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220 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Kohlberg’s theory of moral development includes 3 progressive levels culminating in...

A. self-actualization, wherein the individual is fully humanistic.
B. principled thought, wherein the individual adopts a self- accepted set of standards of behavior.
C. androgyny, wherein the individual exhibits both male and female stereotypic behaviors.
D. personhood, wherein the individual is free from moral dilemmas.
B - Principled Thought, wherein the individual adopts a self-accepted set of standards of behavior
A professional counselor determines fees for monthly consultation services on a job-by-job basis. This is an example of which of the following types of reinforcement schedules?
A. variable interval
B. fixed interval
C. variable ratio
D. fixed ratio
C - Variable Ration
Research on the development of a person in a so-called “humanistic life outlook” has shown that it is facilitated by
A. formal educational experiences.
B. observational learning experiences.
C. diverse interpersonal interactions.
D. all of the above.
D - All of the above
When persons who are characteristically shy and withdrawn participate in “assertiveness training,” initially they experience uncertainty and self-doubt. Counselors refer to this social psychological concept as
A. cognitive dissonance.
B. dissociation.
C. individuation.
D. acculturation
A - Cognitive Dissonance
“Men (used here to mean all people) are disturbed not by things, but by the view which they take of them.” This quote, attributable to Epictetus, most closely describes the counseling theory developed by
A. Rogers.
B. Carkhuff.
C. Freud.
D. Ellis.
D - Ellis
The counseling technique in which the counselor intensifies the client’s emotional state in order to help the client understand the irrationality of the emotional reaction is known as
A. confrontation.
B. paradoxical intention.
C. systematic desensitization.
D. reconfiguration.
B - Paradoxical intention
Counselors know that groups are formed for different purposes. For example, in some groups the primary goal is to yield some specified outcome, or “product,” while in others the primary goal is to focus on the “process” of interaction within the group. Which of the following types of groups is more product than process oriented?
A. Behavioral
B. Transactional-analysis
C. Adlerian
D. Client-centered
A - Behavioral
In the context of group counseling, members that are high in conformity also tend to be high in
A. independence.
B. authoritarianism.
C. intelligence.
D. superiority.
B - Authoritarianism
A counselor who structures a career counseling group to help group members understand a “fields and levels” approach to careers is following the theory of
A. Super.
B. Roe.
C. Holland.
D. Tiedeman.
B - Roe
The concept of “career maturity” has been described and researched most extensively by
A. Crites.
B. Hoyt.
C. Tiedeman.
D. Ginzberg.
A - Crites
Person A and Person B both took the same test. Person A got a score of 100 while Person B got a score of 75. In order for a counselor to determine whether the difference between their scores was because of “chance,” the counselor would need to know which of the following characteristics of the test?
A. mean
B. standard deviation
C. standard error of measurement
D. standard error of the mean
c - Standard Error of Measurement
A counselor conducted a study intended to evaluate the effectiveness of on-going group career counseling on the vocational maturity of high school sophomores. The study was begun in September and continued until June. This study is partcularly susceptible to which of the following threats to the validity of an experiment?
A. regression
B. maturation
C. reactive effects of experimentation
D. multiple treatment interference
B - Maturation
A counselor designs a study where two experimental groups and one control group complete pre- and post-experiment measures of self-concept. The subjects were not randomly assigned to the groups because of scheduling problems. Which of the following techniques is MOST appropriate for analyzing the resultant data?
A. analysis of covariance
B. correlated t-tests
C. analysis of variance
D. Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed-ranks test
A - Analysis of Covariance
You have been providing career counseling to a client who is seeking employment. Concurrent with the counseling, and with your knowledge, the client has made application for employment with several employers. A potential employer calls you and asks for your opinion as to your client’s suitability for the employer’s job opening. Under which of the following conditions are you free (i.e., not in violation of professional ethics), to provide the information requested?
A. When it is clear that the client will not get the job unless the information is given
B. When you are certain that the information you would provide would assure that the client would get the job.
C. When in your best judgment you believe the information would enhance the client’s chances for getting the job.
D. None of the above
D - None of the Above
As applied to professional licensure of counselors, the term “reciprocity” means that

A. one licensing agency agrees to accept the licensing standards of another as sufficient for its own.
B. a licensed counselor may legally perform the functions of a licensed psychologist.
C. certification is synonymous with licensure.
D. graduation from a fully accredited counselor education program automatically constitutes eligibility for licensure.
A - One Licensing Agency agrees to accept the licensing standards of another as sufficient for its own
Susie is playing with blocks and is trying to build a tower; she tries but cannot build a tower. Susie’s mother helps her build a four-block tower. Later, Susie builds a four-block tower without her mother’s help. According to Vygotsky, the inability to build the tower on her own is known as:

a. scaffolding
b. the zone of proximal development
c. assisted discovery
d. learning by imitation
B. “Scaffolding” is a term used by Vygotsky.
According to Erickson, when an individual fails to develop a strong sense of identity, the individual will have troubles with the development of:
a. autonomy
b. initiative
c. intimacy
d. integrity
c - Intimacy
Which of the following is the correct sequence of stages in Freud's theory of personality development?
a. Oral, genital, latency, anal, phallic
b. Genital, anal, phallic, oral, latency
c. Latency, phallic, oral, anal, genital
d. Oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital
D - Oral, Anal, Phallic, Latency, Genital
Jacob’s father tells Jacob to clean his room. When Jacob asks why, his father responds, “Because I said so.” The father’s response is most representative of which parenting style?
a. Uninvolved
b. Authoritarian
c. Authoritative
d. Permissive
B - Authoritarian
Harry Harlow used baby monkeys and several different kinds of “surrogate mothers” to investigate which factors are important in early development and attachment. According to his findings, baby monkeys:
a. preferred a soft terrycloth “mother” to a wire-mesh “mother” that held a bottle
b. preferred a wire-mesh “mother” that held a bottle to a soft terrycloth “mother”
c. showed no preference
d. preferred neither “mother”
A - Preferred a soft terrycloth "mother" to a wire mesh "mother" that held a bottle.
