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182 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
developmental psychology
the study of continuity and change across the life span
prenatal stage
from conception to birth
zygote
a single cell that contains chromosomes from both a sperm and an egg
germinal stage
the two-week period of prenatal development that begins at conception
**fetal programming
what happens in the womb affects later health
embryonic stage
the period of prenatal development that lasts from week 2 until about week 8
organogenesis
fetal stage
the period of prenatal development that lasts from the 9th week until birth
myelination
the formation of a fatty sheath around the axons of a brain cell
placenta
links the mother's bloodstream to the developing embryo or fetus
teratogens
agents that damage the process of development such as drugs and viruses
fetal alcohol syndrome
a developmental disorder that stems from heavy alcohol use by the mother during pregnancy
-small eyes, no dimple above lip, thin upper lip, concave nose
-mental retardation, poor maxillary development
infancy
the stage of development that begins at birth and lasts between 18-24 mos.
-habituation occurs
motor development:
the emergence of the ability to execute physical action
reflexes
specific patterns of motor response that are triggered by specific patterns of sensory stimulation
cephalocaudal rule
the top-to-bottom rule that describes the tendency for motor skills to emerge in sequence from head to the feet
proximodistal rule
inside-to-outside rule that describes the tendency for motor skills to emerge in sequence from the center to the periphery
During the embryonic stage, which of the following occurs?
a) an insulating layer of fat develops below the skin
b) the digestive and respiratory systems mature
c) the embryo grows to the length of six inches
d) the heart begins to beat
d) the heart begins to beat
Which is true of vulnerability to teratogens?
a) vulnerability is greatest early in pregnancy
b) vulnerability is greatest in the late stages of pregnancy
c) the central nervous systems is most vulnerable late in pregnancy
d) small amounts of alcohol and tobacco will not harm the fetus
a) vulnerability is greatest early in the pregnancy
What are Piaget's four stages of cognitive development?
Sensorimotor (birth-2 years)
preoperational (2-6 years)
concrete operation (6-11 years)
formal operational (11 years and up)
sensorimotor stage
birth - 2 years
infant experiences world through movement and senses, develops schemas, begins to act intentionally, and shows evidence of understanding object permanence
preoperational stage
2 - 6 years
child acquires motor skills but does not understand conversation of physical properties. child begins this stage by thinking egocentrically but ends with a basic understanding of other minds
concrete operational stage
6 - 11 years
child can think logically about physical objects and events and understands conservation of physical properties
formal operational
11 years and up
child can think logically about abstract propositions and hypotheticals
cognitive development
the emergence of the ability to understand the world
childhood:
the stage of development that begins at about 18-24 months and lasts until adolescence
schema
child's understanding of how the world works
egocentrism
can't see from someone else's viewpoint (physical or emotional)
theory of mind
realize that other people have minds
it takes longer to see other people's emotions
assimilation
the process by which infants apply their schemas in novel situations
accommodation
the process by which infants revise their schemas in light of new information
object permanence
the idea that objects continue to exist even when not visible
conservation
the notion that the quantitative properties of an object are invariant despite changes in the object's appearance
T/F does culture influence cognitive development?
True - a strong influence
zone of proximal development
when a child is capable of acquiring a range of skills
Joint attention
at age 9-15 mos. of age, babies can direct their attention to a point in space to which another's eyes are directed
attachment
the emotional bond that forms between newborns and their primary caregivers
internal working model of attachment
a set of expectations about how the primary caregiver will respond when the child feels insecure
temperaments
characteristic patterns of emotional reactivity
autistic children don't like novelty or closeness
What are the four types of attachment?
secure- 50%, avoidant, ambivalent, disorganized
shows how they will be attached to others as adults
What are Kohlberg's 3 stages of moral thinking?
