed to reduce contamination on personnel, equipment/material, and/or working areas to the lowest possible level (negligible risk)?
|
Operational decon
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Which level of decon includes skin decon?
|
Immediate decon
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Which level of decon includes detailed troop decon (DTD)?
|
Thorough decon
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What level of decon includes the decon technique, vehicle wash down?
|
Operator's spray down
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|
What person initiated immediate decon?
|
The individual
|
|
|
|
What is the PRIMARY purpose of the M291 decon kit?
|
To decon exposed skin
|
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|
What is the PRIMARY purpose of the M289DKIE decon kit?
|
To decon individual equipment
|
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|
Decon kits M291/M258A1 are used to remove what type of contamination?
|
Chemical and biological contamination
|
|
|
|
What do you use to remove radiological contamination?
|
Apply soap and water (and/or brushing)
|
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|
|
You should initiate the skin decon technique within how many minutes of becoming contaminated?
|
1
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|
|
At what temperature does the solutions in the M258A1 decon kit become unstable?
|
100 degrees F
|
|
|
|
The personal wipe down technique is most effective when done within how many minuted of being contaminated?
|
15
|
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|
What action should you take if a chemical agent is globbed on your overgarment?
|
Use a stick to scrape off the chemical agent.
|
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|
You should not make any attempt to decontaminate chemical agents on your overgarment (True/False)?
|
True
|
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|
|
Operator's spray down is most effective when done within how many minutes after personal wipe down?
|
15
|
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|
|
After scrubbing DS2 onto chemical contaminated surface, how long should you wait before washing it off?
|
30 minutes
|
|
|
|
Do not mix DS2 and STB because mixing the two will cause a fire (True/False)?
|
True
|
|
|
|
What is the primary objective of operational decon?
|
To reduce the level of contamination to regenerate needed combat power.
|
|
|
|
What decon asset is used as a monitor for chemical agents?
|
CAM
|
|
|
|
What decon asset is used for detecting individual chemical agents?
|
ICAD
|
|
|
|
What decon asset contains a personnel shower assembly?
|
M-17
|
|
|
|
What decon asset is a brush apparatus for scrubbing with DS2?
|
M11
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|
|
What decon asset is a fire extinguisher-like device for spraying DS2?
|
M11
|
|
|
|
During operational decon, what two operatuions are accomplished in conjunction?
|
MOPP gear exchange and vehicle wash down.
|
|
|
|
When planning a water source for an operational decon site, you should consider how many gallons of water per vehicle?
|
100 to 150
|
|
|
|
A M12A1 PDDA can be used to transport a total of how many gallons of water to a decon site?
|
450
|
|
|
|
The M17 LDS collapsible bladder must be filled up on site. It can hold a total of how many gallons of water?
|
1,500
|
|
|
|
The MOPP gear exchange site is located how many meters upwind from the vehicle wash down site?
|
50 meters
|
|
|
|
What are the two operational decon techniques?
|
Vehicle wash down and MOPP gear exchange
|
|
|
|
Personnel in wheeled vehicles should take what action before vehicle wash down?
|
Dismount the vehicle to avoid getting wet.
|
|
|
|
For planning purposes, the vehicle wash down site will process how many vehicles every 2 to 3 minutes?
|
One
|
|
|
|
During operational decon how much time is planned for MOPP gear exchange?
|
30 minutes
|
|
|
|
What is done before vehicle wash down to increase decon effectiveness of vehicles?
|
Operator's spray down
|
|
|
|
What is the range of the water pressure that is needed to remove most gross contamination?
|
60 to 120 psi
|
|
|
|
If the mission permits, vehicle wash down is most effective during what time period?
|
1 to 6 hours after contamination
|
|
|
|
MOPP gear exchange is performed by units that are what size?
|
A squad or a crew
|
|
|
|
Normally, a total of how many steps are used during MOPP gear exchange?
|
Eight
|
|
|
|
What MOPP step involves a buddy opening a smock package without touching the inside?
|
Step 5: Don new overgarment
|
|
|
|
What MOPP step involves rubbing a dry mix of STB into personnel gear, such as your weapon and helmet?
|
Step 1: decon gear
|
|
|
|
What MOPP step involves the member to remove the inner and outer gloves without touching the outside of the package?
|
Step. 6: done overboots and gloves
|
|
|
|
What MOPP step involves a buddy to decon a member's mask?
|
Step 2: decon mask and gloves
|
|
|
|
What MOPP step involves the member to untie or cut the laces on their boots?
|
Step 4: remove overboots and gloves
|
|
|
|
Tecniques used for MOPP gear exchange enables troops to unmask (True/False)?
|
True
|
|
|
|
A typical vehicle requires how many gallons of water during detailed equipment decon?
|
500
|
|
|
|
What is the primary purpose of the pre-decon staging area?
|
To prepare the contaminated unit for DED and DTD operations
|
|
|
|
When using a chemical agent monitor (CAM), you should ensure there is sufficient distance between vehicles for what reason?
|
Vapor drift can give a false reading.
|
|
|
|
In preparation for detailed equipment decon (DED), crews should concentrate on removing mud and debris from what area of a vehicle?
|
The undercarriage.
|
|
|
|
Before DED operations, what should you do with materials on a vehicle that can absorb liquid contamination?
|
Remove and place at a collection point.
|
|
|
|
What group of individuals are sent through the DTD first?
|
Assistant vehicle drivers
|
|
|
|
What action is considered major in conducting detailed troop decon (DTD)?
|
Removing contaminated MOPP gear, including the protective mask.
|
|
|
|
What organization is responsible for setting up, operating, and closing the DTD in a thorough decon site?
|
The contaminated unit
|
|
|
|
A total of how many stations are included in a detailed troop decon (DTD)?
|
8
|
|
|
|
Station 1 of DTD requires how many pounds of STB to be mixed with 20 gallons of hot water?
|
100
|
|
|
|
A poncho divided in half and placed at DTD station 1 serves what purpose?
|
As a contamination control line (CCL).
|
|
|
|
DTD station 1 is located a minimum of 3 meters from all other stations for what reason?
|
To ensure a true reading on detection equipment.
|
|
|
|
What decon activity is conducted at DTD station 2?
|
Overboot and hood decon.
|
|
|
|
Ten people have been processed through the shuffle pit at DTD station 2. What should you do to the mix in the shuffle pit?
|
Add more STB to the mix.
|
|
|
|
Which of the following stations are notified if a punctured boot is found at DTD station 2?
|
Station 5
|
|
|
|
How many decon team members are needed to decontaminate the overboots and gloves at DTD station 4?
|
Two
|
|
|
|
What is the purpose of the liquid contamination control line (LCL)?
|
To separate the "dirty" from the "clean" areas,
|
|
|
|
What is one of the primary functions of DTD station 5?
|
To treat any personnel suffering from chemical agents symptoms.
|
|
|
|
What is the primary function of DTD station 6?
|
Mask Removal
|
|
|
|
After ten masks have been dipped in a sanitizing solution at station 7, you should take what action?
|
Add some more solution.
|
|
|
|
What are the three contamination control lines that are established when setting up for detailed troop decon?
|
CCL, LCL, and VCL (Cont. control line/liguid contamination line/vapor control line)
|
|
|
|
Which of the companies is normally responsible for the setup of the DED site?
|
Alpha
|
|
|
|
For radiological contamination, which of the following station numbers is not used during DED operations?
|
2
|
|
|
|
At what temp. should hot, soapy water be heated?
