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222 Cards in this Set

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The basic EKG has how many leads?



a. 6


b. 8


c. 10


d. 12

d. 12

What typically does not cause an artifact in the tracing of an electrocardiogram?



a. Electricity


b. Movement


c. Muscle tremors


d. Relaxed patient

d. relaxed patient

Fire extinguishers must be inspected and recharged, if necessary,



a. every six months.


b. once a year.


c. every two years.


d. as needed.

b. once a year

What is the first thing you should do if you walk into a room and find a patient collapsed on the floor?

a. Run to the victim and start the assessment


b. Go to your car and get a first aid kit


c. Assess the scene before going any further


d. Go and wash your hands and get a first aid book

c. Assess the scene before going any further
What should be done if a person exhibits changing levels of consciousness?



a. Consult your first aid book


b. Allow the patient to leave the area


c. Have the patient lie down


d. Give the patient fluids

c. Have the patient lie down
If it is necessary to move an unresponsive, adult victim quickly away from a scene unassisted, you should



a. drag the patient by the heels to safety.


b. sling the patient over your shoulder.


c. shake the patient and try to get the patient to wake and walk.


d. drag the patient by the head to safety.

a. drag the patient by the heels to safety.
1. A second degree burn would appear as



a. red, edematous, wet, shiny or blistered.


b. leathery tissue, white , no blisters.


c. red and dry with no blisters.


d. deeply charred tissue damage.

a. red, edematous, wet, shiny or blistered.
Mrs. Smith suspects that her child has ingested a corrosive poison because the child had been playing in their shed and was complaining of feeling sick. She brought the child to the doctor’s office quite concerned. What is the next step regarding treatment?Choose one answer



a. Gather as much information as possible from the mother about the products in the shed.


b. Induce vomiting immediately.


c. Call the poison control center.


d. Administer activated charcoal.

a. Gather as much information as possible from the mother about the products in the shed.
In electrocardiography, the electrode used as a ground is



a. RA


b. LA


c. RL


d. LL

c. RL
When preparing a patient for an EKG, leads should be placedChoose one answer.



a. on the costals.


b. anywhere on the upper chest.


c. on the intercostal spaces.


d. on the sternum.

c. on the intercostal spaces.
The normal specific gravity of urine, which measures the ability of kidneys to concentrate urine, ranges from



a. 1.000 to 1.005


b. 1.010 to 1.030


c. 1.005 to 1.010


d. 1.010 to 1.020

b. 1.010 to 1.030
What should be done if a patient reports intense pain after a needle is inserted into the patient’s arm?



a. Hurry and finish drawing your blood specimen


b. Remove the needle the immediately and treat the patient appropriately


c. Remove the needle and then ask the patient if you can redraw a specimen in the same arm.


d. Just reassure the patient and finish drawing the specimen.

b. Remove the needle the immediately and treat the patient appropriately
Excessive squeezing around a capillary puncture site will cause



a. dilution of the sample with tissue fluid.


b. permanent nerve damage.


c. excessive bleeding


d. the site to become cyanotic.

a. dilution of the sample with tissue fluid.
Palpating the venipuncture siteChoose one answer.



a. helps the healthcare worker determine the age of the patient.


b. moves arteries out of the way for venipuncture.


c. contributes to the assessment of the size and the depth of the vein.


d. keeps the patient distracted prior to the venipuncture.

c. contributes to the assessment of the size and the depth of the vein.
Which of the following best represent the major areas of urinalysis?



a. physical, physical, random


b. physical, chemical, microscopic


c. physical and chemical only


d. random and physical only

b. physical, chemical, microscopic
Which one of the following tests identifies the organism associated with a urinary tract infection?



a. Culture and sensitivity


b. Colony count


c. Pure culture


d. Gram stain

a. Culture and sensitivity
Which one of the following is a highly specific host defense mechanism?



a. Presence of normal flora


b. Immune response


c. Inflammation


d. Phagocytosis

b. Immune response
Which one of the following is NOT a physical therapy modality?



a. massage


b. whirlpool


c. diathermy


d. immobilization

d. immobilization
Which of these statements is true regarding angioplasty?



a. An angiogram and angioplasty are the same procedure


b. Angioplasty is used to restore blood flow to ischemic myocardial tissue


c. Angioplasty is used to diagnose heart disorders


d. Angioplasty is a small battery operated device

b. Angioplasty is used to restore blood flow to ischemic myocardial tissue
What is a fenestrated sterile drape?



a. A drape used to cover the sterile tray after it is set up.


b. A drape that is placed over the patient, with the opening over the area where the surgical procedure will be performed.


c. A drape that has anesthetic medication.


d. A drape that is used to dress a wound.

b. A drape that is placed over the patient, with the opening over the area where the surgical procedure will be performed.
For minor surgical procedures, acceptable skin cleansing agents include all of the following EXCEPT



a. Betadine®


b. acetone


c. Hibiclens®


d. povidone-iodine.

b. acetone
Electrosurgery is used for



a. removal of benign skin lesions.


b. freezing tissue


c. aspirating tissues or cells.


d. laser a targeted area.

a. removal of benign skin lesions.
Most instruments are classified according to their function, which instrument is classified as a dilating/probing instrument?



a. scalpels


b. specula


c. forceps


d. hemostats

b. specula
When instilling eye drops into the eye, where is the proper placement of the drops?



a. At the outer corner of the eye


b. Into the conjunctival sac by the lacrimal duct


c. Into the center of the lower conjunctival sac


d. Directly onto the eye

c. Into the center of the lower conjunctival sac
For a medication to be maintained at the proper blood level, it must be given



a. by the right route.


b. at the right time.


c. in the right dose.


d. in the right place.

b. at the right time.
While administering an intramuscular injection, the medical assistant inadvertently aspirates blood into the syringe. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?