preconventional stage, conventional, postconventional
preconventional stage
a stage of moral development in which the morality of an action is primarily determined by its consequences for the actor
conventional stage
a stage of moral development in which the morality of an action is primarily determined by the extent to which it conforms to social rules
postconventional stage
a stage of moral development at which the morality of an action is determined by a set of general principles that reflect core values
moral intuitionist perspective
we have evolved to react emotionally to a small family of events that are relevant to reproduction and survival
adolescence
the period of development that begins with the onset of sexual maturity (about 11-14 years) and lasts until the beginning of adulthood (~18-21 years)
puberty
the bodily changes associated with sexual maturity
What are piaget's three stages of moral development?
from realism to relativism
from prescriptions to principles
from outcomes to intentions
For Lawrence Kohlberg, the sequence of moral development unfolds in the following order: emphasis on _______, then emphasis on _________, and finally, emphasis on ______.
consequences, social roles, ethical principles
primary sex characteristics
bodily structures that are directly involved in reproduction
secondary sex characteristics
bodily structures that change dramatically with sexual maturity but that are not directly involved in reproduction
Is adolescence becoming longer or shorter?
Is puberty starting earlier?
longer
earlier
Why is puberty starting earlier
better nutrition increased body fat
increased puberty onset
pollutants mimic estrogen
avoidant attachment
not distressed when caregiver leaves, and ignores caregiver when they return
ambivalent attachment
distressed when caregiver leaves, but is still distressed when caregiver returns
disorganized attachment
no pattern to reaction to caregiver
secure attachment
distressed when caregiver leaves and is happy when caregiver returns
What are Erikson's 8 Stages of Human Development?
Oral-Sensory
Muscular-anal
locomotor
latency
adolescence
young adulthood
middle adulthood
maturity
Oral-sensory stage
birth to 12-18 months
trust vs. mistrust
muscular-anal
18 months- 3 years
autonomy vs. shame/doubt
locomotor stage
3 - 6 years
initiative vs. guilt
latency stage
6 - 12 years
industry vs. inferiority
adolescence stage
12-18 years
identity vs. role confusion
young adulthood stage
19 to 40 years
intimacy vs. isolation
middle adulthood
40 to 65 years
generativity vs. stagnation
maturity stage
65 to death
ego integrity vs. despair
Reaching puberty earlier than one's peers...
can lead to negative consequences, such as distress and delinquency, in girls.
adulthood
the stage of development that begins around 18-21 years and ends at death
marked changes in physical and cognitive abilities
older adults compensate for age-related declines in memory and attention by calling on other neural structures to help out
socioemotional selectivity theory
younger adults rely on useful information while older adults rely on positive information
Why are older people generally happier than younger people?
as adults age, positive affect remains relatively stable while negative affect decreases
Do married people live longer?
Yes
widowed men live as short of lives as never-married and divorced
widowed women live as long as married women, divorced and never-married women live shorter lives
Does marital satisfaction fluctuate?
Yes, with different life events
personality
an individual's characteristic style of behaving, thinking and feeling
explanation based on prior events that shape a person's personality
self-report
a series of answers to a questionnaire that asks people to indicate the extent to which sets of statements or adjectives accurately describe their own behavior or mental state
Minnesota Multiphase Personality Inventory
a well-researched clinical questionnaire used to assess personality and psychological problems
validity scales- assess a person's attitudes toward test taking and any tendency to try to distort the results by faking answers
projective techniques
a standard series of ambiguous stimuli designed to elicit unique responses that reveal inner aspects of an individual's personality
Rorschach Inkblot test
a projective personality test in which individual interpretations of the meaning of a set of unstructured inkblots are analyzed to identify a respondent's inner feelings and interpret his or her personality structure
Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
a projective personality test in which respondents reveal underlying motives, concerns, and the way they see the social world through the stories they make up about ambiguous pictures of people
trait
a relatively stable disposition to behave in a particular and consistent way
Big Five
the traits of the five-factor model: conscietniousness, agreeableness, neuroticism, openness to experience, and extroversion (OCEAN)
One of the first theorists to propose that personality consisted of a combination of traits and that these traits were preexisting dispositions of the individual was
Allport
The idea that individual differences in levels of cortical arousal may underlie differences between extroverts and introverts was proposed by
Eysenck
What is the average genetic component of personality?
