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200 Cards in this Set

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Neuropsychology1. Which of the following is considered the emotional core of the human nervous system? A thalamusB limbic systemC basal gangliaD pons
ANSWER "B"The limbic system is considered the "emotional brain" or emotional core of the nervous system. It consists of the amygdala, septum, and hippocampus (although the hippocampus is more involved with memory than emotion). The other choices are not primarily associated with emotions: The thalamus (A) is the central switching station for sensory information; the basal ganglia (C) codes and relays information associated with voluntary movement; and the pons (D) regulates states of arousal.
Community Psychology2. In consultee-centered case consultation, the consultant's role is most similar to which of the following? A collaboratorB coachC confidantD supervisor
ANSWER "D"In his discussion of consultee-centered case consultation, Gerald Caplan notes that, especially when the target of the consultation is the consultee's lack of skill, this form of consultation most resembles "technical supervision." See G. Caplan, Principles of Preventive Psychiatry, New York, Basic Books, Inc., 1964.
Developmental Psychology3. There is some evidence that hearing impairment in infancy (e.g., due to ear infections) may lead to some degree of persisting impairment in verbal skills and academic achievement even when the hearing deficit has been alleviated. This finding supports the notion of: A canalization.B sensitive periods.C developmental delays. D preordination.
ANSWER "B"Sensitive periods are times in development when a particular type of experience is necessary for development to occur. In the situation described in this question, a temporary loss of hearing during a sensitive period has had long-term repercussions. [See M. Rutter, Continuities and discontinuities from infancy, in J. D. Osofsky (ed.), Handbook of Infant Development, New York, John Wiley & Sons, 1987.] .
Clinical Psychology4. A family therapist who uses anecdotes from her own family to emphasize similarities with the client family is doing which of the following? A reframingB triangulatingC diffusing boundariesD joining
ANSWER "D"Joining, a technique used by structural family therapists, involves taking steps to become a family insider by, among other things, assuming the same type of communication style, sharing personal stories, etc.
Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy5. Every time a child engages in one of the prohibited behaviors on a list of targeted behaviors constructed by the child's parents and his therapist, the child's allowance is reduced by 20 percent. The technique being employed in this case is A positive punishment.B time-out from positive reinforcement.C token economy.D response cost.
ANSWER "D"Response cost, a form of negative punishment, involves removal of a prespecified reward every time a behavior targeted for elimination is performed. Here, the prespecified reward being removed is a portion of the child's allowance, and the behaviors targeted for elimination are those on the list constructed by the parents and the therapist.
Neuropsychology6. Walking through a dark park at night, you hear footsteps behind you. You think it may be a mugger so your breathing deepens and heart beats faster, at the same time you experience fear. This is an example of which theory? A Cannon-Bard B James-LangeC Lazarus D Schachter-Singer
ANSWER "C"C. In contrast to the other three theories, Lazarus’ theory proposes that a thought must precede any emotion or physiological arousal. Cannon-Bard (a.) states physiological and emotional arousal are experienced at the same time. According to the other two, an event causes physiological arousal first, then interpretation (b.) or reasoning (d.) and finally the experience of emotion. A fifth theory of emotion, facial feedback, argues that changes in facial muscles cue the brain and provide the basis of emotion.
Developmental Psychology7. Kohlberg's theory of moral development focuses on moral reasoning. With regard to the linkage between moral reasoning and moral action, Kohlberg would most likely agree with which of the following? A There is a direct, one-to-one link between moral reasoning and behavior.B The link between moral reasoning and behavior is mediated by the individual's previous experience with the situation. C The link between moral reasoning and behavior is mediated by the individual's IQ. D There isn't a one-to-one correspondence between moral reasoning and behavior, although, the higher the stage of moral reasoning, the stronger the link is likely to be.
ANSWER "D"Kohlberg believed there is a link between moral reasoning and moral action but felt that the correspondence was greatest at the higher stages of moral reasoning.
Developmental Psychology8. Research on infants who were raised by multiple changing caregivers until at least two years old were found to: A never be able to develop attachmentsB attach to adopted parents only if they were adopted by 36 months of ageC attach more strongly if restored to a biological parent than if adopted by a non-biological parentD attach to adopted parents even if not adopted until 6 years of age
ANSWER "D"Researchers of a longitudinal study found that maternal deprivation in the first few years of life does not necessarily prevent children from developing strong attachments to their adopted parents – even when the adoption occurs as late as 4 to 6 years of age. Contrary to "C," the researchers found that a strong attachment was more likely to develop among adopted children than children who were restored to their biological parents. The children in this study did, however, show "overfriendliness" toward unfamiliar adults, had more difficulties with peers, and had fewer close relationships than non-institutionalized children [J. Hodges and B. Tizard, Social and family relationships of ex-institutionalized adolescents, Journal of Child Psychology & Psychiatry & Allied Disciplines, 30(1), 1989,77-97].
Neuropsychology9. Which of the following seizures is also known as temporal lobe epilepsy? A Absence B Myoclonic C Grand malD Complex partial
ANSWER "D"D. Complex partial seizures begin in the temporal lobe, involve impaired consciousness and involuntary chewing, lip smacking, fidgeting, and walking in circles. "Complex" refers to the seizures which impact consciousness. While partial seizures begin in a limited area of the brain, generalized seizures are caused by electrical impulses throughout the entire brain. The other responses are all types of generalized seizures. Absence seizures (a.) involve a brief loss of consciousness with few or no other symptoms. The primary symptom of a myoclonic seizure (b.) is brief jerky contractions of muscles in different parts of the body, most often in the legs and arms. A grand mal (c.) seizure involves convulsions, unconsciousness, and muscle rigidity.
Developmental Psychology10. According to the current research, the effects on children of observing aggressive models, such as through television violence, are A short-term but not long-term.B long-term but not short-term.C both short-term and long-term.D neither short-term nor long-term.
ANSWER "C"Research on the effects of television violence on children's behavior demonstrates that viewing aggressive models is associated with increased aggressive behavior. Moreover, these effects can be long-lasting; they have been observed in longitudinal studies lasting up to 22 years.
Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy11. Behavioral approaches dealing with Autistic children would employ primarily: A second-order conditioning.B negative reinforcement.C sensory preconditioning.D shaping.
ANSWER "D"In shaping, or the method of successive approximations, a subject is reinforced for responses that gradually approach the desired behavior. For example, if shaping is used to teach a child to speak, the child first might be reinforced for looking at the trainer's mouth, then only for making a sound at the trainer's prompt, and finally only for imitating the specific sound made by the trainer. This technique is often used in the treatment and education of Autistic children.
Neuropsychology12. Compared to traditional neuroleptics, risperidone: A is significantly more effective in treating the "positive" symptoms of psychotic disordersB has a higher risk of causing cognitive bluntingC has a higher risk of extrapyramidal symptomsD has a lower risk of tardive dyskinesia
ANSWER "D"Risperidone (brand name Risperdal) is one of several atypical antipsychotics that has emerged in the last 10 years or so. Risperdal has also become the most prescribed antipsychotic medication. The most significant difference between the traditional antipsychotics and the newer atypical antipsychotics is that the atypicals have a much lower incidence of causing tardive dyskinesia and extrapyramidal side effects. However, they are generally considered to be equally effective in treating the positive symptoms (e.g., hallucinations, delusions) of Schizophrenia. They have often been considered to be more effective for treating the "negative" symptoms (e.g., affective and cognitive blunting, apathy, poverty of speech); however, the research for this remains inconclusive.
Neuropsychology13. Research on constructive memory has linked false recollection to lesions in the: A occipital lobeB parietal lobeC temporal lobe D frontal lobe
ANSWER "D"D. Instead of a literal recollection of past events, the current view of memory is that it is a constructive process - vulnerable to distortions, errors, and factors limiting the accuracy of memories. Neuropsychological research has most consistently identified lesions in the frontal lobes, especially the prefrontal cortex, with false recollections. (See, e.g., D. L. Schachter and S. D. Slotnik, The cognitive neuroscience of memory distortion, Neuron, 2004, 44, 149-160.) .
Diagnosis and Psychopathology14. Illnesses, such as Chronic Fatigue Syndrome, which have an unknown cause are said to be: A idiopathicB allopathicC autoplasticD homeopathic
ANSWER "A""Idiopathic" simply means of unknown cause. Allopathic ("B") refers to the typical biomedical treatments which are practiced by most physicians in North America and Europe today. Homeopathic ("D") refers to a more natural approach to healing in which the patient is given small doses of substances, which in larger doses, cause the same symptoms that they are suffering from. Autoplastic ("C") refers to adaptation through altering one's own behavior.
Clinical Psychology15. J. Berry, who views acculturation as a multidimensional construct, would describe an integrated client as one who: A Has a low retention of the minority cultureB Has high maintenance of the mainstream cultureC Rejects the mainstream culture but has a high retention of the minority cultureD Gets along with others in the workplace
ANSWER "B"J. Barry conceptualizes acculturation as many models existing on a continuum, with the minority culture and the majority or mainstream culture at opposite poles. Integration would be displayed by an individual who has high retention of the minority culture and high maintenance of the mainstream culture.
Ethics and Professional Practice16. To reduce their liability risk, managed care organizations are most likely to do which of the following? A insure their providers are credentialedB reduce the amount of time between date of claim submission and approval of claimC utilization reviewD pay their providers a reasonable reimbursement rate
ANSWER "A"Managed care organizations typically require all their providers to be credentialed. This helps to insure that their providers are competent and, consequently, reduces their risk of liability. Utilization Review (C) is a cost containment procedure involving an evaluation of patients' use of services to identify any unnecessary or inappropriate use of health care resources.
Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy17. A woman who was in a serious car accident six months ago sees a picture of a car in a newspaper and becomes anxious. This is an example of A mediated generalization.B higher-order conditioning.C classical conditioning.D Posttraumatic Stress Disorder.
ANSWER "A"The question describes an example of a phenomenon that you may have learned is called stimulus generalization. That is, the woman has been conditioned to respond with anxiety to cars and therefore exhibits the same response to a similar stimulus -- a picture of a car. This process is also sometimes referred to as mediated generalization. In this context, the term "mediated" means that the picture has never been paired with the original source of anxiety (i.e., the accident). Therefore, in order for the picture to cause anxiety, some cognitive mediation must be taking place.
Ethics and Professional Practice18. In a court-ordered evaluation the evaluator: A must obtain informed consent from the evaluateeB must obtain informed consent from the evaluatee's attorneyC does not need to obtain informed consent but must inform the evaluatee of the intended use of the evaluationD does not need to obtain informed consent nor inform the evaluatee of the purpose of the evaluation
ANSWER "C".
Diagnosis and Psychopathology19. Narcolepsy is associated with A rigid muscle tone.B loss of muscle tone.C decreased REM sleep.D insomnia.
ANSWER "B"Narcolepsy is characterized by irresistible sleep attacks occurring on a daily basis for at least three months. It also may involve cataplexy, which is a sudden loss of muscle tone, usually in association with intense emotion.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology20. As a treatment for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, in vivo exposure: A is effective only when maximal anxiety is invoked during exposure sessions.B is most effective when exposure is massed (versus distributed) but involves a gradual increase in the intensity of anxiety arousal. C is most effective when exposure is combined with response prevention.D is most effective when exposure is distributed (versus massed) and is combined with response prevention.
ANSWER "C"While in vivo exposure has been found superior to exposure in imagination for Simple Phobia and Agoraphobia, the difference is less clear for OCD (both seem effective). In addition, gradual exposure and maximal exposure (flooding) seem to be about equally effective as are massed or distributed exposure sessions. However, there is evidence that the benefits of exposure are maximized when it is combined with response prevention. [For a review of the literature, see P. Emmelkamp, Behavior therapy with adults, in A. E. Bergin and S. L. Garfield (eds.), Handbook of Psychotherapy and Behavior Change, New York, John Wiley, 1994.] .
