Pta Board Review

Front 1

How should a PTA assist a C5 SCI patient perform an effective cough?

Back 1

Place the heel of 1 hand appx. 1 inch above the umbilicus, pt takes a deep breath, Apply pressure as the patient coughs to assist forceful exhalation.

Front 2

What is spondylolisthesis?

Back 2

A superior vertebra slips too far anteriorly in relation to the vertebra below

Front 3

What exercises are appropriate for a patient with spindylolisthesis?

Back 3

Flexion

Front 4

If no abdominal binder is available, what position allows a patient with compromised function of the diaphragm to breathe most efficiently?

Back 4

Supine - bc the abdominal contents are located more superiorly than other positions. This places the diaphragm in an elevated resting position, allowing for greater excursion of the diaphragm

Front 5

With an abdominal binder, what is the best position for breathing with a compromised diaphragm?

Back 5

Semi-fowler

Front 6

Where is the peroneal nerve located?

Back 6

Over the lateral knee

Front 7

Five stages of grieving:

Back 7

Denial

Anger

Bargaining

Depression

Acceptance

Front 8

Why do patients with CHF often develop an enlarged heart?

Back 8

Increased preload and afterload

Front 9

What consists of an epidural hematoma?

Back 9

Blood located between the skull and outer layer of membrane (dura mater) covering the brain

Front 10

What consists of a subdural hematoma?

Back 10

Between the dura mater and the middle layer covering the brain (arachnoid membrane)

Front 11

What consists of a subarachnoid hematoma?

Back 11

Between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater (innermost layer)

Front 12

How do you lock the elbow in a prosthesis that has a split cable that controls the elbow and the terminal device?

Back 12

Extend the humerus and depress the scapula

Front 13

What term is synonymous with clubfoot?

Back 13

Talipes equinovarus

Front 14

Apnea

Back 14

Absence of breathing

Front 15

Eupnea

Back 15

Normal breathing

Front 16

Apneusis

Back 16

Inspiratory cramp

Front 17

Orthopnea

Back 17

Difficulty breathing when in a lying position

Front 18

With a wrist-driven pretension orthotic device, to open the involved hand the patient must:

Back 18

Passively flex the wrist

Front 19

With a wrist-driven pretension orthotic device, to close the involved hand the patient must:

Back 19

Actively extend the wrist

Front 20

What orthotic device is appropriate for a patient with excessive foot probation during static standing?

Back 20

A scaphoid pad

Front 21

Symptoms of a patient in a diabetic coma:

Back 21

Skin flush

Rapid or weak pulse

Low blood pressure

Front 22

What happens if a prosthetic foot is outset too much?

Back 22

The prosthetic knee will likely now inward during standing

Front 23

What happens if a prosthetic foot is outset too much?

Back 23

The prosthetic knee will likely now inward during standing

Front 24

When do infants accomplish rolling from back to stomach?

Back 24

5-10 months

Front 25

What happens if a prosthetic foot is outset too much?

Back 25

The prosthetic knee will likely now inward during standing

Front 26

When do infants accomplish rolling from back to stomach?

Back 26

5-10 months

Front 27

When should a pt with Guillain-Barré syndrome make full recovery?

Back 27

Approximately after 6 months of therapy

Front 28

What happens if a prosthetic foot is outset too much?

Back 28

The prosthetic knee will likely now inward during standing

Front 29

When do infants accomplish rolling from back to stomach?

Back 29

5-10 months

Front 30

When should a pt with Guillain-Barré syndrome make full recovery?

Back 30

Approximately after 6 months of therapy

Front 31

What type of gait deviation will result from damage to the common peroneal nerve?

Back 31

Circumduction during ambulation.

Due to loss of active dorsiflexion

Front 32

Expiratory reserve volume

Back 32

The amount of air expired after a resting expiration

Front 33

Residual volume

Back 33

The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a full expiration

Front 34

Tidal volume

Back 34

The volume of air in a breath during normal breathing

Front 35

Vital capacity

Back 35

The volume of air forcefully expired after a forceful inspiration

Front 36

What are the ACL integrity tests?

Back 36

Anterior drawer

Lachman's

Pivot shift

Front 37

What are the ACL integrity tests?

Back 37

Anterior drawer

Lachman's

Pivot shift

Front 38

What does the McMurray test determine?

Back 38

Meniscus damage

Front 39

What structure is damaged if it prevents excessive anterior displacement of the tibia on the femur?

