Quiz Review Ii

Front 1

The adult ear canal:

Back 1

rises upward and forward, then descends to the drum

Front 2

The isthmus is:

Back 2

where the canal narrows to enter the temporal bone

Front 3

The pinna and the external canal together:

Back 3

*gather and reinforce acoustical signals
*with the irregular shape of the auricle, cause increases and decreases at different frequencies as the sound arrives at the ear
*forms a resonating tube

Front 4

The average resonant frequency of the ear canal plus concha is:

Back 4

2700 Hz

Front 5

The dividing line between the external ear and the middle ear is the:

Back 5

tympanic membrane

Front 6

The ear canal contains:

Back 6

cilia, ceruminous glands, sebaceous glands

Front 7

The Vagus Nerve (Xth Cranial) is found:

Back 7

along the bottom of the ear canal

Front 8

What terms are part of the tympanic membrane?

Back 8

pars tensa, pars flaccida, mucous membrane

Front 9

An otoscopic inspection should reveal:

Back 9

a view of the pearly white tympanic membrane

Front 10

Which of the following is a part of the pinna?

Back 10

*tragus
*intertragal notch
*triangular fossa

Front 11

Atresia refers to:

Back 11

a closure of the external auditory canal

Front 12

Perforation of the eardrum can be caused by:

Back 12

*an infection
*a fracture of the temporal bone
*a nearby explosion

Front 13

The following are types of hearing loss:

Back 13

*conductive
*central
*sensorineural

Front 14

Conductive losses may be caused by:

Back 14

*a prolapsed canal
*impacted cerumen

Front 15

Which surgical technique repairs the tympanic membrane?

Back 15

myringoplasty

Front 16

A cholesteatoma can be described as:

Back 16

a pouch of skin filled with epithelial debris

Front 17

When an excess of cerumen or a blockage of cerumen is detected, the hearing aid specialist should:

Back 17

refer the patient to a physician

Front 18

A swollen ear may be caused by:

Back 18

*eczema
*otitis externa
*dermatitis

Front 19

Tympanosclerosis may be described as:

Back 19

calcium deposits

Front 20

A tympanic membrane perforation may cause a:

Back 20

conductive loss

Front 21

Theoretically, the increase in sound pressure provided by the middle ear structure is about:

Back 21

27 dB

Front 22

The footplate of the stapes fits into the:

Back 22

oval window

Front 23

A type 'A' tympanogram would indicate:

Back 23

normal pressure and compliance

Front 24

The difference in area size between the tympanic membrane and the footplate of the stapes increasing the sound pressure at the footplate is:

Back 24

the transfer function or aerial ratio

Front 25

The middle ear cavity contains:

Back 25

annular ligament, malleus, stapes and tensor tympani

Front 26

The middle ear system is often referred to as:

Back 26

an impedance matching transformer

Front 27

The middle ear system is often referred to as:

Back 27

an impedance matching transformer

Front 28

The middle ear cavity, as a transducer, changes energy from one form to another. The energy change is from:

Back 28

acoustic energy to mechanical energy to hydraulic energy

Front 29

The middle ear muscles contract, resulting in:

Back 29

an acoustic reflex

Front 30

The eustachian tube begins in the lower portion of the tympanic cavity and ends at the:

Back 30

nasopharynx

Front 31

The eustachian tube of a child is:

Back 31

straight, short, horizontal

Front 32

A cholesteatoma:

Back 32

*occurs in the middle ear
*may perforate the eardrum
*is usually accompanied by a constant odorous discharge

Front 33

Changes in either stiffness or mass occur when the normal middle ear function is altered by disease or trauma causing:

Back 33

a feeling of stuffiness or a complaint of hearing in a barrel

Front 34

Otosclerosis:

Back 34

*occurs more often in women than men
*occurs more often in Caucasians than other races
*appears to be inherited

Front 35

Most dysfunctions of the outer or middle ear cause a:

Back 35

conductive loss

Front 36

Otitis media may occur with:

Back 36

fluid in the middle ear

Front 37

A plastic or steel strut replaces the stapes during a:

Back 37

stapedectomy

Front 38

Treatment for chronic otitis media may include:

Back 38

*antibiotics
*inflation of the eustachian tube
*myringotomy

Front 39

A radical mastiodectomy includes removal of:

Back 39

ossicular chain, mastoid

Front 40

The ossicular chain is supported and suspended by:

Back 40

stapedius, tensor tympani and ligaments

Front 41

The ear, due to its physical characteristics, enhances which frequencies?