a. Change the needle angle


b. Continue the injection


c. Insert the needle deeper


d. Withdraw the needle completely and start the procedure over

d. Withdraw the needle completely and start the procedure over
Tim is newly diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. Tim is receiving insulin. His medical assistant knows that Tim needs to be taught to be cautious about which of the following adverse effects?



a. Hypoglycemic reaction


b. Malignant hyperthermia


c. Malignant hypertension


d. Severe hyperglycemia

a. Hypoglycemic reaction
A syringe marked with U 100 would be used for administering which of the following?



a. Allergy testing


b. Chemotherapy


c. Insulin


d. Tuberculin testing

c. Insulin
The correct site for an adult IM injection is the



a. gluteus medius.


b. gluteus minmus.


c. gluteus maximus.


d. gastrocnemius

a. gluteus medius.
An afebrile patient is



a. with fever.


b. having a heart attack.


c. without fever.


d. having a stroke.

c. without fever.
A patient short of breath should be put into what position on the examination table?



a. Prone


b. Supine


c. Fowlers


d. Sims

c. Fowlers
c. Fowlers




You have just a venipuncture on your patient and the patient says she feels like she is going to faint. Into what position do you quickly place your patient in?



a. Trendelenburg


b. Lithotomy


c. Sims


d. Semi-fowlers

a. Trendelenburg
a. Trendelenburg


What type of pulse is obtained using a stethoscope?



a. Popliteal


b. Radial


c. Apical


d. Brachial

c. Apical
The knee-chest position is used for examination of the



a. limbar spine.


b. abdomen.


c. bladder.


d. rectum

d. rectum
The most common arterial site for obtaining an adult pulse is



a. popliteal.


b. brachial.


c. carotid.


d. radial.

d. radial.
Forceps are used to



a. retract tissue.


b. hold drapes.


c. hold tissue.


d. close incisions.

c. hold tissue
When obtaining a patient's blood pressure, the patient's arm should be



a. at waist level.


b. below waist level.


c. at the level of the heart.


d. slightly below the level of the heart

c. at the level of the heart.
What instruments have sharp edges and are used to incise skin and tissue?



a. Cutting and dissecting instruments


b. Dilators


c. Retractors


d. Probes

a. Cutting and dissecting instruments
Sterilization is the



a. destruction of all microbial life.


b. destruction of pathogens.


c. careful cleaning of instruments.


d. removal of blood and body fluids.

a. destruction of all microbial life
The destruction of all microorganisms is essential for surgical asepsis. The method often used in the medical office that completely destroys microorganisms is




a. disinfection.


b. sterilization.


c. sanitization.


d. boiling.


b. sterilization
When performing medical aseptic handwashing, the hands should be positioned



a. above the elbows.


b. level with the elbows.


c. below the elbows.


d. below the waist.

c. below the elbows.
Laura disinfects the exam tables in between each patient using a 1:10 bleach solution. In order for the process to be effective she must



a. leave the disinfection solution in an open container to allow evaporation.


b. leave the solution on the exam tables for 15 minutes in order to kill spores and viruses. Incorrect


c. dilute the bleach solution with boiling water. Incorrect


d. prepare the solution according to the recommended dilution, store the solution in a closed container to avoid evaporation, change the after the recommended period of expiration.

d. prepare the solution according to the recommended dilution, store the solution in a closed container to avoid evaporation, change the after the recommended period of expiration.
Microorganisms may be transmitted by each of the following EXCEPT



a. fomites.


b. vectors.


c. droplets.


d. asepsis.

d. asepsis.
To prevent backpain or a workplace injury when working with an object, ergonomically, which of the following ergonomic stance is not recommended?



a. Get close to the object


b. Bend the knees when lowering the object


c. Keep feet together


d. Tuck the chin in slightly

c. Keep feet together
When a patient fails to keep an appointment the medical assistant should



a. bill the appointment fee to the insurance company.


b. document the failed appointment in the patient's chart.


c. call the patient's nearest relative.


d. refuse further treatments.

b. document the failed appointment in the patient's chart.
Which of the following type of magazines or journals should not be in the reception area?



a. Good Housekeeping


b. Reader's Digest


c. U.S. New and World Report


d. Physician's professional journals

d. Physician's professional journals
Who is the legal owner of the medical record (original hardcopy or electronic medical record)?



a. The patient


b. The patient's insurance company


c. Both the physician and the patient


d. The physician or medical facility which initiated and developed the record

d. The physician or medical facility which initiated and developed the record

The signature of the treating physician, medical assistant, or other healthcare provider on the medical record indicates that the record is accurate. This is called




a. authorization.


b. encryption.


c. authentication.


d. accessibility

c. authentication.
Which of the following is the correct way to write the first line of an inside address in a letter to Susan Martin, a pediatrician?



a. Susan Martin, Pediatrician


b. Dr. Susan Martin, MD


c. Doctor Susan Martin


d. Susan Martin, MD

d. Susan Martin, MD



When addressing a letter to a physician, omit the courtesy title and type the physician’s name, followed by his or her academic degree

Which of the following dates is written correctly for inclusion in the heading of a business letter?



a. 7/27/11


b. July 27th, 2011


c. July 27, 2011


d. July 27, '11

c. July 27, 2011
The method used to accommodate appointments for minor emergencies in the physician's office is to



a. advise the patient to call "911".


b. have special evening appointments for emergencies.


c. leave unassigned slots in the appointment schedule.


d. refer all emergency cases to the nearest paramedic station.

c. leave unassigned slots in the appointment schedule.
Which one of the following represents the statistical characteristics of human populations (as in date of birth, address, telephone number, occupation, place of employment) used especially to identify markets?



a. Consumer


b. Demographic


c. Template


d. Matrix

b. Demographic

When an order arrives from a supplier, the box should be inventoried. The list of the items included in a shipment is called the



a. invoice.


b. warranty.


c. receipt.


d. packing slip.

d. packing slip.
An approach of sensitivity to the individual needs and reactions of patients begins from the initial contact with the medical receptionist to the conclusion of the patient’s treatment. This approach is known as



a. sympathy.


b. sarcasm.


c. empathy.


d. malediction

c. empathy.

