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406 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The most important factor to consider when deciding whether a patients distress over bodily appearance represents body dysmorphic disorder or delusional disorder, somatic type is the:
a. presence of depression and suicidal ideations
b. prescence of comorbid substance abuse
c. intensity with which the patient insists on the perceived body deficits
d. patient's intelligence and sophistication
e. degree of actual social pressures on the patient to look attractive
C. INTENSITY WITH WHICH THE PATIENT INSISTS ON THE PERCEIVED BODY DEFICITS

Cant diagnosis either if it occurs exclusively during depression

Diagnosis of delusional d/o somatic type can be made in people with body dsymorphic d/o only if their preoccupation with imagined defect in appearance is held with a delusional intensity
Which of the following meidications is adequate as monotherapy for generalized tonic clonic seizures in an adult?
a. Gabapentin
b. Tiagabine
c. Ethosuximide
d. Valproate
e. Clonazepam
D. VALPROATE

Gabapentin - mimic the chemical structure of the neurotransmitter GABA. Is renally excreted. FDA approved as adjuctive tx for partial seizures

Tiagabine - potent selective reuptake inhibitor of GABA, used for bipolar and anxiety. Risk of Steven Johnson Syndrome, and seizure risk.

Ethosuximde is used for Absence Seizures as first line, Second line is Valproate

Clonazepam is used for partial seizures but not as monotherapy
Prolonged ingestion of high doses of pyridoxine in fad diets or megavitamin therapies may cause what type of neuropathy?
a. multifocal motor neuropathy
b. subacute sensory neuropathy
c. mononeuropathy multiplex
d. demylinating polyneuropathy
e. susceptibility to compression neuropathies
D. SUBACUTE SENSORY NEUROPATHY

Multifocal motor neuropathy - progressive muscle disorder characterized by muscle weakness in the hands, with differences from one side of the body to the other in the specific muscles involved. It affects men much more than women. Symptoms also include muscle wasting, cramping, and involuntary contractions or twitching of the leg muscles. may be mistaken for ALS. etiology is autoimmune with +AntiGM1 Ab. TX - rituximab, IVIG, cyclophosphamide, azathioprine

Subacute Sensory Neuropathy - can be due to excess of B6 (pyridoxine)

compression neuropathies are seen in alcoholics

Mononeuritis multiplex is a brain/nervous system (neurological) disorder that involves damage to at least two separate nerve areas. S/S: Abnormal sensation,Burning pain, Difficulty moving a part of the body (paralysis), Inability to move a part of the body, Lack of control over movement in a part of the body, Lack of or decreased sensation in any part of the body, Numbness and tingling. Causes polyarthritis nodosa, DM. SLE, RA, Amyloidsis, lyme dz, leprosy

Demyleinating polyneuropathy- GBS, MLD
2 y/o child with a favorite wool blanket cries if unable to find it and resists leaving the house or going to bed without it. Which of the following concepts best describes the child's attachment to the blanket?
a. transitional object
b. magical thinking
c. object inconstancy
d. separation anxiety
e. regression
TRANSITIONAL OBJECT

Transitional object - a physical object, which takes the place of the mother-child bond. Common examples include dolls, teddy bears or blankets. Donald Woods Winnicott introduced the concepts of transitional objects and transitional experience in reference to a particular developmental sequence. Also Ainswork confirmed attachments serve to reduce anxiety. object that acts as secure base as explores the world.

Magical thinking - creative weaving fantasy to explain the world. Ages 2.5 to 6 y/o - associative logic

Object constancy is last part of Mahler's concept of seperation and individuation process.
1. differentiaion (5-10mths)
2. Practicing (10-15 mths)
3. Rapprochement (18-24 mths)
4. Consolidation & Object constancy (24-36 mths)

Seperation anxiety -is part of Mahlers also and is in the 10-15 month range, part of practacing

Regression -When confronted by stressful events, people sometimes abandon coping strategies and revert to patterns of behavior used earlier in development
The treatment of choice for severe lithium intoxication is:
a. hemodialysis
b. thiazide therapy
c. managment of dehydration
d. forced diuresis with mannitol therapy
e. forced diuresis with furosemide therapy
HEMODIALYSIS

Treatment for Lithium Intoxication varies depending on level

Mild to Moderate - level of 1.5 to 2.0
*Early S/S - coarse tremor, dysarthria, ataxia, GI symptoms, heart changes, renal dysfunction, vomiting and abdominal pain

Moderate to Severe - level 2 - 2.5
*Late S/S - impaired consciousness, myoclonus, muscular fasciculations, seizure, coma

Severe - level > 2.5

tx - stop lithium, treat dehydration

Unabsorbed in GI can remove by kayexaly, golytel, glycol soluation, polystyrene sulfate

Dont use activated Charcoal

For large ingesting may consider gastric lavage but depends on patients level of consciousness

If severe Hemodialysis

Risk factors for lithium toxicity
*exceeding recommended dose
*renal impairment
*low sodium diet
*drug interactions
*dehydration
Which of the following defense mechanisms is most relevant to psychodynamic theories of the etiology and evolution of delusional disorder?
a. supression
b. isolation of affect
c. projection
d. anticipation
e. repression
PROJECTION

Suppression - conscious or semiconscious postponing attention to impluse or conflict (mature defense)

Isolation of Affect - split or separate from affect. Cognition (thoughts, concepts, ideas) is never divorced from emotion. Conflict can be avoided by separating the cognitive content (for instance, a disturbing or depressing idea) from its emotional correlate. The subject is fully aware of the facts or of the intellectual dimensions of a problematic situation but feels numb. Casting away threatening and discomfiting feelings is a potent way of coping with conflict in the short-term. It is only when it become habitual that it rendered self-defeating (neurotic defense)

Projection - use to protect themselves from recognizing unacceptable impulses in themselves.We all have an image of how we "should be". Freud called it the "Ego Ideal". But sometimes we experience emotions and drives or have personal qualities which don't sit well with this idealized construct. Projection is when we attribute to others these unacceptable, discomfiting, and ill-fitting feelings and traits that we possess. This way we disown these discordant features and secure the right to criticize and chastise others for having or displaying them. When entire collectives (nations, groups, organizations, firms) project, Freud calls it the Narcissism of Small Differences.

Anticipation - realistic anticipation or planning for future inner discomforts (mature defense) Goal oriented and implies careful planning or worrying and premature but realistic affective anticipation.

Repression - The removal from consciousness of forbidden thoughts and wishes. The removed content does not vanish and it remains as potent as ever, fermenting in one's unconscious. It is liable to create inner conflicts and anxiety and provoke other defense mechanisms to cope with these. (neurotic defense)
Across all cultures, which of the following stressful life changes is correlated with the greatest increase in death and illness during the subsequent 2 years?
a. divorce
b. death of a spouse
c. death of a close family member
d. incarceration
e. personal injury/illness
DEATH OF A SPOUSE
Following a drug overdose, a patient is brought to the emergency department with a fever, confusion, rapid heart rate, dry mouth, urinary retention, and dilated & unresponsive pupils. Which of the following medications would be the best treatment for this drug overdose syndrome?
a. haloperidol
b. benztropine
c. propanolol
d. physostigmine
e. trihexyphenidyl
PHYSOSTIGMINE

Physostigmine - acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. Intilirum, or eserine) 1-2 mg IV or IM 30 min

Used to treat overdose on anticholinergic. Should only be used in severe overdose because of hypotension and bronchial constriction.
Physostigmine is used to treat myasthenia gravis, glaucoma, Alzheimer's disease and delayed gastric emptying. It has been shown to improve the short term memory

Also used as antidote to belladonna and GHB.

"hot as a hare, blind as a bat, dry as a bone, red as a beet, and mad as a hatter".[6] These associations reflect the specific changes of warm, dry skin from decreased sweating, blurry vision, decreased sweating/lacrimation, vasodilation, and central nervous system effects on muscarinic receptors, type 4 and 5. This set of symptoms is known as anticholinergic toxidrome, and may also be caused by other drugs with anticholinergic effects, such as diphenhydramine, phenothiazine antipsychotics and benztropine.
S/S of heroin withdrawal (opioid)
Early symptoms of withdrawal include:

Agitation, Anxiety, Muscle aches, Increased tearing, Insomnia, Runny nose, Sweating, Yawning

Late symptoms of withdrawal include:
Abdominal cramping, Diarrhea,
Dilated pupils, Goose bumps, Nausea, Vomiting
Good Prognostic Factors For Schizophrenia
Late onset
obvious precipitating factor
acute onset
good promorbid social, sexual and work history
mood d/o symptoms
married
FH of mood d/o
good support systems
positive symptoms
Bleuler's 4 A's of Schizophrenia
He described the four "A's", symptoms which he thought were characteristic of schizophrenia:

Ambivalence
Autism
flattened Affect
loosening of Associations.
Schneider First Rank Symptoms
First Rank Symptoms - a group of symptoms that Schneider proposed were diagnostic of schizophrenia in the absence of overt brain disease.

Auditory hallucinations of a specific type:
1) Audible thoughts: a voice anticipating or repeating the patients thoughts aloud.
2) Two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person.
3) Voices commenting on the patient's behaviour.

Thought alienation:
1)Thought insertion.
2)Thought withdrawal.
3)Thought broadcasting.

Passivity phenomena:
1)Experiences of bodily influence.
2)Made acts/impulses/affects - experiences which are imposed on the individual or influenced by others.

Delusional perceptions (A two stage process) where first a normal object is perceived then secondly there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the objects meaning for the patient e.g. "The traffic light is green therefore I am the King".
Kreaplin
Kraepelin 1896:
Dementia praecox - grouped together all of the above with the addition of dementia paranoides. He considered hallucinations, delusions, thought disorder, negativism and emotional blunting to be characteristic of dementia praecox. He also observed that the onset was usually in early adult life and often progressed to a "demented" end stage. However he realised that the breakdown was not intellectual, the onset was not necessarily in adolescence and the prognosis was not always poor.
Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
muscular cramps, fever, symptoms of instability of the autonomic nervous system such as unstable blood pressure, and changes in cognition, including agitation, delirium and coma. Other symptoms may include muscle tremors and pharyngitis.

Symptoms overview
Increased body temperature >100.4 degrees °F, or >38 °C
Confused or altered consciousness
Diaphoresis "sweat shock"
Rigid muscles
Autonomic imbalance

A mnemonic used to remember the features of NMS is FEVER.[7]
F—Fever
E—Encephalopathy
V—Vitals unstable
E—Elevated enzymes (elevated CPK)
R—Rigidity of muscles
Features in NMS but not in Serotonin Syndrome
Bradykinesia
Muscle rigidity
Laboratory values (WBC & CK)
Serotonin Syndrome
Mild symptoms may only consist of increased heart rate, shivering, sweating, dilated pupils, myoclonus (intermittent tremor or twitching), as well as overresponsive reflexes.

