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336 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Shock is indicated by a systolic blood pressure reading of _______.
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lower than 60 mmHg
|
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Normal blood pressure is:
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110 to 140 mmHg systolic and 60 to 80 diastolic
|
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High blood pressure is:
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over 140 mmHg systolic and over 90 mmHg diastolic
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What is measured in mmHg?
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Blood pressure
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A radiography who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals may be found guilty of:
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invasion of privacy
|
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If a radiography discloses personal information of a patient to an unauthorized individual and this is detrimental to the patient or otherwise harmful the radiography may be accused of:
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Defamation
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Spoken defamation is ________. Written defamation is _________.
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slander, libel
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Describe the lithotomy position.
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Patient supine, legs bent, feet in stirrups.
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Anaphylaxis is :
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allergic reaction
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The infection phase in which case the infection is most communicable is the:
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disease phase
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The initial phase of infection is the:
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Latent period
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The phase of infection in which the microbes reproduce is the:
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incubation period
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The phase of infection in which the patient fights of the infection, and the symptoms regress is the:
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convalescent (recovery) phase
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What would a diastolic blood pressure reading of 95 signify?
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Higher than average bp
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What is the term used to describe a patient that is unable to breathe easily while recumbent?
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orthopnea
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The complete killing of all microorganisms is termed:
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Sterilization
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The type of shock associated with pooling of blood in the peripheral vessels is:
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Neurogenic
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What legal phrase defines a circumstance in which both the health care provider's and the patient's actions contributed to an injury?
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Contributory negligence
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What would a diastolic pressure of 100 mmHg signify?
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Hypertension
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Which ethical principle is related to the theory that patients have the right to decide what will or will not be done to them?
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Autonomy
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True or false. Pyelography requires restriction of a patient's diet.
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True
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The radiographer must perform which procedures prior to entering a contact isolation room with a mobile unit?
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Put on gown and gloves
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Give two examples of NG tubes.
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Salem-sump and Levin
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The most effective method of sterilization is:
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Moist heat (autoclaving)
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What is nitroglycerin is used for:
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To relieve pain from angina pectoris
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True or false. A radiographer should wear protective eyewear when assisting with an angiogram.
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true
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What is the normal BUN range?
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8 to 25 mg/100 mL
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In what order should the following exams be performed: upper GI, IV urogram, and a barium enema?
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IV urogram, BE, upper GI
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A vasodilator would most likely be used for:
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Angina
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The pain experienced by an individual whose coronary arteries are not conveying sufficient blood to the heart is called:
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Angina pectoris
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True or false. When radiographing young children it is helpful to tell them that it will not hurt.
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False
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__________ is intentional or unintentional act that involves personal injury or damage to a patient.
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A tort
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Guidelines for cleaning contaminated objects include:
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Cleaning from the least contaminated area to the most contaminated area and from the top down
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If a radiography performed a lumbar spine exam on a patient who was supposed to have an elbow exam, what charges could be brought against them?
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Battery
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Physical changes characteristic of gerontologic patients usually include:
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loss of bone calcium
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What is the difference between dysphagia and dysphasia?
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Dysphagia is difficulty swallowing. Dysphasia is a speech impairment caused by brain lesion.
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True or false. Tuberculosis patients require reverse isolation precautions.
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False
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A patient with syncope requires the patient to be placed in what position?
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Dorsal decub with feet elevated
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Chemical substances that are used to kill pathogenic bacteria are called:
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germicides and disinfectants
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True or false. Handwashing rules include to avoid hand lotion.
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False
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Where is the "sterile corridor" located?
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Between the draped patient and the instrument table
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The medical abbreviation meaning three times a day is:
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tid
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What conditions are best demonstrated with double contrast BE?
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Polyps and colitis
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What are the symptoms of an impending diabetic coma?
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increased urination, sweet-smelling breath and extreme thirst
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What are the symptoms of shock?
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Pallor, weakness, and increased pulse
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What is the normal range for creatinine levels?
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.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL
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Which position would best demonstrate the cervical pedicles?
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obliques
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True or false. The male pelvis is deeper than the female pelvis.
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True
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True or false. The female greater sciatic notch is wider than the male pelvis.
