Practice Exam For Hm3/hm2

Front 1

When performing the finger puncture blood collection method, what action should you avoid so your blood sample will not be diluted with tissue fluid?

Back 1

Immediately apply the collection tude to the lanced fingertip

Front 2

Leukocytosis can be caused by which of the following infections?

Back 2

Meningitis

Front 3

As most ships of stations are not equipped with photometers, which of the following test is the hemoglobin determination method this is most commonly used aboard ships?

Back 3

Sahili-Hellige

Front 4

A normal WBC should contain what minimum to maximum number of cells per cubic millimeter of whole blood?

Back 4

4,000 to 11,000

Front 5

What chemical is considered to be best urine preservation?

Back 5

Toluene

Front 6

Gram-positive organisms are easily seen on a smear because they stain what color?

Back 6

Deep Blue

Front 7

The Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) card test is a screeening test for what infection or disease?

Back 7

Syphillis

Front 8

A hematocrit value below an individual's normal range for the sex and age indicates which of the following conditions?

Back 8

Anemia

Front 9

The normal hematocrit value for an adult female is within what range of percentages?

Back 9

40%-48%

Front 10

When potable water aboard ship is tested for available chlorine residual, which of the following technique should be used?

Back 10

Palin-DPD Method

Front 11

The Medical Department Representative aboard ship is required to test the water for bacteria content at what minimum interval?

Back 11

Once a week

Front 12

Early stages of cholera, the infection is transmitted by what agent?

Back 12

Contaminated water

Front 13

Aboard ship, what minimum residual should be required in all potable water when taken aboard from an approved source?

Back 13

0.2 parts per million.

Front 14

Aboard ship, which of the following is the only form of chlorine that may be carried?

Back 14

Calcium Hypochlorite 70%

Front 15

Which of the following chemicals is used in a canteen so that the water can be purified for human consumption?

Back 15

Calcium Hypochloride

Front 16

Which of the following diseases is not a principal waterborne disease of concerns in the United States?

Back 16

Giardiasis

Front 17

The use of nonpotable water is prohibited for which of of the following activities?

Back 17

Industrial Cleanining

Front 18

Before collecting a water sample for bacteriological testing aboard ship, you should run the water for what minimum perioud of time?

Back 18

3 minutes

Front 19

Your ship just obtain water from an area where amebiasis is endemic, what chlorine residual must you obtain following a 30 minute contact period to make the water safe for drinking?

Back 19

2.00 parts per million

Front 20

Detailed information on water supply ashore and afloat can be found in which source?

Back 20

Manual of Naval Preventive Medicene Chapters 5&6

Front 21

Which of the following combination of water sources is not correctly matches?

Back 21

Surface water-Wells

Front 22

Which of the follwoing methods should be used to control chiggers at permanent campsites?

Back 22

Clearing and removing vegetation at the site

Front 23

What rodentcide is considered being the safest for use by medical personnel?

Back 23

Warfarin

Front 24

What is the most common cockroach found aboard ships?

Back 24

German

Front 25

Of the following foods used in conjunction with rat poison, which is preferred by the Black Roof Rat?

Back 25

Fruits

Front 26

When inspecting thawed fish for freshness, which of the following signs would signal that it has been refrozen?

Back 26

Soft flesh

Front 27

What infectious afent specifically identifies syphilis?

Back 27

Treponema Pallidum

Front 28

A sudden onset of profuse vomiting, watery diarrhea, rapid dehydration, and collapse are symptoms of which of the following quarentinable disease?

Back 28

Cholera

Front 29

Staphylococcal Infectious agents are known to be responsible for which of the following conditions?

Back 29

Carbuncles

Front 30

Drooping eyelids, blurred and trouble vision, sore throat, dry mouth, vomiting, diarrhea, and symmetrical paralysis are symptoms of which disease?

Back 30

Botulism

Front 31

All foodservice personnel are required to have minimum of ___ hours intial training and ____
hours refresher training in food service sanitation principles?

Back 31

6 hrs, 3 hrs.

Front 32

Which of the following contagious infections is the most common form of genital ulceration?