Moderate intoxication includes additional abnormalities such as hyperactive bowel sounds, high blood pressure and hyperthermia; a temperature as high as 40 °C (104 °F) is common in moderate intoxication. The overactive reflexes and clonus in moderate cases may be greater in the lower limbs than in the upper limbs. Mental status changes include hypervigilance and agitation.

Severe symptoms include severe increases in heart rate and blood pressure that may lead to shock. Temperature may rise to above 41.1 °C (106.0 °F) in life-threatening cases. Other abnormalities include metabolic acidosis, rhabdomyolysis, seizures, renal failure, and disseminated intravascular coagulation; these effects usually arise as a consequence of hyperthermia.

Management is based primarily on stopping the usage of the precipitating drugs, the administration of serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine, and supportive care including the control of agitation, the control of autonomic instability, and the control of hyperthermia
TX for Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
NMS is an emergency, and can lead to death if untreated.

The first step is to stop neuroleptic drugs and to treat the hyperthermia aggressively, such as with cooling blankets or ice packs to the axillae and groin.

Many cases require intensive care and circulatory and ventilatory support.

Medications: Dantrolene sodium and bromocriptine may be used. Apomorphine may be used however its use is supported by little evidence. Benzodiazepines may be used to control agitation.

Highly elevated CPK can damage the kidneys, therefore aggressive hydration may be required. Volume resuscitation is paramount.

Benzodiazepines, dantrolene, and dopaminergic agents are a few pharmaceutical families that can be used to treat various degrees of NMS.

If it is recognized early enough, NMS is not fatal, but still, 10% of cases do result in patient death.
Symptoms of NMS
fever
sweating
increase pulse
increase blood pressure
muscle rigidity
dytonia
akinesia
agitation
Percentage of Schizophrenics that attempt Suicide
50%
Risk Factors for Suicide in Schizophrenics
College Education
Depression
High Ambitions
Living Alone
Medical Drugs Linked to Depression
Methyldopa
OCP
Steriods
Beta Blockers
Serotonin Syndrome
Agitation/restlessness
diarrhea
rapid changing blood pressure
increase HR
hallucinations
increase body temperature
loss coordinations
nausea/vomiting
increase DTR
Change MS - confusion
myoclonus
shivering/tremor
ataxia
Treatment for Seretonin Syndrome
BZD (ativan, valium)
IV Fluids
Cyroheptadine
Stop medication causing
Common agents causing Seretonin syndrome when mixed with SSRI or SNRI's
MAOI
Meperidine
Cough medication (dextrometh)
LSD
Ecstasy
Triptans
Most common Genetic Cause of Mental Retardation
Fragile X
Most Common Cause of Mental Retardation
Downs syndrome
Part of brain area associated with sleep arousal
reticular system
Area of brain associated with damage in Parkinson's Disease
basal ganglia - specifically the substantia Nigra
Blockage of H2 receptors causes what
weight gain
Sedation
Antipsychotic with the greatest sedation
Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
Which of the following represent a disorder of the content of thought?
a. world salad
b. tangentiality
c. neologisms
d. obsessions
e. loosening of associations
OBSESSIONS

Rest are all form of thought disorders
-word salad
-tangentiality
-neologism
-loosening of association
Prader Willi Syndrome
S/S - hypotonia, short stature, hyperphagia, obesity, behavioral issues (specifically OCD-like behaviors), small hands and feet, hypogonadism, and mild mental retardation

Chromosomal Abnormality - small deletion on 15q on paternal chromosome

The paternal gene origin is lost due to deletion and the maternal genes are silenced due to imprinting

Maternal deletion on chromosome 15 leads to Angelman Syndrome
Williams Syndrome
rare neurodevelopmental disorder caused by a deletion of about 26 genes from the long arm of chromosome 7

characterized by a distinctive, "elfin" facial appearance, along with a low nasal bridge; an unusually cheerful demeanor and ease with strangers; developmental delay coupled with unusual (for persons who are diagnosed as developmentally delayed) language skills; and cardiovascular problems, such as supravalvular aortic stenosis and transient hypercalcaemia.
Wilson's Disease
autosomal recessive genetic disorder in which copper accumulates in tissues; this manifests as neurological or psychiatric symptoms and liver disease. It is treated with medication that reduces copper absorption or removes the excess copper from the body, but occasionally a liver transplant is required

The condition is due to mutations in the Wilson disease protein (ATP7B) gene

Liver biopsy is gold standard

*Kayser-Fleischer ring, RTA, cardiomegaly, tremor, rigidity, chorea, tonic, hypoparathyroidsim, depression and suicide, seizures

Autosomal recessive

Diagnosis in adolescence

Test - plasma ceruloplasmin low (<0.2g/L), also 24 hour urine for copper

Treatment - chelating agents (Pencillamine)
Erickson's Eight Stages
Trust and Mistrust (0-1 y/o)
Autonomy vs Shame & Doubt (1-3 y/o)
Initiative vs Guilt (3-5 y/o)
Industry vs Inferiority (6-11 y/o)
Identity vs Role Confusion (11-20/21 y/o)
Intimacy vs Isolation (20-40 y/o)
Generative vs Stagnation (40 - 65 y/o)
Ego Integrity vs Despair (>65 y/o)
Anticipation
earlier in sub-sequential generation
Amplification
gene abnormality is unstable and tends to expand with further transmission
EEG finding for Beta Waves
Due to Benzodiazepines or Barbiturates
EEG finding of Periodic Complexes Seen in what conditions
CJ Virus (prion)
Subacute Sclerosing Panenchephalitis (SSPE)
Myoclonis
Phenylketonuria (PKU)
autosomal recessive genetic disorder characterized by a deficiency in the hepatic enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH).

This enzyme is necessary to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine ('Phe') to the amino acid tyrosine.

Detect increase phenylpyruvate in the urine

Leads to Mental Retardation and seizures if untreated

Treatment is diet restriction

PKU is normally detected using the HPLC test, but some clinics still use the Guthrie test, part of national biochemical screening programs. Most babies in developed countries are screened for PKU soon after birth
Cluster A Personality Disorders
Schizoid Personality-characterized by a lack of interest in social relationships, a tendency towards a solitary lifestyle, secretiveness, and emotional coldness.

Schizotypical Personality- characterized by a need for social isolation, odd behavior and thinking, and often unconventional beliefs

Paranoid Peronality- characterized by paranoia and a pervasive, long-standing suspiciousness and generalized mistrust of others.
Those with the condition are hypersensitive, are easily slighted, and habitually relate to the world by vigilant scanning of the environment for clues or suggestions to validate their prejudicial ideas or biases. They tend to be guarded and suspicious and have quite constricted emotional lives. Their incapacity for meaningful emotional involvement and the general pattern of isolated withdrawal often lend a quality of schizoid isolation to their life experience
Cluster B Personality Disorders
Cluster B (dramatic, emotional or erratic disorders)

Antisocial personality disorder- a pervasive disregard for the law and the rights of others.

Borderline personality disorder- extreme "black and white" thinking, instability in relationships, self-image, identity and behavior.

Histrionic personality disorder- pervasive attention-seeking behavior including inappropriate sexual seductiveness and shallow or exaggerated emotions.

Narcissistic personality disorder - a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration, and a lack of empathy.
Cluster C personality Disorders
Cluster C (anxious or fearful disorders)

Avoidant personality disorder- social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, extreme sensitivity to negative evaluation and avoidance of social interaction.

Dependent personality disorder- pervasive psychological dependence on other people.

Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder - characterized by rigid conformity to rules, moral codes and excessive orderliness.
Cluster A Personality Disorders
Schizoid Personality-characterized by a lack of interest in social relationships, a tendency towards a solitary lifestyle, secretiveness, and emotional coldness.

Schizotypical Personality- characterized by a need for social isolation, odd behavior and thinking, and often unconventional beliefs

Paranoid Peronality- characterized by paranoia and a pervasive, long-standing suspiciousness and generalized mistrust of others.
Those with the condition are hypersensitive, are easily slighted, and habitually relate to the world by vigilant scanning of the environment for clues or suggestions to validate their prejudicial ideas or biases. They tend to be guarded and suspicious and have quite constricted emotional lives. Their incapacity for meaningful emotional involvement and the general pattern of isolated withdrawal often lend a quality of schizoid isolation to their life experience
Cluster B Personality Disorders
Cluster B (dramatic, emotional or erratic disorders)

Antisocial personality disorder- a pervasive disregard for the law and the rights of others.

Borderline personality disorder- extreme "black and white" thinking, instability in relationships, self-image, identity and behavior.

Histrionic personality disorder- pervasive attention-seeking behavior including inappropriate sexual seductiveness and shallow or exaggerated emotions.

Narcissistic personality disorder - a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration, and a lack of empathy.
Cluster C personality Disorders
Cluster C (anxious or fearful disorders)

Avoidant personality disorder- social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, extreme sensitivity to negative evaluation and avoidance of social interaction.

Dependent personality disorder- pervasive psychological dependence on other people.

Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder - characterized by rigid conformity to rules, moral codes and excessive orderliness.
Two Types of Narcissistic person
Glen Gabbard suggested NPD could be broken down into two subtypes.[22] He saw the "oblivious" subtype as being grandiose, arrogant and thick-skinned and the "hypervigilant" subtype as easily hurt, oversensitive and ashamed.
What is Projective Identification
Feel something inside and project that feeling to another so that they then take on the feeling.

term first introduced by Melanie Klein of the object relations school of psychoanalytic thought in 1946. It refers to a psychological process in which a person engages in the ego defense mechanism projection in such a way that his behavior towards the object of projection invokes in that person precisely the thoughts, feelings or behaviors projected.
Treatment for Borderline Personality Disorder
#1 is DBT

Also psychodynamic, social skills training.

Insight is not helpful for these patients.

No FDA approved Medications
APA guidelines for treatment of Borderline Personality disorder with medications
Affective Disregulation - Mood Lability, Anger, temper and depression
-> SSRI or related antidepressants, if partial response add klonopin or low dose neuroleptic, then MAOI and mood stabilizers

Impulse/discontrol behaviors, aggressive, catty, promiscuisity
-> SSRI, then low dose antipsychotic, then lithium/MAIO or atypical neuroleptics

Cognitive Perceptual Difficulties - transient psychosis/paranoia
-> low dose anitpsychotic and neuroleptics, SSRI, or low dose Clozaril
Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT)
developed by Marsha M. Linehan to treat persons with borderline personality disorder (BPD)

DBT combines standard cognitive-behavioral techniques for emotion regulation and reality-testing with concepts of mindful awareness, distress tolerance, and acceptance largely derived from Buddhist meditative practice.