between .4-.6 (heritability)
Is there different levels of cortical arousal between introverts and extroverts?
yes
psychodynamic approach
an approach that regards personality as formed by needs, strivings, and desires, largely operating outside of awareness motives that can also produce emotional disorders
id
the part of the mind containing the drives present at birth; it is the source of our bodily needs, wants, desires, and impulses, particularly our sexual and aggressive drives
ego
the component of personality, developed through contact with the external world, that enables us to deal with life's practical demands
superego
the mental system that reflects the internalization of cultural rules, mainly learned as parents exercise their authority
defense mechanisms
unconscious coping mechanisms that reduce anxiety generated by threats from unacceptable impulses
rationalization, reaction formation, projection, regression, displacement, identification, sublimation
rationalization
a defense mechanism that involves supplying a reasonable-sounding explanation for unacceptable feelings and behavior to conceal (mostly from oneself) one's underlying motives or feelings
reaction formation
a defense mechanism that involves unconsciously replacing threatening inner wishes and fantasies with an exaggerated version of their opposite
projection
a defense mechanism that involves attributing one's own threatening feelings, motives, or impulses to another person or group
regression
a defense mechanism in which the ego deals with internal conflict and perceived threat by reverting to an immature behavior or earlier stage of development
displacement
a defense mechanism that involves shifting unacceptable wishes or drives to a neutral or less threatening alternative
identification
a defense mechanism that helps deal with feelings of threat and anxiety by enabling us unconsciously to take on the characteristics of another person who seems more powerful or better able to cope
sublimation
a defense mechanism that involves channeling unacceptable sexual or aggressive drives into socially acceptable and culturally enhancing activities
psychosexual stages
distinct early life stages through which personality is formed as children experience sexual pleasures from specific body areas and care givers redirect or interfere with those pleasures
What are the five psychosexual stages?
oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital
fixation
a phenomenon in which a person's pleasure seeking drives become psychologically stuck, or arrested, at a particular psychosexual stage
oral stage
the first psychosexual stage, in which experience centers on the pleasures and frustrations associated with the mouth, sucking, and being fed
anal stage
the second psychosexual stage, which is dominated by the pleasures and frustrations associated with the anus, retention and expulsion of feces and urine, and toilet training
personality disorder characterized by submissive and clinging behavior. They have an excessive need to be taken care of and low self confidence.
dependent
Oedipus conflict
a developmental experience in which a child's conflicting feelings toward the opposite-sex parent is (usually) resolved by identifying with the same-sex parent
latency stage
the fourth psychosexual stage, in which the primary focus is on the further development of intellectual, creative, interpersonal, and athletic skills
genital stage
the final psychosexual stage, a time for the coming together of the mature adult personality with a capacity to love, work, and relate to others in a mutually satisfying and reciprocal manner
humanistic psychology
emphasizes a positive, optimistic view of human nature that highlights people's inherent goodness and their potential for personal growth
existentialist psychology
a school of thought that regards personality as governed by an individual's ongoing choices and decisions in the context of the realities of life and death
self-actualizing tendency
the human motive toward realizing our inner potential
The view that personality is governed by an inherent striving toward self-actualization and the development of our unique potentials was proposed by:
Abraham Maslow
hierarchy of needs and self-actualization
According to Rollo May and Victor Frankl, a major aspect of personality development involves
questioning the meaning of life
social cognitive approach
an approach that views personality in terms of how the person thinks about the situations encountered in daily life and behaves in response to them
person-situation controversy
the question of whether behavior is caused more by personality or by situational factors
personal constructs
dimensions people use in making sense of their experiences
outcome expectancies
a person's assumptions about the likely consequences of a future behavior
locus of control
a person's tendency to perceive the control of rewards as internal to the self or external in the environment
The psychologist who noted that personality traits often do a poor job of predicting an individual's behavior was
Walter Mischel
self-concept
a person's explicit knowledge of his or her own behaviors, traits, and other personal characteristics
self-esteem
the extent to which an individual likes, values, and accepts the self
self-verification
the tendency to seek evidence to confirm the self-concept
self-serving bias
people's tendency to take credit for their successes but downplay responsibility for their failures
like bad grades are a teacher's fault
narcissism
a trait that reflects a grandiose view of the self combined with a tendency to seek admiration from and exploit others
What are the theories that attempt to explain the benefits of high self-esteem?