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True
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True or false. Angulation of the CR may be required to avoid foreshortening.
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True
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True or false. The intercondyloid fossa is visualized on an AP knee.
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False, tunnel view
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True or false. Ingestion of barium is a contraindication for suspected large-bowel obstruction.
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True
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Flattening of the diaphragm is characteristic of which condition?
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Emphysema
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What projection of the foot best demonstrates the longitudinal arch?
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Lateral weight bearing
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In the AP axial projection of the skull (towne method), which bone is best demonstrated?
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Occipital
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During which position is are the cervical intervertebral foramina best demonstrated?
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Oblique
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True or false. From anterior to posterior the following structures can be found; apex of the heart, trachea, esophagus.
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True
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On a lateral decub of the abdomen the affected side would be _______ when looking for fluid.
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Up, for a chest exam the affected side is down
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To better demonstrate the mandibular rami in the PA position, is the CR angled cephalic or caudal?
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Cephalic
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True or false. An AP axial projection can supplement an odontoid view if the dens is not well visualized.
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False. An AP or PA through the foramen magnum
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How is the patient positioned to view the left SI joint in a AP position?
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LAO obliqued 25-30 degrees
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True or false. During lower extremity venography, the patient is often examined in the semi-erect position.
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True
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True or false. During lower extremity venography, the contrast is injected through a vein in the foot.
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True
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Which positions will demonstrate the right axillary ribs?
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LAO or RPO
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In which projection are the sinus tarsi, cuboid, and 5th tuberosity best demonstrated?
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Medial oblique foot
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What is the position of the gallbladder in an asthenic patient?
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inferior and medial
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To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in what position?
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Recumbent
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True or false the coronoid process and radial head will be superimposed in a lateral projection of the forearm.
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True
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True or false. The radial tuberosity will face medially in a lateral projection of the forearm.
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False, anteriorly
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True or false. The radius and the ulna will be superimposed both distally and proximally during a lateral projection of the forearm.
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False
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To obtain an AP projection of the right ilium, how is the patient positioned?
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Left side elevated 40 degrees
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True or false. An advantage of digital subtraction angiography is increased resolution.
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False, greater sensitivity to contrast medium and immediately available images
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Which projections would best visualize a pneumoperitoneum?
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Left lateral decub and upright
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Which structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in the AP axial projection of the skull (Grashey method) for occipital bone?
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Posterior clinoid process and dorsum sella
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What tube angle and direction is correct for an axial clavicle with the patient PA?
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15-30 degrees caudad
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What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint?
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Trochlea
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|
What positioning lines are used for a lateral skull?
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MSP, Interpupillary, IOML
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During myelography, contrast is injected into the ___________ space.
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Subarachnoid
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True or false. An axiolateral inferosuperior projection of the hip is useful for patients with limited movement of the unaffected leg.
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True
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True of false. An axiolateral inferosuperior projection of the hip is useful for patients with bilateral hip fractures.
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True
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The atlantoaxial joint is what type of joint?
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Synovial pivot
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What type of joint is the radioulnar joint?
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Synovial pivot
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In what position can the sesamoid bones be visualized free of superimposition?
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Tangential metatarsals/toes
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What is demonstrated with the Merchant position?
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Tangential patella
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What is demonstrated with the Hughston position?
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Tangential patella
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With the patient in the PA position and the OML and central ray perpendicular to the IR, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids:
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Completely within the orbits
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During atrial systole, blood flows into the right ventricle by way of what valve?
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Tricuspid
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With the patient seated at the end of the table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, CR angled 45 from the shoulder to the elbow, which structure will be best demonstrated?
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Coronoid process
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What position demonstrates the thoracic intervertebral foramina?
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Lateral
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What structure can be located midway between the ASIS and pubic symphysis?
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Dome of the acetabulum
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What should be done to better demonstrate the mandibular rami in a PA projection?
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Angle the CR cephalic
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What process is best seen using a perpendicular CR with the elbow in acute flexion and with the posterior aspect of the humerus adjacent to the IR?
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Olecranon
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What is the primary center of ossification in long bones?