Which of the following is a myth about suicide in the United States?
a. Male suicide is four times higher than that among females.
b. It occurs in age groups of 90 years and up.
c. Psychiatrists, physicians, and dentists are most prone.
d. Asking someone about suicide may push that person over the edge
D - Asking someone about suicide may push that person over the edge
Cody does what his parents say because he doesn’t want to lose his television privileges. This is an example of what level in Kohlberg’s theory of moral development?
a. Integrity versus despair
b. Preconventional
c. Conventional
d. Postconventional
B - Preconventional
Josie likes to play peek-a-boo with her little brother, Jack. According to Piaget, Jack finds this game fun because he has acquired ____________, which is one of the primary tasks of the
sensorimotor stage of cognitive development.
a. conservation
b. dual representation
c. object permanence
d. reversibility
C - Object Permanence
The theorist associated with bonding and attachment is:
a. Bowlby
b. Adler
c. Freud
d. Piaget
A - Bowlby
Henry, a 72-year-old widower, reminisces with his daughter about his life. He talks about his successes and regrets. This is an example of Erikson’s:
a. intimacy stage
b. generativity stage
c. industry stage
d. ego integrity stage
D - Ego Integrity Stage
When it comes to displaying aggression, girls more often engage in ____________ aggression than boys.
a. hostile
b. instrumental
c. relational
d. physical
C - Relational
All of the following are physical characteristics of Down Syndrome EXCEPT:
a. short, stocky build
b. almond-shaped eyes
c. large hands and feet
d. flattened face
C - Large hands and feet
Which of the following statements is true when considering cultural and familial influences on self-esteem?
a. Chinese and Japanese children have higher self-esteem than North American children, mainly because their cultures have higher academic standards for achievement.
b. Boys tend to have lower self-esteem than girls
c. African American children tend to have lower self-esteem than Caucasian children.
d. An authoritative parenting style usually allows children to have especially high selfesteem.
D - An authoritative parenting style usually allows children to have especially high self-esteem
Research on gay and lesbian parents indicates:
a. Their children are maladjusted.
b. They are as dedicated to and effective at child rearing as are heterosexual parents.
c. They are less dedicated to child rearing than heterosexual parents.
d. Their children are parented harshly and inconsistently.
B - they are as dedicated and effective at child rearing as are heterosexual parents
In the Stanford prison study, what caused the guards to treat the prisoners harshly?
a.Their instructions from the researchers
b.The uncooperative behavior of the prisoners
c. The social context
d. The pressure the guards got from one another
C - The Social Context
In the original studies, Milgram and his colleagues found that people were more likely to disobey under all of the following circumstances EXCEPT when __________.

a. the victim was in an adjoining room so the “teacher” heard every sound the victim made
b. two experimenters had conflicting demands about the continuation of the experiment
c. the person ordering them to continue was an ordinary man, apparently another volunteer
d. the subject worked with peers who refused to go further in the procedure
A - the victim was in an adjoining room so the "teacher" heard every sound the victim made
In the Stanford prison simulation, male college students agreed to participate in an experiment to discover what would happen when they took on the roles of prisoners and guards. The researchers found that __________.
a. within a short time the prisoners became distressed and panicky, with accompanying emotional and physical ailments
b. a small percentage of the guards became tyrannical and abusive in order to maintain the social structure of the prison
c. the “tough but fair” guards urged the tyrannical guards to lighten up on the prisoners
d. all of the prisoners and the guards became harsh and abusive
A - within a short time, the prisoners became distressed and panicky, with accompanying emotional and physical ailments
In what ways do stereotypes distort reality?
a. Stereotypes exaggerate the differences that exist between groups.
b. Stereotypes exaggerate the differences that exist within groups.
c. Stereotypes produce many differing perceptions by many people.
d. Stereotypes demonstrate that members of a group can be different
A - Stereotypes exaggerate the differences that exist between groups
Jennifer has to choose between spending the evening at home with her parents or spending the evening babysitting her younger sister. Jennifer does not like either of these choices. This situation describes an:
a. approach-avoidance conflict
b. avoidance-avoidance conflict
c. approach-approach conflict
d. avoidance vector
B - Avoidance-Avoidance Conflict
20. Connie tells each of her clients that the best way she can help them is to attempt to look at the world from the client’s point of view. This counselor is taking the _________ perspective.
a. etic
b. alloplastic
c. emic
d. autoplastic
C - emic
Working with individuals from different cultures requires that the counselor:
a. have sensitivity to the needs of the individuals
b. make a referral to another counselor
c. have knowledge about the different cultures
d. Both A and C.
D - Both have sensitivity to the needs of other individuals AND have knowledge about the different cultures
A high standard of counseling practice when working with diverse populations involves all of the following EXCEPT:
a. treating all clients the same way
b. acknowledging and confronting their own biases and prejudices
c. adapting one’s knowledge and skills to meet the clients’ needs
d. educating oneself as completely as possible regarding the clients’ cultural context
A - Treating all clients the same way
When working with individuals from different cultures, the effective counselor may not:
a. use language similar to the client’s
b. maintain good eye contact at all times
c. be cognizant of the context
d. honor religious beliefs
B - maintain good eye contact at all times
Murray is a bright student, but he procrastinates. He puts off writing term papers and gets incompletes, which eventually become Fs. Murray’s therapist helps him establish small, specific goals rather than vague, long-range goals. The therapist also asks Murray to keep a diary of how he is spending his time when he is avoiding his studies. The method used to help Murray deal with his problem is __________ therapy.
a. psychodynamic
b. behavioral
c. Gestalt
d. existential
B - Behavioral
The social-learning perspective is to the psychodynamic perspective as __________ are to _____________.
a. bodily events; social and cultural forces
b. social and cultural forces; bodily events
c. environmental conditions; unconscious dynamics
d. unconscious dynamics; environmental conditions
C - Environmental Conditions; Unconscious dynamics
The process of saying freely whatever comes to mind in connection with dreams, memories, fantasies, or conflicts, in the course of a psychodynamic therapy session, is referred to as __________.
a. systematic desensitization
b. flooding
c. free association
d. exposure treatment
c - Free Association
27. Which of the following is not a behavioral therapy?
a. Flooding
b. Skills training
c. Exposure
d. Unconditional positive regard
D - unconditional Positive Regard
The primary goal of __________ therapy is to find meaning in life.
a. rational-emotive
b. reality
c. existential
d. transactional analysis
C - existential therapy
Which of the following pairings of problem and the most successful therapy for that problem is INCORRECT?
a. Childhood behavior problems and existential therapy
b. Specific phobias and systematic desensitization
c. Depression and rational-emotive therapy
d. Panic disorder and behavior therapy
A - Childhood Behavior Problems and Existential Therapy
The bond of confidence and mutual understanding established between therapist and
client is called the _______.
a. therapeutic window
b. therapeutic alliance
c. clubhouse model
d. window of opportunity
B - Therapeutic Alliance
An apparent treatment success that is due to the patient's expectation or hopes rather than the treatment itself is called ____________.
a. the placebo effect
b. the nocebo effect
c. the therapeutic window
d. an empirically validated treatment
A - The Placebo Effect
In _________ therapy, the therapist uses logical arguments to challenge a client's unrealistic beliefs or expectations.
a. client-centered
b. rational-emotive behavior
c. existential
d. aversive conditioning
B - Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy
Systematic desensitization and "flooding" are ___________ therapies.
a. behavioral
b. psychodynamic
c. reality
d. Adlerian
A - Behavioral
Which of the following types of psychotherapists would be most likely to use free association and transference?
a. Rational-emotive behavior therapists
b. Behavior therapists
c. Psychodynamic therapists
d. Client-centered therapists
C - Psychodynamic Therapists
_________ is a humanist approach that emphasizes the tragic aspects of life, the burden of responsibility, and the need to face the inevitability of death.
