Sa Ppl Air Law

Front 1

How soon must the application form following a skills test best be submitted to CAA?

Choose the correct answer:

30 days
60 days
90 days

Back 1

30 days X
60 days
90 days

Front 2

If you deviate from any law in another state and that state requests a report, how soon must you submit that report to the commissioner as well?

Choose the correct answer:

At the same time as when the other state wants the report
5 days from the request
10 days from the request

Back 2

At the same time as when the other state wants the report
5 days from the request
10 days from the request X

Hint 2

Explanation: Part 91.02.6(3) states:
If the appropriate authority of the State within or over the territory of which the deviation occurs, requests the pilot-in-command to submit a report on such deviation, the pilot-in-command shall submit the report
(b) within 10 days from the date on which such report is requested by such appropriate authority, to the Commissioner.

Front 3

How long after your last dual flight do you have to take the PPL skills test?

Choose the correct answer:

30 days
60 days
90 days

Back 3

30 days X
60 days
90 days

Hint 3

Explanation: 61.03.4 (1) states:
(1) The applicant must undergo the skills test for a Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) referred to in paragraph (g) of sub-regulation 61.03.1(1) within 30 days of the last period of dual instruction.

Front 4

Aircraft require a logbook for each:

Choose the correct answer:

Aircraft, Propeller and Engine
Aircraft and Engine
Engine and Propeller

Back 4

Aircraft, Propeller and Engine X
Aircraft and Engine
Engine and Propeller

Hint 4

Explanation: 91.03.9 (1) states:
The following logbooks shall be kept in respect of South African registered aircraft and in respect of other specified equipment for the purpose of recording therein the maintenance history of the equipment to which each relates:
(a) an aircraft logbook for each aircraft;
(b) an engine logbook for each aircraft engine;
(c) a propeller logbook for each propeller;

Front 5

Flight visibility means the visibility....

Choose the correct answer:

Forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.
Slant from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.
Down from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.

Back 5

Forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight. X
Slant from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.
Down from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.

Front 6

Except in an emergency or unless granted special permission by Commissioner, no article shall be dropped from an aircraft in flight other than...

Choose the correct answer:

fine sand or clean water used as ballast
chemical substances for the purpose of spraying or dusting
Both of the above are correct.

Back 6

fine sand or clean water used as ballast
chemical substances for the purpose of spraying or dusting
Both of the above are correct. X

Hint 6

Correct Answer: Both of the above are correct.
Explanation: Part 91.06.2 states:
Except in an emergency or unless granted special permission by the Commissioner, no article shall be dropped from an aircraft in flight other than

(a)fine sand or clean water used as ballast;
(b)chemical substances for the purpose of spraying or dusting

Front 7

If the skills test or revalidation check is taken one month before it's date of expiry, when will the new expiry date be calculated from?

Choose the correct answer:

The day the skills test or revalidation check is done.
The last day of the month the skills test or revalidation check is done.
The day the skills test or revalidation check is supposed to expire.

Back 7

The day the skills test or revalidation check is done.
The last day of the month the skills test or revalidation check is done.
The day the skills test or revalidation check is supposed to expire. X

Front 8

Except when necessary for TO or LDG, or except with prior written approval of the Commissioner, no aircraft shall circle over or do repeated overflights over an open-air assembly of persons at a height of less than...

Choose the correct answer:

1 500 feet above the surface.
3 000 feet above the surface.
5 000 feet above the surface.

Back 8

1 500 feet above the surface.
3 000 feet above the surface. X
5 000 feet above the surface.

Front 9

No pilot shall operate an aircraft in formation flight....

Choose the correct answer:

Unless permission from the commissioner is granted
except by arrangement with the pilot-in-command of each aircraft in the formation
At any time

Back 9

Unless permission from the commissioner is granted
except by arrangement with the pilot-in-command of each aircraft in the formation X
At any time

Front 10

In order to obtain a class rating for a single-pilot ME aeroplane, you need at least ....

Choose the correct answer:

50 hours PIC
70 hours PIC
100 hours PIC

Back 10

50 hours PIC
70 hours PIC X
100 hours PIC

Front 11

VFR-minimum visibility > 1500ft above surface up to and including FL 100?

Choose the correct answer:

1.5km
5km
8km

Back 11

1.5km
5km X
8km

Front 12

Asolid green light shown to an aircraft in the air means...