Industrial/Organizational Psychology21. All of following are rater biases EXCEPT: A contrast effectB severity errorC central tendency biasD floor effect
ANSWER "D"D. Subjective rating scale accuracy is influenced by the suspectibility to rater biases. A contrast effect (a.) occurs when a rater’s ratings of a ratee are impacted by the ratings given to another. Severity error (b.), or strictness bias, refers to the tendency to use the low end of a rating scale to rate all ratees, whereas the central tendency bias (c.) is the tendency to use the middle of a scale in rating. A floor effect is not a rater bias. It refers to a measuring instrument’s inability to distinguish between individuals who have low scores on whatever is being measured.
Community Psychology22. Who has the highest suicide rate? A people aged 24-44B people aged 55-64C people over 65D teenagers
ANSWER "C"While the highest rates of suicide attempts occur between the ages of 24-44, the highest rates of completed suicides are among the elderly (65 and over). The greatest increase in suicide rates in recent years has been among teenager and young adults.
Industrial/Organizational Psychology23. The most common type of work-family conflict is: A time-basedB strain-basedC behaviorally-basedD systemically-based
ANSWER "A"A. Research suggests that high levels of work-family conflict are related to negative outcomes for the individual (life dissatisfaction, anxiety, poor health), for relationships (increased interpersonal conflict, divorce), and for the organization (absenteeism, tardiness, loss of talented employees). Work-family conflict can be time-based, strain-based, or behavior-based. Time-based conflict, which occurs when role pressures stemming from the two different domains compete for the individual's time, is the most common type of work-family conflict. It is based on the scarcity hypothesis, that the sum of a person’s energy is fixed; therefore multiple roles inevitably reduces the time and energy available to meet all role demands, resulting in strain and work-family conflict. Much of the research on work-family conflict has been based on this premise proposed by role theory and role scarcity. Work-family conflict is bi-directional; work can interfere with family and family can interfere with work. These are referred to as work-to-family conflict and family-to-work conflict. Recent research, based on the enhancement theory, suggests quality multiple roles provide additional sources of social support, increased skills, and heightened self-esteem and well being. Evidence of positive spillover, both from work to home and from home to work, continues to be found. Strain-based (b.) conflict occurs when the strain experienced in one role domain interferes with effective performance of role behaviors in the other domain. Behavior-based (c.) conflict is described as conflict stemming from incompatible behaviors demanded by competing roles. Recent research, using a systems perspective, demonstrates that one member of a dyad can impact the other’s experience of work-family conflict. The effects of this work and family stress and strain are referred to as "crossover effects.” (See: Barnett, R. C. and Hyde, J. S. (2001) Women, men, work, and family: An expansionist theory. American Psychologist, 56(10), 781-796.) .
Diagnosis and Psychopathology24. Which of the following is not characteristic of Nicotine Withdrawal? A hypersomniaB weight gain/increased appetite C decreased heart rate D depressed or dysphoric mood
ANSWER "A"A. Symptoms of Nicotine Withdrawal have a rapid onset and are characterized by insomnia, decreased heart rate (c.), increased appetite (b.) and depressed or dysphoric mood (d.). Studies indicate that a desire to avoid negative affect, as well as the rapid withdrawal symptoms, are primary reasons nicotine dependent individuals relapse.
Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy25. The concept of "identical elements" is most applicable to: A personnel selectionB employee trainingC job analysisD Equity Theory
ANSWER "B""Identical elements" is a concept based on the work of learning theorists Thorndike and Woodworth in 1901. It refers to the notion that training is best transferred over to situations which are similar to, or which have "identical elements" with, the training environment. Research has confirmed that identical elements improves transfer of training for both verbal and motor tasks.
Neuropsychology26. Which of the following antidepressants is associated with the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), enuresis, and decreasing the desire to binge and purge? A sertralineB imipramineC paroxetineD fluvoxamine
ANSWER "B"Research has shown tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) to be effective in the treatment of anxiety disorders, refractory pain syndromes, reducing binging and purging episodes in bulimia nervosa, and as alternatives to the stimulants in the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. Furthermore, the TCA, imipramine, is the drug of choice in the treatment of nocturnal enuresis and for the treatment of cataleptic episodes associated with narcolepsy, along with the TCA clomipramine. Sertraline, paroxetine and fluvoxamine are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI). SSRIs are also effective in the treatment of anxiety disorders, reducing binging and purging episodes, and some types of chronic pain. .
Clinical Psychology27. Self-in-Relation theory suggests that: A the self progresses from infantile dependence to mature independenceB one's self depends on how one connects to othersC people prefer to be right rather than happyD the relationships between siblings is the most important influence in the development of the self
ANSWER "B"Self-in-Relation theory is a feminist theory which emphasizes the importance of one's connections with others, particularly a daughter's relationship with her mother. The development of the self is viewed as progressing from infantile dependence towards a mature state of interdependence. This is in contrast to the traditional Western view of human development (A) -- a progression from infantile dependence towards a state of greater and greater separation, individuation, and independence. Choice C refers to Self Verification theory which proposes that people need and seek confirmation of their self-concept, regardless of whether their self-concept is positive or negative.
Ethics and Professional Practice28. Your client arrives at the fourth session with a small handgun in his coat. He says that when he leaves the session he is going to go by his ex-wife's house and "shake up her new husband a bit." He assures you that the gun is not loaded. You should A insist he remain in your office and try to calm him down.B ask him to turn over the gun.C alert the new husband if possible.D do nothing; this particular client has an odd sense of humor.
ANSWER "C"Answer C is referring to a situation in which the Tarasoff law applies. You have a client who is threatening harm to an intended victim. "The discharge of such duty...may call for the therapist to warn the intended victim of the danger..." (Tarasoff vs. Regents of University of California 1976, p. 426). Choice A and B are heroic, but may place you at considerable risk; they also require clinical judgments you cannot make with the limited information available in this question.
Research Design and Statistics29. If you want to measure whether a weight training program resulted in significant changes in weight and strength for a sample of body builders, the best test to use is: A MANOVA.B paired t-tests.C repeated measures ANOVA.D chi-square.