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diaphysis
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True or false. To make the patient comfortable during a BE the radiographer should prepare a warm barium suspension to aid in retention.
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False
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At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?
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C4
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True or false. Single contrast studies are the best for demonstrating polyps.
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False
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True or false. The patient's arm should be internally rotated for an inferosuperior axial projection of the shoulder.
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False
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True or false. Single contrast studies of the stomach or large bowel demonstrate the gastric or bowel mucosa.
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False
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True or false. The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and in a slight oblique with the affected side adjacent to the IR.
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True
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When the patient is in a posterior oblique the kidney closest to the IR will be _________ to the IR and the upside kidney will be ___________ to the IR.
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Perpendicular, parallel
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True or false. An operative cholangiogram is useful for evaluating function of the sphincter of Oddi.
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True
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What type of joint is the knee joint?
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Diarthrodial
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The TMJ is what type of joint?
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Diarthrodial
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True or false. Drinking barium is useful for demonstrating the ilium.
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False
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What position would best demonstrate the lumbar intervertebral foramina?
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Lateral
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Which position best demonstrates the lumbar apophyseal joints closest to the IR?
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Posterior oblique
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The apophyseal articulations of the thoracic spine are demonstrated with the coronal plane ____ degrees to the IR.
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70 degrees
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What positions will demonstrate the glenohumeral joint?
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Scapular Y, inferosuperior axial, and transthoracic lateral
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During lower limb venography, tourniquets are applied above the knee and ankle to:
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Suppress filling of the superficial veins and coerce filling of the deep veins
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What women have the most homogeneous, glandular breast tissue?
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Postpubertal adolescent
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The body habitus characterized by a long and narrow thoracic cavity and low, midline stomach and gallbladder is the:
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Asthenic
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What type of fracture is described as a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?
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Avulsion
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With the patient's head in a PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalic, what part of the mandible will be best visualized?
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Rami
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During an IVU, the prone position is recommended to demonstrate:
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The renal pelvis and filling of the ureters
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To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45 degrees ____________.
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Toward the affected side
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Myelography is used to demonstrate what pathologies?
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extrinsic spinal cord compression resulting from disk herniation and post-traumatic swelling of the spinal cord
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True or false. For medicolegal reasons, images are required to include the patient's date of birth.
|
False. Name and/or ID#, side marker and date of exam.
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A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals could be found guilty of:
|
Invasion of privacy
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|
A hysterosalpingogram requires the patient to be placed in what position?
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lithotomy
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What angle would be used for a PA projection of a high and transverse stomach?
|
Cephalic 35-45 degrees
|
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The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult is:
|
Yellow marrow
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|
What position and CR angle will best demonstrate the L5-S1 interspace on an AP projection?
|
Patient AP with 30-35 degree angle cephalic
|
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Which metacarpal does the trapezium articulate with?
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First (thumb)
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Which position will effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in an asthenic patient?
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LAO
|
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The ileocecal valve is normally located in which body region?
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Right iliac
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Where is the intercondyloid fossa located?
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posterior aspect of the femur
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Where is the intertrochanteric crest located?
|
posterior aspect of the femur
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The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which position?
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Medial oblique elbow
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True or false. The talofibular joint is visualized on the lateral projection of the ankle.
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False. The talotibial joint is visualized.
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List two indications for an AP stress study of the ankle.
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Inversion or eversion injuries and to demonstrate a ligament tear
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What quadrant are the stomach and spleen located in?
|
LUQ
|
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True or false. In the lateral projection of the scapula, the acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed.
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False
|
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True or false. In an RAO sternum exam, the sternum is projected onto the left side of the thorax.
|
True
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AP erect left and right bending images of the t and l spine, to include 1 inch of the iliac crest, are performed to demonstrate:
|
scoliosis
|
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In which projection is the talofibular joint best demonstrated?
|
Medial oblique
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|
What is the sequence of the path of blood flow as it leaves the left ventricle?
|
Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins
|
|
What projection of the elbow should demonstrate the coronoid process free of superimposition and the olecranon process within the olecranon fossa?
|
Medial oblique
|
|
True or false. A myelogram may be performed in either the prone or flexed position.