Choose the correct answer:

Clear for approach
Clear for landing
Return for landing

Back 12

Clear for approach
Clear for landing X
Return for landing

Front 13

No aircraft may be operated without a ....

Choose the correct answer:

First Aid Kit
First Aid Kit - If there are more than 5 people on board
First Aid Kit - If the MTOW is greater than 5700kg.

Back 13

First Aid Kit X
First Aid Kit - If there are more than 5 people on board
First Aid Kit - If the MTOW is greater than 5700kg.

Front 14

When 2 taxiing aircraft are approaching head-on or nearly head on, what must they each do?

Choose the correct answer:

Stop
Turn to the left
Turn to the right

Back 14

Stop
Turn to the left
Turn to the right X

Front 15

What are class B aeroplanes?

Choose the correct answer:

Single-engine aeroplanes
Aeroplanes powered by two or more reciprocating engines with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700 kilograms
propeller-driven aeroplanes with a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kilograms or less

Back 15

Single-engine aeroplanes
Aeroplanes powered by two or more reciprocating engines with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700 kilograms
propeller-driven aeroplanes with a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kilograms or less X

Hint 15

Correct Answer: propeller-driven aeroplanes with a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kilograms or less
Explanation: Part 91.09.4 states
For performance purposes, aeroplanes are classified as follows:
(b) Class B aeroplanes: propeller-driven aeroplanes with a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kilograms or less;
(c) Class C aeroplanes: aeroplanes powered by 2 or more reciprocating engines with a max. certificated mass exceeding 5700kg

Front 16

How high may an unpressurised aircraft that isn't fitted with supplemental Oxy fly?

Choose the correct answer:

Not above 10 000ft
Not above 12 000ft for more than 2 hours flight time and not above 10 000ft
Not above 10 000ft for more than 2 hours flight time and not above 12 000ft

Back 16

Not above 10 000ft
Not above 12 000ft for more than 2 hours flight time and not above 10 000ft
Not above 10 000ft for more than 2 hours flight time and not above 12 000ft X

Front 17

How many of the dual training hours requ. for the first issue of a single pilot ME type rating may be acquired in a SIM?

Choose the correct answer:

3 hours
4 hours
5 hours

Back 17

3 hours X
4 hours
5 hours

Front 18

Training for your first single pilot ME type rating requires at least?

Choose the correct answer:

5 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction
7 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction
9 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction

Back 18

5 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction
7 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction X
9 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction

Hint 18

Correct Answer: 7 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction
Explanation: Part 61.13.2(2) states:
In the case of training for a single-pilot multi-engine class rating, or the applicant's first single-pilot multi-engine type rating, the training must consist of at least
(a) 7 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction in multi-engine aeroplane operation

Front 19

When 2 aircraft are converging at approx. the same level, which aircraft will give way?

Choose the correct answer:

The one with the other on its left
The one with the other on its right
They will both give way

Back 19

The one with the other on its left
The one with the other on its right X
They will both give way

Front 20

May you leave the cockpit in flight with a single pilot aircraft?

Choose the correct answer:

Yes
Yes - Only with an autopilot
No

Back 20

Yes
Yes - Only with an autopilot
No X

Front 21

How long do you have to pass all the PPL theory exams?

Choose the correct answer:

6 months
12 months
24 months

Back 21

6 months
12 months X
24 months

Hint 21

Explanation: Part 61.03.3 states:
The applicant must pass all the theoretical examinations for a Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) referred to in paragraph (f) of sub-regulation 61.03.1(1) within a period of 12 months and have passed the last theoretical knowledge examination within six months preceding the skills test for a Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane).

Front 22

An applicant for a PPL must have at least.....

Choose the correct answer:

20 hours dual instruction
25 hours dual instruction
30 hours dual instruction

Back 22

20 hours dual instruction
25 hours dual instruction X
30 hours dual instruction

Front 23

What is the minimum Medical Class to apply for a Student Pilot Licence?

Choose the correct answer:

Class 1
Class 2
Class 3

Back 23

Class 1
Class 2 X
Class 3

Front 24

If you are flying below ________ you don't need to comply with the semicircular rule:

Choose the correct answer:

500ft agl
1 000ft agl
1 500ft agl

Back 24

500ft agl
1 000ft agl
1 500ft agl X

Front 25

VFR minimum cloud distance within a CTR?