ANSWER "A"When you have two dependent variables (weight and strength), you would need a test that can handle two Dvs. Among the four choices here, only the MANOVA can do that. Some people get stuck because they think the MANOVA requires more than one IV, but that's not the case. The requirement is that there is at least one IV and more than one DV.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology30. Linnehan's dialectical behavioral therapy is a combination of psychoeducation and cognitive therapy that involves A intensive individual sessions.B family therapy.C individual and group sessions.D group therapy.
ANSWER "C"Linnehan uses dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT) in the treatment of Borderline Personality Disorder. DBT is a type of cognitive behavioral therapy that emphasizes social skills training, self-soothing exercises, and group dynamics. The patient is offered intensive individual and group sessions that are a combination of psychoeducation and cognitive therapy. DBT has been shown to reduce hospitalization and self-mutilating behavior (Linnehan, Heard, and Armstrong, 1993).
Developmental Psychology31. A child in Piaget's autonomous stage of moral development is most likely to agree that: A if you break a rule while playing a game, you'll be punished.B rules are made to be broken.C game rules can be changed if everyone who is playing the game agrees.D game rules can be changed only if a parent or teacher says it's okay.
ANSWER "C"Piaget distinguished between heteronomous and autonomous stages in moral development. Heteronomous morality is characteristic of preschool children who believe that rules are absolute and unchangeable. A child in the autonomous stage views rules as more arbitrary and changeable by consensus.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology32. A person with Bipolar II Disorder would have no history of A manic episodes.B hypomanic episodes.C major depressive episodes.D manic or major depressive episodes.
ANSWER "A"Bipolar II Disorder is diagnosed when the person has a history of at least one major depressive episode and at least one hypomanic episode. By definition, the person has never had a manic or mixed episode (otherwise, the diagnosis would be Bipolar I Disorder).
Clinical Psychology33. Client-therapist matching of ethnicity is a good predictor of A treatment length.B treatment outcome.C both treatment length and outcome.D neither treatment length nor outcome.
ANSWER "A"While the findings are not entirely clear, overall there is a greater impact on premature termination rather than outcome, due to ethnic matching. It also seems that some groups are more likely to benefit than others. When there are benefits, they are usually related more to dropout rates than to treatment effectiveness.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology34. Research investigating the relationship between sexual abuse in childhood and the development of Bulimia Nervosa in adulthood has found: A the same rate as in the general population.B a higher rate for children who were sexually abused.C no significant relationship.D a significant relationship for men but not for women.
ANSWER "B"Although some research suggests that there is no relationship between sexual abuse and Bulimia and other Eating Disorders, we have reviewed more recent research that suggests that children who are sexually abused are more at risk.
Clinical Psychology35. According to the theory of psychopathology on which Beck's model of cognitive therapy is based, which of the following is true regarding the role of schema? A Dysfunctional schemas always cause problems, even if they are not associated with symptomatic behavior.B Certain types of schema, known as "core schema" are not accessible to the conscious mind.C Schemas govern cognition but not other psychological phenomena such as memory, affect, or motivation.D Dysfunctional schema develop over the course of life experience beginning in childhood.
ANSWER "D"According to Beck, schemas are relatively stable cognitive patterns on which attention to and interpretations of external events are based. In a depressed individual, the person's interpretation of external events is distorted to fit the schema. For example, a person who views him- or herself as worthless and deserving rejection will tend to interpret the statements and behaviors of others as rejection. Beck believed that life experiences, beginning in childhood, provide the basis for forming schemas. As an example, the belief that all losses are irreversible is a core schema that may have been formed due in large part to the death of a parent in childhood.Let's briefly go through the other choices. Choice A is incorrect because not all schemas -- even dysfunctional schemas -- cause problems. This is because, according to Beck, some schemas are inactive and remain so unless they are activated by external events. Choice B is wrong because Beck believed that schemas -- including core schemas, or basic assumptions about oneself and the world -- are readily available to the patient's conscious mind; this is one way that he distinguishes the cognitive therapy approach from psychoanalysis. And choice C is wrong because Beck believed that schemas are involved in memory, affect, and motivation, as well as all other functions related to perception and information processing.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology36. If the normal clinical dose of methylphenidate is given to a child who does not have ADHD, you would expect the child to: A exhibit severe manic-like symptoms. B exhibit an increased attention span.C exhibit drowsiness and fatigue.D show no change in behavior.
ANSWER "B"Methylphenidate (Ritalin), a central nervous system stimulant, was originally described as having a paradoxical effect only for children and adolescents with ADHD. However, subsequent research found similar effects in normal children and adults.
Industrial/Organizational Psychology37. A college graduate is hired by a small firm and is promised bonuses and promotions based on his work performance. After working at the firm for two years, he has not received a bonus, raise, or promotion, despite the fact that he has regularly worked overtime and is generally recognized to be one of the firm's best workers by the other employees. From the perspective of expectancy theory, which of the following would be lowered in the man as a result of this experience? A valenceB expectancyC instrumentalityD idealism
ANSWER "C"According to expectancy theory, motivation is a function of expectancy, valence, and instrumentality. Instrumentality refers to the degree to which performance leads to certain desired outcomes. In this situation, the man's performance is not leading to promotions and bonuses; as a result, according to the theory, instrumentality and, as a result, motivation, would be lowered.Valence refers to the importance of outcomes that follow from performance. In this situation, valence would be related to how much the man values promotions and bonuses. And expectancy refers to belief that effort will pay off in performance. In this situation, expectancy refers to the man's belief that working hard would lead to good performance on the job.
Research Design and Statistics38. During a research study the participants are able to guess the research hypothesis, causing them to behave differently than they would under normal conditions. This phenomenon is due to: A demand characteristicsB the Hawthorne effectC the use of a quasi-experimental designD the use of psychic research participants
ANSWER "A"Demand characteristics are cues in a research study that allow participants to guess the hypothesis. As a result, participants may behave differently than they would under normal conditions. The Hawthorne effect (B) is a similar phenomenon, but refers to the tendency of research participants to behave differently due to the mere fact they are participating in research – rather than due to cues about how they are expected to behave. Quasi-experimental designs (C) are simply designs which do not randomly assign participants to groups. Finally, Choice D is a possible, but less probable, cause of this phenomenon.