high status, being accepted by others, a defense against the awareness of death
William Swann developed the concept known as
self-verification
psychological disorders
disorders reflecting abnormalities of the mind
medical model
the conceptualization of psychological abnormalities as disease that like biological diseases, have symptoms and causes and possible cures
DSM-IV-TR (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders [Fourth Edition, Text Revision])
A classification system that describes the features used to diagnose each recognized mental disorder and indicates how the disorder can be distinguished from other, similar problems
What are the five axes of psychological disorders?
Axis I: Clinical Disorders (all mental disorders except Personality Disorders and Mental Retardation)
Axis II: Personality Disorders and Mental Retardation
Axis III: General Medical Conditions (must be connected to a Mental Disorder)
Axis IV: Psychosocial and Environmental Problems (for example limited social support network)
Axis V: Global Assessment of Functioning (Psychological, social and job-related functions are evaluated on a continuum between mental health and extreme mental disorder)
comorbidity
the co-occurrence of two or more disorders in a single individual
What are the 17 DSM-IV-TR disorders
1. disorders usually first diagnosed in infancy, childhood, or early adolescence
2. delirium, dementia, amnestic, and other cognitive disorders
3. mental disorders due to a general medical condition not elsewhere classified
4. substance-related disorders
5. schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders
6. mood disorders
7. anxiety disorders
8. somatoform disorders
9. factitious disorders
10. dissociative disorder
11. sexual and gender identity disorders
12. eating disorders
13. sleep disorders
14. impulse control disorder not elsewhere classified
15. adjustment disorders
16. personality disorders
17. other conditions that may be a focus of clinical attention
diathesis-stress model
a model suggesting that a person may be predisposed for a mental disorder that remains unexpressed until triggered by stress
the view that a person may be predisposed for a psychological disorder that remains unexpressed until triggered by external causes is called
the diathesis-stress model
the assumption that if a treatment is effective, it must address the cause of the problem is called
the intervention causation fallacy
anxiety disorder
the class of mental disorder in which anxiety is the predominant feature
generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
a disorder characterized by chronic excessive worry accompanied by three or more of the following symptoms: restlessness, fatigue, concentration problems, irritability, muscle tension and sleep disturbance
intervention-causation fallacy
the assumption that if a treatment is effective, it must address the cause of the problem
phobic disorders
disorders characterized by marked, persistent, and excessive fear and avoidance of specific objects, activities, or situations
specific phobia
a disorder that involves an irrational fear of a particular object or situation that markedly interferes with an individual's ability to function
social phobia
a disorder that involves an irrational fear of being publicly humiliated or embarrassed
preparedness theory
the idea that people are instinctively predisposed toward certain fears
panic disorder
a disorder characterized by the sudden occurrence of multiple psychological and physiological symptoms that contribute to a feeling of stark terror
agoraphobia
an extreme fear of venturing into public places
obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
a disorder in which repetitive, intrusive thoughts (obsessions) and ritualistic behaviors (compulsions) designed to fend off those thoughts interfere significantly with an individual's functioning
post-traumatic stress syndrome
can be triggered by things that remind you of a trigger
Katie experiences intense anxiety and distress whenever she has to interact with unfamiliar people. She is probably suffering from
social phobia
Theory in which people develop phobias of certain objects, such as spiders and snakes, much more easily than objects such as flowers or stuffed animals
preparedness
Agoraphobia often develops in a person who suffers from
panic disorder
symptoms of obsessive-compulsive disorder can be relieved by medications that increase the activity of the neurotransmitter
serotonin
dissociative disorder
a condition in which normal cognitive processes are severely disjointed and fragmented, creating significant disruptions in memory, awareness, or personality that can vary in length from a matter of minutes to many years
dissociative identity disorder (DID)
