Radiology - Midterm Material

Front 1

what is the unit of absorption/transmission of x-rays in CT? What is this this scale normalized (zeroed) to?

Back 1

- Hounsfield units
- Normalized to water

Front 2

what are the five basic densities in CT and generally, how do they relate to each other in degree of attenuation?

Back 2

air <<< fat < water < soft tissue << bone

Front 3

(On a conventional image,) compare the terms used in x-ray, CT, ultrasound, and MRI that describe structures that are very white and very black.

Back 3

WHITE
x-ray: radioopaque
CT: hyperattenuating
ultrasound: hyperechoic
MRI: hyperintense
BLACK
x-ray: radiolucent
CT: hypoattenuating
untrasound: hypoechoic
MRI: hypointense

Front 4

what is the most common contrast media in CT?

Back 4

iodine

Front 5

where is contrast agent injected in a myleogram?

Back 5

sub-arachnoid space

Front 6

in CT, what do the terms Window and Level mean?

Back 6

- window: range of HU to display
- level: center-point of the range of HU to display

Front 7

in a CT of the lung, what would be a good window and level to view the soft tissues and air of the lung?

Back 7

- level: -500
- window: 1200

so, the image would be centered at -500 (air) and would range from -1100 (air) to +100 (soft tissue)

Front 8

in a CT of the lung, what would be a good window and level to view the soft tissues and bones of the nasal cavity?

Back 8

- level: 300
- window: 2000

so, the image would range from -700 (air) to 1300 (bone)

Front 9

Compare the advantages and disadvantages of CT to MRI

Back 9

Front 10

a fast, low-resolution image used to define the area in which a CT scan will be performed

Back 10

"scout" or localizer image

Front 11

how does CT and MRI differ from their ability to construct different views from a scan?

Back 11

CT can reconstruct different planes and produce 3D images; MRI only shows one plane of section at a time

Front 12

in radiology, what is a fistulogram?

Back 12

imaging with contrast agent in a drainage tract

Front 13

what are the range of MRI magnet intensities commonly used in clinical practice?

Back 13

0.06 - 4.0 Tesla

Front 14

what are the two basic units of magnetic field strength used in MRI and what is their conversion

Back 14

1 Tesla = 10,000 Gauss

Front 15

describe the three basic spin echo sequences in MRI and what they are measuring? What is the most commonly used technique?

Back 15

- T1: spin relaxation time (most common)
- T2: loss of spin synchronization (coherence)
- Proton Density: concentration of hydrogen within a tissue

Front 16

what are four common veterinary applications of MRI?

Back 16

1. neuroimaging (brain and spine)
2. musculoskeletal
3. cancer imaging
4. vascular imaging (e.g. portosystemic shunts)

Front 17

in veterinary practice, what are four commonly imaged locations with CT?

Back 17

1. bone (fractures, luxations, ear disease, spinal disease)
2. nasal cavity (tumors, rhinitis)
3. lungs (tumors, diffuse lung diseases, torsion)
4. abdomen (masses, portosystemic shunts)

Front 18

a rough image used to determine the planes of imaging in MRI

Back 18

survey image

Front 19

what are the three most common imaging planes used in MRI?

Back 19

- transverse
- dorsal
- sagittal

Front 20

what is the most commonly used MRI contrast agent? what property does this agent have that makes it hyperintense?

Back 20

gadolinium: it is paramagnetic so it makes tissues adjacent to the agent relax faster (good for a T1 sequence)

Front 21

what are four diseases LOCALIZED TO THE BRAIN that are commonly imaged with CT or MRI?

Back 21

1. masses
2. dilated ventricles
3. multifocal lesions: inflammatory/infection
4. hemorrhage

Front 22

what are two diseases EXTERNALLY AFFECTING THE BRAIN that are commonly imaged with CT or MRI?

Back 22

- masses that may be impinging on the brain
- trauma (e.g. fractures of the skull)

Front 23

what is a common artifact in imaging the brain with CT?

Back 23

"beam hardening." dense bone stops the x-rays from penetrating underlying tissue and creates areas of hypoattenuation

Front 24

what are four common abnormalities of the spine that are imaged with CT/MRI?

Back 24

1. spinal cord compression (disc herniation, masses)
2. inflammation/infection (myelitis, empyema, discospondylitis, spondylitis)
3. spinal cord enlargement (edema, hemorrhage, interparenchymal mass)
4. spinal trauma (fracture, luxation, instability/subluxation)

Front 25

in fine-tuning a radiographic technique for overexposure or underexposure, what adjustment of kVp would you make? What equivalent adjustment of mAs would produce similar results?