"For deposit only" is an example of what type of endorsement?



a. Blank


b. Restrictive


c. Special


d. Qualified

b. Restrictive
Consider the legal statement in which a person authorizes another person to act as his or her agent. The authority may be limited to the handling of specific procedures. The person to which authorization is granted is known as the



a. power of attorney for healthcare.


b. advance directive.


c. living will.


d. Patient's Bill of Rights

a. power of attorney for healthcare.
The process of proving that a bank statement and checkbook balance and are in agreement is known as



a. reconciliation.


b. routing.


c. clearing.


d. endorsing.

a. reconciliation.
Employers are required by law to withhold certain amounts from employees’ earnings. These amounts must be reported and forwarded to the IRS to be applied toward payment of income tax. The Income Tax Withholding is also known as



a. W-2


b. W-4


c. W-9


d. Form 1040

b. W-4
A compilation or average of physician fees over a given period is know as



a. fee profile.


b. a fee schedule.


c. posting.


d. a cycle schedule

a. fee profile.
An invoice for treatment of a patient who is now deceased should be mailed to the



a. patient.


b. beneficiary.


c. executor of estate.


d. policyholder.

c. executor of estate.
Which statement below is true with respect to an emancipated minor?



a. The parents or guardians of an emancipated minor are responsible for paying the bill


b. An emancipated minor is responsible for his or her own medical bill


c. An emancipated minor is a minor who does not wish to live with his or her parents or guardians and decides to live with a relative or friend instead. Courts do not intervene in these cases.


d. Only minors who are married can be legally emancipated

b. An emancipated minor is responsible for his or her own medical bill
The name that follows the words "Pay to the order of" on a check is the



a. endorsement.


b. maker.


c. payee.


d. payer.

c. payee
If the total income for one month is $17,500 and the total expenses for the same month are $15,500, the profit and loss statement would show a



a. gross profit of $17,500.


b. gross profit of $33,000.


c. net profit of $17,500.


d. net profit of $2,000.

d. net profit of $2,000
Which of the following entries are recorded in the adjustment column?



a. Insurance write-offs


b. Payments received


c. Services rendered


d. Credit balances

a. Insurance write-offs
Once a delinquent account has been turned over to a collection agency, the physician's office should



a. refer all inquiries to the collection agency.


b. offer the patient a payment plan.


c. continue to send monthly statements.


d. continue billing late fees.

a. refer all inquiries to the collection agency.
Medical sole proprietorship, partnerships, groups, and corporations are encouraged to purchase insurance policies that include benefits for medical expenses payable to individuals who are injured in the insured person’s home, business, or car, without regards to the insured person’s actual legal liability for the accident. This type of insurance is called



a. life insurance.


b. special risk insurance.


c. disability (loss of Income) protection.


d. liability insurance.

d. liability insurance
A written authorization by the patient giving the insurance company the right to pay the physician directly for billed services is known as the



a. copayment.


b. deductible.


c. assigment of Benefits.


d. premium.

c. assigment of Benefits
The term "total permanent impairment" means that the patient



a. is unable to work for one year.


b. is unable to perfor duties for 30 days.


c. may return to full occupational duty.


d. is unable to perform previous occupational duties.

d. is unable to perform previous occupational duties.
A military medical insurance plan that is administered by the government is



a. TRICARE


b. Medicare


c. Medicaid


d. HMO

a. TRICARE
In 2006, drug and prescription benefits were added allowing Medicare recipients the option of choosing, at a reduced cost, a plan that pays for prescription drugs with just a small co-payment from the patient. Beneficiaries choose the drug plan and pay a monthly premium. This option is



a. Medicare Part A


b. Medicare Part B


c. Medicare Part D


d. Medicare Advantage (formerly Medicare + Choice)

c. Medicare Part D
An example of a Medicare HCPCS code number is



a. 934.6


b. 99211


c. J0540


d. V72.3

c. J0540
Claims for Medicaid patients enrolled in a managed care plan are paid according to what fee schedule?



a. PPO


b. Medicaid


c. Medicare


d. Capitated

d. Capitated
A letter for statement from the insurance carrier describing what was paid, denied, or reduced in payment. Also contains information about amounts applied to the deductible, the patient’s co-insurance, and the allowed amounts.



a. Explanation of benefits (EOB)


b. Assignment of benefits (AOB)


c. Third-party administrator (TPA)


d. Participating provider (PAR)

a. Explanation of benefits (EOB)
Traditional health insurance plans that pay for all or a share of the cost of covered services, regardless of which physician, hospital, or other licensed healthcare provider is used. Policyholders and their dependents choose when and where to get healthcare services.



a. Indemnity plan


b. Health maintenance organization plan


c. Self-insured plan


d. Managed care plan

a. Indemnity plan
The routine waiving of co-payments



a. is allowed for professional courtesy.


b. shows goodwill by a physician.


c. is against federal guidelines.


d. helps lower receivables.

c. is against federal guidelines.
This insurance covers health benefits program for the spouses and dependent children of veterans suffering total, permanent, service-connected disabilities and for surviving spouses and dependent children of veterans who died as a result of service-related disabilities.



a. TRICARE Prime


b. TRICARE Extra


c. TRICARE Standard


d. CHAMPVA

d. CHAMPVA
Medicare patients treated by a non-participating physician



a. are responsible for billing Medicare.


b. are covered at 100% of the physician's charge


. c. pay a higher deductible


. d. are responsible for a portion of the fee.