Back 32

Herpes Simplex Type 2

Front 33

What term should be used to record ringworm of the body?

Back 33

Tinea Corporitis

Front 34

Of the different types of shocks, which one will you encounter most frequently at a battalion aid station?

Back 34

Hemorrhagic

Front 35

Which of the following conditions results in the secretion of bright red blood from the rectum?

Back 35

Hematochezia

Front 36

A complaint of pain, discharge, hearing loss and a blowing sensation in the ear is suspected to be what condition?

Back 36

Perforated Tympanic Membrane

Front 37

Alkali burns should be neutralized with which of the following chemical agents?

Back 37

Vinegar diluted in water

Front 38

An abscess in the true skin caused by the entry of microorganisms through either a hair follicle or a sweat gland is referred to what?

Back 38

Furnuncle

Front 39

What food elements are most important to the body tissue growth and maintenance of the body cells?

Back 39

Proteins

Front 40

Which of the following vitamis is transported throughout the body in the water and is classified as water-soluble?

Back 40

C

Front 41

All foodservice personnel are required to have minimum of ___ hours intial training and ____
hours refresher training in food service sanitation principles?

Back 41

6 hrs, 3 hrs.

Front 42

Which of the following contagious infections is the most common form of genital ulceration?

Back 42

Herpes Simplex Type 2

Front 43

What term should be used to record ringworm of the body?

Back 43

Tinea Corporitis

Front 44

Of the different types of shocks, which one will you encounter most frequently at a battalion aid station?

Back 44

Hemorrhagic

Front 45

Which of the following conditions results in the secretion of bright red blood from the rectum?

Back 45

Hematochezia

Front 46

A complaint of pain, discharge, hearing loss and a blowing sensation in the ear is suspected to be what condition?

Back 46

Perforated Tympanic Membrane

Front 47

Alkali burns should be neutralized with which of the following chemical agents?

Back 47

Vinegar diluted in water

Front 48

An abscess in the true skin caused by the entry of microorganisms through either a hair follicle or a sweat gland is referred to what?

Back 48

Furnuncle

Front 49

What food elements are most important to the body tissue growth and maintenance of the body cells?

Back 49

Proteins

Front 50

Which of the following vitamis is transported throughout the body in the water and is classified as water-soluble?

Back 50

C

Front 51

What food elements are most importatnt to the body tissue growth and maintenance of the body cells

Back 51

Proteins

Front 52

Which of the following vitamins is trasported thorughout the body in the water and is classified as water-soluble?

Back 52

C

Front 53

:eft ventricular failure or mitral stenosis usally results in which of the follwoing conditions?

Back 53

Pulmonary Edema

Front 54

Which of the following diseases is characterized by excessive secretion of the thyroid hormones, increased metabolic rate, and protrusion of the eye balls?

Back 54

Hyperthyroidism

Front 55

To keep a dressing glat and even on the forearm, what type of bandage should you use?

Back 55

Spiral Reverse

Front 56

Which of the following drugs is classigied as central nervous system alkaloidal poison?

Back 56

Cocaine

Front 57

Urinary tract infection caused by the proteus group of bacteria should be treated with what sulfonamide drug?

Back 57

Gantrisin

Front 58

Pain associated with a circumcision can be alleviated by the use of what vasodialator?

Back 58

Amyl Nitrite

Front 59

Which of the following drugs is the drug of choice in the treatment of status epilepticus?

Back 59

Valium

Front 60

Which of the following antihistamines is used in the treatment of allergic conditions?

Back 60

Benadryl

Front 61

Which of the following vitamins is used to help form prothrombin and other blood clotting factors?

Back 61

K

Front 62

Spherical bacteria that stain dark blue with Gram's stain are

Back 62

Gram Positive Cocci

Front 63

When doing a gram's stain, what is referred to as the Mordant?

Back 63

Grams Iodine

Front 64

What urine preservation may dissolve to produce false positive for albumin?

Back 64

Thymol

Front 65

After the four fields are counted when doing a white blood count, you multiply by?

Back 65

50

Front 66

After the five fields are counted when doing a red blood count, you multiply by?