Back 25

- increase or decrease kVp by 10-15%
- or half/double the mAs

Front 26

what is the vertebral formula for a cat (cervical - sacral)?

Back 26

C7 T13 L7 S3

Front 27

what is the vertebral formula for a dog (cervical - sacral)?

Back 27

C7 T13 L7 S3

Front 28

what is the vertebral formula for a horse (cervical - sacral)?

Back 28

C7 T18 L6 S5

Front 29

in terms of kVp and mAs, what radiographic technique gives you the best contrast?

Back 29

low kVp and high mAs

Front 30

in a spinal radiograph, what is the optimal x-ray beam position?

Back 30

- centered on the region of interest
- perpendicular to the spinal canal

Front 31

in an x-ray, what phenomenon causes intervertebral disc spaces on the edges of the film appear to be narrow compared to those in the center?

Back 31

beam divergence

Front 32

what two basic radiographic views are used for spinal x-ray?

Back 32

lateral and VD

Front 33

if an animal is a suspected trauma/fracture/luxation to the spine, how can the animal be safely positioned for a VD view?

Back 33

lateral recumbency with the screen held vertical and against the dorsum. The x-ray beam penetrates from ventral to dorsal, perpendicular to the screen

Front 34

in a proper x-ray of the cervical spine, what should be included in the cranial and caudal extremities of the image

Back 34

caudal skull to T1

Front 35

which intervertrbral disc spaces of the cervical spine are usually more narrow than the rest?

Back 35

C2-3

Front 36

comment on the appearance and unique features of C3-C7 on a spinal x-ray.

Back 36

- C3-C5 look the same
- C6 has large ventral laminae of the transverse processes
- C7 has a tall spinous process

Front 37

what special views are used in addition to the VD and lateral views of the cervical spine?

Back 37

1. oblique lateral
2. flexed lateral

Front 38

why should a flexed lateral view of the cervical spine be performed with extreme care

Back 38

because if there is joint instability, the dens could compress the spinal cord

Front 39

what views are used to image the equine cervical spine

Back 39

standing lateral views

Front 40

what is the normal appearance of C1-2 and C6 in a standing lateral view of the equine cervical spine?

Back 40

C1-2 do not overlap
C6 has a short body and a large transverse process

Front 41

what is the equine cervical sagittal ratio? what is normal?

Back 41

of the cervical vertebrae:
- minimal sagittal diameter / height of vertebral body
- Should be >/= 48

Front 42

what are the the cranial and caudal extremities of a proper thoracic spinal radiograph?

Back 42

C7 to L1

Front 43

what is the proper animal positioning and beam location of a thoracic spinal radiograph of a small/medium size dog or a cat?

Back 43

- pull forelimbs cranially
- center at T6/T7
- include C7 - T1

Front 44

how do you align the spine for a proper thoracic spinal radiograph of a deep-chested dog?

Back 44

put a wedge under the sternum

Front 45

where does a rib articulate with its corresponding vertebral body?

Back 45

at the cranial aspect

Front 46

what is the most common anticlinal vertebra in the dog/cat?

Back 46

T11

Front 47

what are the the cranial and caudal extremities of a proper lumbar spinal radiograph in the dog/cat? where is the beam centered?

Back 47

- T13 to sacrum
- beam centered at the midpoint of the last rib and the coxofemoral joint

Front 48

what is the reason for regions of increased radioopacity in the ventral aspects of the intervertebral disc spaces of a normal lumbar spinal radiograph

Back 48

transverse processes (note they are largest in the lumbar region)

Front 49

what is the reason for regions of increased radioopacity within the vertebral canal of a normal lumbar spinal radiograph

Back 49

accessory processes overlay the intervertebral foramina

Front 50

where does the diaphragm attach to the spine in the dog/cat?

Back 50

L3 and L4

Front 51

in the cat and dog, why do L3 and L4 show poor margination on their ventral aspects?

Back 51

because the diaphragm attaches there

Front 52

how do the lumbar vertebrae of dogs appear different than cats

Back 52

dogs: shorter and "stocky"
cats: they are longer than their diameter

Front 53

what is a transitional vertebra

Back 53

For example, T13 in some dogs/cats, where the vertebra has characterisits of both a thoracic and a lumbar vertebra. This is normal. Can also happen with L7 and sacrum/ilium

Front 54

what are some potential adverse affects of using contrast agent in a myleogram

Back 54

- can worsen neurologic signs
- seizures
- bradycardia
- apnea
- vomiting
- death

Front 55

what are five indications for myleography?