Back 41

2,000-5,000 Hz

Front 42

In a cross section of the cochlea, the minimum number of rows of hair cells you can see is:

Back 42

4

Front 43

The total number of neural fibers or neurons in the human auditory nerve is about:

Back 43

30,000

Front 44

The basilar membrane separates:

Back 44

the scala media and the scala tympani

Front 45

The scala tympani is filled with:

Back 45

perilymph

Front 46

The base of the cochlea;

Back 46

begins at the oval window

Front 47

The fibers of the auditory nerve, at the point of maximum stimulation of the basilar membrane, discharge and recover at a rate of approximately:

Back 47

up to 1Khz identical to the stimulus frequency

Front 48

The cochlea, acting as a frequency analyzer, distributes acoustic stimuli to places along the basilar membranes according to frequency. This forms the basis of a hypothesis called the:

Back 48

Place Theory

Front 49

Each of the semicircular canals:

Back 49

*are oriented at 90 degrees to one another
*contain perilymph and endolymph
*detect positioning and balance

Front 50

Collections of nerve fibers are called:

Back 50

ganglia and nuclei

Front 51

Afferent fibers:

Back 51

transmit from the cochlea to the brain

Front 52

Which of the following is a result of tissue and structure damage?

Back 52

* threshold shift
*distortion
*disturbance of perception of loudness

Front 53

A sensorineural hearing loss is due to a disorder in the:

Back 53

inner ear

Front 54

A symptom of recruitment is:

Back 54

intolerance for loud sounds

Front 55

Malingering is a category of

Back 55

non-organic loss

Front 56

Meniere's syndrome consists of:

Back 56

tinnitus, vertigo and hearing loss

Front 57

An organic disorder is when there is damage to:

Back 57

*the hearing mechanism
*the neural pathways
*the brain

Front 58

Loudness recruitment:

Back 58

refers to abnormal loudness growth of clients with sensorineural hearing

Front 59

Tinnitus is:

Back 59

often managed by hearing instruments or tinnitus maskers

Front 60

A characteristic of a conductive loss is:

Back 60

a soft spoken patient

Front 61

Which is a characteristic of a sensorineural loss?

Back 61

hearing better in quiet than in noise

Front 62

A dial on the audiometer to control the decibels of output is called:

Back 62

*a hearing level dial
*an attenuator dial

Front 63

Audiometric zero for pure tones is higher than the standard reference level by about:

Back 63

differs at each frequency

Front 64

ANSI letters stand for:

Back 64

American National Standards Institute

Front 65

The audiometer is designed so that zero on the attenuator dial:

Back 65

represents the level of normal hearing for that frequency

Front 66

By air conduction, sound energy changes forms in which of the following manners:

Back 66

acoustic energy, mechanical energy, hydraulic energy, electrical energy to chemical energy

Front 67

The normal ear responds to a range of frequencies from:

Back 67

20-20,000 Hz

Front 68

Sound waves, during bone conduction, transmit from the:

Back 68

skull to the cochlea

Front 69

Which of the following describes a Phon?

Back 69

A unit of measurement when comparing the loudness of one frequency to another frequency

Front 70

Routine hearing testing should be performed:

Back 70

in a sound controlled environment

Front 71

Audiometric zero is:

Back 71

*0 dB Hearing Level
*0 dB HL
*the level where normal ears can hear at every frequency

Front 72

In Pure Tone testing, threshold means:

Back 72

the lowest intensity the client hears 50% of the time

Front 73

What is the meaning of 40 dB threshold re: audiometric zero, at 500 Hz?

Back 73

subject could barely hear a 500 Hz tone at 40 dB about 50% of the time

Front 74

The problems produced by excessive ambient noise are:

Back 74

greater for the lower frequencies than the higher frequencies

Front 75

Before testing is done:

Back 75

the client's ears should be carefully examined using an otoscope

Front 76

The descending technique in pure tone audiometry is preferred because it:

Back 76

is easier to hear when a sound stops than when it begins

Front 77

Begin testing with the 1000 Hz tone because it:

Back 77

has good test re-test reliability

Front 78

The symbols used in the audiogram for air conduction are:

Back 78

uniform worldwide

Front 79

Individuals with a noise induced hearing impairment can have a 'V' notch at which frequency?

Back 79

*3000 Hz
*4000 Hz
*6000 Hz

Front 80

The loss of acoustic energy as it travels from the test ear to the non-test ear is a definition of:

Back 80

interaural attenuation

Front 81

To begin testing for air or bone conduction thresholds, tests should begin at which frequency?

Back 81

1000 Hz

Front 82

If the outer and middle ear parts are normal:

Back 82

air thresholds will equal the bone thresholds

Front 83

In bone conduction testing, the receiver should be:

Back 83

placed at the most sensitive spot on the mastoid of the test ear

Front 84

Sounds from the bone conduction receiver may stimulate the non-test ear at:

Back 84

10 dB or less

Front 85

A source of information that helps to identify which ear is responding to bone conduction stimuli is:

Back 85

*tympanometry
*acoustic reflex testing
*bone conduction with masking

Front 86

Bone conduction testing directly stimulates:

Back 86

the cochlea

Front 87

Most conductive losses:

Back 87

*are medically correctable
*display a breakdown or *display good discrimination

Front 88

Ambient noise in the environment during bone conduction testing will:

Back 88

affect the test results in the lower frequencies

Front 89

During the testing process, it is best to test bone conduction:

Back 89

after air conduction testing

Front 90

A conductive loss may be caused by:

Back 90

*perforations of the tympanic membrane
*immobile middle ear ossicles
*otitis media

Front 91

Bone conduction thresholds worse than air conduction thresholds may be caused by:

Back 91

*poor placement of the vibrator
*a skull fracture
*thickness of the skull

Front 92

Sound being presented to one ear and then routed to the opposite ear is known as:

Back 92

cross hearing

Front 93

When the better ear 'answers' for the poorer ear what occurs?

