Private Pilot Question Bank

Front 1

What is the definition of a high-performance airplane

Back 1

An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower

Front 2

The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft

Back 2

Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12500 pounds

Front 3

A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36-year-old pilot on August 10 this year To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate the medical certificate will be valid until

Back 3

midnight on August 31 3 years later

Front 4

Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of

Back 4

the Administrator the National Transportation Safety Board or any federal state or local law enforcement officer

Front 5

Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as

Back 5

altitude increases

Front 6

A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by

Back 6

slowing the breathing rate breathing into a bag or talking aloud

Front 7

Which would most likely result in hyperventilation

Back 7

Emotional tension anxiety or fear

Front 8

Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known as

Back 8

hyperventilation

Front 9

What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying

Back 9

Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight

Front 10

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight

Back 10

All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance

Front 11

No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with

Back 11

04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood

Front 12

Under what condition if any may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft

Back 12

In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care

Front 13

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding

Back 13

8 hours

Front 14

4 With respect to the certification of aircraft a class of aircraft is

Back 14

Airplane rotorcraft glider balloon

Front 15

With respect to the certification of airmen a category of aircraft is

Back 15

Airplane rotorcraft glider lighter-than-air

Front 16

With respect to the certification of aircraft a category of aircraft is

Back 16

Normal utility acrobatic

Front 17

With respect to the certification of airmen a class of aircraft is

Back 17

Single-engine land and sea multiengine land and sea

Front 18

What exception if any permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight

Back 18

If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight

Front 19

What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft

Back 19

An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required

Front 20

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers the pilot must have made

Back 20

at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category class and if a type rating is required of the same type within the preceding 90 days

Front 21

If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of

Back 21

only 30 days after the date of the move

Front 22

If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8 this year when is the next flight review required

Back 22

August 31 2 years later

Front 23

Each recreational or private pilot is required to have a

Back 23

biennial flight review

Front 24

If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8 this year when is the next flight review required

Back 24

August 31 2 years later

Front 25

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding

Back 25

24 calendar months

Front 26

The definition of nighttime is the time between the

Back 26

end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight

Front 27

If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830 the latest time passengers may be carried is

Back 27

1929

Front 28

The term 'angle of attack' is defined as the angle between the

Back 28

wing chord line and the relative wind

Front 29

The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will

Back 29

remain the same regardless of gross weight

Front 30

One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to

Back 30

increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed

Front 31

What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane

Back 31

To control yaw

Front 32

What is the relationship of lift drag thrust and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight

Back 32

Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag

Front 33

The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are

Back 33

lift weight thrust and drag

Front 34

Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff

Back 34

VX

Front 35

After takeoff which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time

Back 35

VY

Front 36

Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed

Back 36

VA

Front 37

When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium

Back 37

During unaccelerated flight

Front 38

What force makes an airplane turn

Back 38

The horizontal component of lift

Front 39

Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight

Back 39

Turns

Front 40

The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon

Back 40

the speed of the airplane

Front 41

If an airplane weighs 2300 pounds what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60° banked turn while maintaining altitude

Back 41

4600 pounds

Front 42

Why is frost considered hazardous to flight

Back 42

Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings thereby decreasing lifting capability

Front 43

How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect takeoff performance

Back 43

Frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing adversely affecting its lifting capability

Front 44

What is ground effect

Back 44

The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane

Front 45

What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted

Back 45

The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced

Front 46

What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane

Back 46

The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift

Front 47

An airplane said to be inherently stable will require

Back 47

less effort to control

Front 48

The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of

Back 48

the propeller blade descending on the right producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left

Front 49

When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left

Back 49

When at high angles of attack

Front 50

In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane

Back 50

Low airspeed high power high angle of attack

Front 51

As altitude increases the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will

Back 51

remain the same regardless of altitude

Front 52

During an approach to a stall an increased load factor will cause the airplane to stall at

Back 52

a higher airspeed

Front 53

In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin

Back 53

Both wings are stalled

Front 54

What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction

Back 54

Annual and 100-hour inspections

Front 55

An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6-when is the next 100-hour inspection due

Back 55

1359.6 hours.