Back 55

1. confirm site of spinal cord injury as identified or suspected on normal radiograph
2. multiple abnormalities identified on survey radiographs
3. survey radiograph not consistent with neurological examination
4. define the extent of a lesion
5. help determine if surgical intervention is indicated

Front 56

what are two common contraindications for myleography?

Back 56

1. infection
2. elevated intracranial pressure

Front 57

what are the two sites of injection of x-ray contrast agent in a myleogram?

Back 57

1. cerebellomedullary cistern (AO junction)
2. L5-6

Front 58

what are the four most common positioning techniques for a myleogram?

Back 58

1. neutral
2. flexed
3. extended
4. traction

Front 59

what does leakage of contrast agent typically look like in a myleogram?

Back 59

inconsistent margins due to accumulation of contrast agent in the IV foramina and nerve roots

Front 60

what is the purpose of taking orthogonal radiographs?

Back 60

triangulation

Front 61

what effect is caused by two structures of the same opacity that do not touch

Back 61

summation

Front 62

what effect is caused by two structures of the same opacity that DO touch

Back 62

silhouette

Front 63

what are three basic abnormalities of soft tissue size in the musculoskeletal radiograph?

Back 63

1. atrophy
2. focal increase
3. diffuse increase

Front 64

what are two basic causes of soft tissue atrophy in the musculoskeletal radiograph?

Back 64

1. disuse
2. neurogenic

Front 65

what are the two types of focal increase of soft tissue size in the musculoskeletal radiograph?

Back 65

1. intra-capsular
2. extra-capsular

Front 66

what are the four main causes of diffuse increase in soft tissue size in the musculoskeletal radiograph?

Back 66

1. trauma
2. impaired lymphatics
3. vasculitis
4. cellulitis

Front 67

what are three causes of intra-capsular soft tissue swelling?

Back 67

1. effusion
2. synovitis
3. joint-associated tumor

Front 68

what are three causes of extra-capsular soft tissue swelling?

Back 68

1. trauma
2. neoplasia
3. cellulitis

Front 69

what are three landmarks to assess intra-capsular soft tissue swelling in the stifle joint?

Back 69

1. patellar ligament
2. infrapatellar fat pad
3. fascia of the gastrocnemius muscle

Front 70

what is one common rule-out for severe extra-capsular soft tissue swelling proximal-plantar to the hock joint?

Back 70

common calcaneal tendonitis

Front 71

what are the three types of soft tissue opacity abnormalities in the musculoskeletal radiograph?

Back 71

1. gas
2. mineral
3. fat

Front 72

what is gas in the soft tissue called, and what are five rule-outs for this in the musculoskeletal radiograph?

Back 72

- emphysema
1. puncture
2. iatrogenic
3. gas-producing organism
4. vacuum phenomenon (in the joints)
5. tracheal/esophageal perforation

Front 73

what are the three types of mineral opacity abnormalities in the soft tissue in the musculoskeletal radiograph?

Back 73

1. intra-articular
2. structured
3. unstructured

Front 74

what are four rule-outs for an intra-articular mineral opacity of the soft tissue in the musculoskeletal radiograph?

Back 74

1. joint mouse
2. avulsion fragment
3. synovial osteochondroma
4. chondrocalcinosis

Front 75

what are four rule-outs for a structured mineral opacity of the soft tissue in the musculoskeletal radiograph?

Back 75

1. normal structure (e.g. sesamoid bone)
2. fracture fragment
3. myositis ossificans
4. neoplasia

Front 76

what are four rule-outs for an unstructured mineral opacity of the soft tissue in the musculoskeletal radiograph?

Back 76

1. dystrophic mineralization
2. neoplasia
3. calcinosis cutis/circumscripta
4. metastatic mineralization

Front 77

what is a common type of fat opacity abnormality of the soft tissue in the musculoskeletal radiograph? what are two rule-outs?

Back 77

- lipoma
1. infiltrative lipoma
2. liposarcoma

Front 78

what is a common etiology for metastatic mineralization?

Back 78

elevated Ca:P ratio

Front 79

what is a normal structured mineral opacity in the soft tissue of the elbow?

Back 79

sesamoid in the supinator muscle

Front 80

what are the two major categories of bone loss?