|
True
|
|
True or false. During a myelogram, the patient's neck must be in extension during Trendelenburg positions.
|
True
|
|
The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation fo the heart is called:
|
pulse
|
|
Which bones participate in formation of the acetabulum?
|
Ilium, ischium, pubis
|
|
Which position demonstrates the l-spine apophyseal articulations?
|
30 degrees RPO
|
|
Which procedure requires a contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter?
|
Retrograde urography
|
|
Which exam can demonstrate ureteral reflux?
|
voiding cystourethrogram
|
|
True or false. When a hip fracture is suspected, the physician should be the only one to manipulate the affected extremity.
|
True
|
|
What condition is often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture?
|
Hydronephrosis
|
|
Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography?
|
Diarthrodial
|
|
When modifying the PA axial projection of the skull to demonstrate superior orbital fissures, the CR is directed:
|
20-25 CR degrees
|
|
Deoxygenated blood from the head and thorax is returned to the heart by the:
|
superior vena cava
|
|
Which projection is most likely to demonstrate the lpisiform free of superimposition?
|
AP medial oblique
|
|
The functions of which body system include mineral homeostasis, protection, and triglyceride storage?
|
Skeletal
|
|
True or false. Pancreatic function can be determined by an oral cholecystogram.
|
False
|
|
Radiography measurement of long bones of an upper or lower extremity requires which accessory?
|
Bell-Thompson scale
|
|
Which positions would best demonstrate the left apophyseal joints of the l-spine?
|
LPO or RAO
|
|
Blowout fractures to the orbit are best demonstrated in :
|
Parietoacanthial projection - water's method
|
|
Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest may be performed to demonstrate:
|
pneumothorax, foreign body, and atelectasis
|
|
What angle is formed by the MSP and the IR in the parietoorbital projection (Rhese method) of the optic canal?
|
53 degrees
|
|
The short, thick processes that project posteriorly from the vertebral body are the:
|
pedicles
|
|
True or false. The terminal bronchiole is considered part of the mediastinum.
|
False
|
|
Which projection is most likely to demonstrate the lpisiform free of superimposition?
|
AP medial oblique
|
|
The functions of which body system include mineral homeostasis, protection, and triglyceride storage?
|
Skeletal
|
|
True or false. Pancreatic function can be determined by an oral cholecystogram.
|
False
|
|
Radiography measurement of long bones of an upper or lower extremity requires which accessory?
|
Bell-Thompson scale
|
|
Which positions would best demonstrate the left apophyseal joints of the l-spine?
|
LPO or RAO
|
|
What position would best demonstrate the left apophyseal joints of the lumbar spine?
|
LPO
|
|
Blowout fractures of the orbit are best demonstrated using the :
|
Parietoacanthial projection (Water's method)
|
|
Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest may be performed to demonstrate:
|
pneumothorax, foreign body, atelectasis
|
|
What angle is formed by the MSP and the IR in the parietoorbital projection (Rhese method)?
|
53 degrees
|
|
True or false. For the AP projection of the scapula, the patient's elbow should be flexed with the hand supinated.
|
True
|
|
True or false. For the AP projection of the scapula, the exposure is made during quiet breathing.
|
True
|
|
The short, thick processes that project posteriorly from the vertebral body are the:
|
pedicles
|
|
True or false. The terminal bronchiole is considered a mediastinal structure.
|
False
|
|
True or false. To best demonstrate the ribs below the diaphragm, the patient should be in the recumbent position.
|
True
|
|
For an exact axial projection of the clavicle, the patient should be in what position?
|
Lordotic
|
|
Which projection of the calcaneous is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the central ray directed 40 degrees caudal?
|
Axial dorsoplantar projection
|
|
With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the table, a 15 to 20 degree caudal angle would place the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. To achieve the same result in a baby or small child, the angle would be changed to:
|
10-15 degrees caudad
|
|
In which tangential axial projection of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis?
|
Supine flexion 45 degrees (Merchant)
|
|
List three reasons an operative cholangiogram may be performed.