|
120 degrees F to 140 degrees F
|
|
|
|
The runoff from station 1 of detailed equipment decond (DED) is contaminated and must be treated as hazardous (True/False)?
|
True
|
|
|
|
In order to limit the work load of each member of the scrubbing team at DED station 2, a vehicle is divided into how many parts for scrubbing with DS2?
|
Four
|
|
|
|
After a vehicle is applied with DS2, how many minutes should the vehicle remain at DED station 3?
|
30
|
|
|
|
When, if ever, should you mix HTH or STB with DS2?
|
NEVER
|
|
|
|
Once interior decon is completed at DED station 3, the driver of the vehicle proceeds to what station?
|
DTD, station 1
|
|
|
|
What person moves a vehicle from DED station 3 to DED station 4?
|
A assistant driver.
|
|
|
|
To turn 5 gallons of water into a 10% decon solution, you must add how many pounds of STB or HTH?
|
2, 5, 1b
|
|
|
|
What is the primary task of DED station 4?
|
To remove DS2 from a vehicle.
|
|
|
|
Significant chemical contamination is found on a vehicle at DED station 5. This vehicle should be recycled to what DED station?
|
Two
|
|
|
|
The optimum setup of a DED for a M12A1 PDDA-equipped decon platoon can process what maximum number of vehicles per hour?
|
Eight
|
|
|
|
To avoid heat casualties during DED operations, you should consider what factor as top priority?
|
The work/rest cycle.
|
|
|
|
When closing the thorough decon site, the decon team closes what site first?
|
DED
|
|
|
|
What report is used by the COC to report the closure of a DTD?
|
SPOT
|
|
|
|
The rear area security coordinator (RASC) monitors operations of the rear area through what two organizations?
|
Combat Service Support Operations Center (CSSOC) and the Rear Area Operations Center (RAOC).
|
|
|
|
The Force Service Support Group (FSSG) can field a total of how many provisional mobile security platoons (PMSP)?
|
Two
|
|
|
|
A commander establishes a combat operation center for what primary purpose?
|
To ensure proper centralized command and control facilities.
|
|
|
|
What officer exercises staff supervision over the COC?
|
S-3
|
|
|
|
When you plan the establishment of a COC, what special consideration must be considered?
|
Location
|
|
|
|
Around what unit is the COC centrally located?
|
Company command posts
|
|
|
|
The COC should have at least how many dismount and entry points?
|
Two dismounts, two entries
|
|
|
|
What is the most critical factor a COC must have in order to be successful?
|
Communication
|
|
|
|
Who maintains close communication with the battalion's Fire Direction Center?
|
Fire Support Coordinator
|
|
|
|
Who has releasing authority on all outgoing messages?
|
COC Watch Officer
|
|
|
|
Who ensures all personnel entering the COC are on the access list?
|
Messenger/Security
|
|
|
|
Who prepares written and oral briefings as required?
|
Intelligence Watch Officer
|
|
|
|
Who drafts messages?
|
Communicators
|
|
|
|
Who monitors all incoming messages related to the weather?
|
NBC/CBR Officer
|
|
|
|
Which of the following information is NOT likely to be posted on the operations map located in the COC?
|
Enemy equipment/weapons
|
|
|
|
What organization is the terminating point for all tactical and nontactical radio nets?
|
Combat Operation Center
|
|
|
|
The AN/PRC-104 has what type of frequency?
|
High
|
|
|
|
The AN/GPA-39 is primarily used for what purpose?
|
Remote linkup from the "antenna farm" to the COC.
|
|
|
|
What does the acronym CEOI stand for?
|
Communication Electronic Operating Instruction
|
|
|
|
What facilitates communication from the COC to the battalion's FDC?
|
Conduct of Fire Net
|
|
|
|
What facilitates communication from the COC to higher headquarters located outside the base facility, usually by a high-frequency radio?
|
Rear Area Operations Command Net
|
|
|
|
What is used to pass general information about all (of the majority) of the units within the area of operation?
|
Alert/Broadcast Net
|
|
|
|
What is used by the COC for tactical purposes and for various reports such as SALUTE reports?
|
Base Facility Tactical Net
|
|
|
|
All incoming radio traffic to the COC should be written down on authorized message pads with an original plus how many copies?
|
Two
|
|
|
|
As a guide, a priority message should be handled within what time frame?
|
1-3 hours
|
|
|
|
Flash Messages should be done in?
|
Less than 10 minutes
|
|
|
|
Immediate Messages should be done within
|
30 minutes to 1 hour
|
|
|
|
Priority Messages should be done between:
|
1 and 3 hours
|
|
|
|
Routine Messages should be done within:
|
3 to 4 hours
|
|
|
|
After an incoming message has been received and checked by the communication chief, to whom does the communication chief pass the message?
|
The COC Watch Officer
|
|
|
|
What information is contained in line 2 of a landing zone brief?
|
Location of a landing zone
|
|
|
|
What information is contained in line 6 of a landing zone brief?
|
Wind direction/velocity
|
|
|
|
In support of the company commander, the company command post (CP) serves what primary purpose?
|
Centralized command and control
|
|
|
|
In support of the COC, the company command post serves what primary function?
|
It is the eyes and ears for the COC.
|
|
|
|
You should establish alternate routes leading to the company command post for what reason?
|
To prevent a beaten path for the enemy to follow from being established.
|
|
|
|
Which of the following elements is NOT included in the company CP's communication network?
|
The react force
|
|
|
|
The platoon commanders must have constant communication with which of the following elements/personnel?
|
The troops on the front lines.
|
|
|
|
A break in communication can cause mass confusion and could result in the loss of lives (True/False).
|
True
|
|
|
|
Which of the following factors is a principal concern to the company commander?
|
Defending the company's area of responsibility.
|
|
|
|
The company CO is centralized around what command element to enhance command and control?
|
The COC
|
|
|
|
Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) should be established in the company CO for which of the following reasons?
|
To avoid confusion
|
|
|
|
Operational requirements can be accomplished when what number of personnel are assigned to watch stations in the company CP?
|
Minimum
|
|
|
|
Who handles and processes information relating to intelligence?
|
The Watch Petty Officer
|
|
|
|
Who ensures all incoming and outgoing messages adhere to establish procedures?
|
Watch Chief
|
|
|
|
Who ensures only authorized personnel enter the company CP?
|
Messenger/Security
|
|
|
|
Normally, there is a total of how many maps in the company CP?
|
One
|
|
|
|
What is the primary reason charts are posted in the company CP?
|
To post a quick picture of the current situation.
|
|
|
|
What is NOT usually posted on a chart?
|
Company Fire Plan
|
|
|
|
A communication plan includes which of the following information?
|
Communication network (and communication requirements for the company)
|
|
|
|
What piece of communication equipment would be ideal for communication from the platoon commander's fighting position to the squad leader's fighting position?
|
TA-312/PT (direct phone line to the COC, platoon CDRs and from platoon CDRs to troops manning lines.
|
|
|
|
What officer is responsible to the commanding officer for the unit's communication plan?
|
The communications officer
|
|
|
|
The radio nets that companies are required to monitor are posted in what instruction?
|
CEOI
|
|
|
|
Which of the following information is a primary factor to consider when designing the company's radio and wire plans?
|
Communication assets available to the company.
|
|
|
|
Normally, there is a total of how many frequency nets a company is required to monitor?
|
Two
|
|
|
|
In the company CP, all incoming and outgoing messages should be written on authorized message pads to include the original plus how many copies?