Choose the correct answer:

Horizontally: 2 000 feet, Vertically: 500 feet
Horizontally: 500 feet, Vertically: 2 000 feet
Horizontally: 200 feet, Vertically: 5 000 feet

Back 25

Horizontally: 2 000 feet, Vertically: 500 feet X
Horizontally: 500 feet, Vertically: 2 000 feet
Horizontally: 200 feet, Vertically: 5 000 feet

Front 26

For Type Rating for a MPA (Multi Pilot Aeroplane) you need at least...

Choose the correct answer:

50 hours PIC
70 hours PIC
100 hours PIC

Back 26

50 hours PIC
70 hours PIC
100 hours PIC X

Hint 26

Explanation: Part 61.13.1(9) states:
An applicant for a type rating in respect of a multi-pilot aeroplane must have
(a) at least 100 hours experience as pilot-in-command of aeroplanes

Front 27

You may not fly if the alcohol content in your blood is more than ....

Choose the correct answer:

0,01 gram per 100 millilitres blood
0,02 gram per 100 millilitres blood
0,05 gram per 100 millilitres blood

Back 27

0,01 gram per 100 millilitres blood
0,02 gram per 100 millilitres blood X
0,05 gram per 100 millilitres blood

Front 28

How old must you be to apply for a PPL?

Choose the correct answer:

16 years
17 years
18 years

Back 28

16 years
17 years X
18 years

Hint 28

Explanation: Part 61.03.1(1) states:
An applicant for a Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) must
(a) be 17 years or older;

Front 29

After an unsuccessful skill test or revalidation check, how long must you wait before you can undergo a new one?

Choose the correct answer:

24 hours
48 hours
72 hours

Back 29

24 hours
48 hours
72 hours X

Front 30

How many hours of flight time may be acquired in a SIM for the issue of a PPL?

Choose the correct answer:

5
10
15

Back 30

5 X
10
15

Front 31

No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft....

Choose the correct answer:

Within 24 hours of scuba diving
Within 48 hours of scuba diving
Within 72 hours of scuba diving

Back 31

Within 24 hours of scuba diving X
Within 48 hours of scuba diving
Within 72 hours of scuba diving

Front 32

Each manufacturer of single engine turbo-prop aeroplanes (land) is an example of ......

A class rating
A type rating
A category

Back 32

A class rating X
A type rating
A category

Front 33

An aircraft flying at or below 1500 ft above the surface and following a powerline etc. or any other line feature within 1 NM shall fly to the ...

Choose the correct answer:

Left of such feature
Right of such feature
Directly above such feature

Back 33

Left of such feature
Right of such feature X
Directly above such feature

Front 34

How old must you be to apply for a Student Pilot License?

Choose the correct answer:

16 years or older
17 years or older
18 years or older

Back 34

16 years or older X
17 years or older
18 years or older

Front 35

How long after a flight for hire and reward (Part 91 Ops), flight training and domestic air transport ops do you have to enter the flight into your logbook?

Choose the correct answer:

1 day
7 days
14 days

Back 35

1 day
7 days X
14 days

Hint 35

Explanation: Part 61.01.8 (3) states:
Entries in pilot logbooks must be made within the following periods after the completion of the flight to be recorded
(a) in the case of flights not for hire and reward (Part 91 operations), flight training, and domestic commercial air transport operations: 7 days;

Front 36

How long before commencing STBY for operational duty or commencing operational duty may you not drink alcohol?

Choose the correct answer:

4 hours
8 hours
12 hours

Back 36

4 hours
8 hours X
12 hours

Front 37

How long is a student pilot license valid from date of issue?

Choose the correct answer:

1 Year
2 Years
5 Years

Back 37

1 Year
2 Years X
5 Years

Front 38

An applicant for a PPL must have at least ....

Choose the correct answer:

5 hours solo
10 hours solo
15 hours solo

Back 38

5 hours solo
10 hours solo
15 hours solo X

Front 39

What is the ceiling?

Choose the correct answer:

The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud situated below 20 000ft and covering the sky.
The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud situated below 35 000ft and covering more than half the sky.
The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud situated below 20 000ft and covering more than half the sky.

Back 39

The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud situated below 20 000ft and covering the sky.
The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud situated below 35 000ft and covering more than half the sky.
The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud situated below 20 000ft and covering more than half the sky. X

Front 40

Of the 45 hrs total flight time required for a PPL, how many of these hrs must be solo?

Choose the correct answer:

5
10
15

Back 40

5
10
15 X

Front 41

A solid green light shown to an AC that is still on the ground means...