a. Social interest
b. Psychoanalysis
c. Existentialism
d. Self-actualization
C - Existentialism
According to Carl Rogers, __________ is love and support given to another with no strings attached.
a. the condition of worth
b. unconditional positive regard
c. existentialism
d. self-actualization
B - Unconditional Positive Regard
Which of the following pairs of personality theorists and perspectives is INCORRECT?
a. Abraham Maslow; existentialist
b. Carl Rogers; humanist
c. Carl Jung; genetic
d. Sigmund Freud; psychodynamic
C - Carl Rogers; Genetic
Which of the following terms is associated with transactional analysis?
a. Free association
b. Unconditional positive regard
c. Irrational beliefs
d. Complementary transactions
D - Complementary Transcation
Which one of the following does NOT belong with the other three?
a. Horney
b. Glasser
c. Adler
d. Jung
B - Glasser
The withdrawal of reinforcement until the conditioned response no longer occurs is known as:
a. extinction
b. elimination
c. discrimination
d. punishment
A - Extinction
Freud is to ego, id, and superego as ___________ is to parent, adult, and child.
a. Jung
b. Adler
c. Perls
d. Berne
D - Berne
Developed by Luft and Ingham, ______________ asserts that there are four parts to the personality: the public self, the blind self, the private self, and the unknown self.
a. neurolinguistic programming
b. the concept of the collective unconscious
c. the concept of the family constellation
d. the concept of the Johari window
D - The concept of the Johari Window
In which is the focus on the meaning of life and the relevance of the individual
experience?
a. Existential counseling
b. Adlerian counseling
c. Gestalt therapy
d. Reality therapy
A - Existential Counseling
Popular techniques of this approach are role playing, “empty chair,” and “making the rounds.”
a. Client-centered
b. Psychoanalysis
c. Gestalt
d. Adlerian
C - gestalt
Popular techniques of this approach are examination of client’s memories, “spitting in the client’s soup,” and “catching oneself.”
a. Adlerian
b. Psychoanalysis
c. Rational-emotive therapy
d. Reality therapy
A - Adlerian
In this therapeutic approach, the counselor’s emphasis is on being authentic while concentrating on verbal and nonverbal messages.
a. Existential counseling
b. Behavioral counseling
c. Gestalt therapy
d. Rational-emotive therapy
C - Gestalt Therapy
Paradoxical intention, implosive therapy, and thought stopping are all techniques used by _____________ counselors.
a. Psychoanalytic
b. Behavioral
c. TA
d. Reality therapy
A - Psychoanalytic
Stress inoculation is a concept introduced by:
a. John Krumboltz
b. Joseph Wolpe
c. Albert Bandura
d. Donald Meichenbaum
D - Donald Meichenbaum
According to Freud, _____________________ is the most important defense mechanism. An example of this defense mechanism is when a woman who has been physically abused by her spouse doesn’t remember ever being hurt by him.
a. regression
b. repression
c. reaction formation
d. denial
B - Repression
. A dog that has been trained to stop and stand at attention when she hears a duck call does not stop and stand at attention when she hears a goose call. This is an example of:
a. stimulus generalization
b. higher-order conditioning
c. conditioned response
d. stimulus discrimination
D - Stimulus Discrimination
The disadvantage of closed-ended questions is that the client usually fails to:
a. disclose personal information
b. come up with an answer to the questions
c. continue to dialogue with the counselor
d. Both A and C.
D - Both Disclose personal information AND continue to dialogue with the counselor
Rational-emotive behavior therapy follows a five-step system using ABCDE, where D stands for:
a. the affect
b. the effect
c. the external event
d. disputing the irrational belief
D - Disputing the irrational belief
The goals of this type of therapy include gaining knowledge about the self and recognizing and integrating the self.
a. Adlerian
b. Jungian
c. Existential
d. Freudian
B - Jungian
In order to elicit a conditioned response, the neutral stimulus that will become the conditioned stimulus must _________________ the unconditioned stimulus.
a. follow
b. precede
c. occur at the same time as
d. randomly occur sometime near
B - Precede
In contrast to feeling sorry for the client, the counselor needs to demonstrate ___________ toward the client.
a. empathy
b. sympathy
c. emotionality
d. stability
A - Empathy
In order to facilitate growth in a client, the counselor uses all of the following strategies EXCEPT:
a. confrontation
b. reflection
c. abandonment
d. interpretation
C - Abandonment
A(n) _____________ schedule of reinforcement is the most difficult to extinguish.
a. intermittent
b. consistent
c. systematic
d. ratio
a - Intermittent
The primary distinction between reinforcement and punishment is that reinforcement ___________ the likelihood of the behavior to occur again, while punishment _________________ the likelihood of the behavior to occur again.
a. increases; increases
b. decreases; increases
c. increases; decreases
d. decreases; decreases
C - Increases; Decreases
Negative reinforcement _______________ the behavior by _______________ a reinforcer; positive reinforcement ______________ the behavior by ____________ a reinforcer.
a. increases, taking away; increases, adding
b. increases, adding; increases, taking away
c. decreases, adding; increases, adding
d. decreases, taking away; increases, taking away
a - Increases, taking away; increases, adding
There are long silences, several members of the group are acting out, and it seems like all the group members are expressing frustrations with both the structure of the group and the way the group leader is functioning. Most likely this group is in the ___________ state of the group process.
a. working
b. initial
c. transition
d. closing
C - Transition
From this perspective the group goals are to enable members to pay close attention to their here-and-now experiences so they can recognize and integrate disowned aspects of themselves.
a. Gestalt
b. Psychodynamic
c. Reality
d. Existential
A - Gestalt
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of group counseling?
a. Cost-effectiveness
b. Focus on individual needs
c. Opportunities for feedback
d. Structured practice
B - Focus on individual needs
As a leader of a group, Barb is very structured. She sets and directs all of the group’s goals and activities and hardly ever asks the participants for input. Most likely, Barb has a(n) ________ style of leadership.
a. laissez-faire
b. democratic
c. authoritative
d. authoritarian
D - Authoritarian
What is likely to happen in a group when the leader is authoritarian?
a. Members become dependent on the leader.
b. Members become more motivated to achieve goals.
c. Members lose focus on goals.
d. Members have high morale.
A - Members become dependent on the leader
All of the following are characteristics of an open group EXCEPT:
a. Members can join and leave at any time.
b. The number of sessions is undetermined.
c. There is good cohesion.
d. Group meetings are usually held in a hospital setting
C - There is good cohesion
In contrast to a homogeneous group, a heterogeneous group:
a. is more cohesive and supportive
b. has members with greater awareness of themselves and others
c. has less conflict among participants
d. focuses on one specific problem
B - Has members with greater awareness of themselves and others
All of the following are assumptions of groups EXCEPT:
a. The leader is a member of the group.
b. Trust is a must.
c. Much of the growth in groups occurs through observations, modeling, and social learning.
d. There are often discrepancies among participants’ expectations, hopes, and desires.