|
Visualize biliary stones or a neoplasm
Determine function of the hepatopancreatic ampulla Examine the patency of the biliary tract |
|
Late effects of radiation, whose incidence is dose related and for which there is no threshold dose, are referred to as:
|
Stochastic
|
|
According to the NCRP, the annual occupational dose equivalent limit to the lens of the eye is:
|
150 mSv
|
|
What is the approximate entrance skin exposure (ESE) for the average AP supine lumbar spine radiograph?
|
350 mrad
|
|
What is the established fetal dose limit guideline for pregnant radiographers during the entire gestation period?
|
500 mrem
|
|
True or false. Sources of natural background radiation contributing to whole body radiation dose include internal radionuclides.
|
True
|
|
What is used to account for the differences in ionizing characteristics of various radiations, when determining their effect on biologic material?
|
Radiation weighting factors
|
|
With mA increased to maintain output intensity, how is the ESE affected as the SSD is increased?
|
The ESE increases
|
|
Each time an xray beam scatters, its intensity at 1 m from the scattering object is what fraction of its original intensity?
|
1/1000
|
|
According to the NCRP, the annual occupational whole body dose equivalent limit is:
|
50 mSv
|
|
A thermoluminescent dosimetry system would use which type of crystals?
|
lithium fluoride
|
|
Sources of secondary radiation include:
|
leakage radiation and scatter radiation
|
|
What type of response relationship would the following be considered as: skin erythema, hematologic depression, and lethality?
|
Nonlinear threshold dose response relationship
|
|
The product of absorbed dose and the correct modifying factor (rad x QF) is used to determine:
|
rem (Sv)
|
|
True or false. A pregnant radiographer will wear a second dosimeter under the lead apron.
|
True
|
|
Medical and dental radiation accounts for what percentage of the general public's exposure to man-made radiation?
|
90%
|
|
Immature cells are referred to as:
|
undifferentiated cells, stem cells
|
|
The unit of measurement used to express occupational exposure is:
|
rem (Sv)
|
|
What is the approximate ESE for the average AP cervical spine radiograph?
|
80 mrad
|
|
To be in compliance with radiation safety standards, the fluoroscopy exposure switch must be:
|
The dead man type
|
|
Primary radiation barriers must be at least how high?
|
7 feet
|
|
The annual dose limit for occupationally exposed individuals is valid for what types of radiation?
|
beta, x-ray, and gamma radiations
|
|
Which acute radiation syndrome requires the largest exposure before any effects become apparent?
|
Central nervous system
|
|
The reduction in the intensity of an xray beam as it passes through material is termed:
|
Attenuation
|
|
Which type of dose response relationship expresses radiation-induced leukemia?
|
Linear, non-threshold
|
|
A dose of 25 rad to the fetus during the fourth or fifth week of pregnancy is more likely to cause:
|
Skeletal anomalies
|
|
What unit of measurement expresses the amount of energy deposited in tissue?
|
Rad (Gy)
|
|
The largest amount of diagnostic xray absorption will occur in which tissues?
|
Bone
|
|
What is dysphasia?
|
Difficulty speaking - neurological speech disorder
|
|
What is dysphagia?
|
Difficulty swallowing
|
|
What exam involves the introduction of contrast medium through a uterine cannula?
|
Hysterosalpingogram
|
|
The scapular y projection demonstrates what should position?
|
oblique
|
|
During an IVU, the prone position is generally recommended to demonstrate:
|
Filling of obstructed ureters and the renal pelvis
|
|
True or false. The talocalcaneal articulation participates in the formation of the ankle mortise.
|
False, talotibial and talofibular
|
|
True or false. A transverse fracture of the radial head may be seen in a Colles' fracture.
|
False, chip fracture of the ulnar styloid and posterior or backward displacement
|
|
What is the intensity of scattered radiation perpendicular to and 1 meter from the patient compared to the useful beam at the patient's surface?
|
.1 percent
|
|
What is the effect on relative biologic effectiveness (RBE) as LET increases?
|
RBE increases as LET increases
|
|
What is the term used to describe x-ray photon interaction with matter and the transference of part of the photon's energy to matter?
|
Scattering
|
|
To within what percentage of the SID must the collimator light and actual irradiated area be accurate?
|
2% of the SID
|
|
The conversion of the latent image into a manifest image takes place in the ____________ of the processor.