Choose the correct answer:

Clear for takeoff
Clear for taxi
Clear for start

Back 41

Clear for takeoff X
Clear for taxi
Clear for start

Front 42

What are class C aeroplanes?

Choose the correct answer:

Single-engine aeroplanes
Aeroplanes powered by two or more reciprocating engines with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700 kilograms
propeller-driven aeroplanes with a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kilograms or less

Back 42

Single-engine aeroplanes
Aeroplanes powered by two or more reciprocating engines with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700 kilograms X
propeller-driven aeroplanes with a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kilograms or less

Front 43

No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft ....

Choose the correct answer:

Within 24 hours of donating blood
Within 48 hours of donating blood
Within 72 hours of donating blood

Back 43

Choose the correct answer:

Within 24 hours of donating blood
Within 48 hours of donating blood
Within 72 hours of donating blood X

Hint 43

Explanation: Part 91.02.3(1)(c) states:
No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft
(c) within 72 hours following blood donation by such flight crew member;

Front 44

Of the 45 hrs total flight time required for a PPL, how many of these hrs must be dual?

Choose the correct answer:

25
20
15

Back 44

25 X
20
15

Hint 44

Explanation: Part 61.03.1(2)(a) states:
applicant for a Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) must have completed not less than 45 hours flight time as pilot of an aeroplane with a maximum certificated mass in excess of 450 kg of which
(a) at least 25 hours are dual instruction in aeroplanes, which must include 5 hours instrument instruction time;

Front 45

A single pilot multi engine aeroplane fitted with turboprop or turbojet engine is an example of a ....

Class
Type
Group

Back 45

Class
Type X
Group

Hint 45

Part 61.13.8 (4) states:
Type rating for aeroplanes must be established for
(b) each type of single pilot multi engine aeroplanes fitted with turboprop or jet engines

Front 46

Each manufacturer of single engine turboprop aeroplanes (land) is an example of....

A type rating
A class rating

Back 46

A type rating
A class rating X

Hint 46

Part 61.13.8 (1) states:
The class ratings for single pilot aeroplanes not requiring a type rating are as follows
(d) Each manufacturer of single engine turboprop aeroplanes (land)

Front 47

An Applicant for a VFR-night rating has to proof:

5 hrs of theoretical instruction with examination
5 hrs of theoretical instruction without examination
no theoretical instruction

Back 47

5 hrs of theoretical instruction with examination X
5 hrs of theoretical instruction without examination
no theoretical instruction

Hint 47

Requirements for a night rating

61.14.1 (1) An applicant for a night rating must

(a) hold a valid pilot licence;

(b) submit proof of having have completed the training referred to in sub-regulation (2) below;

(c) submit proof of having undergone the theoretical examination referred to in sub-regulation (3) below; and

(d) have successfully undergone the prescribed skills test, referred to in sub-regulation (4).

(2) An applicant for a night rating must have completed under the auspices of an approved Part 141 aviation training organisation –

(a) 5 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and have successfully completed the appropriate training as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-FCL 61;

(b) not less than 10 hours of instrument instruction, of which not more than 5 hours may be accumulated in an approved flight simulation training device (FSTD);

(c) in the case of a night rating on aeroplanes, not less than 5 take-offs and five landings by night as pilot manipulating the controls of the aircraft whilst under dual instruction; or

(d) in the case of a night rating on helicopters, not less than 5 circuits with 5 take-offs and five landings by night as pilot manipulating the controls of the aircraft whilst under dual instruction; and

(e) a dual cross-country flight by night consisting of at least –

(i) in the case of a night rating for aeroplanes a total distance of not less than 150 NM in the course of which full-stop landings at two different aerodromes away from base are made; or

(ii) in the case of a night rating for helicopters, a total distance of not less than 75 NM in the course of which landings at two different aerodromes away from base are made.

(3) A maximum of 5 hours instrument time can be credited towards the 10-hour requirement for a helicopter pilot if the applicant is the holder of an instrument or night rating on aeroplanes and vice versa.