A - The leader is a member of the group
During the working stage of the group, the leader’s role is to:
a. establish a trusting climate
b. provide a role model
c. deal with feelings
d. support risks
D - Support Risks
The emphasis for this type of group is on prevention and development of healthy behaviors.
a. Secondary
b. Tertiary
c. Primary
d. Homogeneous
C - Primary
There is a distinction between group content and group process. An example of group process would be:
a. Sarah monopolizes the group by continuously talking and doesn’t allow other participants to contribute to the discussion.
b. Joe says, “I think today’s topic should be what to do on a first date.”
c. Randy rolls his eyes every time Karen says something.
d. both A and C.
D - Both Sarah monopolizes the group by continuously talking and doesn't allow other participants to contribute to the discussion AND Randy rolls his eyes every time karen says something
Greg seems to make light of everything that goes on in the group. If someone is late, for example, he makes a humorous remark about calling for a search party. Greg would be described as the __________ of the group.
a. joker
b. dominator
c. placater
d. scapegoa
A - Joker
A counselor is conducting the initial screening of individuals who may be included in a bereavement group. An appropriate candidate for the group would be one who:
a. has a severe mental illness
b. lacks cognitive and thinking abilities
c. is free from the use of alcohol or other drugs
d. has a history of violence or uncontrolled anger
C- is free from the use of alcohol or other drugs
A group has co-leaders. That is, there are two trained counselors who are facilitating the group together. All of the following are advantages of co-leadership groups EXCEPT:
a. More support and attention are provided to group participants.
b. There is less time spent observing participants.
c. Effective modeling of appropriate behavior is provided to the participants.
d. Participants often view co-leaders as parents.
B - There is less time spent observing participants
The group leader points out defenses, resistances, and transferences as they occur in this type of group.
a. Client-centered group
b. Psychoanalytic group
c. Encounter group
d. Transactional analysis group
B - Psychoanalytic Group
Premature termination of participation in a group usually occurs when an individual is:
a. not very motivated
b. highly intelligent
c. open to experiences
d. empathetic
A - Not Very Motivated
Career-oriented, successful ethnic minority women:
a. face racial but not gender discrimination
b. rarely receive support from other women
c. tend to have mothers who had low expectations for them
d. often display unusually high self-efficacy
D - Often Display Unusually High Self-Efficacy
The group that is most affected by the “glass ceiling phenomenon” consists of:
a. women who are in careers most often populated by men
b. men in middle management
c. blue-collar workers
d. stay-at-home mothers
A - Women who are in careers most often populated by men
Which group of students would be least likely to seek out career counseling?
a. Students in high school or middle school
b. None
c. Students entering college
d. Students who were taking college prep courses in high school
B - None
In dual-career families, the woman typically:
a. starts her family before entering the workforce
b. decides not to have children
c. has an established career before having children
d. None of the above
C - Has an established career before having children
Compared with high school students who enter the workforce right after graduation, students who go to college can expect to:
a. be hired at lower wages
b. earn about $10,000 more per year
c. work longer hours
d. be hired to fill more unskilled positions
B - Earn about $10,000 more per year
Leisure activities are those activities that a professional career counselor:
a. may also refer to as avocations
b. never discusses with clients
c. describes as relaxing and done at work
d. describes as involving going on vacations
A - May also refer to as avocations
Dual-career families engage in leisure time:
a. more often than families with one wage earner
b. that is more costly than that of families with one wage earner
c. less often than families with one wage earner
d. None of the above
C - Less often than families with one wage earner
The role of the professional career counselor involves all of the following EXCEPT:
a. facilitating self-awareness
b. teaching decision-making skills
c. teaching employability skills
d. None of the above
D - none of the above
Career choices as expressions of one’s personality are to ______________ as career choices as influenced by genetic endowment, environmental factors, and previous learning experiences are to _________________.
a. Krumboltz; Holland
b. Holland; Krumboltz
c. Roe; Krumboltz
d. Holland; Roe
B - Holland; Krumboltz
One of the main premises of ____________ theory is that individuals choose occupations that will permit them to use their competencies.
a. Caplow’s
b. Super’s
c. Roe’s
d. Hoppock’
B - Super's
Super describes four stages of career development, beginning in adolescence with the _________ stage, in which a person fantasizes and role-plays in order to clarify the emerging self-concept. In the ____________ stage the self-concept adjusts to fit the stabilized career choice and the person tries out various options.
a. maintenance; establishment
b. establishment; maintenance
c. establishment; exploratory
d. exploratory; establishment
D - Exploratory; establishment
All of the following are assumptions of John Holland’s theory of career choice EXCEPT:
a. Individuals can be categorized into six different personality types.
b. People search for work environments in which their personality types can be expressed without much interference.
c. Environment has very little to do with career choice.
d. The behavior of an individual is determined by the interaction between the environment and the person’s unique personality characteristics
C - Environment has very little to do with career choice
A career counselor who adheres to Holland’s theory of career choice may have his clients take the ______________ to help determine personality types.
a. MMPI
b. KOIS
c. SDS
d. SCII
C - SDS
(Self-Directed Search)
Which of the following are postulates of Hoppock’s theory?
a. Everyone has basic needs, and a person’s reaction to these needs influences occupational choice.
b. People tend to move toward careers that serve their needs.
c. Self-awareness and understanding are the bases upon which a person chooses an occupation.
d. All of the above
D - All of the above
Which pair seems to go together?
a. Roe and Holland
b. Holland and Krumboltz
c. Roe and Hoppock
d. Roe and Krumboltz
C - Roe and Hoppock
According to Roe, career choice is influenced by:
a. genetics
b. parent–child interactions
c. unconscious motivators
d. all of the above
D - all of the above
. Gender bias would be aroused by which of the following?
a. A man who is studying to be a nurse
b. A woman who is studying to be a nurse
c. A woman who drives a semi truck
d. Both A and C.
D - both A and C
You are a career counselor who is interested in keeping up with trends in the job market so that you can better assist your clients. One of the best ways to keep up with the trends in the job market is to consult the:
a. OOH
b. DOT
c. Wall Street Journal
d. SOC
A - OOH
A 42-year-old woman returns to her career as an HR manager after her children start to attend school all day. This is an example of:
a. a reentry woman
b. a displaced homemaker
c. gender bias
d. wage discrimination
A - A reentry Woman
A receptionist at a dental office is not allowed to sing or hum at the office, but when she gets home, she turns on the radio and sings her favorite songs as loudly as she can. This is an example of:
a. the contrast effect
b. spillover
c. the compensatory effect
d. the recency effec
C - the compensatory effect
The 20th percentile represents:
a. the score at or below which 80% of the scores in the distribution fall
b. that the examinee correctly answered 80% of the questions on the test
c. the score at or below which 20% of the scores in the distribution fall
d. that the examinee correctly answered 20% of the questions on the test
C - the score at or below which 20% of the scores in the distribution fall
A test is considered “standardized” if it includes:
a. clearly specified procedures for administration
b. clearly specified procedures for scoring
c. normative data
d. all of the above
D - All of the above
Which of the following sources of information about tests would probably provide the best information about sources and trends in testing and assessment?
a. Test critiques
b. Journal articles
c. Test manuals
d. All of the above
D - all of the above
Which of the following best describes norms?
a. They give meaning to a behavior sample.
b. They provide a parallel form for comparison.
c. They indicate whether a test is reliable.
d. They tell whether a distribution of scores is normally distributed.