Front 56

Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1 1993

Back 56

The next inspection will be due no later than September 30 1995

Front 57

When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced

Back 57

When 50 percent of their useful life expires

Front 58

When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour

Back 58

When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour

Front 59

If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to

Back 59

being operated with passengers aboard

Front 60

An aircraft's annual inspection was performed on July 12 this year-the next annual inspection will be due no later than

Back 60

July 31 next year

Front 61

Completion of an annual inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by an appropriate notation

Back 61

in the aircraft maintenance records

Front 62

No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding

Back 62

24 calendar months

Front 63

When activated an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on

Back 63

121.5 and 243.0 MHz

Front 64

When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)

Back 64

After one-half of the battery's useful life

Front 65

When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested

Back 65

During the first 5 minutes after the hour

Front 66

Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated

Back 66

Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown

Front 67

Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft-what paperwork is required

Back 67

The signature certificate number and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records

Front 68

Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance

Back 68

Replenishing hydraulic fluid

Front 69

What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance

Back 69

14 CFR Part 43.7

Front 70

What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)

Back 70

They are mandatory

Front 71

May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)

Back 71

Yes if allowed by the AD

Front 72

Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive

Back 72

Aircraft maintenance records

Front 73

In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight

Back 73

Operating limitations and Registration Certificate

Front 74

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight

Back 74

The pilot in command

Front 75

The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the

Back 75

owner or operator

Front 76

Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD's) are complied with

Back 76

Owner or operator

Front 77

The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by

Back 77

a preflight inspection and a review of the maintenance records

Front 78

Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found

Back 78

In the current FAA-approved flight manual approved manual material markings and placards or any combination thereof

Front 79

How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid

Back 79

As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations

Front 80

Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition

Back 80

Owner or operator

Front 81

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight

Back 81

Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight

Front 82

In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport regulations specifically require the pilot in command to determine

Back 82

runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft

Front 83

Preflight action as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport shall include

Back 83

an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned

Front 84

During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight

Back 84

The pilot in command

Front 85

How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day

Back 85

Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer

Front 86

Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during

Back 86

takeoffs and landings

Front 87

With certain exceptions safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during

Back 87

taxi takeoffs and landings

Front 88

Unless otherwise specifically authorized no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate over

Back 88

a densely populated area or in a congested airway

Front 89

No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when

Back 89

over any congested area of a city town or settlement

Front 90

What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight

Back 90

1500 feet AGL

Front 91

In which class of airspace is acrobatic flight prohibited

Back 91

Class E airspace below 1500 feet AGL

Front 92

No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is

Back 92

less than 3 miles

Front 93

What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine

Back 93

Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges

Front 94

One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for

Back 94

improved engine performance

Front 95

During the run-up at a high-elevation airport a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check-under these circumstances what would be the most logical initial action

Back 95

Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture

Front 96

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to

Back 96

decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density

Front 97

While cruising at 9500 feet MSL the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted-what will occur if a descent to 4500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture

Back 97

The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean

Front 98

The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting

Back 98

a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM

Front 99

Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing

Back 99

Temperature between 20 and 70 °F and high humidity

Front 100

Generally speaking the use of carburetor heat tends

Back 100

to decrease engine performance

Front 101

If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be

Back 101

loss of RPM

Front 102

Applying carburetor heat will

Back 102

enrich the fuel/air mixture

Front 103

The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the difference in air pressure at

Back 103

the venturi throat and the air inlet

Front 104

If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine it will most likely cause

Back 104

detonation

Front 105

Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when the

Back 105

unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally

Front 106

If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff the initial corrective action to take would be to

Back 106

lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed

Front 107

The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as

Back 107

pre-ignition

Front 108

What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating

Back 108

Enrichen the fuel mixture

Front 109

What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb

Back 109

Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed

Front 110

If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range the pilot may have been operating with

Back 110

too much power and with the mixture set too lean

Front 111

Excessively high engine temperatures will cause

Back 111

loss of power-excessive oil consumption and possible permanent internal engine damage

Front 112

An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by

Back 112

the oil level being too low

Front 113

For internal cooling reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on

Back 113

the circulation of lubricating oil

Front 114

Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges

Back 114

Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating

Front 115

What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available

Back 115

The next higher octane aviation gas

Front 116

On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used

Back 116

In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails

Front 117

Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will

Back 117

prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks

Front 118

A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to

Back 118

avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM

Front 119

How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller

Back 119

The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM

Front 120

What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller

Back 120

Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance

Front 121

Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine it is extremely important that a competent pilot

Back 121

be at the controls in the cockpit

Front 122

Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport

Back 122

An increase in ambient temperature

Front 123

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value

Back 123

At standard temperature

Front 124

What effect does high density altitude as compared to low density altitude have on propeller efficiency and why