Front 48

An Applicant for a VFR-night rating has to proof:

not less than 10 hours of instrument instruction, of which not more than 5 hours may be accumulated in an approved flight simulation training device (FSTD);
-
in the case of a night rating on aeroplanes, not less than 5 take-offs and five landings by night as pilot manipulating the controls of the aircraft whilst under dual instruction
-
a dual cross-country flight by night consisting of at least a total distance of not less than 150 NM in the course of which full-stop landings at two different aerodromes away from base are made
-
All of the above

Back 48

All three requirements have to be met X

Hint 48

Requirements for a night rating

61.14.1 (1) An applicant for a night rating must

(a) hold a valid pilot licence;

(b) submit proof of having have completed the training referred to in sub-regulation (2) below;

(c) submit proof of having undergone the theoretical examination referred to in sub-regulation (3) below; and

(d) have successfully undergone the prescribed skills test, referred to in sub-regulation (4).

(2) An applicant for a night rating must have completed under the auspices of an approved Part 141 aviation training organisation –

(a) 5 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and have successfully completed the appropriate training as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-FCL 61;

(b) not less than 10 hours of instrument instruction, of which not more than 5 hours may be accumulated in an approved flight simulation training device (FSTD);

(c) in the case of a night rating on aeroplanes, not less than 5 take-offs and five landings by night as pilot manipulating the controls of the aircraft whilst under dual instruction; or

(d) in the case of a night rating on helicopters, not less than 5 circuits with 5 take-offs and five landings by night as pilot manipulating the controls of the aircraft whilst under dual instruction; and

(e) a dual cross-country flight by night consisting of at least –

(i) in the case of a night rating for aeroplanes a total distance of not less than 150 NM in the course of which full-stop landings at two different aerodromes away from base are made; or

(ii) in the case of a night rating for helicopters, a total distance of not less than 75 NM in the course of which landings at two different aerodromes away from base are made.

(3) A maximum of 5 hours instrument time can be credited towards the 10-hour requirement for a helicopter pilot if the applicant is the holder of an instrument or night rating on aeroplanes and vice versa.

Front 49

How many hours of instrument time on helicopters can be credited towards the required 10 hrs for a night rating on aeroplanes?

10
5
0

Back 49

10
5 X
0

Hint 49

Requirements for a night rating

61.14.1 (1) An applicant for a night rating must

(a) hold a valid pilot licence;

(b) submit proof of having have completed the training referred to in sub-regulation (2) below;

(c) submit proof of having undergone the theoretical examination referred to in sub-regulation (3) below; and

(d) have successfully undergone the prescribed skills test, referred to in sub-regulation (4).

(2) An applicant for a night rating must have completed under the auspices of an approved Part 141 aviation training organisation –

(a) 5 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and have successfully completed the appropriate training as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-FCL 61;

(b) not less than 10 hours of instrument instruction, of which not more than 5 hours may be accumulated in an approved flight simulation training device (FSTD);

(c) in the case of a night rating on aeroplanes, not less than 5 take-offs and five landings by night as pilot manipulating the controls of the aircraft whilst under dual instruction; or

(d) in the case of a night rating on helicopters, not less than 5 circuits with 5 take-offs and five landings by night as pilot manipulating the controls of the aircraft whilst under dual instruction; and

(e) a dual cross-country flight by night consisting of at least –

(i) in the case of a night rating for aeroplanes a total distance of not less than 150 NM in the course of which full-stop landings at two different aerodromes away from base are made; or

(ii) in the case of a night rating for helicopters, a total distance of not less than 75 NM in the course of which landings at two different aerodromes away from base are made.

(3) A maximum of 5 hours instrument time can be credited towards the 10-hour requirement for a helicopter pilot if the applicant is the holder of an instrument or night rating on aeroplanes and vice versa.

Front 50

The applicant for a night rating must have undergone the skill test within

60 days
90 days
30 days

of the date of application.

Back 50

60 days
90 days
30 days X

Hint 50

61.14.4 Skills test for a night rating

(1) An applicant for a night rating must have demonstrated to an appropriately rated Grade I or Grade II flight instructor, the procedures and manoeuvres as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-FCL 61, with a degree of competency appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a night rating.

(2) The skills test must be conducted in an aircraft of the applicable category, and shall include a minimum of 3 take-offs, 3 circuits and 3 landings by night; the instrument component of the skills test may be conducted by day.

(3) The applicant must have undergone the skills test within the 30 days immediately preceding the date of application.

Front 51

The Night VFR skills test must be conducted in an aircraft of the applicable category, and shall include a minimum of

3 take-offs, 3 circuits and 3 landings by night
-
5 take-offs, 5 circuits and 5 landings by night
-
An instrument flight with 3 landings by night

Back 51

3 take-offs, 3 circuits and 3 landings by night X
-
5 take-offs, 5 circuits and 5 landings by night
-
An instrument flight with 3 landings by night

Hint 51

(2) The skills test must be conducted in an aircraft of the applicable category, and shall include a minimum of 3 take-offs, 3 circuits and 3 landings by night; the instrument component of the skills test may be conducted by day.
61.14.4 Skills test for a night rating

(3) The applicant must have undergone the skills test within the 30 days immediately preceding the date of application.