Back 66

10,000

Front 67

The normal hematocrit valves for an adult male is approximately what range of percentages?

Back 67

42%-50%

Front 68

Which of the following conditions is characterized by Leukocytosis?

Back 68

Appendicitis

Front 69

Which of the below is not on of the four international quarantinable diseases?

Back 69

Typhoid

Front 70

Which form of plaque is transmitted by the bite of the infective rat flea (xenopsylla cheopis)?

Back 70

Bubonic

Front 71

what mosquito is responsible for transmitting Yellow Fever?

Back 71

Aedes Egypti

Front 72

What directive gives the deparment of the Navy standards for writing, quality, correspondence format, and paperwork management?

Back 72

SECNAVINST 5216.5D

Front 73

What type of letter is used when officials of two or more activities issue a letter concerning a particular subject or administrative problem common to both activities?

Back 73

Joint

Front 74

What is not required to appear on all out going correspondence?

Back 74

Typist initials

Front 75

How should a signature of a person with BY direction authority be indicated of signing orders affecting pay and allowances?

Back 75

By direction of the Commanding Officer

Front 76

What memorandum is used among individuals and offices of the same activities and is considered the most informal?

Back 76

Printed Memorandum Form

Front 77

Of the Nuclear, CHemical, and Biological agents which are considered choking agents?

Back 77

CG, CL

Front 78

What is the most frequent complication from exposure to mustard and Nitrogen Mustard?

Back 78

Bronchopneumonia

Front 79

The symptoms of watering of the eyes, tightness in the chest, and later symptoms of rapid shallow breathing, painful cough, frothy sputum, cyanosis, clammy skin, rapid feeble pulse, and low blood pressure are symptoms of exposure to?

Back 79

choking agent

Front 80

What chemical afent has the oder of new mown hay?

Back 80

Phosgene (CG)

Front 81

The required dose of sodium thiosulfate 100-200 mg/kg IV per a ten minute period is necessary after the intial treatment if exposed to which agent?

Back 81

Cyanogen Chloride (CK)

Front 82

The sympstoms of a strong pepper irritation in the upper respiratory tract, irritation of the eyes with lacrimation, violent uncontrollable sneezing, coughing, vomiting, and feeling of malaise is ymptoms of exposure to?

Back 82

DM

Front 83

Who established sanitary standards for food procurement, inspection on delivery, fitness for human consumption, storage and refrigeration, preparation and serving, and disposal of food residues?

Back 83

Bureau of Medicine and Surgery

Front 84

Who is repsonsible for procuring, receiving, inspecting and storing good stuff?

Back 84

Supply officer

Front 85

What is the recommended distance that food service equipment be away from walls, floors, or adjacent equipment ashore?

Back 85

6 in.

Front 86

What page in the service record contains pertinent information relatice to the memeber aptiude test score, civilian education and training, personal interest, and civilian experience?

Back 86

NAVPERS 1070/603

Front 87

What page in the service record contains court martial action when a guilty ginding is made by the court and approved by the convenining authority?

Back 87

Page 7

Front 88

Which of the forms listed below would be foun don the left side of the offivers service record (NAVPERS 1070-602)?

Back 88

NAVPERS 1070/602

Front 89

The service memeber who receive a discharge under other than honorable conditions for misconduct or conditions for for misconduct or security reasons would be issued what certificate?

Back 89

DD form 794N

Front 90

Which of the below would be an example of a tertiary subject of an instruction?

Back 90

6224

Front 91

What does BUMED instruction 6222.3B indicate?

Back 91

2nd Major Revision of that instruction

Front 92

What type of appropriation is available for incurring obligations until the funding is exhausted or until the purpose of which it was made is accomplished?

Back 92

NO-Year

Front 93

`What is the status of an appropriation that is no longer available for incurring obligations but remain abailable for disbursements to liquidate?

Back 93

EXPIRED

Front 94

What appropriation symbol designates a continuing appropriation during fiscal year(FY)?

Back 94

X

Front 95

What is the minimum amount of medical material to be maintained on board a ship at any time?