d. are responsible for a portion of the fee
Medicare Part B pays physicians on a fee scale consisting of three parts: 1. Physician’s work. 2. Charge-based professional liability expenses. 3. Charge-based overhead. This fee scale is known as



a. Resource-based Relative Value Scale (RBRVS)


b. Diagnostic Related Group (DRG)


c. CMS-1500


d. Fee-for-Service Scale

a. Resource-based Relative Value Scale (RBRVS)
Accepting assignment on a Medicare claim means that the physician is compensated



a. 70% of the allowable charge.


b. 100% of the limiting charge.


c. 80% of approved amount.


d. 100% of the usual and customary fee.

c. 80% of approved amount
Medicare Part B covers



a. prescription drugs.


b. routine eye examinations.


c. elective cosmetic surgery.


d. prescription medical equipment.

d. prescription medical equipment.
The policy describing a period of non-coverage for conditions diagnosed prior to the issuance of an insurance benefit plan is called



a. an exclusion.


b. a special risk rider.


c. a hold-harmless clause.


d. a pre-existing conditions waiver.

d. a pre-existing conditions waiver.
A "non-duplication of benefits" is also called



a. major medical.


b. service benefit plan.


c. co-payment plan.


d. coordination of benefits.

d. coordination of benefits.
When educating your patient, which of the following is not recommended for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis



a. avoid compression stockings


b. If anticoagulants have been prescribed, eat foods high in vitamin K in small amounts


c. Avoid sitting still for long periods


d. Walk around several times during the day or move the legs frequently

a. avoid compression stockings
Educating female patients on signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction includes all of the following EXCEPT



a. back pain or aching and throbbing in the biceps or forearms.


b. shortness of breath (SOB).


c. feeling of lightness or feeling famished in the mediastinum.


d. dizziness (vertigo) – unexplained lightheadedness or syncopal episodes.

c. feeling of lightness or feeling famished in the mediastinum.
Patient education for preventing Lyme disease includes all of the following EXCEPT



a. Wear pants tucked into socks and long-sleeved shirts when walking in wooded or grassy areas


b. Use insect repellants that contain DEET


c. Understand that deer ticks are no bigger than the head of a pin or a grain of pepper


d. Remove a tick by squeezing or crushing the tick with tweezers

d. Remove a tick by squeezing or crushing the tick with tweezers
Diabetic patient education must be acknowledged and followed by the patient. Which of the following is NOT recommended for the diabetic patient?



a. Maintain plasma glucose level between 120 and 200 mg/dL Correct


b. Stop smoking. Smoking causes vasoconstriction which reduces circulation to the extremities Incorrect


c. Wash your feet every day with warm (not hot) water and mild soap Incorrect


d. Check your feet every day, using a mirror if necessary.

a. Maintain plasma glucose level between 120 and 200 mg/dL
With respect to educating patients on the functions of minerals in the body, which combination of mineral to sources is in



a. Calcium– milk and milk products, dark green, leafy vegetables, tofu and soy products


b. Potassium– bananas, raisins, green beans, broccoli, carrots, potatoes, meats, peanut butter


c. Sodium– salt, milk and milk products, vegetables


d. Iron– nuts, whole grains, vegetables, coffee, tea, cocoa, egg yolks

d. Iron– nuts, whole grains, vegetables, coffee, tea, cocoa, egg yolks
Patient education for minor burn care involves all of the following EXCEPT



a. Gentle cleansing of the wound with bactericidal solution (i.e. povidone-iodine solution [Betadine])


b. Covering the wound with an antibiotic ointment (silver sulfadiazine)


c. Eating a low-calorie, low- protein diet to promote healing


d. Paying attention for fever, malaise, inflammation, swelling, increased pain, odor, and draining from the burn area

c. Eating a low-calorie, low- protein diet to promote healing
The technique used to let a patient know how you interpreted the message he or she is communicating is called



a. focusing.


b. reflecting.


c. restating.


d. clarification.

c. restating.
Positioning or sitting behind a desk communicates the message of



a. authority.


b. impartiality.


c. congruency.


d. acknowledgment.

a. authority.
This type of listening is highly recommended for health care providers and patients in communicating needs. It involves participation in a conversation with another by means of repeating words and phrases or giving approving or disapproving nods.



a. Active listening


b. Inactive listening


c. Casual listening


d. Discriminative listening

a. Active listening
The justification of behavior with socially-acceptable reasons and the tendency to ignore the real reasons underlying the behavior is a defense mechanism. An example is, “I dieted strictly all day; therefore, it’s okay to eat a couple of candy bars later in the evening after supper.” This defense mechanism is known as



a. repression.


b. displacement.


c. compensation.


d. rationalization.

d. rationalization.
The provision of medical care to physician's colleagues, their families, or staff free of charge (or at a reduced fee) is called



a. professional courtesy.


b. contingent fee.


c. fee schedule.


d. account receivable

a. professional courtesy.
If a physician accepts payment from another physician solely for referral of a patient, both are guilty of an unethical practice called



a. marketing.


b. fee waiver.


c. fee splitting.


d. contractual relationship.

c. fee splitting.
Dr. Martin agrees to perform an appendectomy on Mrs. O’Hara. Mrs. O’Hara has received anesthesia and is prepped for surgery. Dr. Martin is double-booked so he allows the Chief Resident, Dr. Thompson, to perform Mrs. O’Hara’s appendectomy. The practice of substituting another surgeon without the patient’s consent is the unethical situation known as



a. surgical fee splitting.


b. contingent surgery.


c. ghost surgery.


d. surgical professional courtesy.

c. ghost surgery.
A physician performed plastic surgery on a patient and later published an article about the procedure in a medical journal. A photograph of the surgical site was included. Permission to publish the photograph had not been obtained. This act is an example of



a. negligence.


b. malfeasance.


c. invasion of privacy.


d. fraud.