Front 52

An Applicant for a PPL(A) shall be

18 yrs or older
16 yrs or older
17 yrs oe older

Back 52

18 yrs or older
16 yrs or older
17 yrs oe older X

Hint 52

SUBPART 3, CAR 61.03.1

Front 53

Training for your first single-pilot multi-engine type rating requires at least. . .

Choose the correct answer:

6 hours dual, including 3 hours 30 minutes in engine failure procedures and asymmetric flight
6 hours dual, including 2 hours 30 minutes in engine failure procedures and asymmetric flight
8 hours dual, including 3 hours 30 minutes in engine failure procedures and asymmetric flight

Back 53

6 hours dual, including 3 hours 30 minutes in engine failure procedures and asymmetric flight X
6 hours dual, including 2 hours 30 minutes in engine failure procedures and asymmetric flight
8 hours dual, including 3 hours 30 minutes in engine failure procedures and asymmetric flight

Hint 53

Explanation: Part 61.13.2(2) states:
In the case of training for a single-pilot multi-engine class rating, or the applicant's first single-pilot multi-engine type rating, the training must consist of at least
(b) 6 hours dual flight training in multi-engine aeroplane operation, including not less than 2 hours 30 minutes dual flight training under normal conditions and at least 3 hours 30 minutes dual flight training in engine failure procedures and asymmetric flight.

Front 54

What is the minimum mass of the aircraft you do the PPL skills test in have to be?

450kg
650kg
850kg

Back 54

450kg X
650kg
850kg

Front 55

How long is a Private Pilot Licence valid for?

2 years
5 years
10 years

Back 55

2 years
5 years
10 years X

Hint 55

Explanation: Part 61.03.6 states:
A Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) issued is valid for a period of 10 years.

Front 56

No aircraft may be operated without a seat belt for. . .

Everyone
Everyone aged two years or more
Each person on the flight deck

Back 56

Everyone
Everyone aged two years or more X
Each person on the flight deck

Hint 56

Explanation: Part 91.04.14 (1) states
No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft unless such aircraft is equipped, as applicable, with
(b) a safety belt with or without a diagonal shoulder strap, or a safety harness, for use in each passenger seat for each passenger who is aged two or more;

Front 57

n the case of an unsuccessful skills test or revalidation check, how long must you wait before you can undergo a skills test or revalidation check again?

24 hours
48 hours
72 hours

Back 57

24 hours
48 hours
72 hours X

Front 58

Do you need a certificate of proficiency in radiotelephony for a Private Pilot Licence?

Yes - General
Yes - Restricted
No

Back 58

Yes - General
Yes - Restricted X
No

Front 59

How often must you undergo a revalidation check for a Private Pilot Licence?

Every 12 months
Every 24 months
12 months and then every 24 months

Back 59

Every 12 months
Every 24 months
12 months and then every 24 months X

Front 60

Multi-pilot aeroplane's are a

Class
Type
Category

Back 60

Class
Type X
Category

Hint 60

Correct Answer: Type
Explanation: Part 61.13.8(4) states:
Type rating for aeroplanes must be established for
(a) each type of multi-pilot aeroplane

Front 61

In order to obtain a type rating for a multi-pilot aeroplane, you need at least. . .

50 hours PIC
70 hours PIC
100 hours PIC

Back 61

50 hours PIC
70 hours PIC
100 hours PIC X

Hint 61

Explanation: Part 61.13.1(9) states:
An applicant for a type rating in respect of a multi-pilot aeroplane must have
(a) at least 100 hours experience as pilot-in-command of aeroplanes

Front 62

Except when necessary for taking off or landing, or except with prior written approval of the Commissioner, no aircraft shall be flown over built-up areas or over an open-air assembly of persons at a height less than . . .

1 000 feet above the highest obstacle, within a radius of 2 000 feet from the aircraft
2 000 feet above the highest obstacle, within a radius of 1 000 feet from the aircraft
2 000 feet above the highest obstacle, within a radius of 4 000 feet from the aircraft

Back 62

1 000 feet above the highest obstacle, within a radius of 2 000 feet from the aircraft X
2 000 feet above the highest obstacle, within a radius of 1 000 feet from the aircraft
2 000 feet above the highest obstacle, within a radius of 4 000 feet from the aircraft

Front 63

Accelerate-stop distance includes. . .