4 Components
*Mindfulness
*Interpersonal Effectiveness
*Emotional Regulation
*Distress Tolerance
What is Mindfulness component of DBT
What and How Skill

Not judging, living in the moment, imagery based way, relaxation
Antipsychotics with Risk of Seizures
chlorpromazine
Loxapine
Clozapine
Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Fever
Autonomic Dysregulation (HTN, Tachy, Urin incont, diaphersis)
Rigidity (lead pipe)
Granulocytosis ( Increased LDH, LFTs, CPK, and myoglobinemia)
Orientation Changes (confusion and Coma)
Antipsychotic that Causes Priapism
Thioridazine (mellaril)

Secondary to adrenergic blockade
Psychotropics with Narrow Theraperutic Index
Thiorizadizine
Mesoridazine
Lithium
TCA's
MAOI's
Where are D1 and D4 receptors
In the Prefrontral cortex, but not in the nigrostriatal pathway (basal ganglia)

Thought to be maybe a reason that clozapine improves negative symptoms without the EPS
Risk with Clozapine and lithium combination
Increase risk for NMS and seizures
Risk with Clozapine and Carbamazepine combination
increase risk for bone marrow suppression
What other disorder do patient being treated with Clozapine have increase risk of exacerbating
OCD

treat by adding SSRI
Drugs that cause Agranulocytosis
Clozapine
Chlorpromazine
Drug with Side Effect of Retrograde Ejaculation
thioradazine
Drug known for its side effect of hypersalivation
clozapine
Drug with side effect of reversible cholestatic Jaundice
Chlorpromazine
Side effect for Retinitis Pigmentosa

(Leticular Pigmentation)
Thioridazine dosage over 800mg/day
Drug that Side Effect is Cataracts
Quetiapine

Need to do yearly eye exams on patient that are on seroquel
Mechanism of action leading to hyperprolactinemia
Blockage of D2 receptors reaching approximately 70% in the tuberoinfundibular pathway

See with FGA's and Risperdal
Side Effect of Hyperprolactemia
Menstral Irregularities, galactorrea, breast enlargment, decreased libido

Hirutism, infertility, gyncomastia

increased osteoporosis (due to decrease estrogen and testosterone)

Increase Cardiovascular Risks

Depression

Possible increase risk of Breast Cancer
Drugs that are known to cause QTC prolongation

Most to least
Thiorizadine (35.8 msec)
Ziprasidone (20.6 msec)
Quetiapine (14.5 msec)
paliperidone (12.3 msec)
Risperidone (10 msec)
Olanzapine (6.4 msec)
Halperidol (4.7 msec)
Infection that has propensity for the temporal and infromedial frontal lobe
HSV

Can have loss of sensation of smell (anosmia)

Also may present with olfactory and gustatory hallucinations
Acute viral infection that travels centripetally along peripheral nerves to the CNS
Rabies

Variable incubation for 10 days to longer
Piaget's Model of Cognitive Development

4 Stages
1) Sensorimotor Stage (Birth to 18/24 mths)
*Object Permancy -child able to maintain mental image of object

2) Pre-Operational Thought - prelogical (2-6 y/o)
*Egocentric thinking
*Magical Thinking

3) Concrete Operations (7-11 y/o)
*Rational and logical thought process
*concept of Conservation

4) Formal Operations (12 y/o and up)
*Abstract thinking -ability to manipulate ideas and theoretical constructs
*Deductive Reasoning - ability to go from general to particular
*Conceptual thinking develops- ability to define concepts or ideas
Chess and Thomas Theory of Temperment

9 observable behaviors
Activity Level
Rhythmicity
approach or withdrawal response
adaptability to change in environment
threshold of responsiveness
intensity of given reaction
mood
degree of distractablity
persistence in face of obstacles
What are the three categories for children according the Chess and Thomas
Easy

Difficult

Slow to warm up
Who did attachment theory
Bowlby - 3 stages of mother-infant separation

Ainsworth -development 7 steps to determine quality and strength of attachment. Thought that by 2 y/o >60% have secure attachments
Important aspects of the child's emotional and cognitive development in Preschool age (2.5 to 6 y/o)
Egocentricity - child preceptions that all life events revolve around him/her

Magical thinking - creative weaving of reality and fantasy to explain how things occur in the world (associative logic)

Body Image Anxiety - feels that whole body is vulnerable when any body part is injured
Which Second generation Antipsychotic has the highest risk for Tardive Dyskinesia
Risperdone
What is cause of Tardive Dyskinesia
Long term D2 receptor blockage in the nigrostriatal

Persists in 2/3 pt even once stop offending agent
Things that exacerbate TD movements
emotional stress
volitional motor activity
attempts to inhibit the movement
low dose anticholinergic meds
withdrawal of antipsychotic medications
Things that decrease TD movements
absent in sleep
reduced with sedation
suppressed by dose increase of antipsychotic medications
improved or clinically reversed with clozpine or olanzipine
When do you see a festinating gait
Parkinson's dz
When do you see scissor Gait
spastic cerebral palsy
When do you see antalgic gait
motion to avoid pain

osteoarthritis
pelvic griddle pain
When do you see a cerebellar gait
spinocerebellar ataxia

cerebellum problem
When do you see a pigeon gait
Hip Dysplasia
When do you see Propulsive gait
Stiff with head and neck bent

manganese toxicity
Parkinson dz
Carbon Monoxide poisoning
When do you see Steppage gait
Damage to Peroneal nerve
Polio
Multiple Sclerosis
syphilis (tabes Dorsalis)
When do you see Stomping Gait
Fredrich ataxis
Pernicius anemia
Tabes Dorsalis
Multiple Sclerosis
Peripheral Nerve Damage
When Do you see Spastic Gait
Sturge-Weber Syndrome
Cerbral Palsy
CVA
Multiple Sclerosis
Brain tumor/abscess
When do you see a Myopathic Gait (Waddling)
Pregnancy
muscular dystrophy
congenital hip dysplasia
When do you see a magnetic gait
Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus
When do you see trendelenburg gait
L5 Radiculopathy
Poliolyelitis
When do you see wide based gait
Cerebellum problems
Alcoholics
When do you see an Apraxic gait
Normal pressure hydrocephalus

not sure which foot
When do you see Astasia Abasia
Faking, act like going to fall but never fall
Pinpoint Pupils
Miosis
Dilated Pupils
Mydriasis
Creutzfeldt Jakob Disease
is a degenerative neurological disorder (brain disease) that is incurable and invariably fatal. It is the most common among the types of transmissible spongiform encephalopathy found in humans

t symptom of CJD is rapidly progressive dementia, leading to memory loss, personality changes and hallucinations. This is accompanied by physical problems such as speech impairment, jerky movements (myoclonus), balance and coordination dysfunction (ataxia), changes in gait, rigid posture, and seizures. The duration of the disease varies greatly, but sporadic (non-inherited) CJD can be fatal within months or even weeks

Prion Disease
What are the Prion Diseases
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Fatial Familial Insomnia
Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker Syndrome
Kuru
Varient Creutzfeldt Jakob Disease
What is SSPE
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a rare chronic, progressive encephalitis that affects primarily children and young adults, caused by a persistent infection of immune resistant measles virus

Characterized by a history of primary measles infection usually before the age of 2 years, followed by several asymptomatic years (6–15 on average), and then gradual, progressive psychoneurological deterioration, consisting of personality change, seizures, myoclonus, ataxia, photosensitivity, ocular abnormalities, spasticity, and coma.
MAO-A

MAOI selective A drugs
MAO-A is also found in the liver, gastrointestinal tract, and placenta

Serotonin, melatonin, norepinephrine, and epinephrine are mainly broken down by MAO-A

Both A and B break down Dopamine

Brofaromine, Metralindole, Minaprine, Moclobemide, Pirlindole, Toloxatone,
MAO-B

MAOI selective B drugs
MAO-B is mostly found in blood platelets

Phenethylamine is mainly broken down by MAO-B

Both A and B break down Dopamine

selegiline and rasagiline - no dietary restriction at low dose
MAOI Inhibitors no selective for A or B
isocarboxazide
phenelzine
pheniprazine
linezolid
hydralazine
Reversible MAOI
Meclopamide
Medication for Restless Leg Syndrome
pramipexole
Ropinirole
What is Ebstein's anomaly
congenital heart defect in which the opening of the tricuspid valve is displaced towards the apex of the right ventricle of the heart.

Risk of this for women on lithium tx while pregnant and also those with WPW
Heart Anomalies with Down Syndrome
Complete AV canal Defect (60%)
VSD (32%)
Tetralogy Fallot (6%)
ASD (1%)
Isolated Mitral Cleft (1%)
Donald Winecott Theory
Object relations theory is a psychodynamic theory within psychoanalytic psychology. The theory describes the process of developing a mind as one grows in relation to others in the environment. The "objects" of the theory are both real others in one's world, and one's internalized images of others. Object relationships are initially formed during early interactions with primary care givers. These early patterns can be altered with experience, but often continue to exert a strong influence throughout life.

transitional objects
good-enough mother
Melanie Klein Theory
She was a leading innovator in theorizing object relations theory.
Heinz Kohut Theory
best known for his development of Self psychology, an influential school of thought within psychodynamic/psychoanalytic theory which helped transform the modern practice of analytic and dynamic treatment approaches

Self Object
Mirroring
First Generation Antipsychotics
Low Potency
*Chlorpromazine
*Thioridazine
*Mesoridazine

Medium Potency
*Perphenazine
*Loxapine
*Trifluoperazine
*Thiothixene

High Potency
*Halperidol
*Fluphenazine
*Pimozide
Most Atypical Second Generation
Quetiapine
Clozapine
Second Generation Anti-psychotics
quetiapine
clozapine
ziprasidone
apriprazole
olanzapine
risperdone
paliperidone
SGA that does not block 5HT-2A and D2
Apriprazole
SGA - 1st line if SI or suicidal Behaviors
Clozapine
Heterocyclic Antidepressant - Amoxapine
Strong norepi but weak 5HT reuptake inhibitor. Metabolite 7-hydroxyamoipine has D2 receptor blocake activity. Dose 200-300mg day with up to 600mg in inpatient setting