Clinical Psychology39. The final stage in Atkinson, Morten, and Sue's Minority Identity Development Model is characterized by: A identification with the majority group and dis-identification with the minority groupB identification with the minority group and dis-identification with the majority groupC disillusionment with both the minority group and the majority groupD biculturalism or multiculturalism
ANSWER "D"In the final stage of the Minority Identity Development Model (which was later renamed the Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model) "the person becomes bicultural or multicultural without a sense of having sold out his/her integrity" [D. W. Sue and D. Sue, Counseling the culturally different: Theory and practice, 3rd edition,1999, New York, John Wiley, p. 136].
Clinical Psychology40. Which of the following variables is most strongly related to a preference for therapists of the same racial group in African-American psychotherapy clients? A educationB IQ scoreC racial/cultural identificationD presenting issue
ANSWER "C"Research shows that the stronger a client's identification is with his or her racial or cultural background, the more likely he or she is to prefer a therapist from a similar background.
Industrial/Organizational Psychology41. The responses of interviewees, when using a structured interview, are evaluated by: A interviewer subjectivityB “utility analysis” C pre-specified criteria D “subject matter experts” consensus
ANSWER "C"C. In a structured interview, a series of job-related questions with predetermined “correct” answers are used consistently with all interviewees for a particular job. An advantage of this technique is the provision of individual item scores and a total score that are derived from prespecified criteria. To predict job performance, the interview score can then be combined with scores on other selection procedures in a multiple regression equation or similar technique. Another advantage of the structured interview is that it reduces the impact of interviewer subjectivity (a.). A utility analysis (b.) considers the procedure’s validity coefficient, employee job performance variability (typically in dollar value of output or mean output), and the selection ratio to evaluate the practical value of a selection procedure. Subject matter experts (d.) are one of several methods for determining scores to responses to a structured interview. .
Diagnosis and Psychopathology42. In pre-adolescence, Panic Disorder is A impossible to distinguish from Separation Anxiety DisorderB not diagnosed since pre-adolescents cannot exhibit any of the cognitive symptoms of Panic DisorderC most likely manifested as chest pain, tachycardia, shortness of breath, and refusal to go to schoolD most likely manifested as chest pain, tachycardia, shortness of breath, and a feeling of "going crazy"
ANSWER "C"The onset for Panic Disorder typically occurs between late adolescence and the mid-30s. However, a small number of cases do begin in childhood. Although not all theorists agree on whether or not children have the cognitive ability to catastrophize, the research indicates that 6 to 12-year-olds are capable of experiencing panic attacks, typically manifested as chest pain, tachycardia, shortness of breath, and refusal to go to school.
Community Psychology43. The head of a psychological clinic hires a consultant to help therapists deal with some particularly difficult cases at the agency. This is an example of A consultee-centered administrative consultation.B client-centered administrative consultation.C consultee-centered case consultation.D client-centered case consultation.
ANSWER "D"Client-centered case consultation involves working with the consultee (here, the therapists) to develop a plan to work more effectively with a particular client or clients (here, the clinic's patients). By contrast, in consultee-centered case consultation, the focus is on problems in the consultee (e.g., psychological problems, lack of skill) rather than on problems in the clients. And in both client-centered and consultee-centered administrative consultation, the focus is on program-wide administrative problems, rather than on problems in individual clients or therapists.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology44. Which of the following is true about children with Learning Disorders? A Co-existing disorders are no more common in these children then among members of the general population.B Although children with Learning Disorders are more likely to have co-existing disorders, as adults, they do not differ from members of the general population in terms of psychopathology.C Children with Learning Disorders have higher rates of some disorders and, as adults, continue to exhibit more problems than members of the general population.D Children with Learning Disorders are less likely to have other mental disorders than members of the general population.
ANSWER "C"It makes sense that children who have serious learning problems would continue to have difficulties as adults, which eliminates responses a, b, and d. Also, the studies have clearly found that children with Learning Disorders are at higher risk for certain other disorders in childhood including ADHD, Oppositional Defiant Disorder, Conduct Disorder, and Major Depression.
Industrial/Organizational Psychology45. According to the results of meta-analyses, which of the following statements regarding gender and leadership style is true? A Men tend to use more of a participatory leadership style, while women tend to use more of an autocratic style.B Women tend to use more of a participatory leadership style, while men tend to use more of an autocratic style.C Men tend to use more of an autocratic style of leadership, but no general statements about women's typical leadership style can be made.D There are no overall differences between the sexes in terms of leadership style.
ANSWER "B"The results of meta-analyses suggest that there are slight but statistically significant overall differences between men and women in leadership style. Specifically, women tend to adopt a more democratic or participatory leadership style, characterized by a greater concern with maintenance of interpersonal relationships and task accomplishments. Men, on the other hand, tend to adopt a more autocratic style.
Clinical Psychology46. According to meta-analytic studies of psychotherapy, A so few well-controlled studies have been done that no conclusions can be made concerning treatment outcome.B behavior therapy is better than psychoanalysis.C behavior therapy is the treatment of choice for phobias.D a person participating in therapy would have just as much chance of improving as a control subject.
ANSWER "C"The research on psychotherapy outcome is pretty consistent in its conclusions. Common findings include that therapy is generally effective for children and adults of all backgrounds and that, with the exception of certain specific problem areas, all therapies are about equal. This question is about one of those exceptions. According to outcome research, phobias respond best to behavioral techniques such as exposure treatments.
Test Construction47. In a factor analysis, an eigenvalue corresponds to A the number of latent variables.B the strength of the relationship between factors.C the level of significance of the factor analysis.D the explained variance of one of the factors.
ANSWER "D"When a factor analysis produces a series of factors, it is useful to determine how much of the variance is accounted for by each factor. An eigenvalue is based on the factor loadings of all the variables in the factor analysis to a particular factor. When the factor loadings are high, the eigenvalue will be large. A large eigenvalue would mean that a particular factor accounts for a large proportion of the variance among the variables.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology48. During the acute phase, hypoglycemia is most likely to be misdiagnosed as: A Schizophrenia.B Major Depression.C Panic Disorder.D Dementia.