Back 95

AMAL

Front 96

wHAT HANDLE CODE WOULD BE USED FOR A DRUG OR OTHER ITEM, WHICH REQUIRED SECURITYstorage?

Back 96

Q

Front 97

What form should be used to requisition standard stock BUMED controlled itrams?

Back 97

DD-1348

Front 98

The term "small purchase" in the open market refers to purchases not in excess of?

Back 98

$10,000

Front 99

All purchases from the imprest fund are paid in cash and no one purchase may exceed?

Back 99

$150.00

Front 100

Equipment ( other than industrial) would be considered plant property class?

Back 100

III

Front 101

All classes of plant property must be inventoried every?

Back 101

3 years

Front 102

What is the second responsibility of medical support to the fleet marine force?

Back 102

Care of the sick and injured

Front 103

The medical battalions consist of an H&S company, Hospital company and how many medical companies?

Back 103

5

Front 104

The Hospital Company is designed to provide facilities for the establishment of 6 surgical operating rooms and a hospital providing how many beds?

Back 104

200

Front 105

What type of casuality receiving serves as floating command center for amphibious operations?

Back 105

LCC

Front 106

Casualties in the priority catefory must be evacuated within how many hours to keep condition from becoming urgent?

Back 106

4

Front 107

Which of the programs listed below (Although Related) is not part of the decedent affairs program?

Back 107

Casualty Assistance Calls

Front 108

Which of the below is not true concerning the personnel casualty report (Death) report symbol BUPERS 1770-4 officer/enlisted?

Back 108

Only prepared for memebers of the armed forces who die on Naval Reservations

Front 109

The commanding officer will write a letter of condolence to the primary and secondary next of kin in all cases within how many hours of the casualty?

Back 109

48

Front 110

Unless specifically requested by the next kin, remains will not be shipped to arrive at a destination on?

Back 110

Thanksgiving Day

Front 111

Which of the below is not true concernining escort duty?

Back 111

The escort must be of the same branch of service, status, and pay grade as the deceased.

Front 112

When annual contracts are not in effect, individual purchase order for supplies and services shall be made out in accordance with which of the following manuals?

Back 112

NAVSUP

Front 113

How many 2 inch holes are drilled in the casket for burial at sea?

Back 113

20

Front 114

Who is responsible for notification of the next of kin if a member dies outside of or withing territorial waters?

Back 114

BUPERS

Front 115

Which of the following would be considered a fixed medical treatment facility?

Back 115

Clinic

Front 116

What is the document, which establishes a legal relationship between the government and the enlisted member when reenlistmet is effected within 24 hours after discharge?

Back 116

NAVPERS 1070/601

Front 117

What page in the service record would indicate a recommendation for advancement?

Back 117

NAVPERS 1070/609

Front 118

Unauthorized absences of less than 24 hours and other offenses which do not effect a memeber pay shall be recorded on the?

Back 118

Administrative Remarks

Front 119

Which of the below is not true concernining the officer service record (NAVPERS 1070/66)?

Back 119

Wills and personal documents pertaining to wills shall be filed on the right side of the record

Front 120

What type of appropriations generally covers the operation and maintenance expenses in the NAvy?

Back 120

Annual

Front 121

What is the status of an appropriation no longer available for disbursement?

Back 121

Lapsed

Front 122

What appropriation symbol s used to identify all appropriations assigned to the Navy?

Back 122

17

Front 123

What handling code could be used for material that is corrosive or poisonous?

Back 123

B

Front 124

What is the maximum amount of money that is kept in the imprest fund?

Back 124

$5,000

Front 125

How often is the imprest fund reviewed to determind needs?

Back 125

Quarterly

Front 126

Buildings and improvements would be considered plant property class?

Back 126

II

Front 127

What is the first responsibilitary of medical support to the Fleet Marine Force?

Back 127

Preventive Medicene

Front 128

Whihc of the following is considered the mirror of an individuals health?

Back 128

Skin

Front 129

A neurological Assesment consists of ____testing catefories.

Back 129

Five

Front 130

All ships of the force will have minimum of how many decontamination stations?

Back 130

2

Front 131

Which of the following is characterized by right lower quadrant pain, elevated WBCS, rebound and rectal tenderness, and decreased peristalsis?