NO single dose to excide 300

Has significant blockage of cholinergic, histimine, and alpha 1 adrenergic

S/E - dry mouth, urinary hesitancy, dizziness, sedation, weight gain

High Potential for seizures, and deadly in overdose
Pseudoparkinsonism
akinesia (absence of movement)
Bradykinesia
Rigidity in arms and shoulder
hypersalivation
mask-like facies
cogwheel rigidity
postural difficulty - shuffling gait
Test to assess for Akathesia
Barnes Akathesia Scale

4-items scored 0-5
*Objective
*Subjective - awareness of Reslessness
*Subjective- Distress related to restlessness
*Global Clinical Assessment of Akathesia
At what age can a child draw a circle
3 y/o
At what age can a child draw a +
4 y/o
At What age can a child draw a square
5 y/o
At what age can a child draw a triange
6 y/o
Age for Social Smile
0-3 months
Age for stranger anxiety
8-12 months
Age for sitting unassisted
5-7 months
Reason for mild depression 2 days after a birth is due too...
changes in hormone levels

awareness of increased responsibilities

stress of child birth

fatigue
Most common defense mechanism used in patients with multiple personality disorder
Dissociation

Now called Dissociative Identity Disorder
What are the Mature Defense Mechanisms
Altruism
Humor
Sublimation
Suppression
Which personality disorder is alcoholism linked too
antisocial
First Do No Harm refers to which following core ethical principle
Nonmaleficence
At What age does the formation of small peer groups who share values, speech patterns, and manners first seen
8 years old
Gadolinium contrast MRI is used to diagnose diseases affecting what structure of the brain
Blood-brain barrier
What are the Features of major depressive episode with atypical features
overeating
oversleeping
younger age of onset
hystroid dysphoria
more sever psychomotor slowing
interpersonal rejection sensitivity
more likely coexisting panic d/o
somatization d/o
Types of patient that hypnosis in contraindicated for
pt with strong attachments/inappropriate attachements
poor reality testing
emotionally fragile
paranoid
problems with trust
Most common pain syndrome associated with HIV infection
Peripheral Neuropathy
Infant engages in interactive games such as peek-a-boo demonstrates the concept of what cognitive ability
Object permanence
Egocentrism
self centered
selfish preoccupation with ones own needs
lack of interest in others
Age 2-7
Object permanence
Piaget

Birth to 2 y/o

understand objections exist independent of themself
Conservation
example water same in to different jars

ability to recognize shapes may change but objects still maintain their characteristics

Age 7-11
What test is recommended to establish diagnosis of brain death
Apnea Test

EEG shows no electrical activity. Associated with loss of higher brain function and all brainstem function, respiration, gag and corneal reflex
What is Phalen's Test
Test for carpal tunnel syndrome

The patient is asked to hold their wrist in complete and forced flexion (pushing the dorsal surfaces of both hands together) for 30-60 seconds. This maneuver moderately increases the pressure in the carpal tunnel and has the effect of pinching the median nerve between the proximal edge of the transverse carpal ligament and the anterior border of the distal end of the radius. By compressing the median nerve within the carpal tunnel, characteristic symptoms (such as burning, tingling or numb sensation over the thumb, index, middle and ring fingers) conveys a positive test result and suggests carpal tunnel syndrome.
What is the Hot Bath Test
Old test used for Multiple Sclerosis diagnosis

A person suspected of having MS was immersed in a hot tub of water, and the appearance of neurological symptoms or worsening of symptoms was taken as evidence that the person had MS.
What is Cold Caloric Test
is a test of the vestibulo-ocular reflex that involves irrigating cold or warm water or air into the external auditory canal.
What is Methacholine Provocation Test
Used to assess asthma

20 percent fall in FEV1
Most common co-morbid with ADHD
mathematical disorders
Common defense mechanisms for hypochondriasis and Body Dysmorphic disorder
repression
displacement
Prevalence of Schizophrenia
1%
Prevalence of Mood Disorder
5%
Condition where Lithium is contraindicated
Sick Sinus Syndrome
observation
uses your senses, tool or number, calculations, or measurements
CT finding for Huntington's
Enlargement of ventricles due to atrophy of the head of the caudate nucleus
Skinner
Operant Conditioning
Palvov
Classical Conditioning
Memory of specific event
Episodic memory
Memory for automatic skills/speaking/grammer
implicit memory
Which SSRI's are most selective inhibitors of serotonian reuptake
citalipram
escitalopram
SSRI with significant anticholinergic activity at higher dosages
paroxetine
Learning is thought to take place as a result of the contiguity of environment events
classical

Pavlov
Learning is thought to occur as a result of the consequence of a person's actions and resultant effect on the environment
operant conditioning

Instrumental

Skinner
When do Post-traumatic seizures occur
within less then one year after injury
First line treatment for partial seizures
Carbamazepine
Therapeutic Level for Valproic Acid
50-100
What is the therapeutic level for the anticonvulsant Phenytoin
10 to 20
Majority of symptoms experienced by patients in the initial phase post-concussion resolved in what time frame
three to six months
Somatic Manifestation of Post-Concussive Syndrome include
Headache
Sleep disturbances
Diminished libido
Dizziness
fatigue
photophobia
tinnitis
decrease tolerance for alcohol
hypersensitivity to noise
Cognitive symptoms associated with post-concussive syndrome include
diminished concentration
diminished attention
memory problems
perseveration
dyspraxia
poor motivation
vacuous appearance
Post brain injury patient are susceptible to which effects when prescribing neuroleptics
increase sedation
hypotension
extrapyramidal effects
Idiosyncratic reactions occur in 5% of patients getting contrast. What are some of these reactions?
hypotension
flushing
nausea
urticaria
anaphylaxis
Which has the greater risk for side effects Ionic contrast or Nonionic contrast
Ionic Contrast
Risk Factors for contrast-induced side effects are
Age less then 1
Age > 60
asthma
allergies
CV disease
prior contrast reaction
What is the CT spatial resolution
less then 1mm
Why is CT contraindicated in pregnancy
Because it using ionized radiation
What are T1 and T2 Images with MRI useful for
T1 - optimal visualization of normal anatomy

T2 weighted images detect areas of pathology
Which is better for visualization of the posterior fossa and brainstem
MRI
What is the spatial resolution for PET scan
4 to 8 mm
Spatial resolution for Single Photon Emission Computer Tomography (SPECT)
more than 8mm
Indications for CT imaging
Dementia
New-onset pychosis
Movement disorder
anorexia nervosa
prolonged catatonia
new onset affective disorder
personality change after 50 y/o
Rates of Depression in amputees
35 to 58%
Rates of Depression in stroke patients
25-30%
Percentage of Men that report premature ejaculation
30%
Definition for Erectile Dysfunction
Inability to retain or maintain a satisfying erection until completion of sexual activity, causing marked distress or interpersonal difficulties
What is Peyronie's Disease
An erection with a curved shaft secondary to fibrosis
Organically based erectile dysfunction can be treated successful with what agents
yohimbine
alprostadil
papaverine
testosterone
Define Infertility
Failure to conceive after one year of regular sexual intercourse or inability to carry a pregnancy to live birth

NOTICE ITS ONE YEAR!
Infertility is diagnosed in what percentage of couples of child bearing age
1 in 6

17%
Percentage of women under 25 years of age that suffer from infertility
approximately 10%
Percentage of women 35-40 years of age that suffer from infertility
approximately 25%
Percentage of women that suffer from major depression during the first six months after a spontaneous abortion
10 to 50%
For menopause to be diagnosed, menses must be absent for how many consecutive months
12

1 YEAR
Median Age of the onset of the perimenopause, defined as the time of transition from regular menstrual function to the complete cessation of menses is approximately
47 years of age
Prevalence of major and minor depression during pregnancy is approximately
10%
Percentage of women with bipolar disorder that relapse withing the acute post-partum period
50-60%
What is the percentage of neural tube defects in pt treated with valproic acid in the first trimester
~5%
Risk of spina bifida after first trimester prenatal exposure to carbamazepine
1%
Post-partum blues is a time-limited condition involving mood lability that occurs in what percentage of post-partum women
50-75%
What is the time frame for post-partum blues
Develops within 2 to 3 days after delivery and last up to 2 weeks
Post-partum depression develops when
Major depression within 4 weeks of delivery
Time frame requirement for Acute Stress Disorder
Symptoms must last at least 2 days - 4 weeks, and occur within 4 weeks of the trauma
Lifetime risk for developing post-traumatic stress disorder in a community sample
1-3%
Principles when evaluating a person immediately following a traumatic event include
Establish rapport with the patient

gently encourage the patient to review the trauma and surrounding events

identify the aspect of the trauma that was most distressing to the patient

pay attention to practical and immediate concerns brought on by the trauma
Principles in treatment following a traumatic event include
convey whatever is known about the traumatic even to the patient

Educate the patient about common responses to trauma

review how the patient has preveiously managed crises to recall the patients strengths

encourage patient to use existing supports
Which TCA is effective for treatment of OCD and which is not
Effective - Clomipramine

Ineffective - Imipramine
Lifetime prevalence of Bipolar disorder
1-4%
Causes of Secondary Mania include
thyrotoxicosis
multiple sclerosis
HIV infection
SLE
steriods
anticholinergic agents
hypoglycemia
electrolyte imbalance
stroke
Which anticonvulsant level will drop after 8-12 weeks of treatment due to enzyme induction
carbamazepine
Maintenance treatment for bipolar disorder should continue for how long after the first and any subsequent manic episode
At least one year
DSM Criteria for Manic Episode
Grandiosity

distinct period of abnormally or persistently elevated, expansive or irritable mood lasting 1 week or any duration if hospitalized

decreased need for sleep

racing thoughts

distractibility

increase in goal oriented behavior or PMA

excessive involvement in pleasurable activities
Contraindications for lithium therapy
Renal Impairment
Myasthenia gravis
Pregnancy
Fluid and Salt imbalances
Side Effects of Carbamazepine
Aplastic Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
Hepatitis
agranulocytosis
rash
erythema multiforme
Steven Johnson Syndrome
Hyponatremia
edema
SLE
arrythmia
teratogen
Percentage of eating disorder patient that are male
5-10%
What vision disturbance is found in patients with pituitary tumor that protrudes through the diaphragma sella
Bitemporal hemianopia
What serum antibody is found in patient with Myasthenia gravis
Acteylcholine Receptor Ab
In a patient with dementia, the occurance of intermittent confusion, hallucinations, and psychotic behaviors, with unusual sensitivity to the extrapyramidal effects of neuroleptic drugs would suggest what diagnosis
Diffuse Lewy Body Disease
What disorder of childhood puts the patient at greatest risk of developing panic disorder as an adult
separation anxiety disorder
Primary psychological task of school-age children is achieving which of the following
a. identity
b. autonomy
c. attachment
d. competence
e. individuation
COMPETENCE

Erikson
Competence from
Industry vs. Inferiority (Childhood, 7 to 12 years)

Psychosocial Crisis: Industry vs. Inferiority

Main Question: "Am I successful or worthless?"