|
developer tank
|
|
If the quantity of black metallic silver on a particular radiograph is such that it allows 1% of the light to pass through the film, that film has a density of:
|
2, ranked 0-4 with 4 being black
|
|
What factors can affect demonstration of the anode heel affect?
|
SID and image recorder size
|
|
Most laser film must be handled:
|
In complete darkness
|
|
What combination of exposure factors and screen speed would best function to reduce quantum mottle?
|
decreased kVp, increased mAs, slow speed screens
|
|
True or false. CR cassettes must exclude all white light.
|
False
|
|
A device used to give a film a predetermined exposure in order to test its response to processing is called:
|
Sensitometer
|
|
The relationship between the height of a grid's lead strips and the distance between them is referred to as:
|
Grid ratio
|
|
The microswitch for controlling the amount of replenishment used in an automatic processor is located at the:
|
Entrance roller
|
|
What combination of exposure factors and screen speed would best function to reduce quantum mottle?
|
decreased kVp, increased mAs, slow speed screens
|
|
True or false. CR cassettes must exclude all white light.
|
False
|
|
A device used to give a film a predetermined exposure in order to test its response to processing is called:
|
Sensitometer
|
|
The relationship between the height of a grid's lead strips and the distance between them is referred to as:
|
Grid ratio
|
|
The microswitch for controlling the amount of replenishment used in an automatic processor is located at the:
|
Entrance roller
|
|
What combination of exposure factors and screen speed would best function to reduce quantum mottle?
|
decreased kVp, increased mAs, slow speed screens
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|
True or false. CR cassettes must exclude all white light.
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False
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|
A device used to give a film a predetermined exposure in order to test its response to processing is called:
|
Sensitometer
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|
The relationship between the height of a grid's lead strips and the distance between them is referred to as:
|
Grid ratio
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|
The microswitch for controlling the amount of replenishment used in an automatic processor is located at the:
|
Entrance roller
|
|
True or false. The voltage is directly related to the number of turns in the coils and the product of coltage and current in the two circuits must be equal.
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True
|
|
True or false. The voltage and current values are increased with a step up transformer.
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False. If one increases, the other must decrease.
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|
How will a 15% increase in kVp accompanied by a 50% decrease in mAs impact exposure latitude?
|
Increase in exposure latitude
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Using fixed mAs and variable kVp technical factors, each centimeter increase in patient thickness requires what adjustment in kVp?
|
Increase 2 kVp
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|
If a particular radiograph allows 10% of the illuminator light to pass through the film, that radiograph has a density of:
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1
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|
The use of optimum kVp for small, medium, and large body parts is the premise of what type of technique charts?
|
Fixed kVp, variable mAs charts
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|
Changes in window width in digital imaging result in changes in:
|
Contrast
|
|
Changes in window leveling result in changes in:
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Density or brightness
|
|
Voltage ripple associated with a 3-phase, 12-pulse rectified generator is approximately:
|
3%
|
|
The primary purpose of a falling-load x-ray generator is to minimize:
|
exposure time
|
|
A characteristic curve can be used to compare the film factors of:
|
Speed and recorded detail
|
|
The slope of the straight-line portion of the characteristic curve is used in the determination of:
|
Film contrast
|
|
Beam restriction has what effect on contrast?
|
Increases contrast
|
|
Which grid error will result in an image that shows normal density in the middle but decreased density on the sides, assuming the correct side of the grid faces the tube?
|
Off-level
|
|
Atomic number refers to:
|
Number of protons
|
|
What agency publishes radiation protection recommendations?
|
NCRP
|
|
The amount of radiation deposited per unit length of tissue traversed by incoming photons is called:
|
Linear energy transfer
|
|
The number of x-ray photons delivered to the patient in a given exposure is primarily regulated by:
|
mAs
|
|
Isotopes are atoms that have the same ___________ but different ____________.
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Same atomic number, different mass
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|
What accounts for the x-ray beam's heterogeneity?
|
Incident electrons interacting with several layers of tungsten target atoms. Energy differences among incident electrons. Electrons moving to fill different shell vacancies.