A - they give meaning to a behavior sample
Which of the following best describes a “good” test?
a. It is reliable.
b. It has norms.
c. It is valid.
d. All of the above
D - all of the above
If college graduates typically earn more money than high school graduates, this would indicate that level of education and income are:
a. causally related
b. positively correlated
c. negatively correlated
d. unrelated
B - Positively Correlated
A researcher who observes a strong negative correlation between income and mental illness would conclude that:
a. being poor causes mental illness
b. having wealth makes one resistant to mental illness
c. those with lower incomes tend to suffer from higher rates of mental illness and those with higher incomes tend to suffer from lower rates of mental illness
d. lower income levels lead to lower levels of mental illness
C - Those with lower incomes tend to suffer from higher rates of mental illness and those with higher incomes tend to suffer from lower rates of mental illness
A test producing the same results from one time to another is to a test measuring what it is supposed to as _______ is to ________.
a. validity; reliability
b. reliability; validity
c. reliability; standardization
d. standardization; reliability
B - Reliability, Validity
Which of the following are measures of central tendency?
a. Standard error of measurement and standard deviation
b. Median and mode
c. Range and variance
d. Stanine and percentil
B - Median and Mode
Which of the following pairs correctly describes forms of reliability?
a. Equivalence and internal consistency
b. Stability and concurrent
c. Internal consistency and construct
d. Concurrent and construct
A - Equivalence and Internal Consistency
Which of the following is TRUE of testing people with disabilities?
a. Test scores administered under standardized and modified conditions are typically equivalent.
b. General agreement exists on how tests should be modified for people with disabilities.
c. There exists a need for a growing body of research related to the equivalency between tests administered under standardized and under modified conditions.
d. Both B and C.
D - Both B and C
Multiple-choice items like those found on the NCE tap skills primarily of:
a. organization
b. planning
c. recognition
d. recall
C - Recognition
An intelligence quotient (IQ) is based on:
a. chronological age/mental age × 100
b. chronological age/mental age + 100
c. mental age/chronological age + 100
d. mental age/chronological age × 100
D - Mental age/Chronological age x 100
Which of the following is NOT an intelligence test?
a. WISC-IV
b. WAIS-III
c. MMPI-II
d. WPPSI-III
C - the MMPI-II
MMPI-A and CPI are to _________________ as Rorschach and TAT are to __________________.
a. interest inventories; subjective tests
b. objective tests; interest inventories
c. objective tests; standardized tests
d. objective tests; subjective tests
D - objective tests, subjective tests
The Rorschach, TAT, and Rotters Incomplete Sentences are all:
a. projective tests
b. observational tests
c. rating scales
d. standardized personality tests
A - projective tests
One of the major criticisms of projective tests is that they:
a. have too many questions
b. are too subjective
c. are too structured
d. take too much time to administer
B - are too subjective
A counselor may decide to administer a number of personality tests in order to:
a. better understand the client
b. predict future performance
c. evaluate the outcomes of counseling
d. All of the above
D - all of the above
The key difference between ipsative scales and normative scales is that ipsative scales:
a. allow the counselor to make comparisons among individuals
b. provide information about an individual client
c. include achievement and aptitude tests
d. have been standardized and normed
B - provide information about an individual client
Which of the following is the best approach to minimizing or eliminating test bias?
a. Creating separate norm groups for different groups against whom the test is thought to be biased
b. Having a panel of experts review the test items before standardizing the test
c. Pre-screening examiners to be used in the standardization process for any possible prejudicial feelings
d. Screening test items for possible bias
A -Creating Seperate Norm Groups for different groups against whom the test is thought to be biased
. Jennifer, a Brandon High School graduating senior, took the Geneva Advanced Placement test in mathematics and earned 177 points out of a total of 200 points. This score means that Jennifer did as well or better than:
a. 86% of the entering freshman at Coolridge Community College
b. 73% of college students majoring in mathematics
c.89% of the graduating seniors at Glenbrook High School
d. 77% of the mathematics team members from Highland High School
C - 89% of the graduating seniors at Glenbrook high School
Terry’s average score per basketball game is 27 points. This places him sixth among all the forwards in the Midwest basketball league. The level of measurement described in this example is:
a. ordinal
b. ratio
c. interval
d. nominal
A - Ordinal
A researcher reports a correlation coefficient of –.43 between the amount of television viewing by children and the number of times these children are on the honor roll at school. This means:
a. Too much television viewing causes students’ grades to be low.
b. There is a moderately negative relationship between how much television a child watches and how often her or his grades are high enough to earn a position on the honor roll.
c. There is very little relationship between how much television a child watches and how often her or his grades are high enough to earn a position on the honor roll.
d. The more television a child watches, the more often the child’s grades are high enough to earn a position on the honor roll.
B - There is a moderately negative relationship between how much television a child watches and how often her or his grades are high enough to earn a position on the honor roll.
A counselor wants to make sure that the test she is using provides the same scores for people when they retake the test a month later. What should the counselor look for when reviewing the test manual?
a. Alternate or parallel-forms reliability
b. Split-half reliability
c. Scorer reliability
d. Test-retest reliability
D - Test-Retest Reliability
When applying to graduate school, the admissions committee compares the candidate’s scores on the GRE with the candidate’s grade point average reported on the college transcripts. This is an example of:
a. construct validity
b. content validity
c. criterion-related validity
d. concurrent validity
C - Criterion-Related Validity
Only _________ permits a researcher to identify cause and effect.
a. a correlational study
b. an experiment
c. a survey
d. naturalistic observation
B - An Experiment
122. A hypothesis is
a. a defense mechanism
b. a testable prediction
c. a conclusion based on data
d. none of the above
B - a testable prediction
An experiment in which neither the subjects nor the individuals running the study know which subjects are in the control group and which are in the experimental group until after the results are tallied is called a _______________ study.
a. single-blind
b. placebo
c. double-blind
d. confounded
C - Double-Blind
A researcher wants to conduct a study looking at the effects of systematic
desensitization on agoraphobia. In this case, the independent variable is _________________ and the dependent variable is ____________________.
a. agoraphobia; systematic desensitization
b. systematic desensitization; agoraphobia
c. systematic desensitization; group effects
d. None of the above
B - Systematic Desensitization; agoraphobia
A researcher reports that p < .05 in his study. This means:
a. There is a less than 5% probability that the results obtained are in error.
b. There is a greater than 95% chance that the results obtained are accurate.
c. There is a less than 5% probability that the results are accurate.
d. There is a greater than 95% chance that the results obtained are in error.
