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150 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

what is development?

- the gradual modification of anatomical structures and physiological characteristics from conception to maturity.

what are the stages of development?

- fertilization/conception

- embryonic development - the first 2mo after conception.


- fetal development - starts at the beginning of the 9th wk and continues until birth.


- postnatal development - from birth to maturity.


- maturity - the states of completed growth/full development.




what is prenatal development?

- embryonic and fetal development collectively.

what are inheritance and heredity?

- the transfer of genetically determined characteristics from gener to gener.

what is genetics?

- the study of the mechanisms responsible for inheritance.

what is differentiation?

- the formation of different types of cells.

if one sperm actually fertilizes an oocyte, why does it take dozens to reach fertilization?

- because one sperm does not contain enough acrosomal enzymes to disrupt the corona radiata, which is only accomplished through dozens of sperm releasing hyaluronidase to break down the bonds of the corona radiata in order for a single sperm to reach the oocyte's membrane.

where does the sperm attach to the oocyte and what happens next?

- to a sperm receptor in the zona pellucida, which triggers the rupture of the sperm's acrosome allowing the hyaluronidase and acrosin to digest a path to the surface of the oocyte, which triggers oocyte activation.

what causes oocyte activation?

- the fusing of the sperm and oocyte membranes causes depolarization of the oocyte due to an increased permeability to Na+'s, which in turn causes the release of Ca+2's from the smooth ER.

what effects does the sudden rise in Ca+2 levels have?

1) the cortical rxn releases ZIPs, that inactivate the sperm receptors and harden the zona pellucida, preventing polyspermy.


2) meiosis II completion, and formation of the second polar body, due to fertilization. Oocyte and sperm are now called an ovum.


3) rapid metabolic incr as previously inactive mRNA strands are activated for development.

what is the moment of conception and what is the ovum called at that point?

- after the male and female pronuclei migrate toward the center of the cell and spindle fibers form, the two nuclei fuse in amphimixis, allowing the 23 pairs of chromosomes from ea to come together. The cell is then called a zygote.

what is the starting point for differentiation?

- during follicular development the granulosa cells do not all produce the same a.a.s, nucleotides, glucose, mRNA molecules, etc. and the follicular cells, not all the same nutrients and chem messages, so the cytoplasm of the oocyte is not homogenous throughout. When the process of cleavage occurs different cells are produced c different cytoplasmic compositions, leading them toward different fates/differentiation.

what is gestation and what are its periods?

- the time spent in prenatal development.


-divided into the first, second, and third trimesters, ea lasting three months.

what occurs in the first trimester?

-embryonic and early fetal development brings the beginnings of all the major organ systems.

what occurs n the second trimester?

- organ and organ system development dominate, nearing completion by the end of the 6th month.

what occurs during the third trimester?

- rapid fetal growth and deposition of fetal adipose t. Most of the organ system become fully fxnal early on in this trimester.

how many developmental weeks are there in the first trimester?

- only 10wks.

what is the process of cleavage?

- a sequence of cell division that begins immediately after fertilization where the zygote becomes a pre-embryo, which develops into a multicellular complex called a blastocyst. Cleavage stops when the blastocyst contacts the uterine wall.

what is the process of implantation?

- the blastocyst attaches to the endometrium of the uterus and invades maternal tissues. The process also sets the stage for vital embryonic structures.

what is the process of placentation?

- b.v.s form around the blastocyst, and the placenta develops.

what is the process of embryogenesis?

- formation of the viable embryo, which establishes the foundations for all major organ systems.

what is the fxn of the placenta?

- to permit exchange between maternal and embryonic blood, supporting the fetus from its formation early in the first trimester until just after birth.

what are the critical events of the first trimester?

- cleavage, implantation, placentation, and embryogenesis.

what does the first cleavage division produce?

- two identical cells called blastomeres.

what is a morula?

- after 3 days of cleavage, the pre-embryo is a solid ball of cells resembling a mulberry, which typically reaches the uterus on day 4 after conception.

what happens to the morula in the 2 days following implantation?

- the blastomeres form a blastocyst around the blastocoele, c an out layer of cells called the trophoblasts and the inner layer called the inner cell mass which eventually becomes the embryo.

what happens to the zone pellucida just prior to implantation?

- enzymes released by the trophoblasts erode an opening in it, a process known as hatching, exposing the blastocyst to the uterine cavity fluids. The blastocyst enlarges and, when fully formed, contacts the endometrium, and implantation takes place.

what is the syncytial trophoblast?