Back 124

Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes

Front 125

What is pressure altitude

Back 125

The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92

Front 126

What is density altitude

Back 126

The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature

Front 127

What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance

Back 127

It reduces climb performance

Front 128

If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard the density altitude is

Back 128

higher than pressure altitude

Front 129

Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance

Back 129

High temperature high relative humidity and high density altitude

Front 130

What effect if any does high humidity have on aircraft performance

Back 130

It decreases performance

Front 131

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane

Back 131

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed

Front 132

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane

Back 132

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

Front 133

Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by

Back 133

the magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force

Front 134

In the Northern Hemisphere a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if

Back 134

a right turn is entered from a north heading

Front 135

In the Northern Hemisphere if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated the magnetic compass will normally indicate correctly when on

Back 135

a north or south heading

Front 136

During flight when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate

Back 136

Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight

Front 137

In the Northern Hemisphere the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when

Back 137

the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading

Front 138

If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged which instruments would be affected

Back 138

The altimeter airspeed indicator and vertical speed indicator

Front 139

The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument

Back 139

Airspeed indicator

Front 140

What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators

Back 140

Maneuvering speed

Front 141

What is the maximum flaps-extended speed

Back 141

100 MPH

Front 142

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter

Back 142

The elevation of the departure area

Front 143

If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96 what is the approximate change in indication

Back 143

Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower

Front 144

Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude

Back 144

When standard atmospheric conditions exist

Front 145

Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

Back 145

true altitude at field elevation

Front 146

What is true altitude

Back 146

The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level

Front 147

What is absolute altitude

Back 147

The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface

Front 148

If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85 what change occurs

Back 148

700-foot increase in indicated altitude

Front 149

Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude

Back 149

When at sea level under standard conditions

Front 150

If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted the altimeter will indicate

Back 150

lower than the actual altitude above sea level

Front 151

Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude

Back 151

In colder than standard air temperature

Front 152

How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter

Back 152

Increasing temperature will increase pressure

Front 153

A turn coordinator provides an indication of the movement of the aircraft about the

Back 153

yaw and roll axes

Front 154

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of a

Back 154

heat exchange

Front 155

What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points

Back 155

Unequal heating of the Earth

Front 156

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level

Back 156

15 °C and 29.92 inches Hg

Front 157

The wind at 5000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to friction between the wind and the surface

Back 157

The development of thermals depends upon solar heating

Front 158

Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by

Back 158

cool dense air moving inland from over the water

Front 159

An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears stationary but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more is referred to as a

Back 159

lenticular cloud

Front 160

Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary lens-shaped clouds known

Back 160

as standing lenticular clouds

Front 161

Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when

Back 161

winds of 40 knots or greater blow across a mountain ridge and the air is stable

Front 162

What is meant by the term 'dewpoint'

Back 162

The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated

Front 163

Clouds fog or dew will always form when

Back 163

water vapor condenses

Front 164

What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air

Back 164

Evaporation and sublimation

Front 165

The suffix 'nimbus' used in naming clouds means

Back 165

a rain cloud

Front 166

Clouds are divided into four families according to their

Back 166

height range

Front 167

What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1000 feet MSL is 70 °F and the dewpoint is 48 °F

Back 167

6000 feet MSL

Front 168

What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence

Back 168

Towering cumulus clouds

Front 169

What clouds have the greatest turbulence

Back 169

Cumulonimbus

Front 170

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm

Back 170

Precipitation beginning to fall

Front 171

The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are

Back 171

a lifting action and unstable moist air

Front 172

What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms

Back 172

High humidity lifting force and unstable conditions

Front 173

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts

Back 173

Dissipating

Front 174

Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the

Back 174

mature stage

Front 175

Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are

Back 175

squall line thunderstorms

Front 176

A nonfrontal narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is a known as a