Back 80

1. focal
2. osteopenia

Front 81

what are the three radiographic presentations of focal osteolytic bone loss in increasing order of aggressiveness?

Back 81

1. geographic
2. moth-eaten
3. permeative

Front 82

what are two types of generalized osteopenia?

Back 82

1. osteoporosis
2. osteomalacia

Front 83

in focal bone loss, what three things should be evaulated in the musculoskeletal radiograph to determine the severity of focal bone loss?

Back 83

1. type (geographic, moth-eaten, permeative)
2. zone of transition
3. cortical destruction

Front 84

how does the appearance of the zone of transition correspond with aggressiveness of the lesion?

Back 84

aggressiveness: long > intermediate > short

Front 85

what are the two main types of osteogenesis in the musculoskeletal radiograph?

Back 85

1. generalized
2. focal

Front 86

what are the two main types of focal osteogenesis in the musculoskeletal radiograph?

Back 86

1. endosteal
2. periosteal

Front 87

what are the six types of periosteal reactions in the musculoskeletal radiograph in order of increasing aggressiveness.

Back 87

1. solid, smooth
2. solid, irregular
3. lamellar
4. interrupted, spiculated
5. interrupted, sunburst
6. interrupted, amorphous

Front 88

what is the difference between an osteogenesis with well-defined margins versus poorly defined margins

Back 88

well defined → inactive
poorly defined → active

Front 89

what are four causes of endosteal sclerosis?

Back 89

1. panosteitis
2. infarct
3. trauma
4. neoplasia

Front 90

what attaches the periosteum to the bone cortex?

Back 90

Sharpey's fibers

Front 91

how can the "age" of a periosteal reaction be classified?

Back 91

by the opacity of the reaction (especially the margins)

Front 92

what are four causes of solid periosteal reactions?

Back 92

1. trauma
2. osteomyelitis
3. hypertrophic osteodystrophy
4. neoplasia (-)

Front 93

why would a periosteal reaction have a lamellar appearance

Back 93

it indicates a cyclic or intermittent process

Front 94

what is the cause of spiculation in a periosteal reaction?

Back 94

orientation of osteogenesis along Sharpey's fibers

Front 95

how does the appearance of spicules in a periosteal reaction correlate with its aggressiveness?

Back 95

long, thin is more aggressive than short, thick.

Front 96

what are two causes of interrupted periosteal reactions?

Back 96

1. neoplasia
2. osteomyelitis

Front 97

what are four basic rule-outs for a monostotic aggressive bone lesion?

Back 97

1. primary bone tumor
2. metastatic bone tumor
3. fungal osteomyelitis
4. bacterial osteomyelitis

Front 98

what are three basic rule-outs for polyostotic aggressive bone lesion?

Back 98

1. metastatic neoplasia
2. fungal osteomyelitis
3. bacterial osteomyelitis

Front 99

what is the frequency range of diagnostic ultrasound?

Back 99

2-20 MHz

Front 100

in ultrasound, what is the name of the device that produces and captures a sound wave?

Back 100

transducer or probe

Front 101

in what three ways is ultrasound attenuated?

Back 101

1. reflection (the basis of ultrasound)
2. heat
3. scatter

Front 102

what causes reflection of a sound wave?

Back 102

the interface between two tissues with different acoustic impedance

Front 103

how does acoustic impedance relate to tissue density?

Back 103

acoustic impedance = speed of sound x tissue density

Front 104

what determines the amplitude of a reflected sound wave?

Back 104

the greater the density difference at the interface between the tissues, the greater the amplitude

Front 105

what is acoustic shadow?

Back 105

produced by the attenuation of sound waves thorough dense matter, an acoustic shadow is non-information about the structures underlying that dense matter

Front 106

what is acoustic enhancement?

Back 106

an area of increased intensity in the ultrasound image that is below an area of less density. As opposed to acoustic shadow, this is real information (not non-infromation). For example, enhancement of liver parenchyma under the gall bladder

Front 107

what are the two image display modes in ultrasound?

Back 107

B-mode (brightness mode) - gives you a 2D image
M-mode (motion mode) - gives you a 1D image with time on the horizontal axis

Front 108

what are the two types of ultrasound transducers?

Back 108

1. linear array
2. sector/wedge

Front 109

in an ultrasound, compare why you would choose a linear array transducer or a sector/wedge transducer

Back 109

- linear array: wider image, large contact area
- sector/wedge: smaller contact area

Front 110

why would you choose a low-frequency transducer? a high frequency?