- the trophoblasts on the side of the blastocyst that have adhered to the uterine wall, lose their plasma membranes creating a layer of cytoplasm c multiple nuclei around day 8.

how does the syncytial trophoblast lead to further embryonic development?

- it erodes the epithelial lining of the uterus and the maternal epithelial cells migrate to fix the gap created which envelopes the blastocyst so that further development occurs entirely within the fxnal layer of the endometrium. As the trophoblasts continue to enlarge they erode more endometrial lining and form lacunae and villi through which maternal blood flows to support embryonic development.

how is the amniotic cavity formed?

- by the space created between the separating inner cell mass and the trophoblast. When it first appears the cells of the inner cell mass are organized into an oval sheet two layers thick.

what is gastrulation?

- the process of forming a third layer of cells between the superficial and deep layers of the inner cell mass through the migration of the superficial layer towards the deep layer becoming disconnected from the superficial in the process. This forms the oval, three-layered sheet known as the embryonic disc.

what are the three layers of the inner cell mass called, collectively?

- the germ layers, known as the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm.

what are the four extraembryonic membranes?

- the yolk sac, amnion, allantois, and chorion.

which extraembryonic layer is important for the maternal-embryo exchange?

- b.v. develop within the mesoderm of the chorion linking the embryo c the trophoblast

what does the embryonic disc form and what happens to the other cells of the blastocyst?

- the embryonic disc forms the body of the embryo and the other layers for the extraembryonic membranes.

what forms the chorion?

- mesodermal migration around the inner surface of the cellular trophoblasts.

what forms the amnion?

- mesodermal migration around the outside of the amniotic cavity, between the ectodermal cells and trophoblasts.

what forms the yolk sac?

- mesodermal migration around the endodermal pouch.

in what week are the extraembryonic layers forming?

- week 2.

in what week does the head fold bulge into the amniotic cavity?

- week 3.

what does the base of the allantois eventually give rise to?

- the urinary bladder.

how does the placenta come to be?

- the appearance of b.v. in the chorion result from the mesoderm extending along the core of ea trophoblastic villus (by the third week), forming chorionic villi in contact c maternal tissues and b.v.s. These villi continue to enlarge and branch, forming the placenta.

in what week does the embryo move away from the placenta, and the body stalk and yolk stalk fuse to form the umbilical stalk?

- week 5.

what has happened by week 10?

- the amnion has expanded to fill the uterine cavity and the fetus is connected to the placenta by an elongated umbilical cord.

what does the umbilical cord contain?

- the allantois, yolk stalk, and the placental b.v.s.

describe the blood in the umbilical arteries.

- it is deoxygenated and carries waste products.

describe the blood in the umbilical vein.

- it is O2 and nutrient rich.

what vasculature provides the surface area for gas and nutrient exchange for the fetal side of the placenta?

- chorionic villi.

what cells of the placenta also work to make the placenta an endocrine organ, and for what hormones?

- the syncytial trophoblasts produce human chorionic gonadotropin, human placental lactogen, placental prolactin, relaxin, progesterone, and estrogens.

what is human chorionic gonadotropin?

- hCG appears soon after implantation and is a reliable indicator of pregnancy (think home pregnancy tests). It resembles LH fxnally. It maintains the corpus luteum and promotes progesterone and estrogen secretion from the placenta. This results in the endometrial lining remaining fxnal throughout the pregnancy and the absence of menses, despite the corpus luteum diminishing in fxn.

what is human placental lactogen?

- hPL is one of the syncytial trophoblast hormones that helps prepare the mammary glands for milk and has a stimulatory effect similar to GH, ensuring glucose and protein availability for the fetus.

what is placental prolactin?

- one of the syncytial trophoblast hormones required to convert the mammary glands from inactive to active.

what is relaxin?

- a peptide hormone secreted by the placenta and the corpus luteum. It incr the flexibility of the pubic symphysis, allowing the pelvis to expand during delivery; causes the cervix to dilate to make it easier for the fetus to enter the vaginal canal; and suppresses the release of oxytocin by the hypothalamus and delays the onset of labor contraxns.

what is significant about estrogen and progesterone production after the first trimester?

- the placenta secretes enough progesterone to ensure the fxnal zone of the endometrium remains intact throughout the remainder of the pregnancy. At the end of the third trimester placental estrogen production accelerates, which plays a role in stimulating labor and delivery.

what are the organ systems that develop out of the ectoderm?

IS NERD


integumentary, skeletal, nervous, endocrine, respiratory, and digestive.

what organ systems developed out of the mesoderm?