Virtue: Competence

Related Elements in Society: division of labor
According to Erikson's Theories, Which of the following psychological issues would be most salient for a 75 y/o?
a. appreciating the achievements of one's parents
b. establishing new interests
c. Maintaining old friendships
d. Creating a better world for others
e. finding meaning in what one has done
FINDING MEANING IN WHAT ONE HAS DONE

Wisdom
Ego Integrity vs. Despair (Seniors, 65 years onwards)

Psychosocial Crisis: Ego Integrity vs. Despair

Main Question: "Have I lived a full life?"

Virtue: Wisdom
Leading nongenetic cause of mental retardation in the United States
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
What antipsychotic medication is best to avoid in patients with Parkinson's disease
clozapine

Parkinson medications and clozapine have increase risk on NMS
MRI finding for HIV-associated Dementia
Diffuse and confluent white matter change in TS sequence, without any mass effect and without any enhancement with gadolinium
CT and MRI for Toxoplasmosis
Thin-walled ring-enhancing lesions, surrounding edema;

Multiple ring enhancing lesions on CT or MRI
Gait characterized by postural instability accompanied by festination and truncal rigidity
Parkinson's disease
drug of abuse that exerts its effects primarily through serotonin release and reuptake inhibition
Methylenedioxymethamphetamine

(MDMA)

Esctasy
Changes in sleep due to aging
Delta wave amplitude decreases and proportionally less time is spent in stage 3 and stage 4 sleep
In a forensic evaluation if the defendant tells you of unsolved cases what should you do
Avoid detailed descriptions of the defendant's past offense history
Discuss Desipramine
TCA

It inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine and to a lesser extent serotonin. It is used to treat depression, but not considered a first line treatment since the introduction of SSRI antidepressants. Desipramine is an active metabolite of imipramine.

Can be used for neuropathic pain and also ADD

FDA cautions use in patient with arrythmia due to risk of sudden death. manufacturer also warn that some patients may have seizures before cardiac dysrhythmias and death
Child Behavior Checklist (CBCL)
Widely-used method of identifying problem behavior in children. It is a component in the Achenbach System of Emperically Based Assessment.

2 Versions, Score items 0(no) - 2(very true)

Preschool version for 18 months to 5 years old has 100 questions

School-age Version for children 6-18 y/o has 120 questions
Wide Range Achievement Test (WRAT)
Wide Range Achievement Test 4 (WRAT4) is an achievement test which measures an individual's ability to read words, comprehend sentences, spell, and compute solutions to math problems.

The test currently is in its fourth revision

The test is appropriate for individuals ages 5-94 years.

The WRAT4 provides two equivalent forms (Blue and Green), which enables retesting within short periods of time without potential practice effects that occur from repeating the same items. The alternate forms also may be administered together in a single examination
Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales (VABS)
The leading instrument for supporting the diagnosis of intellectual and developmental disabilities

Now includes these forms: Survey Interview, Parent/Caregiver Rating, Teacher Rating, Expanded Interview
All Vineland-II forms aid in diagnosing and classifying intellectual and developmental disabilities and other disorders, such as autism, Asperger Syndrome, and developmental delays. The scales of the Vineland II were organized within a three domain structure: Communication, Daily Living, and Socialization.

With Vineland-II you can measure adaptive behavior of individuals with:
Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities
Autism spectrum disorders (ASDs)
ADHD
Post-traumatic brain injury
Hearing impairment
Dementia/Alzheimer’s disease
Kaufman Assessment Battery For Children (K-ABC)
Administration: 25 to 55 minutes (core battery, Luria model), 35 to 70 minutes (core battery, CHC model)
Scores: Scores/ Interpretation: Age-based standard scores, age equivalents, and percentile ranks

standardized test that assesses intelligence and achievement in children aged two years, six months to 12 years, six months
According to WHO, which is the number one psychiatric cause of lost years of healthy life as measured by disability-adjusted life years for individuals between ages 15 to 40 years
Unipolar Major Depression
Exploration of transference is needed for a reparative emotional experience in which form of psychotherapeutic treatment
Psychoanalytic psychotherapy
40 y/o patient experienced delirium, tremor, diaphoresis, rigidity, hyperpyrexia, and myoclonus is making the transition from the use of clomipramine to phenelzine. The patient is likely experiencing what
Serotonin Syndrome

Clomipramine is a TCA
Phenelzine is MAOI

Serotonin syndrome encompasses a wide range of clinical findings.
Mild symptoms may only consist of increased heart rate, shivering, sweating, dilated pupils, myoclonus (intermittent tremor or twitching), as well as overresponsive reflexes. Moderate intoxication includes additional abnormalities such as hyperactive bowel sounds, high blood pressure and hyperthermia; a temperature as high as 40 °C (104 °F) is common in moderate intoxication. The overactive reflexes and clonus in moderate cases may be greater in the lower limbs than in the upper limbs. Mental status changes include hypervigilance and agitation.
Severe symptoms include severe increases in heart rate and blood pressure that may lead to shock. Temperature may rise to above 41.1 °C (106.0 °F) in life-threatening cases.
Other abnormalities include metabolic acidosis, rhabdomyolysis, seizures, renal failure, and disseminated intravascular coagulation; these effects usually arise as a consequence of hyperthermia.
Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST)
is a neuropsychological test of "set-shifting", i.e. the ability to display flexibility in the face of changing schedules of reinforcement.

patients with acquired brain injury, neurodegenerative disease, or mental illness such as schizophrenia. It has been considered a measure of executive function because of its reported sensitivity to frontal lobe dysfunction. As such, the WCST allows the clinician to assess the following "frontal" lobe functions: strategic planning, organized searching, utilizing environmental feedback to shift cognitive sets, directing behavior toward achieving a goal, and modulating impulsive responding. The test can be administered to those 6.5 years to 89 years of age.
Block Design Test
subtest on many intelligence tests that measures visuospatial and motor skills. The testee is required to take blocks that have all white sides, all red sides, and red and white sides and arrange them according to a pattern. They are timed on this task and compared to a normative sample

Good performance on the block design test is indicative of appropriate functioning of the parietal and frontal lobes. Head injury, Alzheimer's disease, and stroke can severely reduce the performance of an individual on the block design test. Additional evidence suggests impairment in block design performance among schizophrenic and bipolar disorder patient populations, though this represents only preliminary findings.

Best test of Spatial Ability
Digit symbol substitution test
neuropsychological test sensitive to brain damage, dementia, age and depression. It isn’t sensitive to the location of brain-damage (except for damage comprising part of the visual field)
sists of (e.g. nine) digit-symbol pairs (e.g. 1/-,2/┴ ... 7/Λ,8/X,9/=) followed by a list of digits. Under each digit the subject should write down the corresponding symbol as fast as possible. The number of correct symbols within the allowed time (e.g. 90 or 120 sec) is measured.
The DSST contained in the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale is called Digit Symbol (WAIS-R) or Digit Symbol-Coding (WAIS-III). To examine the role of memory in Digit-Symbol-Coding performance,
Boston Naming Test
Purpose: Designed to measure object naming from line drawings.

Description: The Boston Naming Test (BNT) represents a measure of object naming from line drawings that takes into account the finding that patients with dysnomia often have greater difficulties with the naming of low frequency objects. Thus, instead of there being a simple category of anomia, naming difficulties may be rank ordered along a continuum. Items have been rank ordered in terms of their ability to be named, which is thought to be correlated with their frequency. This type of picture-naming vocabulary test is useful in the examination of children with learning disabilities and the evaluation of brain-injured adults.

Scoring: The BNT contains 60 items.

Suggested Uses:
Recommended as a supplement to the Boston Diagnostic Aphasia Examination
Susto
Hispanic Culture-bound syndrome that is attributed to a frightened event that causes the soul to leave the body and results in unhappiness and sickness
Locura
(Latin America) a severe form of chronic psychosis, attributed to an inherited vulnerability, the effect of multiple life difficulties, or a combination of the two. Symptoms include incoherence, agitation, auditory and visual hallucinations, inability to follow rules of social interaction, unpredictability, and possible violence.
Mal De Ojo
(Spain and Latin America) the Spanish term for the evil eye. Evil eye occurs as a common idiom of disease, misfortune, and social disruption throughout the Mediterranean, Latin American, and Muslim worlds.
Songue Dormido, or sangue dormido
(Portuguese Cape Verdeans) Literally "sleeping blood". Symptoms include pain, numbness, tremor, paralysis, convulsions, stroke, blindness, heart attack, infection, and miscarriage.
ataque de nervios
an idiom of distress principally reported among Latinos from the Caribbean, but also among many Latin American and Latin Mediterranean groups. Symptoms include uncontrollable shouting, attacks of crying, trembling, heat in the chest rising to the head, and verbal or physical aggression. Ataques de nervios frequently occur as a result of a stressful family event, especially the death of a relative, but also a divorce or fight with a family member.
koro
(Malaysia) an episode of sudden and intense anxiety that the penis (or in the rare female cases, the vulva and nipples) will recede into the body and possibly cause death. The syndrome occasionally occurs in local epidemics.
This syndrome occurs throughout south and east Asia under different names: suo yang (China); jinjinia bemar (Assam); and rok-joo (Thailand). It has been identified in isolated cases in the United States and Europe, as well as among diasporic ethnic Chinese or Southeast Asians.
latah
(Malaysia and Indonesia) hypersensitivity to sudden fright, often with echopraxia, echolalia, command obedience, and dissociative or trancelike behavior. The Malaysian syndrome is more frequent in middle-aged women.

Similar syndromes include: amurakh, irkunii, ikota, olan, myriachit, and menkeiti (Siberian groups); bah-tschi, bah-tsi, and baah-ji (Thailand); imu (Ainu & Sakhalin, Japan); and mali-mali and silok (Philippines).
amok or mata elap
(Malaysia) a dissociative episode characterized by a period of brooding followed by an outburst of violent, aggressive, or homicidal behavior directed at people and objects. The episode tends to be precipitated by a perceived insult or slight and seems to be prevalent only among males. The episode is often accompanied by persecutory ideas, automatism, amnesia for the period of the episode, exhaustion, and a return to premorbid state following the episode. Some instances of amok may occur during a brief psychotic episode or constitute the onset or exacerbation of a chronic psychotic process.