Back 131

Appendicitis

Front 132

Guidelines fo rthe management of secual offenses can be found in___series.

Back 132

BUMED 6320.70

Front 133

Which dental classification is indicated by a S strip of green tape

Back 133

2

Front 134

Substances present in food that act as catalysts in many chemical reactions of the body are known as?

Back 134

Vitamins

Front 135

The percentage of body weight made up of water is __percent?

Back 135

70%

Front 136

How many grams of sodium are allowed daily in a moderate low sodium diet?

Back 136

2.0

Front 137

Which space aboard the ship would require spot cooling?

Back 137

Engine Room

Front 138

At what temperature range would a thaw be kept at?

Back 138

36 degrees to 38 degrees

Front 139

The temperature in galley spaces aboard ship must be kept below___F/

Back 139

80 degrees

Front 140

The annual report of Tuberculin Retesting must be submitted by?

Back 140

1 February

Front 141

A certificate of deratization is valid for __months from the date of issue.

Back 141

6

Front 142

Biological agents can be detected by?

Back 142

Laboratory Examination

Front 143

When does the coast guard come under the department of the Navy?

Back 143

In time of war, and when directed by the president

Front 144

COMNAVMECOM is composed of a headquarters element, ___GEOCOMS, and _____special function commands.

Back 144

Eight, Seven

Front 145

The duties, responsibilities, authority, distensions, and relations of many Organizational parts and individuals to each other is outlined on what publication.

Back 145

U.S. Navy Regulations

Front 146

You are asked to assign a number to an instuction. Which of the following publications will help your detemine what number to assign?

Back 146

Department of the Navy Standard Subject Identification Codes.

Front 147

Instructions concerning the preparation of an instruction are contained in what publication?

Back 147

SECNAVINST 5215.1c

Front 148

Which of the following major subject groups pertain to medicene and dentistry?

Back 148

6000

Front 149

Which of the following major subject groups pertain to financial management?

Back 149

7000

Front 150

Into how many categories is security information classified, and what are those catefories?

Back 150

Three: top secret, secret, confidential

Front 151

Information that if compromised, would cause serious damage t the nation is classified as?

Back 151

Secret

Front 152

Instructions for preparing hte personnel diary are contained in which document?

Back 152

EPMACINST 1080.4A

Front 153

Which, if any of the following forms is used to report a foreiture of pay awardede as nonjudicial punishment?

Back 153

NAVPERS 1070/607

Front 154

Which of the following types of leave is not charged against a memebers leave entitlement?

Back 154

Convalescent

Front 155

Which of the following types of discharge may be given ONLY by apporved sentence of a special court-martial?

Back 155

Bad conduct

Front 156

The letter "X" in the appropriation symbol 17X1832 identifies the?

Back 156

Type of appropriation.

Front 157

The appropriation that provide for the pay and allowances of active duty Navy and Marine Corpscpersonnel are?

Back 157

MPN and MPMC

Front 158

The Navy Ship's store profits fumd is what type or fund?

Back 158

Trust

Front 159

Which of the various elements of the national stock number may be used by itselt to identify a specific item of material?

Back 159

National Item identification number

Front 160

The procurement document to be used for items excluded from MILSTRIP is?

Back 160

DD 1149

Front 161

Request emeergency supplies from ships other than supply ships on?

Back 161

DD 1348

Front 162

When search, recovery, and identification operations continue for more than 36 hours, a progress report will be made to COMNAVMEDCOM every___hours.

Back 162

24

Front 163

To minimize cellular deterioration, remains should be refrigerated at ___C.

Back 163

2.2 to 4.4 degrees

Front 164

Under the FOIA, the official having responsibility for the records has ____working days to respond to the requester.

Back 164

10

Front 165

In which of the following circumstances would withdrawal of blood be authorized?

Back 165

Consesual Withdrawal, Valid Medical Purpose, Competency for duty examination.

Front 166

A Mesophilic oganism will reproduce best at tempreatures between ____C.

Back 166

20-45 degrees

Front 167

Rod -Shape bacteria appearing single, in chains, or in palisades are knwn as?