Back 176

squall line

Front 177

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm

Back 177

Continuous updraft

Front 178

Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm

Back 178

Lightning

Front 179

The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a

Back 179

front

Front 180

One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is

Back 180

a change in temperature

Front 181

One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is

Back 181

a change in the wind direction

Front 182

Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of

Back 182

stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence

Front 183

What are characteristics of a moist unstable air mass

Back 183

Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation

Front 184

What are characteristics of unstable air

Back 184

Turbulence and good surface visibility

Front 185

A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic

Back 185

Smooth air

Front 186

Moist stable air flowing upslope can be expected to produce

Back 186

stratus type clouds

Front 187

If an unstable air mass is forced upward what type clouds can be expected

Back 187

Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence

Front 188

What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere

Back 188

Actual lapse rate

Front 189

What would decrease the stability of an air mass

Back 189

Warming from below

Front 190

What is a characteristic of stable air

Back 190

Stratiform clouds

Front 191

A temperature inversion would most likely result in which weather condition

Back 191

An increase in temperature as altitude is increased

Front 192

The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by

Back 192

terrestrial radiation on a clear relatively still night

Front 193

Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high

Back 193

Smooth air poor visibility fog haze or low clouds

Front 194

What feature is associated with a temperature inversion

Back 194

A stable layer of air

Front 195

What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog

Back 195

Warm moist air over low flatland areas on clear calm nights

Front 196

In which situation is advection fog most likely to form

Back 196

An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter

Front 197

Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog

Back 197

Steam fog

Front 198

What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist

Back 198

Advection fog and upslope fog

Front 199

Upon encountering severe turbulence which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain

Back 199

Level flight attitude

Front 200

Where does wind shear occur

Back 200

At all altitudes in all directions

Front 201

When may hazardous wind shear be expected

Back 201

In areas of low-level temperature inversion frontal zones and clear air turbulence

Front 202

A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2000 to 4000 feet above the surface is at least

Back 202

25 knots

Front 203

If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach

Back 203

Wind-shear turbulence

Front 204

One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is

Back 204

visible moisture

Front 205

In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate

Back 205

Freezing rain

Front 206

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there is a

Back 206

temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude

Front 207

For aviation purposes ceiling is defined as

Back 207

the height above the Earth's surface of the lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration

Front 208

From which primary source should information be obtained regarding expected weather at the estimated time of arrival if your destination has no Terminal Forecast

Back 208

Area Forecast

Front 209

To best determine general forecast weather conditions over several states the pilot should refer to

Back 209

Aviation Area Forecasts

Front 210

The section of the Area Forecast entitled 'VFR CLDS/ WX' contains a general description of cloudiness and weather significant to flight operations broken down by

Back 210

states or other geographical areas

Front 211

To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft the pilot should refer to the

Back 211

Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories

Front 212

AIRMET's are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than Sigmets and are intended for dissemination

Back 212

to All pilots

Front 213

Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms

Back 213

SIGMET

Front 214

SIGMET's are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft

Back 214

All aircraft

Front 215

What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms

Back 215

Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers

Front 216

What information is contained in a CONVECTIVE SIGMET

Back 216

Tornadoes embedded thunderstorms and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter

Front 217

When the term 'light and variable' is used in reference to a Winds Aloft Forecast the coded group and windspeed is

Back 217

9900 and less than 5 knots

Front 218

What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts

Back 218

True direction and knots

Front 219

Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate

Back 219

location of precipitation along with type intensity and cell movement of precipitation

Front 220

What information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts

Back 220

Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms

Front 221

What does the heavy dashed line that forms a large rectangular box on a radar summary chart refer to

Back 221

Severe weather watch area

Front 222

To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross-country flight a pilot should monitor a

Back 222

Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) on an NDB or a VOR facility

Front 223

Individual forecasts for specific routes of flight can be obtained from which weather source

Back 223

Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEB)

Front 224

Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEB's) may be monitored by

Back 224

tuning the appropriate radio receiver to certain VOR and NDB frequencies

Front 225

What service should a pilot normally expect from an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station

Back 225

Actual weather information and thunderstorm activity along the route

Front 226

How should contact be established with an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station and what service would be expected

Back 226

Call Flight Watch on 122.0 for information regarding actual weather and thunderstorm activity along proposed route

Front 227

What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information

Back 227

Identify themselves as pilots

Front 228

A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is

Back 228

an outlook briefing

Front 229

When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information pilots should state

Back 229

the aircraft identification or the pilot

Front 230

To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight the pilot should request a

Back 230

standard briefing

Front 231

Which type weather briefing should a pilot request when departing within the hour if no preliminary weather information has been received

Back 231

Standard briefing

Front 232

Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data

Back 232

An abbreviated briefing

Front 233

An aircraft is loaded 110 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight-If fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits how much fuel should be drained

Back 233

18.4 gallons

Front 234

Which items are included in the empty weight of an aircraft

Back 234

Unusable fuel and undrainable oil

Front 235

An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit-one undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be

Back 235

difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition

Front 236

Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be

Back 236

less stable at all speeds

Front 237

Unless otherwise authorized two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for