ANSWER "C"Many of the endocrine disorders produce symptoms that can be mistaken for a psychiatric illness. Hypoglycemia has both acute and chronic phases, which involve different symptoms. During the acute phase, which this question is asking about, symptoms include panic and anxiety. However, these are replaced during the chronic phase with depression, psychosis, and/or personality change.
Industrial/Organizational Psychology49. A man reports that he is dissatisfied with his low-level job on an assembly line. He says that money is the only reason he is doing his work. According to Herzberg, what would be the best way to increase this person's job motivation? A give him a greater number of jobs to doB give him more responsibilityC give him more moneyD give him a longer lunch break
ANSWER "B"According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, need satisfiers can be divided into two types: hygiene factors and motivators. The absence of hygiene factors (e.g., money, security) results in dissatisfaction; however, their presence does not lead to satisfaction. By contrast, the presence of motivators (e.g., responsibility, power, self-esteem) results in satisfaction; however, their absence does not lead to dissatisfaction. Therefore, to increase a worker's motivation, one would have to add factors such as responsibility to his or her job. Increased money or security will reduce any dissatisfaction, but will not increase motivation or satisfaction.
Developmental Psychology50. The best overall conclusion about psychological outcomes for children who are raised by two lesbian parents is that A such children are no more likely to have negative developmental outcomes than children raised by heterosexual parents.B boys raised by lesbian parents are more likely than girls to have negative developmental outcomes.C girls raised by lesbian parents are more likely than boys to have negative developmental outcomes.D regardless of their gender, such children are more likely to have negative developmental outcomes than children raised by heterosexual parents.
ANSWER "A"Most research has found that being raised by gay or lesbian parents does not increase the risk of negative developmental outcomes in children. For instance, a recent, comprehensive review of the literature found no support for the hypothesis that children of lesbians and children of heterosexual differ in terms of emotional health, interpersonal relations, sexual orientation, or gender development. The same review found that lesbian and heterosexual mothers do not differ significantly in terms of psychological adjustment or parenting skill.
Industrial/Organizational Psychology51. Research about job experience with the four day workweek suggests that it is correlated with: A Satisfaction and productivityB Absenteeism and satisfactionC Productivity onlyD Satisfaction, but not absenteeism or productivity
ANSWER "B"Research on the effects of the CWW is mixed. Overall however, productivity is usually unaffected, absenteeism usually declines, and job satisfaction tends to increase, especially among younger and lower-level employees.
Test Construction52. Which of the following illustrates the concept of shrinkage? A extremely depressed individuals obtain a high score on a depression inventory the first time they take it, but obtain a slightly lower score the second time they take itB items that have collectively been shown to be a valid way to diagnose a sample of individuals as depressed prove to be less valid when used for a different sampleC the self-esteem of depressed individuals shrinks when they are faced with very difficult tasksD abilities such as short-term memory and response speed diminish as we get older
ANSWER "B"Shrinkage can be an issue when a predictor test is developed by testing out a pool of items on a validation ("try-out") sample and then choosing the items that have the highest correlation with the criterion. When the chosen items are administered to a second sample, they usually don't work quite as well -- in other words, the validity coefficient shrinks. This occurs because of chance factors operating in the original validation sample that are not present in the second sample.
Clinical Psychology53. Premature termination would be most likely to occur when A an African-American client has a Caucasian therapist.B an African-American client has an African-American therapist.C a Caucasian client has an African-American therapist.D a Caucasian client has a Caucasian therapist.
ANSWER "A"Research with African-American clients on the relationship between therapist-client racial similarity and therapy effectiveness has yielded contradictory results and suggests that this relationship is mitigated by a variety of factors. A clearer relationship exists between similarity and premature termination, with the probability of premature dropout increasing when an African-American client works with a racially dissimilar therapist.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology54. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures are associated with A grand mal epilepsy.B petit mal epilepsy.C Jacksonian epilepsy.D temporal lobe epilepsy.
ANSWER "A"Generalized tonic-clonic seizure is the name for what was previously referred to as grand mal seizure; thus, choice "a" is the best answer. These seizures involve episodes of violent shaking, during which the person becomes blue and stiff. There may also be an increase in heart rate and blood pressure. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures may last up to an hour, and afterward the person falls into a deep sleep.
Research Design and Statistics55. When processing data of "low quality," from small samples, or on variables about which nothing is known concerning their distribution, which statistical procedure would be most appropriate? A parametricB non-parametricC path analysisD discriminant function analysis
ANSWER "B"B. Nonparametric methods were developed to be used in cases when the researcher knows nothing about the parameters of the variable of interest in the population (hence the name nonparametric). In more technical terms, nonparametric methods do not rely on the estimation of parameters (such as the mean or the standard deviation) describing the distribution of the variable of interest in the population. Therefore, these methods are also sometimes (and more appropriately) called parameter-free methods or distribution-free methods.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology56. The primary difference between Alzheimer's Disease and Korsakoff's Syndrome is that: A Alzheimer's Disease primarily affects declarative memory, while Korsakoff's Syndrome affects procedural memory.B initially, Alzheimer's Disease produces anterograde amnesia, while Korsakoff's Syndrome produces retrograde amnesia.C Alzheimer's Disease involves both memory loss and other cognitive impairments, while Korsakoff's Syndrome involves memory loss without the other cognitive impairments. D Alzheimer's Disease involves cognitive impairments, while Korsakoff's Syndrome involves cognitive impairments and hallucinations and other perceptual disturbances.
ANSWER "C"Alzheimer's Disease is a type of Dementia, which, as defined in DSM-IV, involves memory impairment and other cognitive deficits. In contrast, Korsakoff's Syndrome is categorized in DSM as an Amnestic Disorder, and it is marked by memory loss that may be accompanied by confabulation and unsteady gait and other physical signs.
Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy57. Which of the following is true regarding sensory memory? A It has a very limited capacity.B It can hold information for up to 30 seconds.C It is also referred to as primary memory.D It is a representation of external stimuli.
ANSWER "D"A sensory memory is a representation of an external stimulus after the stimulus has ended. Sensory memories are believed to be unprocessed copies of the original stimuli which briefly reside in the sensory organs. Sensory memory is thought to have an unlimited capacity but a very short duration (no more than 2 or 3 seconds). "Primary memory" (C) and "secondary memory" are terms originally used by William James and these later became known as "short-term memory" and "long-term memory."