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|
Diagnostic x-rays may be correctly described as _______ energy, _______ LET.
|
Low energy and low LET
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|
Secondary radiation barriers usually require ____ thickness of lead.
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1/32 inch
|
|
The _____ may be described as energy deposited in an absorber
|
rad
|
|
According to the NCRP, the annual occupational whole-body dose equivalent limit for students under age 18 is:
|
1 mSv
|
|
What is the measurement of dose to biologic tissue?
|
Rem (Sv)
|
|
Aluminum filtration has its greatest effect on ______ wavelength radiation.
|
Long
|
|
The amount of time that x-rays are being produced and directed toward a particular wall is referred to as the:
|
use factor
|
|
The operation of personnel radiation monitoring devices depends on:
|
Ionization, luminescence, and thermoluminescence
|
|
Patient dose increases as fluoroscopic FOV ____________.
|
Decreases
|
|
What is the term used to describe x-ray photon interaction with matter and the transference of part of the photon's energy to matter?
|
Scattering
|
|
If 600 rad or more is received as a whole body dose in a short period of time, certain symptoms will occur; these are referred to as:
|
acute radiation syndrome
|
|
What type of radiation interaction contributes most to occupational exposure?
|
Compton scatter
|
|
What type of personnel radiation monitor can provide an immediate reading?
|
ionization chamber
|
|
Tabletop radiation intensity in fluoro must not exceed ___/___/___.
|
2.1 R/min/mA
|
|
In high-level fluoro, tabletop intensity up to _____ is permitted.
|
20 R/min
|
|
What is the annual dose-equivalent limit for the skin and hands of an occupationally exposed individual?
|
50 rem
|
|
Factors that determine the amount of scattered radiation produced include:
|
radiation quality, field size, pathology
|
|
_____________ is defined as a method of expressing radiation quality and a measure of the rate at which radiation energy is transferred to soft tissue.
|
LET
|
|
What factor would most likely result in the greatest skin dose?
|
Short SID, high mA
|
|
The NCRP recommends an annual effective occupational dose equivalent limit of:
|
5 rem (50 mSv)
|
|
How do fractionation and protraction affect radiation dose-effects?
|
They reduce the effect of radiation exposure, permit cellular repair, and allow tissue recovery
|
|
The photoelectric effect is likely to occur under what conditions?
|
With absorbers of high atomic number, low-energy incident photons, and use of positive contrast media
|
|
Which factors will affect quality and quantity of the primary beam?
|
HVL and kV
|
|
What type of tissues are especially radiosensitive?
|
Blood-forming organs, reproductive organs, and lymphocytes
|
|
What factors have an affect on the amount and type of radiation-induced tissue damage?
|
Quality of radiation, type of tissue being irradiated, and fractionation
|
|
What body parts are included in whole body dose?
|
Gonads and blood-forming organs
|
|
Which unit of exposure is described as 100 ergs of energy per gram of irradiated absorber?
|
rad
|
|
Irradiation of macromolecules in vitro can result in:
|
main chain scission, cross-linking, and point lesions
|
|
What quantity of radiation exposure to the reproductive organs is required to cause temporary infertility?
|
200 rad
|
|
The correct way to check for cracks in lead aprons is:
|
to fluoroscope them once a year
|
|
High energy incident photons and outer-shell electrons are associated with:
|
Compton's
|
|
What type of cells are the most radiosensitive?
|
erythroblasts
|
|
True or false. A pregnant radiographer's history must be reviewed.
|
True
|
|
What are the effects of DNA irradiation?
|
malignant disease, chromosome aberration, and cell death
|
|
True or false. Female oogonia reproduce only during fetal life.
|
True
|
|
True or false. The male spermatogonia reproduce continuously.
|
True
|
|
True or false. Both male and female stem cells reproduce only during fetal life.
|
False
|
|
What defines the gonadal dose that, if received by every member of the population, would be expected to produce the same total genetic effect on that population as the actual doses received by each of the individuals?
|
Genetically significant dose
|
|
The term effective dose refers to:
|
whole-body dose
|
|
Neurons and neuroglia are composed of:
|
nondividing, differentiated cells
|
|
True or false. Following exposure, TLDs are exposed to light and emit a quantity of heat in response.