B - There is a greater than 95% chance that the results obtained are accurate
If a researcher wants to rule out any chances of error, a statistical level of significance needed would be:
a. p < .05
b. p < .01
c. p < .001
d. p < .10
C - p < .001
A Type I error is to __________________ as a Type II error is to _____________________.
a. accepting the null hypothesis when it is false; rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true.
b. accepting the null hypothesis when it is true; rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true.
c. rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true; accepting the null hypothesis when it is true.
d. rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true; accepting the null hypothesis when it is false.
D - rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true; accepting the null hypothesis when it is false.
One way to reduce Type I and Type II errors is to:
a. increase sample size
b. decrease sample size
c. increase the level of significance
d. decrease the level of significance
A - Increase the sample size
If a researcher who found a negative correlation between the amount of TV viewing done by children and academic performance were to graph her results, she would use a:
a. normal bell curve
b. positively skewed curve
c. scatterplot
d. negatively skewed curv
C - Scatterplot
A t-score has a mean of ____________ and a standard deviation of _____________.
a. 100; 15
b. 10; 2
c. 50; 15
d. 50; 10
d - 50; 10
A person received a t-score of 40. This means:
a. Her score fell one standard deviation below the mean.
b. Her score is very low.
c. There is an error because you can’t get a t-score of 40.
d. Her score is higher than average.
A - Her sore fell one SD below the mean
. A confounded study is one in which:
a. there is a wide range of scores
b. there is a random sample
c. there are undesirable variables as part of the experiment
d. undesirable variables are eliminated
c. there are undesirable variables as part of the experiment
133. Behavior changing as a result of just being part of an experiment is to the
_____________________ as believing that someone with an extensive vocabulary is better at communicating is to the ________________________.
a. halo effect; Rosenthal effect
b. Hawthorne effect; Rosenthal effect
c. Hawthorne effect; halo effect
d. placebo effect; Rosenthal effect
C - Hawthorne effect; halo effect
The best kind of random sampling technique that would include 10% Asian, 10%
Hispanic, and 15% African American, as well as individuals from the majority ethnic group, would be a:
a. mixed randomized sampling technique
b. stratified sampling technique
c. cluster sampling technique
d. random chance sampling technique
B - stratified sampling technique
In experimental research, the researcher states a null hypothesis. A null hypothesis states that:
a. there will be differences found between the experimental and control groups
b. the differences between the experimental and control groups are due to chance
c. there will be no differences between the experimental and control groups
d. Both A and C.
D - Both A and C
An independent variable is the one the experimenter __________________, while the dependent variable is the one the experimenter ________________.
a. manipulates; looks at for outcomes
b. looks at for outcomes; manipulates
c. leaves unattended; changes
d. changes; leaves unattended
A - manipulates; looks at for outcomes
A researcher looks at one subject across time and takes numerous measurements throughout the process. This is known as a(n) _______________.
a. AB design
b. ABAB design
c. time-series or continuous measurement design
d. correlational design
C - time-series or continuous measurement design
A researcher conducts a study in which she looks at the effects of using Nicorette gum on smoking cessation. Most likely, her statistical analysis will include:
a. Pearson’s r
b. a t-test
c. an ANOVA
d. a chi-square
B -a t-test
Ethical dilemmas often center on issues related to:
a. dual relationships
b. confidentiality
c. credentials of test administrators
d. licensure
B - Confidentiality
The difference between confidentiality and privileged communication is:
a. “Privileged communication” is a legal term and confidentiality is an ethical concept.
b. “Confidentiality” is a legal term and privileged communication is an ethical concept.
c. Privileged communication is enforced only when a client asks something to be privileged.
d. Confidentiality is enforced only when a client asks that something be kept confidential.
a. “Privileged communication” is a legal term and confidentiality is an ethical concept.
. A malpractice claim can be lodged against a counselor when:
a. the counselor was negligent
b. the client suffered physical or psychological injury
c. a professional relationship was established
d. All of the above
d - all of the above
A counselor wants to discuss the treatment of a particular client with the client’s physician. Ethically, the counselor should:
a. call the physician on the telephone
b. send a letter of introduction to the physician
c. have the client sign a release-of-information consent form prior to any contact with the physician
d. have the client talk to her/his physician
c. have the client sign a release-of-information consent form prior to any contact with the physician
You are the counselor who is taking the on-call services for the evening. An individual calls asking you if her boyfriend is seeing a counselor at your clinic. Your best course of action is to:
a. get the phone number of the individual and call her back with the information
b. not acknowledge anything
c. suggest that she ask her boyfriend herself
d. provide her with the information she is asking for
b. not acknowledge anything
You are a counselor who will be seeing a 15-year-old girl who has problems with anxiety. At the initial session, you have her guardian complete the intake questionnaire and sign a permission form giving you permission to treat the girl. You also:
a. get all the financial information so that the insurance company can be billed
b. discuss the limits of confidentiality with both the guardian and the teenager
c. have the adolescent sign the consent form as well
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
The Code of Ethics is:
a. legal and binding
b. a hard and fast set of rules
c. a set of standards of best practice
d. All of the above
C - all of the above
Which describes a violation of the “scope of practice” ethical standard?
a. A counselor suggests a set of positive affirmations to her client after the counselor has discussed positive affirmations at length in session.
b. A counselor uses EMDR with a client who insisted on this method of treatment.
c. A counselor confronts her client about the negative thought patterns in which the client is engaging on a regular basis.
d. A counselor seeks consultation from a colleague on a difficult case.
b. A counselor uses EMDR with a client who insisted on this method of treatment.
Tarasoff vs. Board of Regents of the University of California was a landmark case which brought to light the:
a. duty of the counselor to warn individuals or groups about the potential of imminent danger
b. standard of practice of obtaining releases of information in order to share information with individuals or agencies
c. rights a client has as an individual with disabilities
d. potential harm an impaired professional may inflict on his clients
a. duty of the counselor to warn individuals or groups about the potential of imminent danger
A client jokingly talks about killing himself during a counseling session. The counselor should assess:
a. whether the client has a plan of suicide
b. whether the client has the means to complete suicide
c. whether the client has a morbid sense of humor
d. Both A and B.
d. Both A and B.