|
Two
|
|
|
|
Who initially receives an incoming message by radio?
|
The Communicator
|
|
|
|
Who initially checks incoming messages for format?
|
The Communicator
|
|
|
|
Who prepares outgoing messages?
|
The Watch Petty Officer
|
|
|
|
Who decides on the appropriate action to take for incoming messages?
|
The Watch Chief
|
|
|
|
Who files a copy of outgoing messages before transmission?
|
The Watch Chief
|
|
|
|
What are the two most common reports used by the companies to relay information quickly?
|
SALUTE and SPOT reports
|
|
|
|
What type of communication is used for primarily communicating between the platoon commander's fighting position and the squad leader's fighting position?
|
Radio
|
|
|
|
You are platoon commander and your platoon has engaged in a fire fight. What type of report, if any, should you immediately send to the company CP?
|
A SPOT Report
|
|
|
|
You observe enemy activity but it does not pose a threat to the company. You should send immediately what type of report to the company CP?
|
A SALUTE Report
|
|
|
|
Which of the following personnel maintains the situation map located in the company CP?
|
The watch petty officer
|
|
|
|
What responsibility is the primary duty of the company CP?
|
Defending the company's area of responsibility.
|
|
|
|
A SPOT report is followed up with what other type of report?
|
SALUTE Report
|
|
|
|
What critical support does the COC depend on from the company CP?
|
Accurate and concise information
|
|
|
|
In regards to landing zones, what is identified by color?
|
A Landing Site
|
|
|
|
In regards to landing zones, what is identified by code name?
|
Landing Zone
|
|
|
|
In regards to landing zones, what is identified by a two-digit number?
|
The Landing Point
|
|
|
|
What factors, if any, determines how landing zones are divided?
|
By landing sites
|
|
|
|
Landing points are primarily assigned to what location?
|
Within landing sites
|
|
|
|
What data is the first factor that must be considered when you are preparing a landing zone?
|
Type of helicopter using the landing zone.
|
|
|
|
When you are preparing a LZ, approaches and exits must be cleared of obstacles that are of what minimum height?
|
10 meters and higher
|
|
|
|
When you are preparing a LZ, approaches and exits must be cleared of obstacles extending at least how many meters in the direction of the approach and exit path?
|
50
|
|
|
|
When determining the distance between a landing point and a high obstruction, you should use what "rule of thumb" ratio?
|
10:1
|
|
|
|
Using the rule of thumb ratio (10:1), a helicopter landing or taking off near a 40-foot tree needs at least how many feet of horizontal clearance?
|
400
|
|
|
|
When you are preparing a landing zone, obstacles, such as rocks and stumps, should not exceed what height?
|
1 foot
|
|
|
|
In order for helicopters to land safely, landing points should not have a ground slope exceeding how many degrees?
|
14 degrees
|
|
|
|
In what direction do helicopter pilots prefer for landing on a slope?
|
Uphill
|
|
|
|
Any river or stream which has a firm bottom and is not deeper that 20 inches can be used as a landing zone (True/False).
|
False: 18 inches or less
|
|
|
|
A helicopter is required to land into the wind when the ground level wind exceeds how many knots?
|
10 knots
|
|
|
|
When you are using the grass drop method to determine wind velocity, what number is the angle formed between your arm and your body divided by?
|
4
|
|
|
|
You use the angle of the smoke method to determine the wind velocity. What is the velocity of the wind if the smoke blows at a 30-degree angle?
|
3-5 knots
|
|
|
|
At what angle will smoke blow when the wind velocity is between 5-7 knots?
|
60 degrees
|
|
|
|
When using smoke to mark a landing zone, you should never tell the pilot the color of the smoke (True/False).
|
True
|
|
|
|
When using the vector instruction method, you use what device to guide the aircraft to the landing zone?
|
A Radio
|
|
|
|
When is an OPREP used/completed?
|
A significant event likely to draw national attention. Will likely have impact on Navy Operations, and/or fatalities in the line of duty.
|
|
|
|
When is a SITREP used/completed?
|
If local interest is expected and minimal impact to Navy Operations will result from the incident. Event not likely to draw national attention (such as auto accident).
|
|
|
|
When is a LOGREQ used/completed?
|
When the command needs to report logistical requirements to higher headquarters. Format for the report will be issues by the higher unit in the operation.
|
|
|
|
When is SORTS used?
|
Status of Requirement and Training Support (SORTS) is a unit reporting format utilized to summarize a unit's training and operational readiness to higher headquarters and the theater commmanders (CINC).
|
|
|
|
What is the difference between a security clearance and access?
|
A clearance is an administrative action that an individual can be trusted with classified material. Regarding access, no one has the right to have access to classified information solely because of rank, position, or security clearance. Access is based on persons need to know.
|
|
|
|
What does the MAGTF do? Reminder, MAGTF is Marine Air Ground Task Force.
|
It is a combined arms force of varying size made up of Fleet Marine Force and Naval Elements, and includes infantry, artillery, armor, engineer, reconnaissance, aviation and logistics components.
|
|
|
|
What are the four elements of MAGTF?
|
Command Element (CE), Ground Combat Element (GCE), Aviation Combat Element (ACE), and Combat Service Support Element (CSSE).
|
|
|
|
What are the seven primary MAGTF assets?
|
Seabees, Engineer Support Battalion, Combat Engineer Battalion, Host nation support, MWSG/MWSS, Joint/combined, Civilian contractor
|
|
|
|
Who carries weapons and participates in military operations?
|
Combatants carry weapons and participate in military operations. Noncombatants (civilians, medical, chaplains) don't.
|
|
|
|
Should you attack enemy troops who are wounded, sick, or who have surrendered?
|
No
|
|
|
|
Under the Laws of Armed Conflict you should/should not provide medical care to captured troops.
|
You should provide medical care to captured enemy troops.
|
|
|
|
You should take personal property from captured enemy troops (true/false)?
|
False, you should not take personal property from enemy troops.
|
|
|
|
Captives can perform work that assists in the war effort (true/false)?
|
They can perform work, but nothing that assists your war effort.
|
|
|
|
According to the laws of armed conflict, what level of force should you use?
|
Use appropriate level of force and avoid protected property.
|
|
|
|
True or False: You should alter weapons and use poisen weapons?
|
You should not alter weapons to cause more suffering and should not use poisen weapons.
|
|
|
|
What are the functions of the Alfa Company?
|
Is responsible for the operation and maintenance of the automotive, construction and materials-handling equipment assigned to the battalion. Prime contractor for horizontal construction projects.
|
|
|
|
What are the functions of the Bravo Company?
|
Responsible for water, sanitary sewer, and power distribution systems, fuel systems, and communications projects. Bravo company serves as a mini public works department providing for maintenance and operation of the unit's camp.
|
|
|
|
What are the functions of the Charlie/Delta Company?
|
They are the NMCB's general construction company. Responsible for prime contracts and an occasional subcontract; normally equal in strength and capabilities; they function as prime contractors for vertical construction.
|
|
|
|
What are the functions of the Headquarters Company?
|
Is the administrative and military organization for all enlisted personnel assigned to the NMCB's executive and special staffs. The Headquarters Company provides support to the line companies in construction and disaster recovery operations.
|
|
|
|
What are the responsibilites of the Admin/Personnel (S1)?
|
Senior assistant to the XO. Prepares admin. reports, maintains tickler file on recurring reports. Maintain battalion library on directives and pubs. Draft and produce internal pubs. Maintain service records.