Social Psychology58. A job applicant tells his friend that he's nervous because of his upcoming job interview. When the applicant sees other nervous-looking job applicants in the waiting room before his interview, he believes that they are generally nervous people. This is an example of: A self-serving biasB actor-observer effectC social comparison effectD projective identification
ANSWER "B"The actor-observer effect is the tendency to overestimate situational factors and underestimate dispositional factors regarding one's own behaviors and to underestimate situational factors and overestimate dispositional factors in others. Self-serving bias (A) is the tendency to take credit for our successes and to blame situational factors for our failures. Choice C is not a type of attribution bias. Projective identification (D) is a defense mechanism in which one or more parts of the self are falsely attributed to another, which are then unconsciously accepted by the recipient, and the projector then identifies with the projected part in the other.
Industrial/Organizational Psychology59. Transactional leaders who wait for mistakes to be brought to their attention before taking corrective action are engaging in: A corrective transactionsB contingent rewardingC passive management-by-exceptionD active management-by-exception
ANSWER "C"C. Transactional leadership, in its simplest form, is leadership by contingent reinforcement. The leaders' rewards, promises and/or threats of disciplinary actions or punishments motivate the followers. In constructive transactions, the leader may participate in discussing what is to be done in exchange for implicit or explicit rewards and the allocation of desired resources, or they give out assignments, negotiate or contract with followers. The actions of the leader are contingent on whether the followers do what they have been "contracted" to do. Leaders that take corrective action with negative feedback or reprimand only after followers' mistakes have been called to their attention are engaging in passive management-by-exception. In corrective transactions (a.) or contingent rewarding (b.), leaders engage in active management-by-exception (d.) which means they monitor followers’ performance and correct their mistakes if and when they occur.
Clinical Psychology60. A psychologist who drinks five cups of coffee before each therapy session in order to be alert has decided that she will "go cold turkey" at the beginning of the next month. Prochaska and DiClemente (1992) would say that she is in the following stage of change. A contemplationB preparationC actionD maintenance
ANSWER "B"This is one of those rare theories where the name of the stages actually sounds like what they signify. Prochaska and DiClemente listed five stages in the change process. The first stage is precontemplation when the person has little insight that there is a need for change. The second stage (answer A) is contemplation; the person is aware of and considering the need for change, but has not committed to it. The third stage is preparation (answer B) which is an indication of the person's clear intent to take action in the future. Taking that action is the fourth stage (answer C). Maintenance (answer D) is when our psychologist consolidates the change and takes steps to prevent the relapse (Stages of change in the modification of problem behaviors, in M.Hersen et al,. eds. Progress in Behavior Modification, Vol. 28, Sycamore, IL, 1992).
Diagnosis and Psychopathology61. Behavioral treatments for depression focus on increasing pleasurable activities and/or A flooding.B social skills training.C overcorrection.D self-instructional training.
ANSWER "B"Behavioral explanations for depression focus on the role of too little reinforcement and too much punishment. Behavioral interventions attempt to reverse this situation by, for example, helping clients develop better social skills so that they will have more pleasurable social interactions.
Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy62. Craik and Lockhart's Levels of Processing Theory would predict that in order to maximize recall of a list of words a person should: A memorize the first letters of each of the wordsB memorize the sequence of the wordsC make up a rhyme using the words D recreate the exact mental state that was experienced during the first exposure to the words
ANSWER "C"The Levels of Processing Theory is an alternative to stage theories of memory. The levels of processing theory proposes that stimuli are processed at different levels, and the deeper the level of processing, the more likely it will be remembered. That is why techniques such as elaborative rehearsal, in which a person thinks about the meaning of new information and its relation to existing memories, is more effective than more superficial approaches such as "mindless" repetition. Of the choices offered in this question, rhyming would be the deepest, and therefore, most effective way to enhance recall.
Neuropsychology63. Which of the following medications is least likely to cause anticholinergic symptoms? A ImipramineB FluoxetineC AmitriptylineD Venlafaxine
ANSWER "B"The anticholinergic effects, which include dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention and tachycardia, are much more likely to result from the tricylics or heterocyclics than the SSRI's. Of the choices listed only Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an SSRI. Imipramine (Tofranil) and Amitriptyline (Elavil) are tricyclics and Venlafaxine (Effexor) is a heterocyclic.
Neuropsychology64. Anosognosia is most often due to damage to the: A corpus callosumB left temporal lobeC right parietal lobeD occipital lobe
ANSWER "C"Anosognosia is an inability, or unwillingness, to recognize one's own functional impairment. It most often occurs in people who have left-sided hemiplegia due to damage to the right parietal lobe. Many of these patients maintain normal intellectual functioning, despite the serious lack of self-awareness of their physical disability. The parietal lobe contains the somatosensory cortex which is normally responsible for integrating somatosensory information with visual and other sensory information.
Developmental Psychology65. According to the concept of "homeostasis," if a married woman's depressive symptoms improve, we can expect that which of the following will be most likely to occur? A increased support from her husbandB depressive symptoms in her husbandC rejection by all family membersD overall improvement in the family's symptoms
ANSWER "B""Homeostasis" refers to the tendency for any system to react toward restoring the status quo in the event of any change. Homeostasis is automatically disturbed as individuals in a family grow into new developmental stages or "get better" after having had depressive or other symptoms. Therefore, when someone recovers, to restore a homeostatic balance, family members may either sabotage the recovered member's improvement or become symptomatic themselves. Thus, if the woman's depressive symptoms improve, the concept of homeostasis would predict that depressive symptoms might develop in her husband.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology66. For a diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa, a person must have a history of binge eating and A a sense of a lack of control over eating for at least three months.B purging for at least six months.C inappropriate compensatory behavior for at least three months.D vomiting, use of diuretics, or excessive exercising for at least four months.
ANSWER "C"This question is simply requiring you to be familiar with the DSM-IV diagnostic criteria for Bulimia Nervosa – i.e., (1) binge eating (which includes a sense of a lack of control) and (2) inappropriate compensatory behavior in order to lose weight (e.g., purging, excessive exercise) for three months or more.