Back 237

landings or takeoffs at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions

Front 238

Prior to starting each maneuver pilots should

Back 238

visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance

Front 239

Except in Alaska during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft

Back 239

Sunset to sunrise

Front 240

What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway

Back 240

Execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace

Front 241

Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with

Back 241

all pilots

Front 242

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use a

Back 242

series of short regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector

Front 243

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight

Back 243

Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals

Front 244

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft

Back 244

There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft

Front 245

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1200 feet AGL the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is

Back 245

2000 feet

Front 246

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited

Back 246

Class A

Front 247

An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace

Back 247

Class A Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport) and Class C

Front 248

An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in

Back 248

Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport

Front 249

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace

Back 249

Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements

Front 250

An ATC clearance provides

Back 250

authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace

Front 251

What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace

Back 251

Two-way radio communications equipment a 4096-code transponder and an encoding altimeter

Front 252

Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace

Back 252

Class C

Front 253

Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace

Back 253

Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency

Front 254

Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace

Back 254

The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff

Front 255

All operations within Class C airspace must be in an aircraft equipped with

Back 255

a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability

Front 256

The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is

Back 256

20 nautical miles

Front 257

The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally

Back 257

4000 feet AGL

Front 258

Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only when

Back 258

the associated control tower is in operation

Front 259

No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless

Back 259

the ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles

Front 260

Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least

Back 260

1000 feet and 3 miles

Front 261

A non-tower satellite airport within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport requires

Back 261

radio communications be established and maintained with the primary airport

Front 262

The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on the

Back 262

instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established

Front 263

What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10000 feet MSL

Back 263

3 miles

Front 264

When requesting weather information for the following morning a pilot should request

Back 264

an outlook briefing

Front 265

The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10000 feet MSL is

Back 265

500 feet below 1000 feet above and 2000 feet horizontally

Front 266

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10000 feet MSL and more than 1200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is

Back 266

5 miles

Front 267

Unless otherwise specified Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from

Back 267

1200 feet above the surface up to and including 17999 feet MSL

Front 268

The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is

Back 268

4 nautical miles

Front 269

Outside controlled airspace the minimum flight visibility requirement for a recreational pilot flying VFR above 1200 feet AGL and below 10000 feet MSL during daylight hours is

Back 269

1 mile

Front 270

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours

Back 270

1 mile visibility and clear of clouds

Front 271

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1200 feet AGL but less than 10000 feet MSL the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is

Back 271

3 miles

Front 272

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1200 feet AGL but less than 10000 feet MSL the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is

Back 272

500 feet

Front 273

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for a recreational pilot in Class G airspace at 1200 feet AGL or below during daylight hours

Back 273

1 mile visibility and clear of clouds

Front 274

Outside controlled airspace the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1200 feet AGL and below 10000 feet MSL during daylight hours is

Back 274

1 mile

Front 275

What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night

Back 275

The pilot must be instrument rated and the airplane must be IFR equipped

Front 276

A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is at least

Back 276

1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds

Front 277

What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace

Back 277

Air Traffic Control Tower

Front 278

What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)

Back 278

Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted

Front 279

Under what condition if any may pilots fly through a restricted area

Back 279

With the controlling agency's authorization

Front 280

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere

Back 280

An altitude allowing if a power unit fails an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface

Front 281

Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135°

Back 281

Odd thousandths plus 500 feet

Front 282

The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

Back 282

090° and 270° magnetic

Front 283

When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance

Back 283

When it will compromise safety

Front 284

Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance

Back 284

Pilot-in-command

Front 285

Where is the 'Available Landing Distance' (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) published

Back 285

Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD)

Front 286

Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program

Back 286

Student pilots

Front 287

What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance

Back 287

3 statute miles

Front 288

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed

Back 288

Glider

Front 289

What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge but not head-on

Back 289

The aircraft on the left shall give way

Front 290

A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses-if the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane which has the right-of-way

Back 290

The seaplane

Front 291

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic

Back 291

An aircraft in distress

Front 292

When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace the maximum speed authorized is

Back 292

200 knots

Front 293

When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace the maximum speed authorized is

Back 293

200 knots

Front 294

Unless otherwise authorized what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10000 feet MSL is