|
|
|
|
What are the responsibilites of the Intel (S2)?
|
Maintain library of contingency plans and maps. Supporting plans for combat support and disaster recovery. Operates the armory.
|
|
|
|
What are the responsibilites of the Operations (S3)?
|
Planning, scheduling and managing of battalion construction, combat, and disaster recovery Ops. Construction quality. Evaluation of received OPORDs, prepare internal OPORDs for battalion. Assigns enlisted personnel to departments, companies, and detachments.
|
|
|
|
What are the responsibilites of the Supply (S4)?
|
Procuring, receiving, storing, issuing, and accounting for all equipment, repair parts, and construction material. Disburses funds for purchases, pay, and allowances. Operates dining facility, barber shop, central store room, central tool room. Operates mail system.
|
|
|
|
What are the responsibilites of the Comm/ADP (S6)?
|
The S6 is responsible for tactical communications training, equipment, and procedures. Responsible for installation, training, and maintenance of all ADP equipment.
|
|
|
|
What are the responsibilites of the Training (S7)?
|
Scheduling and monitoring technical and military training. Schedules classrooms, ranges, and spaces for training. Prepares homeport training plan.
|
|
|
|
What are the responsibilites of the Chaplain (X1)?
|
An officer of the Chaplain Corps, responsible for the performance of all duties relating to religious activities.
|
|
|
|
What are the responsibilites of the Dental Officer (X2)?
|
An officer of the Dental Corps is assigned to the Battalion as a member of the staff and head of the Battalion Dental Department.
|
|
|
|
What are the responsibilites of the Legal Officer (X3)?
|
Interpretation and application of the Uniform Code of Military Justice.
|
|
|
|
What are the responsibilites of the Medical Officer (X4)?
|
Responsible for maintaining the health of the personnel at the command.
|
|
|
|
What are the responsibilites of the Disaster Preparedness Officer?
|
To be informed of the most current disaster control and recovery techniques.
|
|
|
|
What are the responsibilites of the Embarkation Officer?
|
Orderly and efficient embarkation of the entire NMCB or any portion thereof.
|
|
|
|
What are the responsibilites of the Ordnance Officer?
|
Responsible for maintenance, issue, and control of weapons, ammunition and infantry equipment.
|
|
|
|
What are the responsibilites of the Public Affairs Officer?
|
Handles any major new items, request photographs as required and keep scrapbook on activities.
|
|
|
|
What are the responsibilites of the Security Officer?
|
Determines the adequacy of physical security in the command.
|
|
|
|
What are the responsibilites of the Special Services Officer?
|
Administers the Battalion's Special Service Program (MWR).
|
|
|
|
What are the responsibilites of the Marine Advisor?
|
Provides ADVICE in the areas of military training, small arms and defensive tactics.
|
|
|
|
What are the responsibilites of the Chief Master-at-Arms?
|
Assists the XO in maintaining good order and discipline.
|
|
|
|
What are the responsibilites of the Career Counselor?
|
Readiness of the Navy depends upon the retention of well trained and highly qualified personnel who will reenlist for career service.
|
|
|
|
What are the duties and responsibilities of the Company Chief?
|
Normally the senior enlisted person in the company.
|
|
|
|
As an assistant to the Company Commander, the Company Chief's duties and responsibilities include what?
|
Enforcing policies of the Company Commander, supervision and administration of the company, inspect company berthing and work spaces, provide guidance and counsel to company personnel.
|
|
|
|
What is the purpose of the Combat Operations Center (COC)?
|
To maintain command and control of battalion in tactical environment. Manned by watch standers at CBR, Operations, and Fire Support Coordinator board, plus communicators and watch officer.
|
|
|
|
The Alternate COC...
|
assumes control of battalion if COC is destroyed (Alternate COC, requires same information and set-up as the COC).
|
|
|
|
What is a Field Exercise (FEX)?
|
Real time tactical scenario which exercises battalion's embark, tactical, and command and control functions.
|
|
|
|
The Air Detachment consists of...
|
A rapid response force, 89 personnel, 35-45 pieces of CESE, usually task organized, ready to fly in 48 hours from receipt of warning order. Can accomplish all missions of a battalion, but on a smaller scale.
|
|
|
|
Regarding Safety, the Commanding Officer...
|
Is responsible for the safety and health of all military and civilian personnel, safe use and condition of equipment, and the protection of all government property.
|
|
|
|
Regarding Safety, the Executive Officer...
|
Serves as Chairman of the Occup. Safety and Health (OSH) Counsel. Also enforces the COs safety policies and procedures.
|
|
|
|
Regarding Safety, All Hands are...
|
Responsible for their own safety and the safety of their "Shipmates". Everyone should be aware of the hazards to which they are exposed and precautionary measures to prevent personal injury or property damage.
|
|
|
|
The Safety Poommanders and DET OICs. licy Committee consists of...
|
The XO, Safety Officer, S-1, S-3, S-4, S-7, Medical Officer, and all Company Commanders.
|
|
|
|
Regarding the hearing conservation program...noises greater than...dba require hearing protection and peak noises greater than...dba require double hearing protection.
|
84 dba / 140 dba
|
|
|
|
1. Contingency planning is the responsibility of the .......
(a) Administrative and Personnel Officer (S-1). (b) Intelligence Officer (S-2). (c) Operations Officer (S-3). (d) Logistics Officer (S-4). |
(b) Intelligence Officer (S-2).
|
|
|
|
2. What element of a MAGTF is constructed around an infantry unit?
(a) Command (b) Combat (c) Aviation (d) Support |
(b) Combat
|
|
|
|
3. (TRUE/FALSE) Under the Geneva Convention, a captor nation may execute a POW for attempting to escape.
(a) True (b) False |
(b) False
|
|
|
|
4. Segregation of detainees/EPWs keeps leaders from promoting .......
(a) Morale. (b) Escape efforts (c) Unity (d) Moral support. |
(b) Escape efforts
|
|
|
|
5. (TRUE/FALSE) Keeping detainees/EPWs silent prevents planning of escapes and cautions about security.
(a) True (b) False |
(a) True
|
|
|
|
6. Individual Combat Equipment is divided into three categories. Which of the following is not a category?
(a) Bivouac (b) Fighting Load-carrying (c) 782 Gear (d) Protective |
(c) 782 Gear
|
|
|
|
7. (True or False) Cover is anything that hides you or your position from the enemy?
(a) True (b) False |
(b) False
|
|
|
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8. Shock is the disruption of normal body functions that, if left untreated, will cause .......
(a) Brain damage. (b) Blindness. (c) Deafness. (d) Death |
(d) Death
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9. The three types of heat injuries are ......., ......., and .......
(a) Heat cramps, heat exhaustion, heat stroke. (b) Heat rash, heat cramps, heat exhaustion. (c) Heat exposure, heat exhaustion, heat stroke. (d) Dehydration, heat exhaustion, heat stroke. |
(a) Heat cramps, heat exhaustion, heat stroke
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10. General cooling of the entire body to a temperature below 95oF can cause .......
(a) Chilblain. (b) Frostbite. (c) Hypothermia. (d) Immersion syndrome. |
(c) Hypothermia
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11. What is an alternative method to purifying water in an emergency?
(a) Not boiling water (b) Boiling for 5 seconds (c) Boiling for 10 seconds (d) Boiling for 15 seconds |
(d) Boiling for 15 seconds
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12. A straddle trench latrine is ....... trenches for 100 males and ....... for 100 females.