c. invasion of privacy.
A medical assistant makes a medication error while under the physician’s direction. The patient is injured and files a medical malpractice lawsuit. The court determines that the physician is liable for the medical assistant’s negligence. This is known as the doctrine of



a. respondeat superior.


b. res ispa loquitur.


c. locum tenens.


d. res judicata.

a. respondeat superior.
n the absence of the employing physician, a medical assistant determines that a patient needs a prescription drug and dispenses the wrong drug from the physician’s supply the performance of this totally wrongful and unlawful act is known as



a. malfeasance.


b. misfeasance.


c. nonfeasance.


d. duty.

a. malfeasance.
Medical Practice Acts are laws enacted to



a. define what is included in the practice of medicine.


b. provide medical leave for employees.


c. prevent malpractice.


d. institute arbitration.

a. define what is included in the practice of medicine.
Which of the following is a court order requiring a witness to produce records for a trial?



a. Bench Warrant


b. Writ


c. Interrogatory


d. Subpoena duces tecum

d. Subpoena duces tecum
In some states, a minor is legally unable to make treatment decisions with limited exceptions. Under what circumstances would a patient such as Jane Doe, a 16-year-old minor, suffering from cancer, be allowed to refuse continued chemotherapy treatments?



a. Being an emancipated minor


b. Being declared mentally incompetent


c. Being abandoned by her parents


d. under the doctrine of Res Ipsa Loquitur

a. Being an emancipated minor
the criteria of “duty owed, dereliction of duty, direct cause, and damages” are used in reference to which of the following situations?



a. The burden of proof in a criminal case


b. Providing emergency treatment with informed consent


c. Withholding or withdrawing life support measures


d. Assessing the possibility of negligence Correct

d. Assessing the possibility of negligence
An example of a medical assistant illegally practicing medicine is



a. interviewing a patient.


b. giving advice on a patient condidtion.


c. scheduling a patient appointment.


d. taking vital signs.

b. giving advice on a patient condidtion.
Which of the following cases would best exemplify the concept of res ipsa loquitur?



a. A physician writes a schedule II drug prescription with no refills


b. A health care provider consults another provider for a patient requiring a specialist


c. A surgeon leaves a sponge in a patient’s abdominal cavity after abdominal surgery


d. A physician advises against unnecessary surgery

c. A surgeon leaves a sponge in a patient’s abdominal cavity after abdominal surgery
Under this doctrine, physicians are legally responsible for the acts of their employees when they are acting within the scope of their duties or employment.



a. Respondeat superior


b. Reciprocity


c. The Occupational Safety and Health Act


d. Patient's Bill of Rights

a. Respondeat superior
The purpose of HIPAA security standards is to set national standards for safeguarding the confidentiality of



.a. electronic exchange of patient information.


b. insurance premium information.


c. paper-based patient files.


d. office employee files.

a. electronic exchange of patient information.
Which of the following is a legally binding request to provide records or documents to a court that is usually issued to the person considered the custodian of the records?



a. Prima facie


b. Respondeat superior


c. Subpoena duces tecum


d. Res judicata.

c. Subpoena duces tecum
The Committee on Medicolegal Problems of the American Medical Association (AMA) has determined that patients must present evidence of four elements before negligence has been proven. Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements of negligence?



a. Duty b. Defamation


b. Defamation


c. Direct cause


d. Damages

b. Defamation
The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from



a. loss of credentials.


b. civil and criminal liability.


c. contracting diseases.


d. accidental injury.

b. civil and criminal liability.
An accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity is



a. melena.


b. degultition.


c. eructation


d. ascites.

d. ascites.
A small mass of masticated food ready to be swallowed is



a. bolus.


b. chyme.


c. anabolism.


d. catabolism.

a. bolus.
The combining form that means "red" is



a. xantho


b. leuko


c. erythro


d. melano

c. erythro
The medical term for indigestion is



a. dyspepsia.


b. dyspahagia.


c. stomatitis.


d. ascites

a. dyspepsia.
Encephalopathy is defined as



a. swelling of the brain.


b. deterioration of the brain


c. inflammation of the brain


d. any dysfunction of the brain

d. any dysfunction of the brain
The prefix "ad" means



a. to move away from.


b. to add to.


c. around.


d. removal of

b. to add to
The term "myotomy" means incision into



a. a tendon.


b. a muscle.


c. the eardrum.


d. the spinal cord

b. a muscle.
"Ostomy" is a



a. root.


b. prefix


c. suffix.


d. combining form.

c. suffix.
Which one of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?



a. E


b. K


c. C


d. D

c. C
The surgical incision into the abdomen is



a. ileostomy.


b. vagotomy.


c. hemiotomy.


d. laparotomy

d. laparotomy
Inflammation of the salivary gland is known as:



a. saladenitis.


b. sialadenitis.


c. sialaden


d. sialoangitis

b. sialadenitis.
Which of the following means pertaining to after meals?



a. Postocular


b. Postfebrile


c. Postictal


d. Postprandial

d. Postprandial
A hernia of part of the rectum into the vagina is called



a. rectocele.


b. rectolingual.


c. rectostensosis.


d. rectouretheral.

a. rectocele.
The inflammation of the pancreas is



a. pancreatis.


b. pancreatitis.


c. pancreatin.


d. pancreatic

b. pancreatitis.
The medical term for a toothache is



a. detoid.


b. denticle.


c. dentalgia.


d. dentibuccal.

c. dentalgia.
The medical term for inflammation of the liver is



a. hepatitis


b. hepatomegaly


c. cirrhosis


d. ascites

a. hepatitis
Which of the following is the most common eye condition associated with aging?



a. Glaucoma


b. Presbyopia


c. Conjunctivitis


d. Astigmatism

b. Presbyopia
The combining form "hist/o" means



a. fat.


b. tissue.