Similar to cafard or cathard (Polynesia), mal de pelea (Puerto Rico), iich'aa (Navaho), and syndromes found in Laos, Papua New Guinea, and the Philippines. Similar also to the nascent American folk-category of going postal.
What does a study population that is not representative of the populations being treated do to a research study
Effects the External validity
Diagnostic Criteria For Gender Identity Disorder
Strong Preference for playmates of the other sex

a repeated stated desire to be, or insistence that he or she is the other sex

In Girls, insistence of wearing only stereotypical masculine clothing

In Boys, assertion that the penis or testes are disgusting and will disappear
Pt with OCD, Which of region of the brain is most likely to show increased activity on PET scanning
Caudate
Treatment for Akathesia
The first-line treatment of akathisia is usually a beta-blocker, such as propranolol or metoprolol. Benzodiazepines such as clonazepam are also effective. The antihistamine cyproheptadine is also effective, though with shorter effect than beta blockers. Benztropine and Trihexyphenidyl can also be used to treat this condition.

One study showed that vitamin B6 is effective for the treatment of neuroleptic-induced akathisia

N Acetyl Cysteine also showed a positive effect on akathisia in an RCT.
Freuds Preconscious
the word preconscious is applied to thoughts which are unconscious at the particular moment in question, but which are not repressed and are therefore available for recall and easily capable of becoming conscious.

Example is 5 y/o able to recall his address after being prompted to do so, information is stored at preconscious level
Characteristic lesions seen in the CT scan of patient who have had coma associated with carbon monoxide poisoning is located in which brain area
Globus Pallidus
Which behaviors theory fits with

A behavior will most likely decrease in frequency if it is incompatible with a behavior that is positively reinforced
Operant Conditioning
Operant Conditioning
the use of consequences to modify the occurrence and form of behavior. Operant conditioning is distinguished from classical conditioning (also called respondent conditioning, or Pavlovian conditioning) in that operant conditioning deals with the modification of "voluntary behavior" or operant behavior. Operant behavior "operates" on the environment and is maintained by its consequences, while classical conditioning deals with the conditioning of respondent behaviors which are elicited by antecedent conditions. Behaviors conditioned via a classical conditioning procedure are not maintained by consequences.

Reinforcement is a consequence that causes a behavior to occur with greater frequency.

Punishment is a consequence that causes a behavior to occur with less frequency.

Extinction is the lack of any consequence following a behavior. When a behavior is inconsequential, producing neither favorable nor unfavorable consequences, it will occur with less frequency. When a previously reinforced behavior is no longer reinforced with either positive or negative reinforcement, it leads to a decline in the response.
Positive reinforcement
(Reinforcement) occurs when a behavior (response) is followed by a stimulus (commonly seen as pleasant) that increases the frequency of that behavior. In the Skinner box experiment, a stimulus such as food or sugar solution can be delivered when the rat engages in a target behavior, such as pressing a lever.
Negative reinforcement
(Escape) occurs when a behavior (response) is followed by the removal of a stimulus (commonly seen as unpleasant) thereby increasing that behavior's frequency. In the Skinner box experiment, negative reinforcement can be a loud noise continuously sounding inside the rat's cage until it engages in the target behavior, such as pressing a lever, upon which the loud noise is removed
Positive punishment
(Punishment) (also called "Punishment by contingent stimulation") occurs when a behavior (response) is followed by a stimulus, such as introducing a shock or loud noise, resulting in a decrease in that behavior
Negative punishment
(Penalty) (also called "Punishment by contingent withdrawal") occurs when a behavior (response) is followed by the removal of a stimulus, such as taking away a child's toy following an undesired behavior, resulting in a decrease in that behavior.
Avoidance learning
is a type of learning in which a certain behavior results in the cessation of an aversive stimulus. For example, performing the behavior of shielding one's eyes when in the sunlight (or going indoors) will help avoid the aversive stimulation of having light in one's eyes
Noncontingent reinforcement
refers to delivery of reinforcing stimuli regardless of the organism's (aberrant) behavior. The idea is that the target behavior decreases because it is no longer necessary to receive the reinforcement. This typically entails time-based delivery of stimuli identified as maintaining aberrant behavior, which serves to decrease the rate of the target behavior. As no measured behavior is identified as being strengthened, there is controversy surrounding the use of the term noncontingent "reinforcement"
Classical conditioning
(also Pavlovian or respondent conditioning, Pavlovian reinforcement) is a form of associative learning that was first demonstrated by Ivan Pavlov.

The typical procedure for inducing classical conditioning involves presentations of a neutral stimulus along with a stimulus of some significance. The neutral stimulus could be any event that does not result in an overt behavioral response from the organism under investigation. Pavlov referred to this as a conditioned stimulus (CS). Conversely, presentation of the significant stimulus necessarily evokes an innate, often reflexive, response. Pavlov called these the unconditioned stimulus (US) and unconditioned response (UR), respectively. If the CS and the US are repeatedly paired, eventually the two stimuli become associated and the organism begins to produce a behavioral response to the CS. Pavlov called this the conditioned response (CR).
Case Control Studies are appropriate for answering what time of epidemiological question
Disease where in the incidence is low
Apraxia
inability to care out motor activities on verbal command despite intact comprehension and motor function
Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS) is most effective when used for what purpose
Peripheral Neuralgia
Bell's Palsy
is a dysfunction of cranial nerve VII (the facial nerve) that results in inability to control facial muscles on the affected side

Bell's palsy is characterized by facial drooping on the affected half, due to malfunction of the facial nerve (VII cranial nerve), which controls the muscles of the face. Facial palsy is typified by inability to control movement in the facial muscles. The paralysis is of the infranuclear/lower motor neuron type.
The facial nerves control a number of functions, such as blinking and closing the eyes, smiling, frowning, lacrimation, and salivation. They also innervate the stapedial (stapes) muscles of the middle ear and carry taste sensations from the anterior two thirds of the tongue.
Clinicians should determine whether the forehead muscles are spared. Due to an anatomical peculiarity, forehead muscles receive innervation from both sides of the brain. The forehead can therefore still be wrinkled by a patient whose facial palsy is caused by a problem in one of the hemispheres of the brain (central facial palsy). If the problem resides in the facial nerve itself (peripheral palsy) all nerve signals are lost on the ipsilateral (same side of the lesion) half side of the face, including to the forehead (contralateral forehead still wrinkles).
Horner's Syndrome
clinical syndrome caused by damage to the sympathetic nervous system

Signs found in all patients on affected side of face include; ptosis (which is drooping of the upper eyelid from loss of sympathetic innervation to the superior tarsal muscle, also known as Müller's muscle), upside-down ptosis (slight elevation of the lower lid), and miosis (constricted pupil), and anhidrosis (decreased sweating on the affected side of the face). dilation lag (slow response of the pupil to light), Enophthalmos (the impression that the eye is sunk in) loss of ciliospinal reflex and bloodshot conjunctiva may occur depending on the site of lesion. Sometimes there is flushing of the face is on the affected side of the face due to dilation of blood vessels under the skin.

The clinical features of Horner's syndrome can be remembered using the mnemonic, "Horny PAMELa" for Ptosis, Anhydrosis, Miosis, Enophthalmos and Loss of ciliospinal reflex.

In children Horner syndrome sometimes leads to a difference in eye color between the two eyes (heterochromia). This happens because a lack of sympathetic stimulation in childhood interferes with melanin pigmentation of the melanocytes in the superficial stroma of the iris.
Lateral medullary syndrome

Wallenberg's syndrome and posterior inferior cerebellar artery syndrome
disease in which the patient has difficulty with swallowing or speaking or both owing to one or more patches of dead tissue (known as an infarct) caused by interrupted blood supply to parts of the brain.

This syndrome is characterized by sensory deficits affecting the trunk (torso) and extremities on the opposite side of the infarction and sensory deficits affecting the face and cranial nerves on the same side with the infarct. Specifically, there is a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the contralateral (opposite) side of the body and ipsilateral (same) side of the face. This crossed finding is diagnostic for the syndrome.

The affected persons have difficulty in swallowing (dysphagia) resulting from involvement of the nucleus ambiguus, as well as slurred speech (dysphonia, dysarthria). Damage to the spinal trigeminal nucleus causes absence of pain on the ipsilateral side of the face, as well as an absent corneal reflex.

The spinothalamic tract is damaged, resulting in loss of pain and temperature sensation to the opposite side of the body. The damage to the cerebellum or the inferior cerebellar peduncle can cause ataxia. Damage to the hypothalamospinal fibers disrupts sympathetic nervous system relay and gives symptoms analogous to Horner's syndrome.

Nystagmus and vertigo, which may result in falling, caused from involvement of the region of Deiters' nucleus and other vestibular nuclei. Onset is usually acute with severe vertigo.
Palatal myoclonus may be observed due to disruption of the central tegmental tract.
Trigeminal Neuralgia

tic douloureux
characterised by episodes of intense facial pain that usually last from a few seconds to several minutes or hours. The episodes of intense pain may occur paroxysmally. To describe the pain sensation, patients may describe a trigger area on the face, so sensitive that touching or even air currents can trigger an episode. It affects lifestyle as it can be triggered by common activities such as eating, talking, shaving and toothbrushing. The attacks are said by those affected to feel like stabbing electric shocks, burning, pressing, crushing, exploding or shooting pain that becomes intractable.

Individual attacks usually affect one side of the face at a time, lasting from several seconds to a few minutes and repeat up to hundreds of times throughout the day. The pain also tends to occur in cycles with remissions lasting months or even years. 10-12% of cases are bilateral, or occurring on both sides. This normally indicates problems with both trigeminal nerves since one serves strictly the left side of the face and the other serves the right side. Pain attacks typically worsen in frequency or severity over time. Many patients develop the pain in one branch, then over years the pain will travel through the other nerve branches.
Treatment for Trigeminal Neuralgia
Anticonvulsants are a common treatment strategy for trigeminal neuralgia. *Carbamazepine is the first line drug; second line drugs include baclofen, lamotrigine, oxcarbazepine, phenytoin, gabapentin, and sodium valproate.

Uncontrolled trials have suggested that clonazepam and lidocaine may be effective.

Low doses of some antidepressants such as amytriptiline are thought to be effective in treating neuropathic pain

Botox can be injected into the nerve by a physician, and has been found helpful using the "migraine" pattern adapted to the patient's special needs.

Patients may also find relief by having their neurologist implant a neuro-stimulator.