Back 167

Bacilli

Front 168

Sperical bacteria that stain dark blue with Gram's stain are?

Back 168

Gram-positive cocci

Front 169

Since Rh factor D is most important, approximately ____percent of the population is negative, and ___percent is positive.

Back 169

15,85

Front 170

When biological agetns are known to have used, all drinkning water must be?

Back 170

Boiled

Front 171

Leftover food will be used at the next meal when possible, but in no case will such foods be used after?

Back 171

36 hours

Front 172

The maximum amount of time a sandwich may remain in a freezer is?

Back 172

60 days

Front 173

Frozen sandwiches must be consumed within how many hours after removal from the freezer?

Back 173

5 hours

Front 174

What date led to the formation of the u.s. Navy

Back 174

13 Oct1775

Front 175

What was the name of the first submarine which was commisioned during the revolutionary war?

Back 175

Turtle

Front 176

Which of the below is not true concerninig the hand salute?

Back 176

The Navy never salutes uncovered

Front 177

Which of the below is not true concernining the gun salute?

Back 177

Odd numbers ranging from 11 for vice consult to 21 for the president

Front 178

What ariticle of the code of conduct states if I become a prisoner of war 1 will keep faith with my fellow prisoners, I will give no information or take part in any action which might be harmful to my comrades. If i am senior, I will take command. If not, i will obey the lawful orders of those appointed over me and will back them up in every way?

Back 178

IV

Front 179

What article of the code of conduct states "If i am captured I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape. I Will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy"

Back 179

III

Front 180

What class of school provides undergraduate education, indoctrination, and basic training in fundamentals, prelimaries, or principles to midshipman officer candidates and other newly commissioned officers

Back 180

P

Front 181

Which of the following drill positions would you move your left food smartly 12 inches to the left?

Back 181

Parade rest

Front 182

What color label is used to identify a health hazard?

Back 182

Blue

Front 183

What material condition is set when a ship is in no danger of attack, such as atanchor in a well protected harbor or at a homeport during regular working hours to provide maximum freedom of movement throughout the ship?

Back 183

x-ray

Front 184

While tending a line for a man wearing an oba, how many pulls would indicate advance?

Back 184

2

Front 185

What class of fire is associated with electrical or electronic equipment?

Back 185

C

Front 186

What fire fighting agent is used to control a class C fire?

Back 186

CO2

Front 187

Shipboard piping systems are color codede for easy identification. What color of piping is used to identify a system containing jp-5 fuel?

Back 187

purple

Front 188

On the watch quarter and station bill, what condition is normal wartime crusing, the ships company stands watch on a basis of 4 hours on 8 hours off about 1/3 of the ships armament is manned in the event of a surprise attack

Back 188

III

Front 189

What sound powered circuit is used by a lookout watch to communicate with the bridge and the ships cic?

Back 189

JL

Front 190

What type of flag is a general recall, all personnel return to the ship?

Back 190

Papa

Front 191

What type of flag indicates the ship has medical guard duty?

Back 191

Mike 1

Front 192

Which of the following levels of human need is the full relization of our own potential?

Back 192

Self Actualization

Front 193

How many stars would designate the flag of an admiral?

Back 193

4

Front 194

What flagstaff insignies would be used for an officer beloew the grade of commander, and for civil officials entitled to honors of a lesser nature?

Back 194

Flat Truck

Front 195

When a storm warnining signal shows on red pennant displayed by day and a red light over a white light at night indicates?

Back 195

small craft warnining

Front 196

How many command training team memebers hsould be assigned to a command iwth 101-200 personnel to teach a navy rights and responsibility workshop?

Back 196

3

Front 197

Bone is composed of which of the following?

Back 197

Organic and inorganic

Front 198

The inner spongy, porous portion of the bone is referred to as what type of bone?

Back 198

Cancellous

Front 199

The cranium is formed by how many cranial bones?

Back 199

8

Front 200

Which bone is shaped like a wing

Back 200

Sphenoid Bone

Front 201

This bone has small openings thorugh which nerves pass through the roof of the mouth

Back 201

Ethmoid Bones

Front 202

This bone has a large opening called the foramen magnum?