c. organ.


d. muscle

b. tissue.
Egg cells are produced where?



a. Vagina


b. Ovarian follicles


c. Uterus


d. Fallopian tubes

b. Ovarian follicles
The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through which artery?



a. aorta


b. carotid


c. coronary


d. pulmonary

a. aorta
The internal folds of the stomach are known as



a. villi


b. rugae


c. cilia


d. convolutions

b. rugae
The function of insulin is to



a. promote carbohydrate synthesis


b. convert glucose into fat


c. accelerate liver glycogenolysis


d. assist glucose into the cells

d. assist glucose into the cells
The cavity within the kidney that collects urine is the



a. ureter


b. renal pelvis


c. urinary bladder


d. Bowman's capsule

b. renal pelvis
The body part that matches with the popliteal artery is the



a. feet.


b. leg.


c. groin.


d. neck.

b. leg.
The thoracic cavity is lined by the



a. pleural membrane.


b. meninges.


c. peritoneum.


d. mediastinum.

a. pleural membrane.
The ventral cavity refers to the



a. cranial cavity.


b. spinal cavity.


c. anterior body cavities.


d. posterior body cavities

c. anterior body cavities.
The major function of the circulatory system is



a. recognition of sensory stimuli.


b. transportation.


c. protection.


d. storage.

b. transportation.
Sperm and egg cell maturity begin at



a. conception


b. birth


c. puberty


d. menopause

c. puberty
A nerve impulse is carried across a synapse by



a. an axon


b. a neuron


c. a dendrite


d. a neurotransmitter

d. a neurotransmitter
At what point does systolic pressure occur?



a. During ventricular relaxation


b. During ventricular contraction


c. During contraction of the atria


d. During relaxation of the atria

b. During ventricular contraction
Digestion that breaks food into tiny pieces is



a.mechanical.


b. chemical


. c. peristaisis.


d. relaxation

a. mechanical.
The gray matter on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres is called the



a. cerebrum


b. cerebellum


c. cerebral cortex


d. corpus callosum

c. cerebral cortex
When a muscle contracts, it becomes



a. shorter and thinner


b. longer and thicker


c. shorter and thicker


d. longer and thinner

c. shorter and thicker
The receptors for hearing and equilibrium are located in the



a. eardrum


b. inner ear


c. middle ear


d. external ear

b. inner ear
Night blindness may be caused by a deficiency of



a. niacin


b. thiamin


c. vitamin A


d. vitamin D

c. vitamin A
The lining of the uterus is called the



a. myometrium


b. endometrium


c. peritoneum


d. mycardium

b. endometrium
The outer ear includes the



a. eardrum


b. cochlea


c. eustachian tube


d. ear canal

d. ear canal
Where are the sublingual glands located?



a. Esophagus


b. Beneath mucous membrane


c. Labia


d. Abdomen

b. Beneath mucous membrane
Which of the following constitutes 2%-4% of the WBCs?



a. Neutrophils


b. Eosinophils


c. Platelets


d. Basophils

b. Eosinophils
Digestion DOES NOT involve which organ?



a. Tongue


b. Spleen


c. Large intestine


d. Liver

b. Spleen
A medical assistant taking a pulse by listening to the heart is taking a



a. radial pulse.


b. pedal pulse.


c. carotid pulse.


d. apical pulse.

d. apical pulse.
The three sections of the small intestine are the



a. cecum, duodenum, and ileum


b. duodenum, jejunum, and ileum


c. duodenum, sigmoid, and jejunum


d. ascending, transverse, and descending

b. duodenum, jejunum, and ileum
The outer layer of the skin is the



a. dermis


b. corium


c. epidermis


d. subcutaneous

c. epidermis
The protein in epidermal cells that makes the skin relatively waterproof is



a. elastin


b. keratin


c. melanin


d. collagen

b. keratin
The kidneys are located behind the



a. peritoneum


b. spinal column


c. bladder


d. sternum

a. peritoneum
The duodenum is part of the



a. small Intestine.


b. liver.


c. large intestine.


d. stomach.

a. small Intestine.
The thin membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the white of the eye is the



a. cornea


b. choroid


c. sclera


d. conjunctiva

d. conjunctiva
Where do peristaltic waves occur?



a. Large intestine


b. Esophagus


c. Small Intestine


d. Liver

b. Esophagus
The hormone responsible for ovulation is



a. FSH


b. TSH


c. LH


d. ACTH

c. LH
Growth hormone is produced in the



.a. thymus


b. thyroid


c. pancreas


d. pituitary

d. pituitary
Where is chyme produced?



a. Liver


b. Pancreas


c. Heart


d. Stomach

d. Stomach
Approximately 60% of the plasma proteins are formed by



a. albumins.


b. platelets.


c. plasma.


d. basophils.

a. albumins.
The urinary system consists of



a. two kidneys and the urethra.


b. two kidneys, two ureters, urinary bladder and the urethra.


c. the urinary bladder, two kidneys and the urethra.


d. the urethra, two kidneys and two ureters

b. two kidneys, two ureters, urinary bladder and the urethra.
Permanent adult dentition consists of ___ teeth.



a. 32


b. 30


c. 20


d. 18

a. 32
A doughnut-shaped gland that encircles the urethra is the



a. urinary bladder.


b. bulbourethral glands.


c. prostate gland.


d. none of the above.

c. prostate gland.
The origin of a muscle is



a. where the muscle ends.


b. always attached to a bone.


c. where the muscle begins.


d. attached to another muscle.

c. where the muscle begins.
Muscles are attached to bones by



a. fascia


b. tendons


c. ligaments


d. joints

b. tendons
Prostatic hypertrophy is



a. enlarged prostate


b. inflamed prostate


c. no prostate


d. decreased in size of the prostate

a. enlarged prostate
Functional units of the lungs that are air sacs are called



a. parietal pleura


b. alveoli


c. visceral pleura


d. bronchioles

b. alveoli
What is the first portion of the small intestinal?