the presence within an individual of two or more distinct identities that at different times take control of the individual's behavior
dissociative fugue
the sudden loss of memory for one's personal history, accompanied by an abrupt departure from home and the assumption of a new identity
dissociative amnesia
the sudden loss of memory for significant personal information
andodonia
can't feel pleasure
Pat was involved in a severe auto accident and is unable to recall the event. Pat is displaying
dissociative amnesia
Alex woke up one morning in a motel. He could not recall his name or anything about his past life. Alex was showing the symptoms of
dissociative fugue
Most patients with the disorder report a history of severe childhood abuse and trauma
dissociative identity disorder
mood disorders
mental disorders that have mood disturbance as their predominant feature
major depressive disorder
a disorder characterized by a severely depressed mood that lasts 2 weeks or more and is accompanied by feelings of worthlessness and lack of pleasure, lethargy, and sleep and appetite disturbances
dysthymia
a disorder that involves the same symptoms as in depression only less severe, but the symptoms last longer, persisting for at least 2 years
double depression
a moderately depressed mood that persists for at least 2 years and is punctuated by periods of major depression
seasonal affective disorder (SAD)
depression that involves recurrent depressive episodes in a seasonal pattern
helplessness theory:
individuals who are prone to depression automatically attribute negative experiences to causes that are internal, stable, and global
causes of depression
stress, learned helplessness, elevated cortisal levels
bipolar disorder
an unstable emotional condition characterized by cycles of abnormal, persistent high mood (mania) and low mood (depression)
Major depression is characterized by ___________, whereas bipolar disorder is characterized by __________
depression only; alternating periods of mania and depression
the condition in which the same cognitive and bodily problems as in depression are present, but are less severe and last longer is called
dysthymia
T/F women are twice as likely as men to be diagnosed with depression
true
T/F Close relatives of individuals with mood disorders have a heightened risk for developing mood disorders themselves, indicating that heredity plays a role
true
schizophrenia
a disorder characterized by the profound disruption of basic psychological processes; a distorted perception of reality; altered or blunted emotion; and disturbances in thought, motivation, and behavior
smaller hippocampus and prefrontal cortex
How many people worldwide have schizophrenia?
about 1% worldwide
higher risk in Croatia
lower risk in Canada
schizotypal
2-3% of the world
less dangerous, odd personality
delusion
a patently false belief system, often bizarre and grandiose, that is maintained in spite of its irrationality
hallucination
a false perceptual experience that has a compelling sense of being real despite the absence of external stimulation
disorganized speech
a severe disruption of verbal communication in which ideas shift rapidly and incoherently from one to another unrelated topic
grossly disorganized behavior
behavior that is inappropriate for the situation or ineffective in attaining goals, often with specific motor disturbances
catatonic behavior
a marked decrease in all movement or an increase in muscular rigidity and overactivity
negative symptoms
emotional and social withdrawal; apathy; poverty of speech; and other indications of the absence or insufficiency of normal behavior, motivation and emotion
What people have the highest risk for schizophrenia
offspring of two parents with schizophrenia
monozygotic twins
dopamine hypothesis
the idea that schizophrenia involves an excess of dopamine activity
schizophrenia affects about __% of the population, and it accounts for nearly __% of admissions to state and county mental hospitals
1; 40
Amy believes that God is punishing her, and she sees evidence of this punishment in everyday events such as the way objects are positioned in the sink and the programs that are playing on TV. Amy would most likely be diagnosed with ___________ schizophrenia
paranoid
Keith believes that he is Richard the Lionheart, who has been given the mission to lead a crusade against the heathens. Keith is showing
delusions
personality disorder
disorder characterized by deeply ingrained, inflexible patterns of thinking, feeling, or relating to others or controlling impulses that cause distress or impaired functioning
antisocial personality disorder (APD)
a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others that begins in childhood or early adolescence and continues into adulthood