Back 39

ACL

Front 40

What PNF technique involves a series of isometric contractions of the agonist, then the antagonist?

Back 40

Rhythmic stabilization

Front 41

A patient who hyperventilates is most likely to exhibit what sign?

Back 41

dizziness

due to decreased carbon dioxide exchange

Front 42

In testing the strength of the left external abdominal oblique and the right internal abdominal oblique muscles the PTA should instruct the patient to flex the trunk and:

Back 42

rotate the thorax to the right only

Front 43

When strengthening the hamstrings, maximum resistance from gravity occurs when the patient is:

Back 43

standing with the knee flexed at 90 degrees

Front 44

A lesion in what part of the brain results in spasticity?

Back 44

cerebellum

Front 45

A lesion in what part of the brain results in athetosis?

Back 45

cortical-basal ganglia-thalamic loop

Front 46

A lesion in what part of the brain results in ataxia?

Back 46

cerebellum

Front 47

A patient with compete T10 tetraplegia has been progressing well with a course of rehab and desires to walk at least household distances. Which muscles must be functioning at least at grade fair (3/5) for the patient to continue?

Back 47

abdominals and erector spinae

in order to compensate for absent hip extension and lower extremity motor function.

Front 48

What head position is most appropriate to facilitate normal motor control in a child with a severe ATNR?

Back 48

maintained in the midline position

Front 49

A PTA inspects the foot of a pt who has diabetes and notices a darkened area on the plantar surface of the forefoot. The darkened area most likely indicates:

Back 49

a high-pressure location

Front 50

What is the optimum supine position for a patient with burns to the face, neck, chest, axilla, and arms?

Back 50

roll under the neck, arms in 90 degrees of abduction and slight lateral (external) rotation, elbows in full extension.

this will assist with maintaining range of motion and preventing scar contractors

Front 51

Where is correct weight-bearing located for a transferal prosthesis with a quadrilateral socket?

Back 51

on the ischial flare

Front 52

Where should a channel for the adductor longus tendon be located in a prosthesis?

Back 52

the anteromedial aspect of the socket

Front 53

Where should a channel for the hamstring tendons be located in a prosthesis?

Back 53

in the posteromedial aspect of the socket

Front 54

Does weight-bearing occur on the pubic rami in a prosthesis?

Back 54

no

Front 55

A patient receiving PT after a hip fracture repair falls during a tx session. The PTA's FIRST response should be to:

Back 55

stay with the patient and summon help

Front 56

What type of deformity involves a finger in the position of extension at the PIP joint and flexion at the DIP joint?

Back 56

swan neck

Front 57

What type of deformity involves a finger in the position of flexion at the PIP joint and extension of the DIP joint?

Back 57

Boutonniere

Front 58

What is Dupuytren's contracture?

Back 58

thickening of the palmar aponeurosis, causing increased flexion of the fingers

concentration of initial treatment should be on achieving finger extension passively

Front 59

What is claw hand?

Back 59

laceration to the ulnar nerve

Front 60

How is Ober's test performed?

Back 60

patient in side lying

place the superior LE in hip extension and hip abduction

place the knee of the superior LE in 90 degrees of flexion

allow the superior LE to drop into adduction

failure of the LE to drop indicates a tight ITB

Front 61

What type of diabetic would be controlling their diabetes with diet?

Back 61

type II

Front 62

What type of diabetic must control their diabetes with insulin?

Back 62

type I

Front 63

PTA gait training a patient notes the pelvis drops interiorly on the right during mid-swing of the right LE. Pt. also leans laterally to the left with the upper trunk during this phase. What weak muscle causes this deviation?

Back 63

weak left gluteus medius

Front 64

Can a PTA write any part of a discharge summary?

Back 64

NO it is illegal for a PTA to write a discharge summary

Front 65

What is graphesthesia?

Back 65

the ability to identify letters, numbers, or designs traced on the skin

Front 66

What is barognosis?

Back 66

the ability to differentiate between different weights

Front 67

What is stereognosis?

Back 67

the ability to differentiate between different sizes and shapes

Front 68

What is texture recognition?

Back 68

the ability to differentiate between textures such as cotton, wool, or silk

Front 69

How should you respond to a patient who passes out?

Back 69

determine unresponsiveness, have someone call 911, assess breathing, establish an airway

Front 70

What classifies a burn as electrical?