Many patients cannot tolerate medications for years, and an alternative treatment is to take a drug such as gabapentin and apply it externally.
Though many symptoms can be associated with panic attacks, the cardinal symtpoms that appears to be central to the pathophysiology of the syndrome is:
Hyperventilation
Psychotropic drugs associated with weight gain
mirtazapine

phenelzine

lithium

olanzapine
Why test stool for Phenolphthalein
If found in stool indication of laxative abuse,

However off market in US
What Axis II diagnosis is related to high rates of obesity
Mental Retardation
Agents found effective in Weight loss
Sibrutramine

Dexfenfluramine (removed from market as associated with cardiovascular disease

Phentermine - not associated with CV dz

Phenylpropanolamine - sympathomimetic
Criteria for AIDS in HIV pt
CD4 count < 200

% lymphocytes below 14

Kapasi's Sarcoma

Candidiasis of esophagus

HIV encephalopathy
Common CNS opportunistic infections in HIV patients
Histoplasmosis

Toxoplasmosis

Cryptococcus

Mycobacterium Avium Interacellular
Zidovudine (AZT) associated with
headache
agitation
insominia
mania
depression
irritability
Acyclovic associated with
Visual hallucinations
Confusion
Hyperacusis
Insomnia
Depersonalization
hyperesthesia
agitation
Associated with Pentamidine treatment
euphoria
visual hallucinations
hyperacusis
hypertension
HIV associated dementia affects what percentage of asymptomatic HIV patients
5%

2/3 of pt with AIDS defining illness manifest HIV dementia
Secondary cause of death in HIV pts
suicide
Contraindications for transplant
acute SI
Dementia
Active substance abuse
Intractable noncompliance
Percentage of homeless adults reported to have history of psychiatric hospitalization
15-30%
Some of the Criteria for narcissistic personality disorder
A lust for power thought beauty, love, brilliance or money

entitlement

stunted empathy

displays of contempt
During a Family crisis meeting the focus on the meeting should be what?
impact on all the members of the relevant family system not just the identified patients problem
Percentages of marriages involving physical violence at some point
1/3 to 50%
Statistics for homicides occurring within the family
1/5th of all homicides
Prevalence of psychosocial difficulty in all children is approximately what percentage
10-15% (approximately 12)
Areas to assess in children
cognitive status
temperament
sociability
family relations
general health
reaction to stress
quality of attachments
parental competency
family resources
community resources
Percentage of ADHD children that suffer from learning disabilities
greater then 30%
Typical starting dosage for methylphenidate in children with ADHD
2.5 to 5 mg
Pemoline starting dosage for children with ADHD
18.75 to 37.5mg
Discuss issues with concomitant use of stimulants and tricyclic antidepressants
Coadministration of stimulants and TCA's or Anticonvulsants has been associated with increase in the serum levels of BOTH medications
Complications of cocaine abuse and dependence involve what
anosmia
acute MI
stroke
pulmonary edema
seizures
arrhymias
perforation of the nasal septum
hepatitis
depression
panic
hypertension
ruptured of ascending aorta
bronchitis
abruptio placentae
Which metabolites are detected in the urine longer cocaine or amphetamines
Cocaine metabolites can be detected for 2 to 3 days after use, whereas amphetamines metabolites can be detected 1 or 2 days after use
Metabolites of Marijuana (cannabinoids) can be detected in the urine for up to how long
30 days!
Some of the Pharmacologic managment of cocaine craving and withdrawal may include what agents
Dopamine agonist (bromocriptine, amantadine, mazindol)
TCAs (Desipramine)

Beta-blockers have only been show to be helpful in acute cocaine intoxication not with withdrawal or cravings.
Signs and Symptoms of Opioid Withdrawal
Yawning
Lacrimation
Rhinorrhea
Dilated Pupils
increase RR
Lifetime prevalence of alcohol dependence among cocaine dependent patients is
greater then 60%

62% accounts for 12 million Americans
Life-Threatening causes of agitation include
WHHHIMP

W- wernicke's encehpalopathy
H- Hypertension
H- Hypoxia
H- Hypoglycemia
I- Intracranial Bleeds
M- Meningitis or metabolic derangements
P- Poisonings
Appropriate dosage equivalents for glucocorticoids preparations
*prednisone
*Methylprednisolone
*dexamthasone
*Cortisone
*Hydrocortisone
Prednisone - 5 mg
Methylprednisolone - 4 mg
Dexamethasone - 0.75 mg
Cortisone - 25 mg
Hydrocortisone - 20mg
List some Adverse Effects of glucocorticoids
thin-fragile skin
osteoporosis
myopathy/muscle weakness
peptic ulcers
HA
aseptic necrosis of femoral head
sodium retention
hypertension
menstrual irregularities
manifestations of latent diabetes
Pt has sudden, painless onset of paresis of the Right upper and lower face, inability to abduct the right eye and paresis of the left arm and leg. Where is the lesion?
Damaged right abducen (CN VI) and facial nerves (CN VII) and the corticospinal tract to left limb

PONS

CN VI and VII originate in pons
Pt has Left ptosis and dilated and unreactive left pupil with external deviation of the left eye, Right hemiparesis, and right sided hyperactive DTR and + Babinski sign. NO aphasia or hemianopsia. Where is the lesion
MIDBRAIN

Left Oculomotor palsy and right hemiparesis, no visual or language deficits so has to be brainstem not cerebrum
Which two lobes might cause a lesion causing a left superior homonymous quadrantanopia?
OCCIPITAL LOBE AND TEMPORAL LOBE

This visual field loss is usually found with destruction of right temporal and or inferior occipital lobe
*due to brain tumor or occlusion of posterior cerbral artery

Alternatively an optic tract lesion may occasionally be responsible
pt with gait impairment and right sided decreased hearing. The right corneal reflex is absent. Entire right side of the face is weak. Auditory acuity is diminished on the right. Left side hyperactive DTR with babinski sign. Right sided difficulty with rapid alternating movments. What structure is involved
CEREBELLOPONTINE ANGLE STRUCTURE

Right sided corneal reflex loss, facial weakness and hearing impairment indicate damage of Trigeminal (V), Facial (VII), and acoustic (VIII) cranial nerves. These all emerge together from the brainstem at the cerbellopontine angle.

The right sided dysdiadochokinesia reflects right sided cerebellar damage.

The left sided DTR is common with compression of the pons

Common cerbellopontine lesions are menengiomas and acoustic neuromas, which are often manifestations of neurofibromatosis (particularly the NF2 varient)
Interscapular back pain, paraparesis with hyperreflexia, loss of sensation below the umbilicus, and incontinence where is the lesions?
a. C7
b. T4
c. T10
d. L1
e. S2
f. none of the above
T10

umbilicus is the landmark for T10
50 y/o male presention with mild dementio has absent reflexes, loss of position and vibration sensation, and ataxia. Which areas are affected?
CEREBRUM AND SPINAL CORDS POSTERIOR COLUMNS

Conditions that cause dementia and dysfunction of the posterior columns of the spinal cord and the cerbellar system are combined system disease
*pernicious anemia
*tabes dorsalis
*spinocerebellar degenerations
*heavy metal toxins

It is frequently damaged by hereditary disease
55 y/o women thought to have depression, is then found to have right-sided optic atrophy and left-sided papilledema. What is the lesion
FRONTAL LOBE

FOSTER-KENNEDY SYNDROME
Right frontal lobe tumor compresses the underlying right optic nerve, causing optic atrophy and raised intracranial pressure cause papilledema of the left optic nerve.

There are important asymmetrical differences in the frontal lobes. The left frontal lobe is involved in controlling language related movement, whereas the right frontal lobe plays a role in non-verbal abilities.

Left frontal damage usually manifests as pseudodepression and right frontal damage as pseudopsychopathic

Sexual behavior can also be effected by frontal lesions. Orbital frontal damage can introduce abnormal sexual behavior, while dorolateral lesions may reduce sexual interest
two structures comprise the posterior columns of the spinal cord
Fasciculus cuneate
Fasciculus gracilis
What structure in the spinal cord carries temperature sensation
lateral spinothalamic tract
What spinal cord level is the nipples correlated to
T4
What spinal cord level is the umbilicus correlated to
T10
Which two cranial nerves have CNS myelin covering
Optic nerve (CN II)
Acoustic Nerve (CN VIII)
An elderly, hypertensive man has vertigo, nausea, and vomiting. He has a right sided Horner's syndrome, loss of the right corneal reflex and dysarthria because of paresis of the palate. Which way does the palate deviate?
LEFT

The patient has a right sided lateral Medullary (Wallenberg's) Syndrome. This syndrome includes crossed hypalgesia (right-facial and left truncal) and right sided ataxia. The palates deviates to the left because the right sided palatal muscle weakness

Because the cerebrum is spared, patients do not have emotional or cognitive impairment or physical signs of cerebral damage, such as visual field cuts or seizures.
Pregnant women in last trimester of normal pregnancy develops pain in her lower back. Immediately before delivery the pain spreads down her right anterolateral thigh. That quapriceps muscle was slightly weak and its CTR was reduced. By 2 weeks postpartum after birth of 11 lb baby girl, all signs and symptoms have resolved. What was the diagnosis
Compression of the femoral nerve or its roots

An enlarged uterus can compress the lumbosacral plexus in the pelvis or the femoral nerve as it exits from the inguinal area
What is Meralgia Paresthetica
Results from nerve compression in the inguinal region, is painful but not associated with weakness or DTR loss
Where is the primary damage in Wilson's disease, Huntington's dz, and choreiform cerebral palsy?
Extrapyramidal System

These dz, like parkinson's dz, damage the basal ganglia which are the foundation of the extrapyramidal motor system.

Basal ganglia dysfunction causes:
tremor
chorea
athetosis
rigidity
bradykinesia
Signs of Corticospinal tract dysfunction
spasticity
hyperreflexia DTR
Clonus
Babinski signs
Anton's Syndrome
A form of anosognosia

Denial of the sudden onset of blindness from occipital lobe infarction
pt has astereognosis, where is the lesion
contralaterial parietal lobe
Athetosis
An involuntary movement disorder characterized by slow writhing, sinuous movement of the arms or legs that is more pronounced in the distal part of the limbs.

It usually results from basal ganglia damage from perinatal jaundice, anoxia, or prematurity
Chorea
Is a disorder of involuntary movement characterized by intermittent, random jerking of limbs, face or trunk.