I Rep MUSCLE ppp


integumentary, reproductive, muscular, urinary, skeletal, cardiovascular, lymphatic, and endocrine, parietal, pericardial, and peritoneal lining and c.t. supporting organs

what organ systems developed out of the endoderm?

R U RED


resp, urin, repro, endo, digestive

how do the mother's respirations adjust for the fetal needs?

- by increasing rate and tidal volume.

how does the mother's blood adjust for the fetal needs?

- the maternal blood volume incr by almost %50 by the end of gestation because the blood flowing into the placenta decreases the vol of the systemic circuit and because fetal metabolism decrease blood Po2 and incr Pco2, the later of which triggers renin and erythropoietin release to incr RBC production.

how do the mother's nutrient needs change for the fetal needs?

- her nutrient requirements incr by %10-%30 and her appetite adjusts fire.

how does the mother adjust to increased urinary demands?

- her glomerular filtration rate incr by ~%50.

how do the mother's uterus adjust for the fetal size?

- it undergoes tremendous increase in size.

how does the mother's body prepare for feeding the newborn?

- hormones throughout the gestation period prepare her mammary glands for milk production.

how does the uterus expand to meet the needs of the growing fetus?

- through hypertrophy of the existing cells (esp. the smooth m. fibers) instead of incr the number of cells.

what is false labor?

- occasional, irregular, and non-persistent spasms of the uterine musculature.

what is true labor and what ensures that it continues?

- it begins when biochemical and mechanical factors reach a point of no return i.e. once labor contraxns begin in the myometrium. Positive feedback ensures they'll continue until delivery is complete.

what is parturition and what does the uterus do to facilitate it?

- the forcible expulsion of the fetus, aka childbirth. The uterus rhythmically contracts from the sup portion toward the inf portion, sweeping in a wave toward the cervix. The contraxns incr in freq and strength as parturition approaches, changing the position of the uterus and pushing it toward the cervical canal.

what are the stages of labor?

1) dilation stage


2) expulsion stage


3) placental stage

what is the dilation stage of labor?

- it begins c the onset of true labor, as the cervix dilates and the fetus begins to shift toward the cervical canal. Labor contraxns last up to half a minute and occur q 10-30min c incr freq. Late in this stage the amniochorionic membrane ruptures (water breaks).

what is the expulsion stage?

- begins as the cervix being pushed open by the approaching fetus, dilates to ~10cm. Contraxns reach maximum intensity, lasting a full min and occurring q 2-3min. This continues until delivery.

what is delivery?

- the arrival of the fetus into the outside world.

what is an episiotomy?

- a temporary incision through the mother's perineal musculature, done if the vaginal canal is too narrow for delivery or if there's an acute danger of perineal tearing.

what is a cesarean section?

- a c-section is an incision through the abdominal wall, and the uterus, just big enough to allow passage of the infant's head.

what is assessed in the infant immediately after birth?

- five areas each ranked at 0-2 c a score of 8-10 being a healthy baby. The areas are HR, breathing, skin color, m. tone, and reflex response. This is called an Apgar score.

what is the placental stage of labor?

- m. tension builds in the walls of the uterus, which tears the connections between the endometrium and placenta. There is associated blood loss but should be accommodated without incident.

what is premature labor?

- occurs when true labor begins before the fetus has completed normal development.

where is the dividing line between spontaneous abortion and immature delivery?

- usually 17.6oz, the normal weight near the end of the second trimester.

what happens to most fetuses born at 25-27wks gestation?

- they die despite intensive neonatal care.

what is premature delivery?

- usually births at 28-36wks. Much better chance at survival than under 28wks.

what direction does the fetus typically face during birth?

- it is head-first, facing the sacrum.

what is used to deliver a baby facing the mother's pubic symphysis?

- a forceps delivery method, where forceps are used to grasp the infant's head and pulled intermittently, so that the forces on the head resemble those of normal delivery.

what happens in a breech birth and what risk are associated c it?

- the legs or buttocks enter the vaginal canal first, risking constriction of the umbilical cord, and cutting off placental blood flow.

what are dizygotic twins?

- those that develop from two separate oocytes being ovulated and fertilized. %70 of twins are dizygotic. The chance of them having identical genes exceeds 1 in 8.4million.

what are monozygotic twins?

- result either from separation of blastomeres early in cleavage, or from splitting of the inner cell mass before gastrulation. Their genetic makeup is identical because both formed from the same pair of gametes.

what do triplets, quadruplets, and larger multiples result from?