Back 202

Occipital Bone

Front 203

By the time a child reaches 5 or 6 years of age, this bone has usually fused toghether?

Back 203

Frontal bones

Front 204

The process that is located posterior on the ramus and forms the head of the mandible is known by which of the following terms?

Back 204

Condyloid

Front 205

What proces helps lift the mandible to close the mouth?

Back 205

Coronoid

Front 206

How many small bones are located in each middle ear?

Back 206

Three

Front 207

How many pairs of muscles in te mandible make chewing movements possible?

Back 207

Four

Front 208

The moist inner lining of side walls of the mouth is known by which of the following terms?

Back 208

Mucosa

Front 209

In what area of the extrenal lips does the red mucous membrane end and the normal outside skin of the face begin?

Back 209

Vermillion Border

Front 210

What are the rough projections on the surface of the tongue called?

Back 210

papillea

Front 211

How many pairs of ribs are attached by the costal cartilage anteriorly?

Back 211

12

Front 212

The muscles of respiration are the intercostals muscles of the rib cafe and what?

Back 212

Diaphram

Front 213

The left lung has how many lobes

Back 213

2

Front 214

What is the name of the serous membrane layer that covers the lungs

Back 214

Visceral Pleura

Front 215

What palpating the chest, you should have the patient repeat what words in order to determ levels from fremitus

Back 215

Ninety Nine

Front 216

What type of abnormal breath sounds are intermittent, non musical very brief sounds and soun like rubbing hair between your fingers?

Back 216

Crackles

Front 217

What type of abnormal breath sounds make high pitched musical sound caused by a relatively high velocity of airflow through narrow airway?

Back 217

Wheezes

Front 218

What thin membrane covers most of the anterior eye and tie the inner surface of the eyelid in contact with the flobe and protects the eye from foreign bodies and drying out?

Back 218

Conjunctiva

Front 219

What part of the eye is a continuation of the sclera and can sense pain and also seperates the aqueous humor of the anterior chamber from the external environment and transmits light through the lens to the retina?

Back 219

Cornea

Front 220

What is the name of the most common inflammation of the eyelids caused by seborrhea or bacteria and frequently associated with conjunctivitis?

Back 220

Blepharitis

Front 221

What type of abdominal hernia is located on the anterior surface of the thigh just below the inguinal hernia?

Back 221

Femoral

Front 222

Which of the below does not indicate a severe upper respirattory infection and a need for medical advice?

Back 222

A persistent cough of 1 or more weeks

Front 223

What condition is characterized by fever, (100-105 F) pulse rate as high as 160, increased respirations (30-40 per minute) and a particular grunt may be heard on expiration?

Back 223

Pneumonococcal Pneumonia

Front 224

The right lung, espiecially the lower lobes, is the most frequently affected by which conditions?

Back 224

Pulmonary abcess

Front 225

What is the most common complaint exhibited by a persn with pulmonary embolism

Back 225

Dyspnea

Front 226

What condition is indicated in a patient with chills, fever, flank pain, nausea, comiting, urgency, and frequency to urinate, and the urine may contain blood or pus?

Back 226

Pyelonephritis

Front 227

Recurrent attacks of gouty arthritis may be prevented by using?

Back 227

Zyloprim

Front 228

The symptoms of swelling of the soft palate, severe sore throat, displacement of uvula, pain upon opening of the jaw, swelling and pain at the site of the cervical lymphnodes and a fever of up to 105 F would indicate

Back 228

Peritonsillar

Front 229

Which of the below listed conditions is caused by both streptococcus and staphylococcus?

Back 229

Cellulitis

Front 230

What is the bondlike connective tissue covering the root of a tooth, which assists in tooth support?

Back 230

Cementum

Front 231

What dental condition results when a normal clot fails to form in the socket of a recently extracted tooth?

Back 231

Postexodontic Osteitis

Front 232

The treatment of what type of tooth fracture require the crown being filled with calciun hydroxide or Zoe?

Back 232

II

Front 233

Existence of pathological conditions requiring early treatment measures would be indicated by what dental classification?