a. Ileum


b. Jejunum


c. Cecum


d. Duodenum

d. Duodenum
The suffix meaning "inflammation" is



a. osis


b. ectomy


c. itis


d. desis

c. itis
Which of the following is the correct spelling of the term meaning inflammation of the tonsils?



a. Tonsilitis


b. Tonsillitis


c. Toncilitis


d. Toncillitis

b. Tonsillitis
Ostomy" is a



a. root.


b. prefix


c. suffix.


d. combining form.

c. suffix.
Inflammation of the salivary gland is known as:



a. saladenitis.


b. sialadenitis.


c. sialaden


d. sialoangitis

b. sialadenitis.
The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from



a. loss of credentials.


b. civil and criminal liability.


c. contracting diseases.


d. accidental injury.

b. civil and criminal liability.
Translated as “the thing speaks for itself”, which of the following is evidence showing that negligence by the accused person may be reasonably inferred from the nature of the injury occurring to the plaintiff?



a. non compus mentis


b. Quid quo pro


c. Res ipsa loquitur


d. Corpus jusis

c. Res ipsa loquitur
Which of the following is an appropriate responsibility for the medical assistant when assisting the physician with a surgical procedure?



a. Assuring the patient that they will tolerate the procedure well


b. Discussing the details of the procedure with the patient in order to obtain written consent for the surgical procedure


c. Advising the patient about nonsurgical treatment alternatives


d. Ensuring that there is a signed patient consent form on file

d. Ensuring that there is a signed patient consent form on file
Medical Practice Acts are laws enacted to



a. define what is included in the practice of medicine.


b. provide medical leave for employees.


c. prevent malpractice.


d. institute arbitration.

a. define what is included in the practice of medicine.
Which of the following terms indicates consent in which there is an understanding of the treatment that will be performed, why it should be performed, any alternative methods of treatment, and the risks and benefits of the treatments discussed?



a. Compensatory


b. Exemplary


c. Informed


d. Obligatory

c. Informed
HIPAA requires covered entities to submit Medicare claims



a. through claims processing centers.


b. through electronic data exchange.


c. by paper CMS 1500 forms.


d. by facsimile transmission.

b. through electronic data exchange.
A discussion involving the physician providing the patient or the patient’s legal representative with a deeper understanding of the patient’s condition, a full explanation of the plan for treatment, and enough information to decide whether the patient will undergo the treatment or seek an alternative is called what type of consent?



a. Implied consent


b. Informed consent


c. Reasonable consent


d. Contributory consent

b. Informed consent
The Committee on Medicolegal Problems of the American Medical Association (AMA) has determined that patients must present evidence of four elements before negligence has been proven. Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements of negligence?



a. Duty


b. Defamation


c. Direct cause


d. Damages

b. Defamation
he patient puts out his or her arm to allow the medical assistant to draw blood. This type of consent is called



a. express.


b. implied.


c. informed.


d. limited.

b. implied.
If a caring family member asks about a patient’s treatment, the medical assistant should



a. provide only information that has been authorized by the patient.


b. share all information with the relative.


c. ignore the relative and walk away.


d. assure the relative that the patient will be fine.

a. provide only information that has been authorized by the patient.
The avoidance of confronting a personal problem or reality by acting as if the problem or reality never existed is a defense mechanism known as



a. displacement.


b. denial.


c. physical avoidance.


d. projection.

b. denial.
Educating female patients on signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction includes all of the following EXCEPT



a. back pain or aching and throbbing in the biceps or forearms.


b. shortness of breath (SOB).


c. feeling of lightness or feeling famished in the mediastinum.


d. dizziness (vertigo) – unexplained lightheadedness or syncopal episodes.

c. feeling of lightness or feeling famished in the mediastinum
A payment method used by many managed care organizations in which a fixed amount of money is reimbursed to the provider for patients enrolled during a specific period of time, no matter what services are received or how many visits are made.



a. Remittance advice


b. Rider


c. Capitation


d. Premium

c. Capitation
Which one of the following is an insurance claim processing error?



a. Entering all diagnoses on the claim


b. Using "rule out" diagnosis


c. Recording one item per line


d. Using both ICD-9 abd CPT codes

b. Using "rule out" diagnosis
Types of health insurance and plan benefits: This type of benefit covers catastrophic or prolonged illness or injury. This insurance takes over when basic medical, hospitalization, and surgical benefits end.



a. Disability


b. Major medical


c. Special risk


d. Long-term care

b. Major medical
This insurance covers health benefits program for the spouses and dependent children of veterans suffering total, permanent, service-connected disabilities and for surviving spouses and dependent children of veterans who died as a result of service-related disabilities.



a. TRICARE Prime


b. TRICARE Extra


c. TRICARE Standard


d. CHAMPVA

d. CHAMPVA
Claims with a signed assignment of benefits are paid to the



a. physician.


b. patient.


c. employer.


d. billing agency

a. physician.
An organization that contracts with the government to handle and mediate insurance claims from the medical facilities, home health agencies, or providers of medical services or supplies.



a. Guarantor


b. Service benefit plan


c. Fiscal intermediary


d. Carrier

c. Fiscal intermediary
Things that are owed or debts are called



a. assets.


b. liabilities.


c. equities.


d. proprietorship.

b. liabilities.
Summaries identifying which patient accounts are 30, 60, 90, and 120 days overdue include



a. cash flow statements.


b. trial balance.


c. income and expense.


d. age analysis.

d. age analysis.
Expenses that will most likely be included in the capital budget for a medical facility are



a. medical equipment.


b. rent or mortgage.


c. salaries.


d. office supplies.

a. medical equipment.
Banking fees will appear on a monthly statement in the form of a



a. credit.