- multiple ovulations, blastomere splitting, or some combination of the two.

what are conjoined twins?

- Siamese twins develop from incomplete splitting of the blastomeres or of the embryonic disk.

what are the five postnatal life stages of development?

1) neonatal period


2) infancy


3) childhood


4) adolescence


5) maturity

what is senescence?

- the process of aging.

when is the neonatal period?

- from birth to one month of age.

when is infancy?

- babyhood is after the first month through the first year of life.

when is childhood?

- from infancy until adolescence.

when is adolescence?

- begins c puberty, the period of sexual and physical maturation and ends when growth is completed.

what is pediatrics?

- the medical specialty that focuses on postnatal development from infancy through adolescence.

when is the neonatal period exactly?

- from birth through 28 days.

what events take place in transition from fetus to neonate?

- a massive powerful inhalation is required to inflate the collapsed, fluid-filled lungs.


- cardiovascular circulation changes as the ductus arteriosus closes, isolating the pulmonary and systemic trunks. Closure of the foramen ovale separates the atria of the heart.


- heart rate is 120-140 c RR of 30 and metabolic rate 2x the adult rate.


- meconium is excreted in the first few days as the newborn begins to nurse.


- neonate kidneys cannot concentrate urine yet so fluid intakes are high.


- little ability to control body temp, esp. in first few days.

when are the mammary glands fully developed by?

- the end of the 6th mo.

what is colostrum?

- ingested by the infant in the first 2-3days of life, colostrum contains more proteins and far less fat than breast milk. Many of the prots are Abs. And the mucins present in both colostrum and milk can inhibit the replication of rotaviruses.

what is the milk ejection reflex?


- the milk letdown reflex is triggered by stimulation of tactile receptors when the infant suckles; neural impulse transmission is propagated to the brain; oxytocin is secreted from the post. pit. lobe in response to stimulation from the maternal hypothalamus; oxytocin enters the blood stream.

what does breast milk consist of?


- water, prots, a.a.s, lipids, sugars, and salts, as well as large quantities of lysozymes (enzymes c ABX properties).

when is the most rapid growth?

- during prenatal development.

what are the three major hormonal events that occur at the onset of puberty?

1) the hypothalamus incr its production of GnRH.


2) circulating FSH and LH levels incr rapidly as the endocrine cells in the ant. lobe of the pit. gland become more sensitive to GnRH.


3) ovarian or testicular cells become more sensitive to FSH and LH. These cells initiate gamete production; secretion of sex hormones that stimulate secondary sex characteristics and behaviors; and a sudden acceleration in growth rate, ending c closure of the epiphyseal plate.

what are integumentary changes seen during puberty?

- terminal facial hair in men. Terminal hair in the axillae and genital regions in both sexes. Androgens stim sebaceous gland secretion and may cause acne. Adipose tissue is distributed according to gender. Mammary gland development in girls though much growth of the breasts is due to incr fat deposition instead of glandular tissue.

what are skeletal changes seen during puberty?

- incr bone deposition and growth in both genders. Boys typically grow taller because estrogens cause epiphyseal closure faster than testosterone. Girls grow fastest from ages 10-13, whereas boys are from 12-15.

what are muscular changes seen during puberty?

- incr strength and endurance c testosterone exceeding estrogen resulting in larger m. mass in boys than girls.

what are nervous system changes seen during puberty?

- sex hormones activate CNS centers and effect their sexual drive and sexual behaviors.

what are cardiovascular changes seen during puberty?

- testosterone stims erythropoiesis, increasing blood vol and hematocrit. In females who've begun menses, the blood loss can result in iron deficiency anemia. Late in ea uterine cycle estrogens and progesterone can cause fluid shifts into the periphery. Estrogens decr the risk of atherosclerosis in females before menopause.

what are respiratory changes seen during puberty?

- lengthening and thickening of the male vocal cords and growth of the larynx, cause a deepening of the voice.

what are reproductive changes seen during puberty?

- in males, testosterone stims the fxnal development of accessory reproductive glands (i.e. prostate gland and seminal glands). In females estrogens promote thickening of the myometrium, incr blood flow to the endometrium, and stim cervical mucus production, as well as the development of accessory reproductive organs.

what is geriatrics?

- the medical specialty that deals with the problems associated c aging.

what are geriatricians?

- physicians trained in geriatrics.

what are fxnal segments of DNA called?

- genes.

what is a genotype?