The APA is a national organization for psychologists. The _____________ is a national organization for counselors.
a. APGA
b. NCE
c. ACA
d. NAS
c. ACA
A 52-year-old counselor comes to work inebriated at least twice a week. He would be described as:
a. an alcoholic
b. an impaired professional
c. a burn-out
d. a workaholic
b. an impaired professional
If A 52-year-old counselor comes to work inebriated at least twice a week, your ethical obligation as a colleague is to:
a. confront him about his drinking problem and his impaired functioning
b. report him to the police
c. do nothing
d. cover up for him by seeing his clients as well as yours
a. confront him about his drinking problem and his impaired functioning
A man comes to you with a sexual dysfunction. You have very little experience in treating sexual dysfunctions. According to the ethical code, you should:
a. do extra study on the topic as you continue to work with this man
b. refer him to someone who has experience and training in the area of sexual dysfunctions
c. tell him to use some herbal supplement to improve impotence
d. ignore this problem and treat the man for depression
b. refer him to someone who has experience and training in the area of sexual dysfunctions
An 18-year-old student wants to view his educational records. Your course of action is:
a. Get parent permission before disclosing this information.
b. Talk him out of it.
c. Give him access to these records, as the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act affords him this right as an adult student.
d. Ignore his request
c. Give him access to these records, as the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act affords him this right as an adult student.
Your uncle asks you to counsel his daughter who is suffering from depression. This is:
a. ethical
b. not an ethical issue at all
c. fine, as long as you let your uncle know what is going on in treatment
d. considered a dual relationship and is considered unethical
d. considered a dual relationship and is considered unethical
You saw a client for a year and then terminated the treatment, as all goals were met. Six months later you call this client and ask her for a date. This is:
a. okay, since you terminated the counseling relationship six months ago
b. okay, since all treatment goals were met and none of them had to do with intimacy
c. unethical
d. not unethical but unacceptable
c. unethical
You have written a book and an accompanying workbook on managing panic. You require each of your clients who is being seen for a panic disorder to purchase your materials. This is:
a. ethical, since these are treatment materials
b. not unethical but unacceptable
c. financially feasible for your clients
d. unethical
d. unethical
You have written an article that you want to submit to a professional journal. This article needs to be in:
a. MLA format
b. APA format
c. either MLA or APA format
d. none of the above
b. APA format
A client wants to enter into treatment with you but does not have insurance. He reports that he can afford to pay you only $25 per session. Your usual fee is $100. In this case, you would:
a. refuse to see him unless he can pay your usual fee
b. charge him your usual fee and have him make installment payments
c. consider his financial situation and negotiate a reduced fee if this is warranted
d. make a referral to someone else
c. consider his financial situation and negotiate a reduced fee if this is warranted
You are starting an eating disorders group. Ethically, you should _____________ all possible candidates to make sure they are suitable for the group.
a. screen
b. diagnose
c. allow a sample session for
d. None of the above
a. screen
A counselor who works for a county agency also has a small private practice. She screens all clients at the county agency and refers those clients with the best insurance benefits to her private practice. This counselor is:
a. following standard procedure for many public agencies
b. acting unethically
c. engaging in a dual relationship
d. practicing beyond her scope of practice
b. acting unethically
Under the ethical principles of informed consent, a counselor must inform each client of :
a. the limits of confidentiality
b. her credentials
c. issues related to third-party billing and missed appointments
d. Both A and C.
d. Both A and C.
A counselor who has not finished his dissertation has business cards that say “Dr. Dennis Browning, Professional Counselor.” He is:
a. acting professionally and ethically
b. advertising himself appropriately, since he gives himself the title of Professional Counselor.
c. acting unethically by misrepresenting himself as having a doctoral degree when in fact he does not
d. not really acting unethically, since he does say he is a professional counselor.
c. acting unethically by misrepresenting himself as having a doctoral degree when in fact he does not
A counselor who has a current caseload of 124 clients decides to close his practice and move to Florida. If the counselor is an ethical professional, he would:
a. notify all his clients in writing of his plans
b. make referrals to other professionals for all of his clients
c. safeguard all client records
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
The DSM uses a multiaxial system with five axes. Axis III denotes:
a. the primary diagnosis
b. the secondary diagnosis
c. any physical health related issues
d. the global functioning level
c. any physical health related issues
A “V” code in the DSM is the:
a. clinical syndrome
b. focus of treatment that is not attributable to a specific mental condition
c. code used when personality disorders are present
d. global assessment of functio
b. focus of treatment that is not attributable to a specific mental condition
Which name is associated with mental health consultation?
a. Caplan
b. Satir
c. Adler
d. Holland
a. Caplan
A female client who was successfully treated for an eating disorder tells other women about her success and recommends you as the expert in treating eating disorders. You treat eating disorders as part of your practice but would not consider yourself an expert. Ethically, you should:
a. inform your client and anyone she has referred to you that you are not an expert in treating eating disorders
b. post your client’s success story on your website
c. accept any referrals without any further explanations
d. ask her for a testimonial
a. inform your client and anyone she has referred to you that you are not an expert in treating eating disorders
Cases of ____________ lead to the most malpractice lawsuits for any mental health provider, including counselors and psychologists.
a. dual relationships
b. failure of duty to warn
c. sexual misconduct
d. breach of confidentialit
c. sexual misconduct
The Education Act for All Handicapped Children (PL 94-142) requires that:
a. all children who are handicapped be seen by a counselor who specializes in disabilities
b. a free and appropriate education be provided for all children with disabilities
c. children with handicaps be placed in the most restrictive environment in the schools
d. children with handicaps be sent to special schools or institutions
b. a free and appropriate education be provided for all children with disabilities
You receive a referral from a family physician who attends your church. As a thank you, ethically you should:
a. pay her for the referral
b. send her a thank you letter
c. have the physician tell everyone in your church to seek your services if they need mental health counseling
d. treat her to lunch on a monthly basis
b. send her a thank you letter
The DSM system of diagnosis is based on:
a. a model set up by insurance companies
b. an educational model
c. the medical model
d. an integrated model of doctors and lawyers
c. the medical model
Which of the following is FALSE regarding family therapy?
a. Family therapists believe that people's problems develop in the context of their families.
b. Family members usually are aware of how they influence one another.
c. Each family member is seen as forming part of a larger, interacting system.
d. When one family member changes, each of the others must change as well.
b. Family members usually are aware of how they influence one another.
The resolution of conflicts and breaking out of destructive habits are the primary goals of:
a. family therapy
b. existential therapy
c. psychodynamic therapy
d. couples therapy
d. couples therapy
Mary goes to the emergency room for the seventh time in six months complaining of difficulty breathing and chest pain that came on suddenly. She thinks she is having a heart attack and is afraid she is dying, but the doctor cannot find anything wrong. Her symptoms suggest she might be suffering from ____________.
a. panic disorder
b. a somatoform disorder
c. PTSD
d. hypochondria
a. panic disorder
Active symptoms of schizophrenia involve an ________ of normal thinking processes; passive symptoms involve the _______ of normal traits and abilities.