Back 70

complete destruction of the subcutaneous tissue

Front 71

What classifies a burn as superficial partial-thickness or deep partial-thickenss?

Back 71

not deep enough to involve the subcutaneous tissue

Front 72

What classifies a burn as full thickness?

Back 72

produces moderate subcutaneous tissue damage and little pain

Front 73

What nerve innervates the tibialis anterior that is responsible for active dorsiflexion?

Back 73

deep peroneal nerve

Front 74

What are signs and symptoms of the atrophic phase in a patient with reflex sympathetic dystrophy?

Back 74

decreased hypersensitivity, normal temperature, marked muscle atrophy, and smooth skin

Front 75

What are signs and symptoms of the dystrophic phase in a patient with reflex sympathetic dystrophy?

Back 75

decreased temperature, cessation of hair and nail growth, pale skin, muscle atrophy

Front 76

What are signs and symptoms of acute stage in a patient with reflex sympathetic dystrophy?

Back 76

constant burning pain, abnormally fast hair and nail growth, decreased ROM, and increased sensitivity to pain or light touch

Front 77

What PNF pattern combination of muscle activity is most needed for gait?

Back 77

D1 diagonal.

hip flexion, adduction, and knee flexion

diagonal movements of hip abduction and extension

Front 78

When addressing a pt's concern going into surgery, what can the PTA not say?

Back 78

that everything will be okay

that their physician is the best

or anything too insensitive

Front 79

To assist a patient in developing a tenodesis grip, the PTA should allow what finger muscles to tighten?

Back 79

the finger flexors

Front 80

What type of arthritis primarily involves the weight-bearing joints?

Back 80

osteoarthritis

Front 81

Which type of arthritis pain is usually symmetrical?

Back 81

rheumatoid arthritis

Front 82

What type of spinal cord injury is usually a result of a burst fracture?

Back 82

anterior cord syndrome

Front 83

Which muscles should be the focus of strengthening exercises to maintain a strong pelvic floor?

Back 83

iliococcygeus, pubococcygeus, and coccyges

pelvic floor exercises are beneficial for pregnant women due to the extra weight of the viscera

Front 84

How should you measure the length of the footrests for a patient's wheelchair?

Back 84

from the patient's popliteal fossa to the heel and subtract 1 inch

Front 85

In what direction should a PTA mobilize the shoulder to gain abduction ROM?

Back 85

inferiorly

Front 86

While treating an acute full-thickness burn, what movements need to be stressed with splinting, positioning, and exercise to avoid contractors?

Back 86

hip extension, knee extension, and ankle dorsiflexion

Front 87

How is the Glasgow coma scale rated?

Back 87

one point is given for each response or lack thereof

Front 88

What is the best and first treatment for a wound with black eschar over 90% of the wound bed?

Back 88

elase - an enzymatic wound debridement ointment

Front 89

The use of compression stockings on the feet and ankles is contraindicated in patients with which condition?

Back 89

chronic arterial disease

Front 90

A posterior lateral herniation of the lumbar disc between vertebrae L4 and L5 most likely results in damage to which nerve root?

Back 90

L5 - its impinged because it arises from the spinal column superior to the L4-L5 lumbar disc

Front 91

Which ligaments give support to the longitudinal arch of the foot?

Back 91

the plantar calcaneonavicular ligament, long plantar ligament, plantar aponeurosis, and short plantar ligament.

the plantar calcaneonavicular ligament originates on the sustentaculum talk of the calcaneus and inserts on the navicular bone; it is the most important ligament of the longitudinal arch of the foot.

Front 92

What is the most frequent position causing patella subluxation or dislocation?

Back 92

foot planted with the femur going into internal rotation as the knee is flexing

Front 93

A ______ Q angle will predispose a person to subluxation of the patella _____.

Back 93

Large Q angle, subluxation of the patella laterally

Front 94

What position should a PTA place the UE to palpate the supraspinatus tendon?

Back 94

full ADDuction, full INTERNAL rotation, and full EXTENSION

Front 95

Is an anti-inflammatory driven through the anode or cathode?

Back 95

cathode (negative) electrode

Front 96

Is an analgesic administered through the anode or cathode?

Back 96

anode (positive) electrode

Front 97

What type of AFO's assist with medial and lateral rotation as well as dorsiflexion?

Back 97

solid AFO and hinged solid AFO

Front 98

Which type of AFO only assists with dorsiflexion?

Back 98

posterior leaf spring AFO