|
False
|
|
A student radiographer who is under 18 years of age must not receive an annual occupational dose greater than:
|
.1 rem (1mSv)
|
|
What is the approximate ESE for the average upright PA chest radiograph, using 115 kVp and a grid?
|
20 mRad
|
|
Types of secondary radiation barriers include:
|
the control booth, lead aprons, and x-ray tube housing
|
|
Give an example of a condition likely to have a long latent period?
|
Leukemia
|
|
The input phosphor of the image intensifier tube functions to convert:
|
x-rays to light
|
|
True or false. Increase in added filtration will increase the effective energy of the x-ray beam.
|
True
|
|
What causes pitting, or many small surface melts, of the anode's focal track?
|
Repeated, frequent overloading.
|
|
What combination of exposure factors and image receptor speed would best function to reduce quantum mottle?
|
Increased mAs, decreased kVp, slow speed screens
|
|
The intensity of the x-ray beam is greatest along the:
|
Cathode end
|
|
A compensating filter is used to:
|
Even out differing tissue densities
|
|
A radiograph made with a parallel grid demonstrates decreased density on its lateral edges, this is most likely due to:
|
decreased SID
|
|
An incorrect relationship between the primary beam and the center of a focused grid results in:
|
grid cutoff & insufficient radiographic density
|
|
The contrast improvement factor of a grid will be greatest with:
|
high ratio grids with fewer lines per inch
|
|
Focal spot to table distance, in mobile fluoro, must be:
|
minimum of 12 inches
|
|
The sensitometric curve may be used to:
|
identify automatic processing problems and to determine film sensitivity
|
|
The purpose of the automatic processor's circulation system is to:
|
agitate, mix and filter solutions
|
|
What is added to the developer to prevent softening of the emulsion and its sticking to processor rollers?
|
Glutaraldehyde
|
|
Kidneys do not lie inline with the coronal plane of the body but instead the hilum is rotated _________ and the lower pole is tilted ____________.
|
Anteriorly, posteriorly
|
|
Leakage radiation from the x-ray tube must not exceed:
|
100 mR/h
|
|
What is the most superior structure of the scapula?
|
Acromion
|
|
What anatomy is demonstrated in a 25 degree RPO position with the CR entering perpendicular, 1" medial to the ASIS?
|
Left SI joint
|
|
The junction of the transverse colon and the descending colon forms the:
|
Splenic flexure
|
|
If the patient's zygomatic arch has been traumatically depressed or the patient has flat cheekbones, the arch may be demonstrated by modifying the SMV projection and rotating the patient's head:
|
15 degrees toward the side being examined
|
|
The short thick processes that project posteriorly from the vertebral body are the:
|
pedicles
|
|
If a radiograph allows 10% of the illuminator light to pass through the flim, that radiograph has a density of:
|
1
|
|
Changes in window width in digital imaging result in changes in:
|
contrast
|
|
Voltage ripple associated with a three phase, 12 pulse rectified generatory as approximately:
|
3%
|
|
The primary purpose of a falling load generator is to minimize:
|
exposure time
|
|
A characteristic curve can be used to com,pare the film factors of:
|
Speed and recorded detail
|
|
The slope of the straight-line portion of the characteristic curve is used in the determination of:
|
film contrast
|
|
Beam restriction has the following effect of contrast:
|
increases contrast
|
|
H/D describes:
|
grid ratio
|
|
Which grid error will result in an image that shows normal density in the middle but decreased density in the sides, assuming the correct side of the grids faces the x-ray tube?
|
Off-level
|
|
Atomic number refers to the:
|
number of protons
|
|
What agency publishes radiation protection recommendations?
|
NCRP
|
|
In order to be used more efficiently by the x-ray tube, alternating current is changed to unidirectional current by the:
|
rectifiers
|
|
What interaction contributes most to patient dose?
|
Photoelectric
|
|
Irradiation of water molecules within the body, and their resulting breakdown, is called:
|
radiolysis
|
|
What voltage ripple is produced by single phase equipment?
|
100% voltage ripple
|
|
True or false. SID is used to determine the maximum safe exposure using a radiographic tube rating chart.
|
False.
|