Back 93

shadow curve

Front 94

Which noise is best for masking during pure tone air and bone conduction testing?

Back 94

narrow band noise

Front 95

Effective masking may be described as:

Back 95

*an increased masking noise that does not shift the threshold tone
*a formula method to determine how much masking noise is appropriate
*a psychoacoustic method like the one proposed by Hood

Front 96

Masking is performed during air conduction testing when:

Back 96

*a 40 dB or more difference occurs between the air conduction threshold of the better ear and the poorer ear
*a 40 dB or more difference occurs between the air conduction threshold of the poorer ear and the bone conduction threshold of the better ear

Front 97

Masking is performed during bone conduction testing whenever:

Back 97

a 15 dB or more difference occurs between the obtained bone conduction threshold of the better ear and the obtained air conduction threshold of the poorer ear

Front 98

The occlusion effect occurs during:

Back 98

bone conduction testing causing thresholds to shift due to headphones being placed over the ear

Front 99

A masking dilemma occurs when:

Back 99

*it is impossible to mask
*the patient displays a bilateral conductive loss
*masking cannot be completed due to overmasking

Front 100

Undermasking is defined as:

Back 100

occurring more often during air conduction testing

Front 101

Central masking can effect a threshold by:

Back 101

5 dB

Front 102

In a sensorineural hearing loss, air conduction thresholds are:

Back 102

the same as bone conduction thresholds

Front 103

An air-bone gap means the:

Back 103

air conduction thresholds are worse than bone conduction thresholds

Front 104

A sensorineural component is the difference between:

Back 104

BC thresholds and the range of normal hearing

Front 105

A pure conductive loss shows:

Back 105

all bone conduction thresholds within normal limits

Front 106

In a purely conductive loss:

Back 106

sound is reduced before its arrival at the inner ear

Front 107

A mixed loss exhibits:

Back 107

*a sensorineural component
*a conductive component

Front 108

An audiogram with less loss at the high and low frequencies than the middle frequency region is classified as a:

Back 108

trough-shaped curve

Front 109

Pure Tone Average estimates:

Back 109

SRT

Front 110

To calculate PTA in a hearing loss when thresholds drop 15-20 dB or more at any or all frequencies:

Back 110

add the 2 frequencies with the least loss and ÷ 2

Front 111

PTA describes the following audiogram classification fairly accurately:

Back 111

flat loss

Front 112

Although pure tones sound artificial to us, they have the advantage of:

Back 112

measuring a specific frequency without involvement of other frequencies

Front 113

Speech Reception Threshold:

Back 113

is a level above SDT by about 8-10 dB

Front 114

Dynamic Range is the usable range of hearing between:

Back 114

SRT and UCL

Front 115

The Most Comfortable Level is:

Back 115

*about 65 dB SPL for normal ears
*about 45 dB HL for normal ears

Front 116

The range between threshold and MCL:

Back 116

differs at each frequency

Front 117

A patient with a conductive loss has:

Back 117

the same dynamic range as normal ears

Front 118

When patients have a sensorineural loss, MCL:

Back 118

retains a relationship with the lower boundary

Front 119

Recruitment is:

Back 119

common in patients with cochlear losses

Front 120

When a patient has normal pure tone thresholds of 0 dB HL across frequencies, it is difficult to accurately measure:

Back 120

SAT

Front 121

When a patient has a large conductive component, it is difficult to accurately measure:

Back 121

UCL

Front 122

Speech discrimination tests:

Back 122

approximate a sample of speech sounds in an ordinary conversation

Front 123

The patient has pure tone air conduction thresholds of 40 dB HL at each frequency. If the patient has a conductive hearing loss, his MCL would be approximately:

Back 123

80 dB HL or above

Front 124

Discriminating complex sounds depend on:

Back 124

timbre

Front 125

In a complex sound, the fundamental frequency is the:

Back 125

loudest frequency

Front 126

We recognize the different vowel sounds because of variations in:

Back 126

timbre

Front 127

A formant is:

Back 127

a concentration of energy around certain frequencies

Front 128

The most important energy for recognizing speech sounds are:

Back 128

second and third formants

Front 129

The upward spread of masking occurs when:

Back 129

a low frequency sound masks out a high frequency sound

Front 130

Masking is required for discrimination tests when:

Back 130

masking was used for air conduction tests

Front 131

Binaural testing:

Back 131

helps decide which ear to fit