The TORA plus the displaced threshold.
The TORA plus the stopway.
The TORA plus the clearway.

Back 63

The TORA plus the displaced threshold.
The TORA plus the stopway. X
The TORA plus the clearway.

Front 64

Night is the period...

30 after SS to 30 before SR
15 after SS to 15 before SR
60 after SS to 60 before SR

Back 64

30 after SS to 30 before SR
15 after SS to 15 before SR X
60 after SS to 60 before SR

Hint 64

Explanation: Part 1 - Definitions and Abbreviations, states:
"night" means the period from 15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes before sunrise, sunset and sunrise being as given in the publication "Times of Sunrise, Sunset and Local Apparent Noon of the South African Astronomical Observatory" or a similar publication issued by a recognised astronomical observatory;

Front 65

What are class D aeroplanes?

Single-engine aeroplanes
Aeroplanes powered by two or more reciprocating engines with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700 kilograms
propeller-driven aeroplanes with a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kilograms or less

Back 65

Single-engine aeroplanes X
Aeroplanes powered by two or more reciprocating engines with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700 kilograms
propeller-driven aeroplanes with a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kilograms or less

Front 66

All single-engine piston aeroplanes (land) is an example of. . .

A class rating
A type rating
A category

Back 66

A class rating X
A type rating
A category

Hint 66

CAR 61.13.8 (1)

Class ratings for single pilot aeroplanes not requiring a type rating are as follows:

a) b) all SEPs L + S
c) all TMGs
d) e) each manufacturer of SETs L + S
f) all MEPs L + S

Front 67

A solid red light then is shown to an aircraft that is in the air means...

Return for landing
Do not land
Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

Back 67

Return for landing
Do not land
Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

Hint 67

Explanation: Ground:
Solid Green = Clear for takeoff
Flashing Green = Clear for taxi
Solid Red = Stop
Flashing Red = Taxi clear of the active runway
Flashing White = Return to starting point on the airport

Air:
Solid Green = Clear for landing
Flashing Green = Return for landing(Solid green coming soon)
Solid Red = Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
Flashing Red = Airport is unsafe, don't land
Flashing White = Land at this airport and then proceed to apron (Landing clearing coming soon)
Solid Red on Final = Don't land for now

Front 68

Who must be notified of an accident or incident outside the republic?

he appropriate authority in the State or territory where the accident or incident occurred and the commissioner.
The appropriate authority in the State or territory where the accident or incident occurred, the ATSU and the commissioner.
The appropriate authority in the State or territory where the accident or incident occurred.

Back 68

he appropriate authority in the State or territory where the accident or incident occurred and the commissioner. X
The appropriate authority in the State or territory where the accident or incident occurred, the ATSU and the commissioner.
The appropriate authority in the State or territory where the accident or incident occurred.

Front 69

A flashing white light then is shown to an aircraft that is still on the ground means. . .


Clear to enter the active runway
Clear for startup
Return to starting point on the airport

Back 69

Clear to enter the active runway
Clear for startup
Return to starting point on the airport X

Hint 69

Explanation: Ground:
Solid Green = Clear for takeoff
Flashing Green = Clear for taxi
Solid Red = Stop
Flashing Red = Taxi clear of the active runway
Flashing White = Return to starting point on the airport

Front 70

How long is a flight plan valid for that has not being activated?

30 min after time of departure
1hour after time of departure
5 min after time of departure

Back 70

30 min after time of departure
1hour after time of departure X
5 min after time of departure

Front 71

Who must be notified in the event of an accident with the republic?

The commissioner or an ATSU.
The commissioner, the CAA or an ATSU.
The commissioner, an ATSU or the nearest police station.

Back 71

The commissioner or an ATSU.
The commissioner, the CAA or an ATSU.
The commissioner, an ATSU or the nearest police station. X

Front 72

How many hours of solo cross-country time must be acquired for the issue of a Private Pilot Licence?

5
15
10

Back 72

5 X
15
10

Hint 72

Explanation: Part 61.03.1(2) states:
Applicant for a Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) must have completed not less than 45 hours flight time as pilot of an aeroplane with a maximum certificated mass in excess of 450 kg of which
(b) at least 15 hours are accumulated in solo flight, of which at least five hours are cross-country flight time; which must include one triangular cross-country flight of at least 150 NM, on which at least one point must be not less than 50 NM from base and must include full-stop landings at two different aerodromes away from base;

Front 73

What must be included in the solo XC-time of a PPL student?