(a) 1,2 (b) 2,1 (c) 2,3 (d) 3,2 |
(c) 2,3
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13. Which is used as an aid in preparing the five-paragraph order?
(a) METT-T (b) BAMCIS (c) SALUTE (d) DRAW-D |
(b) BAMCIS
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14. Which part of the five-paragraph order would you have information about rations and ammunition?
(a) Situation (b) Mission (c) Execution (d) Administration |
(d) Administration
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15. Paragraph two of a five paragraph order deals with the .......
(a) Milestone of the patrol. (b) Military targets. (c) Mission. (d) Maneuver techniques. |
(c) Mission
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16. Grazing fire, plunging fire, and overhead fire are fire with respect to the .......
(a) Weapon. (b) Ground. (c) Target. (d) Enemy. |
(b) Ground
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17. The fire plan sketch is prepared by the fire team leader and submitted to the ....... for approval.
(a) Commanding Officer (b) Company Commander (c) Platoon Commander (d) Squad Leader |
(d) Squad Leader
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18. What type of concertina fence is erected quickly and is very difficult to cross, cut, or crawl through?
(a) Single (b) Double (c) Triple (d) Low wire fence |
(c) Triple
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19. (TRUE/FALSE) If the handgrip of your M16A3 rifle becomes damaged, you may replace it with the handgrip from another M16A3 rifle.
(a) True (b) False |
(a) True
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20. The 9mm-service pistol has a maximum effective range of ....... meters.
(a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 75 (d) 100 |
(b) 50
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21. The range of the MK 19 40-MM grenade launcher for a point target is ....... meters.
(a) 2000 (b) 1500 (c) 1000 (d) 500 |
(b) 1500
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22. The characteristics of the 60-mm mortar are .......
(a) Rifle-bore, breech-loaded, and high-angle-of-fire weapon. (b) Rifle-bore, muzzle-loaded, and direct-fire weapon. (c) Smooth-bore, muzzle-loaded, and direct-fire weapon. (d) Smooth-bore, muzzle-loaded, and high-angle-of-fire weapon. |
(d) Smooth-bore, muzzle-loaded, and high-angle-of-fire weapon.
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23. All grenades are made up of ....... main parts.
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five |
(b) Three
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24. Throwing a grenade from the kneeling position reduces the .......
(a) Casualty radius. (b) Killing radius. (c) Throwing distance. (d) Throwing accuracy. |
(c) Throwing distance
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25. The M18A1 Claymore mine has a back-blast of ....... meters.
(a) 200 (b) 150 (c) 100 (d) 50 |
(c) 100
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26. Minefields are categorized as protective, tactical or .......
(a) Phony. (b) Special. (c) Erratic. (d) Positional. |
(a) Phony
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27. What are the four categories of booby traps?
(a) Bait, Decoy, Bluff, Double Bluff. (b) Bait, Decoy, Phone, Static. (c) Attractive, Souvenir, Metal, Plastic. (d) Chemical, Electrical, Mechanical, Tension. |
(a) Bait, Decoy, Bluff, Double Bluff.
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28. Which watch position is charged with the execution of all orders of the CO with concern to the safety and general duties of the command?
(a) Petty Officer of the Watch (b) Junior Officer Of the Day (c) Officer Of the Day (d) Command Duty Officer |
(d) Command Duty Officer
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29. The ....... must understand the special orders of every sentry on his/her relief.
(a) Command Duty Officer (b) Officer Of the Day (c) Junior Officer Of the Day (d) Petty Officer of the Watch |
(d) Petty Officer of the Watch
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30. Deadly force is justified only under conditions of extreme necessity and only .......
(a) If no help is available. (b) As often as necessary. (c) As a last resort. (d) If the perpetrator has a gun. |
(c) As a last resort.
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31. (TRUE/FALSE) When deadly force is justified, firing warning shots are authorized.
(a) True (b) False |
(d) False
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32. (TRUE/FALSE) Each time you search a vehicle always skip around areas of the vehicle to confuse the driver.
(a) True (b) False |
(b) False
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33. Vehicle searches must be conducted by at least ....... people.
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four |
(b) Two
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34. Which of the four fundamental requirements for communication is the most important?
(a) Reliability (b) Security (c) Speed (d) Flexibility |
(a) Reliability
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35. Which is the least secure of the primary means of communication?
(a) Wire (b) Radio (c) Messenger (d) Visual |
(b) Radio
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36. Which radio frequency band does the AN/PRC 119A use?
(a) High Frequency (HF) (b) Very High Frequency (VHF) (c) FM (d) AM |
(b) Very High Frequency (VHF)
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37. What are the three parts of a field message?
(a) Preamble, Address, and Closing (b) Heading, Text, and Ending (c) Heading, Address, and Ending (e) Heading, Address, and Closing |
(b) Heading, Text, and Ending
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38. How is a grid coordinate read off of a military map?
(a) Left and down (b) Right and down (c) Left and up (d) Right and up |
(d) Right and up
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39. On a Lensatic compass how many degrees per click are there if the dial has 120 clicks?
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (e) 12 |
(a) 3
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40. What is another name for a coordinate scale?
(a) Military Compass (b) Military Map (c) Military Protractor (d) Military Coordinate Scale |
(c) Military Protractor
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41. (True/False) A back azimuth is obtained by adding or subtracting 90 degrees from a azimuth.
(a) True (b) False |
(b) False
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42. (TRUE/FALSE) When a patrol approaches a danger area, the far side of the danger area is reconnoitered first.
(a) True (b) False |
(b) False
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43. (TRUE/FALSE) The purpose of a security patrol is to detect infiltration by the enemy and protect against surprise and ambush.
(a) True (b) False |
(a) True
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44. What is the first step in planning a patrol?
(a) Plan use of time (b) Coordinate (c) Study the mission (d) Study the terrain and situation |
(c) Study the mission
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45. The patrol should cross roads where the road is .......
(a) Straight and wide. (b) Wide and hilly. (c) Were you have a clear view down the road. (d) Narrow. |
(d) Narrow
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46. The success of any immediate action drill is NOT dependent on the patrol's .......
(a) Personnel being well trained. (b) Recognizing the nature of the assault. (c) Fire power. (d) Being well rehearsed in actions. |
(c) Fire power
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47. In a convoy, which type of formation is used when a road net must be used to its maximum capacity?
(a) Close (b) Open (c) Infiltration |
(a) Close
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48. (TRUE/FALSE) In the rear of a convoy security vehicle, the first on and the last off of the truck is the M-60 gunner and A gunner.
(a) True (b) False |
(a) True
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49. The security element in the rear of a security vehicle consists of which of the following.
(a) Fire Team (b) Squad (c) Platoon (d) Heavy weapons squad |
(b) Squad
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50. (TRUE/FALSE) In a vehicle ambush, the enemy will most often use small arms in the ambush.
(a) True (b) False |
(a) True
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Alfa is responsible for:
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Alfa is responsible for the operation and maintenance of the automotive, construction and materials-handling equipment assigned to the battalion.
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Bravo is responsible for:
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Bravo is responsible for water, sanitary sewer, and power distribution systems, fuel systems, and communications projects.
Bravo company serves as a mini public works department providing for maintenance and operation of the unit’s camp. |
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Charlie/Delta are the NMCB's:
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Charlie/Delta are the NMCB's general construction company.
Responsible for prime contracts and an occasional subcontract; normally equal in strength and capabilities; they function as prime contractors for vertical construction. |
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Headquarters is the:
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Headquarters is the administrative and military organization for all enlisted personnel assigned to the NMCB's executive and special staffs. The Headquarters Company provides support to the line companies in construction and disaster recovery operations.