Back 294

250 knots

Front 295

A lighted heliport may be identified by a

Back 295

green yellow and white rotating beacon

Front 296

A military air station can be identified by a

Back 296

rotating beacon that emits two quick white flashes between green flashes

Front 297

An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is

Back 297

below basic VFR weather minimums

Front 298

How can a military airport be identified at night

Back 298

Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes

Front 299

Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall maintain an altitude

Back 299

at or above the glide slope

Front 300

An above glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is an

Back 300

amber light signal

Front 301

A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a

Back 301

pulsating red light

Front 302

An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is a

Back 302

green light signal

Front 303

A below glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is a

Back 303

red light signal

Front 304

VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished the

Back 304

same as during daytime

Front 305

A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is

Back 305

three white lights and one red light

Front 306

To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity the pilot should

Back 306

click the microphone seven times then click it five times

Front 307

Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by

Back 307

blue omnidirectional lights

Front 308

What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight

Back 308

Scan slowly to permit off center viewing

Front 309

During a night flight you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude-what is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft

Back 309

The other aircraft is crossing to the left

Front 310

During a night flight you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude-what is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft

Back 310

The other aircraft is approaching head-on

Front 311

The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to

Back 311

look to the side of the object and scan slowly

Front 312

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use

Back 312

peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing

Front 313

During a night flight you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude-what is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft

Back 313

The other aircraft is flying away from you

Front 314

Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport

Back 314

Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport

Front 315

What action if any is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority

Back 315

File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility if requested

Front 316

If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9 the pilot may

Back 316

proceed via taxiways and across runways to but not onto Runway 9

Front 317

Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is

Back 317

the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas

Front 318

After landing at a tower-controlled airport when should the pilot contact ground control

Back 318

When advised by the tower to do so

Front 319

When flying HAWK N666CB the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is

Back 319

'MC ALESTER RADIO HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC OVER

Front 320

The correct method of stating 4500 feet MSL to ATC is

Back 320

'FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED

Front 321

The correct method of stating 10500 feet MSL to ATC is

Back 321

'ONE ZERO THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED'

Front 322

From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations

Back 322

Ground control on initial contact

Front 323

TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides sequencing and separation for

Back 323

participating VFR aircraft

Front 324

Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as

Back 324

safety alerts traffic advisories and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft

Front 325

A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is

Back 325

a signal that the pilot is cleared to land

Front 326

If the aircraft's radio fails what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport

Back 326

Observe the traffic flow enter the pattern and look for a light signal from the tower

Front 327

When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance

Back 327

When it will compromise safety

Front 328

Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance

Back 328

Pilot-in-command

Front 329

Where is the 'Available Landing Distance' (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) published

Back 329

Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD)

Front 330

Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program

Back 330

Student pilots

Front 331

What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance

Back 331

3 statute miles

Front 332

When activated an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on

Back 332

121.5 and 243.0 MHz

Front 333

When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested

Back 333

During the first 5 minutes after the hour

Front 334

Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated

Back 334

Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown

Front 335

When making routine transponder code changes pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes

Back 335

7500 7600 7700

Front 336

When operating under VFR below 18000 feet MSL unless otherwise authorized what transponder code should be selected

Back 336

1200

Front 337

Unless otherwise authorized if flying a transponder equipped aircraft a recreational pilot should squawk which VFR code

Back 337

1200

Front 338

If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace the transponder should be set to code

Back 338

1200

Front 339

When departing behind a heavy aircraft the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by

Back 339

maneuvering the aircraft above and upwind from the heavy aircraft

Front 340

When landing behind a large aircraft the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying

Back 340

above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point

Front 341

Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to

Back 341

sink below the aircraft generating turbulence

Front 342

Wingtip vortices are created only when

Back 342

an aircraft is developing lift

Front 343

The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is

Back 343

heavy clean and slow

Front 344

The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a

Back 344

light quartering tailwind

Front 345

When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to

Back 345

sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence

Front 346

Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area a pilot should

Back 346

contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories

Front 347

A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace

Back 347

Class D

Front 348

Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than

Back 348

2000 feet AGL

Front 349

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number

Back 349

90

Front 350

FAA advisory circulars (some free others at cost) are available to

Back 350

all pilots and are obtained by ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office

Front 351

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number

Back 351

70

Front 352

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number

Back 352

60

Front 353

When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an omnireceiver check using

Back 353

a VOR test signal (VOT) the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read 0° FROM or 180° TO regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT

Front 354

How many satellites make up the Global Positioning System (GPS)

Back 354

24

Front 355

What is the minimum number of Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites that are observable by a user anywhere on earth

Back 355

5

Front 356

How many Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites are required to yield a three dimensional position (latitude longitude and altitude) and time solution

Back 356

4