Medications such as levadopa and typical neuroleptic and many basal ganglia disease may cause it
Dysdiadochokinesia
Impairment of rapid alternating movements that is characteristic of cerebellar injury, but may be result of red nucleus damage
Gerstmann's Syndrome
Combination of aphasia, finger agnosia, dyscalculia, and inability to distinguish right from left
Dymetria
Irregularities on performing rapid alternating movements

Terms does not refer to a measure of distance but to rhythm
percentage of patient receiving <40mg per day prednisone that will develop neurpsych symptoms
1%
percentage of patients receiving >80mg per day of prednisone that will develop neuropsych symptoms
15-25% (20)
Symptoms of steroid withdrawal
depression
fatigue
anxiety
confusion
slowed mentation
disorientation
anorexia
TCA that has the lowest propensity to induce hypotension
Nortriptyline

Second generation TCA

Nortriptyline also presents clinically relevant post-synaptic antagonism of muscarinergic, histaminergic and 5HT2A receptors

the incidence of side effects with nortriptyline is lower than with the first-generation tricyclics (e.g., imipramine (Tofranil), amitriptyline (Elavil))
what two cheese do not cause MAOI induced hypertensive crisis
cream cheese
cottage cheese
What are some H2 blockers used to treat nausea and dyspepsia
ranitidine
cisapride
metoclopramide
famotidine
Some of the uses for Cyproheptadine
hayfever
nightmares associated with PTSD
moderate to severe Seretonin syndrome
relieve SSRI induced dysfunction
appetite stimulant
prevent migraines in child and adol
tx for MAOI-induced paresthesias
Pyridoxine

supplementation with 50-150 mg at bedtime may help relieve MAIO-induced pyridoxine deficiency and subsequent paresthesias
list some drugs to help relieve antidepressant induced sexual dysfunction
yohimbine
buproprion
buspirone
amantadine
cyproheptadine
effects of lithium and thiazide drug combination
lithium levels will rise by roughly 25% with use of thiazide diuretics
Define Sleep latency
Period of time from turning out the lights until the appearance of stage 2 sleep
Frequency of nightmares in children 3 to 6 y/o
50%
Effects on body during REM sleep
frequent genital tumenscence
decreased cardiac output
increase cerebral glucose metabolism
increase respiratory rate
increase brain temperature
increase in pulse rate
poikiothermic conditions are present
Anatomical sites implicated in the generation of NREM sleep
basal forebrain area
thalamus and hypothalamus
dorsal raphe nucleus
medulla
What is the effect of total sleep time in the elderly
a. increased
b. decreased
c. remains the same
C

average daily total sleep time is the same
What stage of sleep does sleep walking occur
NREM

Stages 3 and 4
What stage of sleep does Bed-wetting(enuresis) occur
NREM

Really considered a diffuse sleep disorder
What stage of sleep does Paroxysmal hemicrania occur
REM Sleep
What Stage of sleep does Erections occur
REM sleep
What stage of sleep does D sleep occur
REM sleep
What stage of sleep does paradoxical sleep occur
REM sleep
What stage of sleep does Slow wave sleep occur
NREM Sleep
What stage of sleep do you see EEG Synchronized sleep
NREM sleep
Which stage of sleep occurs mostly in the last half of the night
REM Sleep
What stages of sleep is autonomic functioning usually slow and steady
NREM sleep
What is Jactatio Capitis Nocturnus
Head banging while sleeping, seen in children

Disorder of wake-sleep transition disorder

tx - decrease stess, BZD, TCA and behavior modification
treatments for obstructive sleep apnea
weight loss
cpap
bipap
nasal surgery
tracheostomy
uvulopalatoplasy

SSRI and Heterocyclic anitdepressants sometimes help by decreasing the amount of item spent in REM Sleep

Theophylline has been shown to decrease number of episodes of apnea, but may interfere with the over quality of sleep

AVOID SEDATIVE MEDICATIONS
What stage of sleep to apneic episodes
REM sleep
What is REM Latency
Period of time from the onset of sleep
Define Early Morning awakening
a time of being continuously awaken from the last last stage of the sleep until the end of the sleep record (usually a 7am)
Delayed sleep phase syndrome is
a persistent pattern of late sleep onset and late awakening times, with an inability to fall asleep and awaken at a desired earlier time
Advanced sleep phase syndrome is
early sleep onset and early awakening, with an inability to fall asleep and awaken at a desired later time
what is the circadian rhythm
our endogenously regulated biological clock located in the suprachiasmatic nuclei of the anterior hypothalamus which in turn is synbdromized with the environment by visual or other nonphotic time clues (zeitgebers, meaning, time givers)

Time clues
*core body temperature
*cortisol
two processes that influence the sleep-wake cycle
1) endogenous biological clock, which drives the circadian rhythm of the propensity for sleep and the characteristics of sleep across th 24 hour period

2) Homestatic process that increase sleep propensity the longer the period of wakefulness prior to sleep
What are the effects of a lesion on the suprachiasmatic nuclie
arrhythmic rest-activity patterns, which no longer follow a circadian rhythm but are distributed in numerous short bouts of sleep and wakefulness during the 24 hour period

Total amount of sleep and wakefulness in the 24 hour remains fairly constant
Major Circadian pacemaker
1) suprachiamastic nuclei
2) retina
What is the EEG characteristic sequential patter from wakeful state to sleep
regular activity at 3 to 7 cycles a second
sleep spindles and K complexes
Delta waves
Characteristics of waking EEG
alpha waves of 8-12 cycles a second, low voltage activity of mixed frequency
EEG for stage 1 sleep
lightest stage of sleep

low-voltage regular activity at 3 to 7 cycles

last seconds to minutes
EEG for Stage 2 sleep
spindle-shaped tracings at 12 to 14 cycles a second (sleep spindles)

Slow triphasic waves (K complexs)
Describe Delta waves
High-voltage activity at 0.5 to 2.5 cycles a second

If less then 50% of tracing in Stage 3

If greater then 50% of the tracing Stage 4
Sleepwalking disorder
More commonly seen in boys then in girls

often have vivid hallucinatory recollections of emotionally traumative events with no memory upon wakening

Occur in the first third of the night, NREM stages 3 and 4

No impairment of consciousness several minutes after awakening

begins between 6-12 years of age

tends to run in families
5 anatomical sites implicated in the generation of NREM sleep
basal forebrain area
thalamus
hypothalamus
dorsal raphe nucleus
nucleus tractus solitarius of the medulla
where is the reticular nucleus located
in the thalamus

plays an important role in generation of cortical sleep spindles (12 to 14 hz) and Delta waves (0.5 to 3.5hz, 75mV or greater)
Changes in REM sleep patterns in depressed patients
shortened REM latency (60 min or less)
increase percentage of REM sleep (over 25% normal)
shift in REM distribution from mostly occurring in first half of night
what is poikilothermia
state in which body temperature varies with the temperature of the surrounding medium
symptoms of narcolepsy
excessive daytime sleepiness
cataplexy
sleep paralysis
hypnagogic hallucinations
Sleep paralysis
brief episodes of an inability to move or speak when awake or asleep

due to temporary dysfunction of reticular activating system
BZD, and sedative/hypnotics effects on sleep
Decrease Slow wave sleep (stage 3 and 4)
Decreased REM sleep
Increased Beta and sleep spindles activity
Dreams in REM sleep
abstract, vivid, surreal
Dreams in NREM Sleep
concrete, realistic
lucid and purposeful
Temperature and REM Sleep
A condition of temp regulation similar to reptiles

poikilothermia
(body temp varies with temp of environment)
L-tryptophan def. accosicated with
less time in REM sleep
Effects of ingesting large amounts of tryptophan
decrease sleep latency
decreased nocturnal awakening
Paroxysmal hemicrania
type of unilateral vascular headache that is exacerbated during sleep and occurs only in associated with REM Sleep
D Sleep
REM Sleep
Dreaming
Paradoxical Sleep (because activity of EEG during sleep)
S Sleep
NREM Sleep
EEG Synchronized sleep
Slow wave sleep
When is Delta sleep its highest
1st NREM period of night and declines with each successive NREM period
Epiletiod personality
used to convey the seizure like quality of outburst seen in intermittent explosive disorder
Defense Mechanism in Intermittent explosive disorder
Identification with aggressor
*in which the explosive violence of parent or close relative is internalized
-- so typically narcissistic injury, lowered self esteem or feeling shame or humiliation evokes attack
Reaction Formation
management of unacceptable impulse by permitting expression of impulse in antithetical form
Four Phases of Pathological Gambling
Winning phase
Losing phase (chasing occurs)
Desperation Phase
Hopelessness Phase
Childhood predisposing factors for development of intermittent explosive disorder
encephalitits
perinatal trauma
minimal brain dysfunction
hyperactivity
Adjustment disorder characteristics
Occurs in all age groups

No correlation with severity of stressor

More Female then Males

Not a type of bereavement
A 32 y/o female with history of Generalized anxiety disorder and OCD had been taking a SSRI and alprazolam was recently switched to another SSRI. She becomes ataxic and has trouble staying awake, Which SSRI was she likely switched too?
a) venlafaxine
b) sertraline
c) paroxetine
d) fluvoxamine
e) buspirone
FLUVOXAMINE

known to increase plasma levels of benzodiazepines due to its inhibition of enzyme Cytochrome P450
side effects of Clozapine
sedation
tachycardia
hypersalivation
dizziness
constipation
nausea
headache
hypotension
fever
dose-related seizures
weight gain
diabetes
agranulocytosis (1%)
effects of antacids on chlorpromazine
impair its absorption
Antipsychotic that increase alcohol levels
Haloperidol
antihypertensive that increases chlorpromazine and thioridazine levels
Propranolol
anti-anxiety medication that increases haldol levels
buspirone
antifungal and antibiotic that increase clozapine levels
erythromycin
ketoconazole
What is tobaccos level on antipsychotics
it lowers their blood levels
Risk factors for Agranulocytosis with Clozapine
ashkenazi jew with blood markers of HLA B38, DR4, DQw3
Finnish
Blood testing for Clozapine guidelines
weeks for first 6 months

Biweekly after 6 months and for duration of treatment
Drugs to avoid in patients taking Clozapine due to increase risk of agranulocytosis
carbamazepine
captopril
sulfonamides
propylthiouracil
Which cytochromes metabolize Clozapine
P450 -> 1A2 and 3A4

(1 and a 2, & 3 and a 4)
describe MAOIs effect with diabetes
low dose may increase sensitivity to insulin

high dose by increase insulin resistance
Medical conditions that are contraindicated for patient considering to give MAOI
pheochromocytoma
Congestive heart failure
hepatic disease
Two drugs hows levels are increased by trazadone
Digoxin

Phenytoin
Drugs that increase lithium levels
NSAIDS
Thiazide diuretics
ACE inhibitor
Calcium Channel Blockers
Drugs that decrease level of carbamazepine
phenytoin
phenobarbitol
primidone
Drugs that increase level of carbamazepine
SSRI
cimetidine
erythromycin
isoniazid