Back 233

Yellow Tape

Front 234

What type of severe pneumonia has a 60% mortality rate?

Back 234

Aspiration

Front 235

What condition is usally the result of left centricular failure or mitral stenosis, but may be caused by drugs, irritant gases or burns?

Back 235

Pulmonary Edema

Front 236

What conditions required surgery and is more common in women?

Back 236

Cholelithiases

Front 237

Patient reports to sickbay with excruciating intermitten pan that originates in the flank or kidney area and radiates across the badomen and along the course of the oreters, would be suspected of having?

Back 237

Renal Calculi

Front 238

Which of the below is not true concerninig various medical conditions?

Back 238

Lymphadenitis is an inflammation of a lymph vessel

Front 239

How would you treat an individual who has a small perforated, tympanic membrane?

Back 239

No treatment indicated

Front 240

What drug should be given to help precent cluster headaches from becoming vascular headaches?

Back 240

Sansert

Front 241

What conditions is characterized by myxedematous features such as an enlarge tongue slow deep tone speech dry thickened edematous skin, puffiness of the eyelids hands and face and alopecia (loss of the hair) of the scalp and eyebrows?

Back 241

Hypoithyroidism

Front 242

What condition is present in a lady whose mentrual cycles are absent or more than 6 months apart?

Back 242

Amenorrhea

Front 243

Wht is the most frequent cause of severe dental pain>

Back 243

Acute pulpitis

Front 244

What infection is usually the result of long continued irritation by food debris deep deposits of calculus or foreign objects such as a toothbrush bristle or a popcorn husk being tightly packed between the tooth and the soft tissue?

Back 244

Periodontal Abcess

Front 245

What type of tooth fracture exhibits slight exposure of the pulp?

Back 245

II

Front 246

What are the most important nutritive element(s) required by man?

Back 246

Protein

Front 247

What elements assist in normal functionining of the thyroid gland?

Back 247

Iodine

Front 248

What diet is recommended for gastritis, hyperacidity, hemorrhoids, peptic ulcer, and pyrosis?

Back 248

Bland

Front 249

Which of the below is not true concernining diet therapy?

Back 249

An insufficient intake of water causes diarrhea

Front 250

Which of the following is not true concerning a low sodium diet?

Back 250

Regular diets with no salt added contain 4.2 to 5.4 g OF SODIUM

Front 251

What manual spells out the precise steps to be taken in the caare of the dead>

Back 251

BUMEDINST 5360.1D

Front 252

What part of the decedent affairs program and terminates into a different program?

Back 252

Concurrent Return

Front 253

Which of the below is not true concernining notifcation of the next of kin in case of death or a missing casualty?

Back 253

Notification must never be made by telephone

Front 254

Remains to be buried at sea should be how far from the nearest land?

Back 254

3 Miles

Front 255

To minimize cellular deterioration, remains should be refrigerated at?

Back 255

36-40 degrees F

Front 256

How many signed copies of the certificate of death (overseas) DD-2064 must accompany the remains to another overseas area or to a port of arrival in conus?

Back 256

3

Front 257

Unless specially requested by the next of kin, remains will not be shipped to arrive at a destination on?

Back 257

New Years Day

Front 258

What is the maximum allowable stop over time for an escort for the purpose of attending the furneral service if desired by the next of kin?

Back 258

72 hours

Front 259

The activities that have joint responsibility for the use and format of the navy care of the dead contracts is BUMED and?

Back 259

NAVSUP

Front 260

Who is responsible for notification of the next of kin if a memeber dies in a naval hospital and the enxt of kin is in the United States?

Back 260

Commanding Officer

Front 261

The enlisted distribution verification report (EDVR report 1080) is distributed how often by the enlisted personnel management center(EPMAC)

Back 261

monthly

Front 262

What part of the record of emergency (NAVPERS 1070?602) provides an immediate up to date record of emergency date for casualty reporting and notification of the next of kin

Back 262

II

Front 263

What is basic document which establishes a legal relationship between the government and an enlisted member upon enlistment?

Back 263

DD Form 4