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The duties and responsibilities of Admin/Personnel (S-1) is:
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Admin/Personnel (S-1) is
senior assistant to the XO Prepares admin reports, maintains tickler file on recurring reports. Maintain battalion library on directives and pubs. Draft and produce internal pubs (POW). Maintain service records. |
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Intel (S-2) maintains:
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Intel (S-2) maintains a library of contingency plans and maps. Supporting plans for combat support and disaster recovery. Operate the armory.
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Operations (S-3) is responsible for:
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Operations (S-3) is responsible for planning, scheduling, and managing of battalion construction, combat, and disaster recovery. Ops Construction quality. Evaluation of received OPORDS, prepare internal OPORDS for battalion. Assigns enlisted personnel to departments, companies, and detachments.
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Supply (S-4) is responsible for:
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Supply (S-4) is responsible for procuring, receiving, storing, issuing, and accounting for all equipment, repair parts, and construction material. Disburses funds for purchases, pay, and allowances. Operates dining facility, barber shop, central store room, central tool room.
Operates mail system. |
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Comm/ADP is responsible for:
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Comm/ADP (S6) is responsible for tactical communications training, equipment, and procedures.
Responsible for installation, training, and maintenance of all ADP equipment. |
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Training (S-7) is responsible for:
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Training (S-7) is responsible for scheduling and monitoring technical and military training. Schedules classrooms, ranges, and spaces for training. Prepares homeport training plan.
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The Chaplain is responsible for:
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Special staff (X codes): Chaplain is an Officer of the Chaplain Corps, responsible for the performance of all duties relating to religious activities.
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The Medical Officer is responsible for:
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The Medical Officer is responsible for maintaining the health of the personnel of the command.
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The Dental Officer is responsible for:
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The Dental Officer, an Officer of the Dental Corps, is assigned to the Battalion as a member of the staff and head of the Battalion Dental Department.
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The Disaster Preparedness Officer is responsible for:
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The Disaster Preparedness Officer is responsible for being informed of the most current disaster control and recovery techniques.
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The Embarkation Officer is responsible for:
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The Embarkation Officer is responsible for the orderly and efficient embarkation of the entire NMCB or any portion thereof.
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The Legal Officer is responsible for:
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The Legal Officer is responsible for the interpretation and application of the Uniform Code of Military Justice.
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The Ordnance Officer is responsible for:
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The Ordnance Officer is responsible for maintenance, issue, and control of weapons, ammunition and infantry equipment.
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The Public Affairs Officer is responsible for:
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The Public Affairs Officer is responsible for handling any major news items, request photographs as required and keep scrapbook on battalion activities.
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The Security Officer is responsible for:
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The Security Officer is responsible for determining the adequacy of physical security in the command.
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The Special Services Officer is responsible for:
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The Special Services Officer is responsible for administration of the Battalion’s Special Service Program (MWR).
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The Marine Advisor is responsible for:
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The Marine Advisor is responsible to provide ADVICE in the areas of military training, small arms and defensive tactics.
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The Chief Master-at-Arms is responsible for:
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The Chief Master-at-Arms is responsible for assisting the Executive Officer in maintaining good order and discipline.
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The Career Counselor is responsible for:
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The Career Counselor is responsible to maintain readiness of the Navy (which depends upon the retention of well trained and highly qualified personnel who will reenlist for career service).
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What are the duties and responsibilities of the Company Chief:
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The duties and responsibilities of the Company Chief: normally the senior enlisted person in the company. As an assistant to the Company Commander his/her duties and responsibilities include.
Enforcing the policies of the Company Commander. Supervision and administration of the company. Inspect company berthing and work spaces. Provide guidance and counsel to company personnel. |
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What is the Combat Operation Center (COC) used for:
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The Combat Operation Center (COC) is used to maintain command and control of battalion in tactical environment. Manned by watch standers at CBR, Operations, and Fire Support Coordinator board, plus communicators and watch officer.
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The Alternate Combat Operation Center (ACOC) requires:
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The Alternate Combat Operation Center (ACOC) requires the same information and set-up as COC; assumes control of battalion if COC is destroyed.
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The Field Exercise (FEX) is:
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The Field Exercise (FEX) is a real time tactical scenario which exercises battalion’s embark, tactical, and command and control functions.
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The Air Detachment (AIRDET) is:
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The Air Detachment (AIRDET) is an NMCB Rapid Response Force. 89 personnel, 35-45 pieces of CESE, but usually task organized. Ready to fly in 48 hours from receipt of a warning order. Can accomplish all missions of a battalion, but on a smaller scale.
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What is the purpose of the Naval Mobile Construction Battalion (NMCB) Table of Allowance (TOA) as it relates to the following:
a. P-25A (TA-41) b. P-25C (TA-31) c. P-25D (TA-22) |
The NMCB TOA is listed as the P25 and is broken down into three sub-TOAs to assist in quick deployment:
Air Det (A/D): P25A or TA-41 Air Echelon (A/E): P25C or TA-31 Sea Echelon (S/E): P25D or TA-22 |
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Discuss the purpose of the Micro SNAP II Program.
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The purpose of the Micro SNAP II Program: is an NCF version of the SNAP II program used Fleet-wide. It is a supply computer program that:
Manages money Produces financial reports. Processes orders. Automatically processes NSN orders (1250-1). Assigns requisition numbers for open purchases (1250-2). |
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State the purpose of the Non-Operational Ready-Supply/Anticipated Non-Operational Ready-Supply (NORS/ANORS) Program:
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The purpose of the Non-Operational Ready-Supply/Anticipated Non-Operational Ready-Supply (NORS/ANORS) Program is:
When a piece of CESE is deadline or anticipated to be, it is designated as NORS or NORS. NORS: Not Operationally Ready- Supply ANORS: Anticipated Not Operationally Ready- Supply NORS CUCV brakes are out and there are not replacement parts in stock. ANORS Tire is extremely worn but still safe and there are not replacement tires in stock. When a part is designated NORS: Requisition processing is given top priority (A). Delivery date is expedited (potentially overnight rush). When a part is designated ANORS: Requisition processing is given high priority (B) Required delivery date assigned is before the date deadline is anticipated. |
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What is the intended purpose of the Camp Maintenance Store Room (CMSR):
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The Camp Maintenance Store Room (CMSR) houses repair parts for in-camp preventive maintenance.
Controlled by either S-4 or Camp Maintenance, depending on the battalion’s preference. |
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What are the uses of the International Merchant Purchase Authorization Card
(IMPAC) (VISA) card? |
The uses of the International Merchant Purchase Authorization Card (IMPAC) (VISA) card include:
International Merchant Purchase Authorization Card– Government credit card.–Used for local purchase when a requisition cannot be filled through the Navy Stock System and the item cost is less than $2500. Only trained cardholders are authorized to make purchases. Purchase examples: Consumables- paper, pencils. Services- commercial printing, repair contracts. Construction materials- plywood, nails |
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How does the OPTAR/budget impact your NMCB unit?
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The OPTAR/budget impacts your NMCB unit. OPTAR funds are used for operation and maintenance- Navy (OM&N) needs ONLY.
Cannot buy project materials with this money NMCB OPTARs are divided into five categories:–01- Consumables and Services 02- Maintenance Repair Parts (CESE) 03- Camp Maintenance 04- Deployment Per Diem 08- Det swings, training, emergency leave Funds cannot be transferred between these different “pots” of money |
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What is the difference between organic and augment tools, equipment, and repair parts?