Back 73

one triangular cross-country flight of at least 150 NM, on which at least one point must be not less than 50 NM from base and must include full-stop landings at two different aerodromes away from base;

Hint 73

Explanation: Part 61.03.1(2) states:
Applicant for a Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) must have completed not less than 45 hours flight time as pilot of an aeroplane with a maximum certificated mass in excess of 450 kg of which
(b) at least 15 hours are accumulated in solo flight, of which at least five hours are cross-country flight time; which must include one triangular cross-country flight of at least 150 NM, on which at least one point must be not less than 50 NM from base and must include full-stop landings at two different aerodromes away from base;

Front 74

How long do you have after you have written your last PPL theory exam to take the skills test?

6 months
12 months
24 months

Back 74

6 months X
12 months
24 months

Hint 74

Explanation: Part 61.03.3 states:
The applicant must pass all the theoretical examinations for a Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) referred to in paragraph (f) of sub-regulation 61.03.1(1) within a period of 12 months and have passed the last theoretical knowledge examination within six months preceding the skills test for a Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane).

Front 75

When must a Flight Plan be submitted? (5)

Back 75

+ When flying wholly or partly in controlled and or advisory airspace ...except:
-- local flights
-- flights that cross AWYs or Advisory Route at 90°
-- VFR-flights (from ATZ/CTR) to or from unmanned aerodromes and no other controlled or advisory airspace will be entered along the route

+ On international flights
+ For commercial transport, charter, schedules, freight
+ When Search and Rescue is required
+ For VFR flights to or from manned aerodromes

Hint 75

+ When flying wholly or partly in controlled and or advisory airspace ...except:
-- local flights
-- flights that cross AWYs or Advisory Route at 90°
-- VFR-flights (from ATZ/CTR) to or from unmanned aerodromes and no other controlled or advisory airspace will be entered along the route

+ On international flights
+ For commercial transport, charter, schedules, freight
+ When Search and Rescue is required
+ For VFR flights to or from manned aerodromes

Front 76

When, at the latest, must ATS Flight plans be submitted?

1 hr before TO
30 min before TO
In Flight 10 min. before entry into controlled or advisory airspace

Back 76

1 hr before TO
30 min before TO X
In Flight 10 min. before entry into controlled or advisory airspace X

Front 77

What is the period of validity of a class 2 medical, where the applicant is less than 40 years of age?

12 calender months
24 calender months
60 calender months

Back 77

12 calender months
24 calender months X
60 calender months

Front 78

What is the period of validity of a class 2 medical, where the applicant is less over 40 years of age?

12 calender months
24 calender months
60 calender months

Back 78

12 calender months X
24 calender months
60 calender months

Front 79

What is the period of validity of a class 1 medical, where the applicant is less than 40 years of age?

06 calender months
12 calender months
24 calender months
60 calender months

Back 79

06 calender months
12 calender months X
24 calender months
60 calender months

Front 80

What is the period of validity of a class 1 medical in the case of an ATP-Pilot, where the applicant is more than 40 years of age?

06 calender months
12 calender months
24 calender months
60 calender months

Back 80

06 calender months X
12 calender months
24 calender months
60 calender months

Front 81

What is the period of validity of a class 1 medical in the case of any Pilot in commercial transport, where the applicant is more than 40 years of age?

06 calender months if more than 60 yrs old
12 calender months if less than 60 yrs old
24 calender months if less than 60 yrs old
60 calender months if less than 60 yrs old

Back 81

06 calender months if more than 60 yrs old X
12 calender months if less than 60 yrs old X
24 calender months if less than 60 yrs old
60 calender months if less than 60 yrs old

Hint 81

CAR 67.00.6

Front 82

What is the period of validity of a class 4 medical, where the applicant is more than 40 years of age?

06 calender months
12 calender months
24 calender months
36 calender months
60 calender months

Back 82

06 calender months
12 calender months
24 calender months
36 calender months X
60 calender months

Front 83

What is the period of validity of a class 4 medical, where the applicant is less than 40 years of age?

06 calender months
12 calender months
24 calender months
36 calender months
60 calender months

Back 83

06 calender months
12 calender months
24 calender months
36 calender months
60 calender months X