Back 110

- low: better tissue penetration, but lower resolution
- high: better resolution, but not as good tissue penetration

Front 111

why does a higher frequency transducer provide better resolution?

Back 111

because the smaller pulse width will reflect off of smaller structures at their interfaces

Front 112

how do you choose the frequency of an ultrasonic probe?

Back 112

use the highest frequency that will allow adequate penetration of the body part of interest

Front 113

what is used to enhance the quality of an ultrasound through the skin

Back 113

a gel between the probe and skin

Front 114

in ultrasound, what is the term used to describe:
- a darker spot?
- a brighter spot?
- two spots of the same brightness?
- complete blackness

Back 114

- a darker spot: hypoechoic
- a brighter spot: hyperechoic
- two spots of the same brightness: isoechoic
- complete blackness: anechoic

Front 115

what are the six echogenicities in ultrasound in order from hyperechoic to hypoechoic (of structures in the abdomen)?

Back 115

- renal sinus (fat)
- prostate
- spleen
- liver
- renal cortex
- renal medulla

Front 116

how is a longitudinal ultrasound image oriented on the screen?

Back 116

- cranial to the left, caudal to the right
- dorsal at the bottom, ventral at the top

Front 117

how is a transverse ultrasound image oriented on the screen?

Back 117

- right side to viewer's left, left side to viewer's right
- ventral at the top, dorsal at the bottom

Front 118

what is primary and secondary occupational radiation exposure?

Back 118

- primary: directly in the beam
- secondary: scatter/leakage

Front 119

what is the occupational exposure limit in rem per year for
- whole body
- hands/feet
- fetal dose

Back 119

- whole body: 5 rem per year
- hands/feet: 50 rem per year
- fetus: 500 mrem for entire gestational period

Front 120

what is the official unit of radiation exposure? what does it describe?

Back 120

the Roentgen, which is the amount of ionized radiation caused by EM radiation exposure

Front 121

what is the SI unit of absorbed dose? what is the old unit? what is the conversion?

Back 121

- SI: Gray
- old: rad
- 1 GY = 100 rad

Front 122

how are different types of ionizing radiation taken into account when measuring the biological effect of absorbed dose? what is the unit of thie absorbed dose equivalent

Back 122

radiation dose equivalent = absorbed dose x QF, where QF is a quality factor

unit is the Sievert, Sv = 100 rem

Front 123

what are the two basic processes of radiation damage to DNA?

Back 123

- direct effect: direct damage to the DNA molecule
- indirect effect: formation of free radicals (e.g. OH radical) that react with DNA

Front 124

what are the three end-results of DNA damage by radiation?

Back 124

1. mutation, which may take years or generations to propagate
2. cell death
3. DNA repair with reverse transcriptase

Front 125

in general, which cells are most sensitive to ionizing radiation?

Back 125

poorly differentiated, rapidly dividing cells (e.g. bone marrow, GI epithelium, gonads)

Front 126

what are the two classifications of effects of radiation exposure

Back 126

1. deterministic - e.g., "x amount of radiation will cause a burn"
2. stochastic - e.g. "it only takes one random ionization event to cause a tumor"

Front 127

in what three body systems does acute radiation syndrome manifest the most?

Back 127

1. CNS
2. GI
3. bone marrow

Front 128

what is the predominant cause of death from bone marrow syndrome caused by acute radiation exposure?

Back 128

sepsis

Front 129

what is the term used to describe the effects of radiation toxicity not attributed to acute radiation exposure?

Back 129

chronic low-level radiation injury

Front 130

what is the most important syndrome caused by chronic low-level radiation injury?

Back 130

cancer

Front 131

what are the three basic ways to reduce exposure to radiation?

Back 131

1. exposure time
2. distance
3. shielding

Front 132

what is the equation to calculate radiation exposure when you change the distance from the source?

Back 132

E2 = E1 x (D1/D2)^2

Front 133

what is required by Virginia state law regarding persons holding animal or cassette during exposure?

Back 133

a log of the person's name, date, and procedure

Front 134

what type of badge is currently used to monitor radiation exposure?

Back 134

a photoluminescent badge (phosphorescence)

Front 135

comment on where radiation badges should be worn

Back 135

- outside apron/thyroid shield
- pregnant workers wear 2 badges: one outside apron, one over the abdomen

Front 136

how do you calculate the maximum accumulative dose for an occupational worker?