a. exaggeration; exaggeration
b. exaggeration; absence
c. absence; exaggeration
d. absence; absence
b. exaggeration; absence
As with many other systems, families aim to remain stable and reach equilibrium. This is known as:
a. egalitarianism
b. homeostasis
c. equivalency
d. predictive stability
b. homeostasis
One of the goals of family therapy is to help facilitate adaptability. Adaptability from a family therapy perspective means:
a. obtaining a balance between stability and change
b. reaching consensus
c. obtaining a state of enmeshment
d. reaching the status quo
a. obtaining a balance between stability and change
A family of four comes in to see you. As the session begins, the two children and the mother seem to gang up on the father and try to pull you into this. Most likely this family is:
a. triangulated
b. enmeshed
c. out of balance
d. adversarial
a. triangulated
During the past several sessions, a heated discussion has occurred between the father and the mother. The gist of the argument stems from the mother’s constant attention being focused on the daughter. This is an example of:
a. negative attention seeking
b. disequilibrium
c. enmeshment
d. triangulation
c. enmeshment
A child who throws food at the dinner table is removed from the dining area and told to sit on the stairs for five minutes. This discipline technique is known as:
a. coercion
b. the Premack principle
c. shaping
d. time-out
d. time-out
A behaviorist family counselor instructs the parents of a 12-year-old boy to tell their son that when he gets his homework done he can play his Xbox. This is an example of:
a. positive reinforcement
b. the Premack principle
c. quid pro quo
d. negative reinforcement
b. the Premack principle
One of the differences between individual therapy and family therapy is that family therapists believe in:
a. family members acting independently of each other
b. problems as involving one person
c. a circular model of causality
d. a linear model of causality
c. a circular model of causality
Family systems theory is to _____________ as structural family theory is to
__________________.
a. Bowen; Satir
b. Bowen; Minuchin
c. Minuchin; Satir
d. Minuchin; Bowen
b. Bowen; Minuchin
A marriage and family counselor treating a 10-year-old daughter and her mother tells the daughter that if she loads the dishwasher on Mondays, Wednesdays, and Fridays, then she and her mother will go shopping at the mall on Saturday. The counselor then has the mother and the daughter sign a contract to that effect. This is an example of:
a. the Premack principle
b. negative reinforcement
c. shaping through successive approximations
d. quid pro quo
d. quid pro quo
Satir is associated with:
a. integrated family therapy
b. conjoint family therapy
c. family systems therapy
d. strategic family therapy
b. conjoint family therapy
All of the following are goals of Whitaker’s symbolic family therapy EXCEPT:
a. boundary setting
b. developing family nationalism
c. maximizing languaging
d. separating and rejoining
c. maximizing languaging
Compared with other counselors, family counselors tend to be more:
a. rigid and inflexible
b. nondirective and unstructured
c. interested in maintaining their distance
d. active, flexible, and structured
d. active, flexible, and structured
Haley assumes that:
a. the client’s symptoms are serving a protective function
b. the power hierarchy of the family is confused
c. the real problem is the family communication pattern
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
A couple comes in to see a counselor who specializes in sex counseling. Before the counselor agrees to treat the couple for sex counseling, she refers the couple for:
a. a physical examination and medical history consultation by a medical practitioner
b. a clinical assessment and interview
c. sensate focus exercises
d. an exploration of the marital relationship
a. a physical examination and medical history consultation by a medical practitioner
The main purpose of sensate focus exercises is to:
a. have the couple focus on communication patterns
b. eliminate performance anxiety related to sexual functioning
c. teach deep breathing and relaxation
d. allow the couple to experiment with sexual positions
b. eliminate performance anxiety related to sexual functioning
When working with blended families, a marriage and family counselor educates family members about the new dynamics within the family structure. More specifically, the counselor discusses:
a. how adults and children come into the blended family with expectations from their previous families
b. how parent–child relationships rarely change
c. how a blended family begins after many losses and changes
d. both A and C.
d. both A and C.
As founder of many child development centers, ______________ could be attributed with being one of the first family counselors.
a. Satir
b. Ackerman
c. Adler
d. Rogers
c. Adler
Adlerian family therapy involves all of the following EXCEPT:
a. overcoming feelings of inferiority
b. promoting social interest
c. pinpointing irrational beliefs
d. investigating goals of behavior
c. pinpointing irrational beliefs
According to conjoint family therapy, it is important to look at patterns of communication and meta-communication. Meta-communication can be defined as those aspects of communication:
a. involving how something is said, not what is said
b. involving what is said
c. that are hidden
d. that are direct and open
a. involving how something is said, not what is said
In family therapy, the terms “enmeshed” and “disengaged” are most closely associated with:
a. Adler
b. Minuchin
c. Ackerman
d. Hale
b. Minuchin
A 10-year-old boy refuses to eat at the dinner table with the rest of the family and often stays home when the family goes to the zoo or a museum. According to Minuchin, this youngster is _____________ the family.
a. disengaged from
b. enmeshed in
c. the placater in
d. triangulated in
a. disengaged from
The role of the therapist in strategic family therapy is to:
a. find the myth that keeps a behavior going
b. understand levels of communication
c. focus on levels of organization
d. All of the above
b. understand levels of communication
One of the more common techniques used by marriage and family therapists is
reframing. Which of the following is an example of reframing?
a. A counselor listens intently to the family’s discussion of an event and points out what happened at point A, point B, and point C.
b. A counselor has the members of a family each take turns talking about how they felt about a specific incident.
c. A counselor suggests that a mother’s constant questioning of the daughter regarding a recent party the daughter attended could be interpreted by the daughter as mistrust rather than love and concern.
d. A counselor outlines exactly how individuals in the family are to argue by setting up fairfighting rules.
c. A counselor suggests that a mother’s constant questioning of the daughter regarding a recent party the daughter attended could be interpreted by the daughter as mistrust rather than love and concern.
One family structure that is on the rise in the United States is the:
a. blended family
b. multigenerational family
c. single-parent family
d. homosexual family
b. multigenerational family
True variance or the coefficient of determination is obtained by:
a. subtracting the correlation coefficient from 1.00
b. adding the correlation coefficient to 1.00
c. squaring the correlation coefficient
d. none of the above
c. squaring the correlation coefficient
We can attribute to _______________ the ecological systems theory of development.
a. Adler
b. Bronfenbrenner
c. Chomsky
d. Piage
b. Bronfenbrenner
Which of the following statements most closely reflects the ecological systems theory
of development?
a. It takes an entire nation to raise a child.
b. It takes a closely knit family to raise a child.
c. It takes an interconnected network of families to raise just one child.
d. It takes a strongly devoted neighborhood to raise a child.
a. It takes an entire nation to raise a child.
Using a normal bell curve, where would individuals with average ability fall?
a. Between the 5th and 90th percentiles
b. Between the 40th and 60th percentiles
c. Between the 3rd and 6th stanines
d. Between the 16th and 84th percentiles
d. Between the 16th and 84th percentiles
A researcher is interested in analyzing the results of 20 studies on the effects of social skills training on playground behavior of elementary school–age children. The best way to analyze all of these studies together is to perform:
a. a meta-analysis
b. Tukey’s t-test
c. an analysis of covariance
d. Spearman’s rho
a. a meta-analysis
You are a licensed counselor in private practice. In order to get reimbursed by insurance companies, you will need your:
a. NPI number
b. license number
c. transcripts of your graduate work on file
d. diploma from your graduate program
a. NPI number