- the 46 chromosomes (and their associated genes), carried in ea of our body's nucleated somatic cells, that hold the instructions which determine ea of our unique anatomical and physiological characteristics.

what is a phenotype?

- the anatomical and physiological characteristics that are determined by our individual genotypes, and which are result from the interaction between the person's genotype and the environment.


give some examples of phenotypic traits or characters.

- eye and hair color, height, skin tone, foot size.

what are homologous chromosomes?

- a set of one maternal and one paternal chromosome that pair up c each other inside a cell during meiosis. These copies have the same genes in the same loci.

what are autosomal chromosomes?

- chromosomes that are not allosomes.

what are allosomes?

- sex determining chromosomes.

what is a karyotype?

- the complete set of chromosomes in an organism.

what is a locus?

- a gene's position on a chromosome.

what are alleles?

- different forms of the same gene (i.e. blue eyes or brown eyes allele).

what does it mean to be homozygous?

- it means that both chromosomes contain the same allele for the trait affected by that gene (i.e. brown eye, brown eye, or, red hair, red hair). This means that allele will indeed be expressed in the phenotype.

what is simple inheritance?

- the phenotype is determined by interactions between a single pair of alleles. ~%80 of human genotype falls within this category.

what does it mean to be heterozygous?

- the organism carries two different alleles for the same gene.

what determines the phenotype for a heterozygous gene?

- the interaction between the alleles depending on their relationship to each other (i.e. strict dominance, incomplete dominance, or codominance.

what is strict dominance?

- an allele that is dominant will be expressed in the phenotype, regardless of any conflicting instructions carried by the other allele.

when is a recessive allele expressed in a phenotype?

- only if that same allele is present in both chromosomes of a homologous pair.

what is incomplete dominance?

- a relatively rare occurrence in humans, this is where the heterozygous alleles produce an intermediate phenotype (not completely dominant).

what is codominance?

- an individual who is heterozygous for a given trait exhibits both phenotypes for that trait. Human blood type is determined this way.

what is penetrance?

-the percentage of individuals c a particular genotype that show the "expected" phenotype.

what is expressivity?

- the extent to which a particular allele is expressed when it is present.

what are teratogens?

- factors from the environment that result in abnormal fetal development.

what is polygenic inheritance?

- the phenotype is determined by interactions among the alleles of several genes (i.e. hair color, skin color, eye color, height).

what is genetic recombination?

- the exchange of corresponding segments and groups of genes that produces offspring c combinations of traits different from those found in either parent.

what is crossing over?

- the adjacent chromatids within a tetrad overlap each other and break off, switching places. In general this occurs between homologous chromosomes.

what is translocation?

- the adjacent chromatids of nonhomologous chromosomes overlap, break off, and switch spots.

what are chromosomal abnormalities?

- damaged, broken, missing, or extra copies of chromosomes. This occurs in about %10 of chromosomes but only about %0.5 of all newborns have the abnormalities.

what is genomic imprinting?

- it results in specific chem modifications, or markings, of DNA and its associated prots. These changes then dictate whether the gene is expressed or silenced. These markings persist after fertilization and determine whether or not the maternal or paternal gene is transcribed during embryonic development.

what normal process acts as a "volume control" for parental genes?

- imprinting.

what is a mutation?

- changes in the nucleotide sequence of an allele.

what is a spontaneous mutation?

- mutations that result from random errors in DNA replication.

what are carriers?

- individuals who are heterozygous for an abnormal allele but do not show the phenotypic effects of the original mutation.

what is sex-linked inheritance?

- involves genes on the sex chromosomes.

what are the two types of sex chromosomes and what is different about them?

- X chromosomes and Y chromosomes. X's are considerably larger and have more genes than do Y's. The Y chromosomes carry the SRY gene, not found on the X chromosomes. It specifies that an individual carrying it will become male.

what is the sex chromosome pair for a man? For a woman?

- XY

- XX

what are X-linked genes? Y-linked?

- those found on the X chromosome but not the Y.


- those found on the Y chromosome but not the X.

what gender is most often effected by recessive alleles on X chromosomes?

- males.

what is the human genome?

- the full set of genetic material in our chromosomes.

what is epigenetic?

- the study of inherited traits that are not due to changes in a person's genotype or DNA sequences. Similar to genomic imprinting, it acts at a level "above" the DNA by activating or inactivation specific genes.

what is the epigenome?

- all the chems that mark our genome and affects its activities.

what is the ENCODE?

- the encyclopedia of DNA Elements, which revealed that %80 of the genome is active in one way or another in gene regulation.