Back 136

MAD = age in years x 1 rem

Front 137

what are three basic causes of an agressive joint lesion in a musculoskeletal radiograph?

Back 137

1. joint associated tumor (mono-articulated)
2. septic arthritis
3. erosive polyarthritis

Front 138

what is the proper marker positioning for an oblique radiographic view of the skull?

Back 138

for the side that is tilted upwards, the marker should go on top of the film. for the side of the face that is tilted downwards, that marker goes on the bottom

Front 139

what skull view is used to view the arcades of the teeth?

Back 139

open mouth oblique views

Front 140

how do the teeth of young versus old dogs appear in a musculoskeletal radiograph?

Back 140

younger animals have larger pulp cavities

Front 141

what is the dental formula for cats (deciduous and permanent)?

Back 141

deciduous: dI3/3 dC1/1 dP3/2
permanent: i3/3 C1/1 P3/2 M1/1

Front 142

what is the dental formula for dogs (deciduous and permanent)

Back 142

deciduous: dI3/3 dC1/1 dP3/3
permanent: I3/3 C1/1 P4/4 M2/3

Front 143

the radiolucent line surrounding the tooth in an x-ray is what?

Back 143

periodontal membrane

Front 144

the radioopaque layer of bone below the periodontal membrane in an x-ray of the tooth is what?

Back 144

lamina dura

Front 145

what two views are used to view the nasal cavity? explain how each view is constructed

Back 145

1. intra-oral DV: film in mouth; DV; slow-speed screen or envelop film
2. open mouth VD: dog laying in dorsal recombancy; mouth propped open; beam goes VD

Front 146

what positioning technique is used to view the frontal sinus in an x-ray?

Back 146

rostrocaudal projection: beam goes directly parallel to top of head

Front 147

what three views are useful for examining the ear? what does each view highlight?

Back 147

1. DV for external ear canal and petrous temple bone
2. open mouth rostro-caudal for the tympanic bullae
3. oblique lateral views for separating the bullae

Front 148

how do the tympanic bullae of cats differ from dogs?

Back 148

cats' tympanic bullae have two compartments (lateral and medial)

Front 149

congenital malformation and enlargement of the foramen magnum. what is the name of this condition and how does it appear on a radiograph?

Back 149

- occipital dysplasia
- appears as a "keyhole" instead of a circle

Front 150

on a radiograph of the horse limb, where is the marker placed for a
- lateral view?
- oblique view?

Back 150

both are placed lateral

Front 151

in the horse carpus, what is the best bony landmark and what is its position?

Back 151

accessory carpal bone, oriented lateral on the palmar side

Front 152

what is the best view to see the intermediate carpal bone in the horse

Back 152

flexed lateral

Front 153

how does the accessory capral bone appear differently in a DLPMO versus a a DMPLO in the horse?

Back 153

since the accessory carpal bone is lateral and palmar, the bone will protrude out the side of the image in a DLPMO and be overlapped by the carpus in a DMPLO.

Front 154

in the carpus, how do the medial and lateral splint bones articulate differently with their corresponding distal carpal bones?

Back 154

C2 and MC2 (medial) overlap completely
C4 and MC4 (lateral) overlap 50%

Front 155

what three soft tissue structures of the horse carpus can be viewed with a skyline view?

Back 155

1. extensor carpi radialis
2. common digital extensor
3. lateral digital extensor

Front 156

in the horse tarsus, what is the best bony landmark and what is its position?

Back 156

the calcanean tuber, oriented lateral on the palmar side

Front 157

what soft tissue structure runs between the calcanian tuber and the sustentaculum tali? what is the best view to see this?

Back 157

- deep digital flexor tendon
- skyline view

Front 158

what must be done before a radiograph of the foot of a horse?

Back 158

it must be cleaned and play-doh placed in the sulci of the frog and central sulcus

Front 159

what view would you choose to evaluate a horse's foot width, collateral cartilages, and periphery of the navicular bone?

Back 159

0-degree DP

Front 160

which view is best for the horse's distal phalanx structures and the distal border of the navicular bone?

Back 160

60-degree DP

Front 161

in the horse, which view is good to assess rotation of the distal phalanx, remodeling of the navicular bone, and DJD?

Back 161

lateral view

Front 162

what view is best to see the flexor eminance/process/cortex of the navicular bone?

Back 162

navicular skyline

Front 163

in a radiograph of the horse's foot, a notch in the toe portion of P3

Back 163

crena marginalis