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The difference between organic and augment tools, equipment, and repair parts are:
ORGANIC TOOLS Tools that are included in a basic allowance of tools. This basic allowance of tools enables an activity to carry out operational requirements. Allowance items are selected to provide support in a contingency situation. Organic allowances are not designed to meet every need. AUGMENT TOOLS Tools NOT in TOA may be requested when an assigned project requires more or specific tools to accomplish task. |
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Where do you find the Master Packing Plan (MPP) and TOA As-Packed (TAP) report in a containerized TOA.
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You find the Master Packing Plan (MPP) and TOA As-Packed (TAP) report in a containerized TOA.
Master Packing Plan (MPP) In order to mount-out the TOA for contingency response, it is pre-packed and containerized. The MPP assigns each item in the TOA to a specific container and a specific location inside of that container. The MPP is kept by the TOA Custodian (typically an SK) in Supply. TOA As-Packed (TAP) When a container is packed, an inventory, called the TAP, is completed. The TAP is placed in a sealed, waterproof envelope and attached to the inside of the container door. The container is then sealed. The TAP reports inside of the containers should match the MPP retained by the TOA custodian. |
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Discuss the general characteristics, operator maintenance, and antenna systems for the following:
Operator Maintenance: |
The general characteristics, operator maintenance, and antenna systems for the following:
Operator Maintenance: Antennas Make sure antennas are clean Check antenna elements for damage Make sure the (ground strap) is securely installed to the vehicle and antenna base. Cables and cable connectors Check cables for cuts, cracks, and breaks Make sure cable connectors are secure Make sure cable connectors are securely attached to cables Controls and switches Make sure each control moves smoothly while you operate your radio Make sure all knobs are secure on their shafts If a switch has detents, make sure each position has a solid feel to it. Mounting and assembly hardware Check for loose nuts, bolts, and screws Check for corrosion, rust, and deterioration of all metal parts. Cleaning: Keep radio as clean as possible Preparation for Movement Manpack Radio: If you won’t be using your radio, remove and stow the antenna and handset Vehicular Radio. Make sure the antenna is properly tied down for movement. |
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Specifications for the AN/PRC-119A VHF SINCGARS Radio are:
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AN/PRC-119A VHF SINCGARS Radio
- 30 to 87.975 MHz freq - 2320 channels/freq.'s - Sends and receives secure voice and digital data - 6 Comsec channels - 6 Frequency hopping channels - 8 Single Channels (SC) for plain text - Transmits 200 meters to 10 Kilometers or more - Batteries last 4 (BB690) to 30 (BA5590) hrs depending on type & use - Antenna Systems: - 3ft Tape- up to 5 miles - 10ft whip- up to 10 miles - OE-254- up to 36 miles |
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Specifications for the AN/PRC-104B HF Radio are:
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AN/PRC-104B HF Radio
- 2 to 29.999 MHz - 4 modes of operation - Transmits 10 to 1,000 miles 280,000 channels of operation - Secure means of communications with KY-99 - Normally operated in Upper Side Band (USB) - Requires 2 BA-5590 lithium or 2 BB-690 rechargeable batteries - Antenna Systems - Whip Antenna-10ft - NVIS Antenna- as 2259– - Dipole Antenna |
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Specifications for the AN/BRC-90A/91 are:
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Antenna Systems
10ft- as 3900 OE-254 |
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Specifications for the AN/PRC-38 are:
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Replacing AN/PRC-104
HF/VHF 1.6 to 59.999 MHz Long range secure radio No external encryption device required Requires 2 BA-5590 or 2 BB-690 Smaller and lighter than AN/PRC-104 |
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Specifications for the AN/GRA-39 are:
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Provides capability to remote operator up to 2 miles from the radio set (antenna farm)
Power source- 12 d-cell batteries. Remote unit (locate in COC/CP) Local unit (locate in ant farm) |
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Specifications for the AN/BRC-92A are:
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Base Station
Two RT/1523 radios 50 watt output Two power amps Longer VHF ranges of 10 km to 40km Requires power supply for stationary operations Capable of retrans use Antenna Systems: OE-254 |
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Specifications for the VHF handheld SABER 1 fascinator are:
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Handheld secure radio
VHF radio with 2.5 - 6 watts Need radio interface box to fill VHF - 138 to 174 MHz Range - 1 to 3 miles Operator Maintenance Clean and corrosion free Ensure all knobs and switches function correctly Check antenna for cracks and splits Ensure battery charger contacts are not broken |
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Specifications for the VHF base station MODP1755 are:
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Base Station
increases range, requires Saber with battery Antenna Systems 5ft whip with magnetic bottom |
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Specifications for the SB-22/PT are:
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12 line switchboard
Operator uses headset Hand ringing generator Can interconnect calls 29 line packs when stacked (2) Uses 4 “D” cell batteries when used with operator pack Audio/visual call indicator Consists of four basic parts. The Operators Pack The Line and Trunk Pack The Accessory Kits The Handset-Headset |
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Specifications for the TA-312/PT are:
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2 wire tactical phone
Talks up to 14 miles wet, up to 22 miles dry Operates on 2 “D” cells Press to talk handset Hand crank to call distant stations Talk 4 miles in ear piece with dead batteries |
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Specifications for the TA-1/PT
Hand held Comm device are: |
Hand held Comm device
Uses WD-1 wire Talks 4-7 miles Squeeze signal generator Press to talk button Light weight and easy to store Normally configured in gun loop Operator Maintenance Remove dirt and moisture from housing, handset, cord, or connector. Inspect painted surfaces for bare spots, rust or corrosion. Inspect surfaces for cuts or cracks. Inspect handset cord for breaks, cuts or deterioration. Inspect for inoperative binding posts, broken connector, or hand set connection. |
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Specifications/general characteristics and operator maintenance for the AN/PSN-11 Global Positioning System (GPS) are:
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PLGR - “Plugger”
GPS Receives encrypted code Anti-jam capability |
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What is the use of the following Communications Security Material system equipment: KY 99A MINTERN
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Voice/data encryption
Tactical terminal Primarily for AN/PRC 104 HF Requires one BA-5590 lithium or BB-690 rechargeable battery |
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Describe the KL 43:
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Encrypted keyboard
Sends/receives secure data Has two message buffers Holds up to 16 crypto fills Used to authenticate, capable of printing messages 4 “AA” batteries last 6 to 24 hours, low battery audio & visual alarm indicates 4 minutes left |
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Describe the AN/CYZ-10:
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Encryption equipment
Stores over 1000 crypto fills Loaded from EKMS or KOI - 18/KYK-13/KYK-15 or another CYZ-10 Loads the Frequency Hopping Program |
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Describe the KOI-18:
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Tape Reader Fill Device
Connects to common fill device Fills auxiliary devices and gear Pull segment through in/out slot Translates tape to data Uses one BA - 5372/U battery |
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Describe the KYK-13:
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Common Fill Device (CFD)
Electronic transfer/fill device Holds up to six Crypto segments Loads auxiliary COMSEC gear Red light indicates fill status Uses one BA - 5372/U battery Z all position and Initiate button clears all fill |
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Discuss the tactical employment and purpose of Naval Mobile Construction
Battalion (NMCB) communication systems. |
Tactical Employment Loops:
Rifleman-Fireteam Leader-SQD Leader-PLT Leader Company CP-COC-Regiment/ MAGTAF Purpose: Strong coordination between rifleman up to MAGTAF and beyond can ensure a victorious outcome for any combat mission assigned to a Seabee organization. |
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Discuss the procedure for installing Communications Security Material system information into the AN/PRC-119A:
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KYK-13
Common Fill Device (CFD) Electronic transfer/fill device Holds up to six Crypto segments Loads auxiliary COMSEC gear |
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Describe the 7.62mm M60 machine gun:
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Air-cooled
Belt-fed Gas-operated Automatic weapon Fixed headspace Fires from open bolt Position Crew served |
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Discuss loading/unloading procedures (LOADING):
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LOADING:
Point weapon down range Place safety in the “F” (fire) position. Use cocking handle to pull the bolt to the rear. When the sear holds bolt rearward, return cocking handle forward and place the safety in the “S” (safe) position. Raise the cover and ensure the feed tray, receiver and chamber are clear. Place the first round in the feed tray groove and close the cover, making sure the round stays in the groove. Move safety to “F”. The weapon is now ready to fire. |
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Discuss loading/unloading procedures (UNLOADING):
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UNLOADING:
Point weapon down range. Move safety to “F” (fire) position. Pull charging handle rearward to lock the bolt to the rear, then return the charging handle forward. Place the safety in the “S” (safe) position. Raise the cover and remove the belt and rounds from the tray. Ensure that chamber and face of bolt are clear. Lower feed tray and close cover. CAUTION- DO NOT ALLOW BOLT TO SLAM FORWARD ON EMPTY CHAMBER. |
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M60 Machine Gun capabilities/characteristics:
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State the following capabilities/characteristics:
a. Length 42.4 Inches b. Weight 18.5 lbs c. Maximum range 3725 meters d. Maximum effective range 1100 meters e. Safeties - Safety lever on left side of trigger housing–The bolt cannot be pulled rearward or released to go forward while on safe. |
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M60 Ammunition types:
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Ammunition types
7.62 Ball 7.62 Armor piercing 7.62 Blank 7.62 Tracer 7.62 Dummy |
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M60 Rates of fire:
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Rates of fire:
Sustained - 100 rnds/minute Rapid - 200 rnds/minute Cyclic - 550-600 rnds/minute |
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M60 Types of fire:
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Grazing Fire - Not less than 1m above and no higher than 68 inches above the ground. Can exist for 700m over level or evenly sloping ground.
Plunging Fire that strikes the ground from above at a considerable level. Beaten zone is considered the danger space. OverheadFire delivered over the heads of troops. Usually plunging fire. |
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M60 Types of mounting pods:
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Integral Bipod
- Part of the barrel group - Provides effective firing platform M122 Tripod - Stable and durable mount - Provides for greater accuracy - Includes a traversing and elevating mechanism and the pintle and platform group. |
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Name the three types of emplacements that might be employed in a defensive position (related to M60).
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M60 Emplacements:
- Employed as a squad (sqdldr & 2-4 person gun tms) - Support the rifleman in offense & defense - Provide heavy volumes of controlled, accurate and continuous fire - Engage predetermined targets in all visibility conditions - Provide long range, close defensive and final protective fires - Basis for FPF’s in the defensive fire plan - Cover likely avenues of approach - Provide grazing fire - Assigned to each gun - Normally does not exceed 800 mils right to left (45 degrees) - Adjacent Machine gun squad sectors should overlap. - Initial Fire Command - The units leaders means of controlling the fires of his unit. - A way of telling you what weapon, where, at what, how far, when to commence firing. |
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Remembered by the acronym ADDRAC (ALERT; DIRECTION; DESCRIPTION; RANGE; ASSIGNMENT/METHOD; CONTROL/COMMAND
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ALERT - The first element, alerts you that a command is coming.
DIRECTION - Directs your attention in a direction or to the target. Can be skipped if the target is singular and obvious. DESCRIPTION - A description of the target or targets in short accurate words. Can combine a reference point in this element as well. RANGE - The estimated range of the target to be engaged. ASSIGNMENT/METHOD - Only used if the need to assign different sectors of fire exists or to indicate a method of engagement. CONTROL/COMMAND - Used to tell you when to start placing fire on the target. |
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Describe Final Protective Fire (FPF):
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Defensive fire designed to break up the enemy’s assault under any condition of visibility.
A prearranged barrier of fire laid down just in front of the defense. Also planned to destroy or limit enemy penetrations into the defense. Fired on verbal command or predetermined signal. |
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Describe Final Protective Lines (FPL):
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Predetermined line of fire to obtain the maximum grazing fire from the weapon.
Used in terrain that has short ridges, draws and irregular slopes. Characterized by: Flanking Fire: Provides effective frontal coverage Interlocking: Reduces number of gaps & provides mutual support. Grazing: Bullet does not rise above avg ht of person. Flat or even slope 700m max. |
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Describe the Principle Direction of Fire (PDF):
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Used when terrain does not allow for effective FPL.
Used to cover dangerous avenues of approach. May fall within the sector of fire or compromise either boundary. |
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Name the members of a gun team and state what they are responsible for carrying into a combat situation.
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Team Leader Usually A PO2, responsible for effective employment of the gun.
Responsible for changing the barrels during firing. Carries spare barrel kit, M122 tripod, one bandoleer of ammo and armed with a 9mm pistol. Gunner - Usually a PO3. Actually fires and maintains the gun. Carries the gun, one bandoleer of ammo and armed with a 9mm pistol. Ammo 1 - Usually a CN, acts as the supply person for the team. Carries one box of ammo, spare barrel case with T&E. Armed with an M16. Ammo 2 - Usually a CA. Carries two boxes of ammo. Armed with an M16. |
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How are tracer rounds used?
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Observation of fire
Incendiary effects Signaling Training |
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Describe the 40mm machine gun:
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Air-cooled
Belt-fed Blow back operated Automatic weapon Fires from open bolt position Crew served |
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The 40mm machine gun loading/unloading procedures include:
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Keep the weapon down range
Make sure the bolt is forward. If not take the weapon off safe and ease the charging handles forward. Open the cover Insert the first round through the feed throat Insert the first round through the feed throat Place the first round into the feeder. Female link first. Push the round across the first pawl Move the slide assembly to the left Close the cover Unlock and grasp the charging handles and charge weapon Place weapon on safe Open cover Remove remaining rounds and inspect chamber Once clear, close cover Place weapon on fire and use charging handles to “ride” bolt forward or press trigger sending the bolt forward. |
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State the following capabilities/characteristics of the 40mm machine gun:
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a. Length 43.1 inches
b. Weight 75.6 lbs c. Maximum range maximum effective 1500m maximum 2212m d. Arming range M383 HE Round 18 to 36 meter M918 TP Round 18 to 30 meters e. Muzzle velocity 790 fps f. Rate of fire 325 to 375 rds/min g. Safety Thumb switch with “Safe” and “Fire” positions h. Ammunition types M383 HE - High explosive, designed to inflict personnel casualties. Arming distance of 18 to 36m. 15m casualty radius. M430 HEDP -High explosive, dual purpose. M385E4/M385A1 - Training Practice with propellant. Max range 2200m M918 TP - Target round with a flash signature. Max range 2200m M922 Dummy - Inert |
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Describe the operation of the .50 caliber M2 machine gun:
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The .50-caliber machine gun is a belt-fed, crew-served, recoil-operated, air-cooled weapon. It can be set for automatic and semiautomatic fire. The weapon does not have any safeties.
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