b. service charge.


c. withdrawal.


d. overdraft.

b. service charge.
What income tax form is mandated, by law, to be given to every employee at the end of the year?



a. W-4 form


b. W-2 form


c. I-9 form


d. 1040 form

b. W-2 form
The cost to a physician for the services of a collection agency is usually



a. a flat monthly fee.


b. a percentage of each amount collected.


c. a flat fee per account collected.


d. the full amount collected.

b. a percentage of each amount collected.
To properly void a check write "VOID" across the front and



a. retain it with canceled checks, in numeric order.


b. destroy it after receiving the bank statement.


c. return it to the bank.


d. destroy it immediately.

a. retain it with canceled checks, in numeric order.
A medical assistant, made an incorrect entry into her patient’s medical record. She understands that corrections in the medical record are made by



a. obliterating the incorrect entry.


b. drawing a line through the text to be corrected and then writing the new information above the old.


c. drawing a line through the text to be corrected, writing the new information above the old, dating the new entry, and signing it.


d. removing and shredding the page with the incorrect entry from the paper record.

c. drawing a line through the text to be corrected, writing the new information above the old, dating the new entry, and signing it.
What information would you need in order to properly matrix the appointment book or electronic medical record?



a. Patient preferences regarding appointment times


b. Days and hours the physician performs hospital rounds


. Patient wait times in exam rooms


d. Modified wave scheduling patterns

b. Days and hours the physician performs hospital rounds
When an order arrives from a supplier, the box should be inventoried. The list of the items included in a shipment is called the



a. invoice.


b. warranty.


c. receipt.


d. packing slip.

d. packing slip.
The medical assistant develops a matrix or a template prior to creating the physician’s schedule in order to



a. establish the legality of the appointment book.


b. prevent overcrowding in the reception area.


c. block out time slots when the physician is not available to see patients.


d. allow patient self scheduling

c. block out time slots when the physician is not available to see patients.
Sterile field rules include all of the following EXCEPT



a. talking over a sterile field should be kept to a minimum.


b. sterile team members do not need to face each other.


c. always keep the sterile field in your view.


d. nonsterile persons or items should never cross the sterile field.

b. sterile team members do not need to face each other.
What are the two most important factors in performing an effective hand wash?



a. Friction and running warm water


b. Antibacterial soap and hot water


c. Length of time spent and type of soap


d. Position of hands and temperature of water

a. Friction and running warm water
The third level of infection control is



a. disinfection.


b. sterilization.


c. sanitization.


d. washing.

b. sterilization.
What kind of machines do electrocardiograph technicians operate?



a. EEG


b. EKG


c. MRI


d. Ultrasound

b. EKG
Instruments used to take blood pressure are the



a. sphygmomnometer and stethoscope.


b. stethoscope and sphygmomometer.


c. sphygmomanometer and stethoscope.


d. sphygmanometer and stethscope.

c. sphygmomanometer and stethoscope.
Which of the following is not associated with Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus?



a. Due to lack of insulin


b. Type 1


c. Type1Aand Type 1B


d. Type II

d. Type II
A marked drop in blood pressure is found with



a. shock.


b. fright.


c. hysteria.


d. hypertension.

a. shock.
The position pictured below is the  

  a. dorsal recubent. 
b. jacknife. 
c. knee-chest. 
d. Sim's.
The position pictured below is the



a. dorsal recubent.


b. jacknife.


c. knee-chest.


d. Sim's.

d. Sim's.
The "Snellen Chart" is used to test



a. reflexes.


b. hearing.


c. smell.


d. sight.

d. sight.
The method used to perform a breast examination is



a. palpation.


b. percussion.


c. auscultation.


d. mensuration.

a. palpation.
Cheyne Stokes describes a



a. stethoscope.


b. surgical instrument.


c. type of pulse.


d. type of respiration.

d. type of respiration
A drug used to relieve pain is an



a. antidote.


b. antibiotic.


c. analgesic.


d. antidepressant

c. analgesic.
Michelle has an order to administer a TB test to her patient. She knows that the body sites used for an intradermal injection are the



a. deltoid muscle and/or gluteal muscle.


b. anterior forearm and the upper back.


c. outer forearm and the thigh.


d. the thigh and/or the middle of the back

b. anterior forearm and the upper back.
Sarah is administering an influenza shot to her patient. She knows that when administering an injection into the deltoid muscle, caution must be taken to avoid the



a. sciatic nerve.


b. radial and ulnar nerves.


c. clavicle.


d. greater trochanter.

b. radial and ulnar nerves.
Which of the following sutures does not require removal from the body?



a. Nylon


b.Silk


c. Catgut


d. Cotton

c. Catgut
The preanalytical phase of laboratory procedures refers to



a. the laboratory testing phase in which tests are ordered and specimens are collected and prepared for testing.


b. a period of time after a specimen has been centrifuged but before serum or plasma has been removed for testing.


c. the laboratory testing phase when the test results go back to the MD.


d. a period of time when the MD will use the laboratory results to treat his patient.

a. the laboratory testing phase in which tests are ordered and specimens are collected and prepared for testing.
A normal color of urine is



a. turbid.


b. straw.


c. orange.


d. clear.

b. straw.
When performing a sedimentation rate, the Wintrobe or Westergren tube is filled to the level marked



a. 0mm


b. 10mm


c. 20mm


d. 50mm

a. 0mm
The major components of a routine urinalysis are



a. chemical, visual, and culture.


b. physical, chemical and microscopic.


c. visual, analytic, and microscopic.


d. physical, analytical and chemical

b. physical, chemical and microscopic.
he appropriate first response to a syncope episode is to



a. place the patient supine with legs elevated.


b. assist the patient into a sitting position.


c. offer sips of cold water to the patient.


d. call "911"

a. place the patient supine with legs elevated.