Industrial/Organizational Psychology67. Research on goal-setting theory suggests that it is: A applicable to the performance of males but not females.B applicable only to females in managerial-level jobs. C applicable to females when goals are set participatively but not when they are assigned.D applicable to both males and females whether goals are set participatively or are assigned.
ANSWER "D"Very few studies have attempted to determine if there are differences between males and females in goal-setting behavior. The existing studies suggest that, overall, the predictions of goal-setting theory are equally applicable to both genders, although there may be some minor differences. For example, at least one study found that females prefer mastery goals over social comparison goals.
Community Psychology68. Approximately what percentage of those now entering the labor force are racial/ethnic minorities and women? A 45%B 55%C 65% D 75%
ANSWER "D"D. The changing complexion and feminization of the workforce has become a reality with racial/ethnic minorities and women compromising about 75% of the new entries into the labor force. The diversity index of the United States stands at 49, indicating that nearly half the people selected at random are racially or ethnically different. Racial/ethnic minority students constitute 45% of the population in U.S. public schools; some school systems in California reached 50% in the late 80s. It is estimated Visible Racial/Ethnic Minority Groups (VREG) will constitute a numerical majority sometime between 2030 and 2050.
Ethics and Professional Practice69. You have been attempting to collect payment from a former patient of yours who did not pay for his final two months of therapy. One day, you get a letter from a state hospital where that former patient is now currently a patient. The letter includes a request for a copy of your records of the patient's treatment along with a signed release of information. In this situation, you should A refuse to supply any information to the hospital until the bill is paid.B send a summary of the records to the hospital along with a copy of a bill for the unpaid therapy fees.C go to the hospital and talk to the patient about the situation.D provide the information requested by the hospital.
ANSWER "D"The issue here is that you can't withhold records under your control that are “requested and needed for a client's/patient's emergency treatment solely because payment has not been received (Ethical Standard 6.03). Thus, you must provide the requested information in this instance.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology70. The best way to make an accurate and reliable diagnosis of Alzheimer's Disease is by way of A neuroimaging techniques (e.g., CT scan, MRI).B a brain autopsy.C ongoing observation of the patient.D mental status exam.
ANSWER "B"The key words in this question are "accurate and reliable." There is no laboratory test available which confirms definitively Alzheimer's Disease. Diagnosis of the disorder involves confirming that the diagnostic criteria are met and ruling out other possible causes of the Dementia. Diagnosis is aided by the use of neuroimaging techniques, such as computerized tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and positive-emission tomography (PET). Indeed, properly applied diagnostic techniques result in an 85% accuracy rate in diagnosing the disorder. However, at this time, the only way to absolutely confirm the diagnosis is via brain autopsy or biopsy.
Ethics and Professional Practice71. A psychologist compliments several of his co-workers on their clothing. One of his female co-workers indicates that she is not comfortable with these type of comments and asks him to stop. He complies with her request. His behavior is: A UnacceptableB UnethicalC Sexual harrassmentD Acceptable
ANSWER "D"His behavior is acceptable. According to Standard 3.02 (Sexual Harassment): “Sexual harassment is sexual solicitation, physical advances, or verbal or nonverbal conduct that is sexual in nature, that occurs in connection with the psychologist's activities or roles as a psychologist, and that either (1) is unwelcome, is offensive, or creates a hostile workplace or educational environment, and the psychologist knows or is told this or (2) is sufficiently severe or intense to be abusive to a reasonable person in the context. Sexual harassment can consist of a single intense or severe act or of multiple persistent or pervasive acts." In this case the co-worker evidently found the psychologist's comments offensive. The psychologist upon learning this stopped his behavior.
Developmental Psychology72. Non-consensual childhood sexual abuse generally has a: A more negative impact for females than malesB more negative impact for males than femalesC similar impact for males and femalesD similar impact for males and females but a very different pattern of symptoms
ANSWER "C"This is a difficult question because the research results on childhood sexual abuse are inconsistent. Many studies have found no consistent gender differences in impact or pattern of symptoms, while other studies have found a more negative impact for females than for males. One of the complicating factors has been the definition of childhood sexual abuse – which includes consensual sex involving a minor when there is a significant age difference between the two parties. However, when only non-consensual types of childhood sexual abuse are examined, males and females are equivalently affected [B. Rind, P. Tromovitch, R. Bauserman, A meta-analytic examination of assumed properties of child sexual abuse using college samples, Psychological Bulletin, 124(1), 1998, 22-53].
Diagnosis and Psychopathology73. A 12-year-old child has been exhibiting several motor tics and a vocal tic many times each day for the past 6 months. The most likely diagnosis is: A Transient Tic Disorder B Tourette's DisorderC Chronic Motor or Vocal Tic DisorderD Tic Disorder Not Otherwise Specified
ANSWER "A"According to the DSM-IV-TR, the Tic Disorders can be differentiated from one another based on duration, variety of tics, and age at onset. Transient Tic Disorder includes motor and/or vocal tics lasting at least 4 weeks but for no longer than 12 consecutive months. Choices B and C could be eliminated because Tourette's Disorder and Chronic Motor or Vocal Tic Disorder each have a duration of more than 12 months. Finally, Tic Disorder NOS (D) would be appropriate when symptoms last less than 4 weeks, for onset above 18 years, or if an individual presented with only one motor tic and only one vocal tic.
School Psychology/Intelligence74. The WAIS-III measures working memory with which of the following subtests? A matrix reasoningB block designC arithmeticD digit symbol-coding
ANSWER "C"The arithmetic subtest along with the digit span subtest and letter-number sequencing subtest are used as measures of the Working Memory Factor. Matrix reasoning (answer A) and block design (answer B) are part of the Perceptual Organization Factor. Digit-symbol coding (answer D) is included in the Perceptual Speed Factor.
Social Psychology75. Jane describes her friend Mike to her other friend Mary, as "intelligent, hard-working, stubborn, and critical." A week later Mary is most likely to remember Mike as: A intelligentB hard-workingC stubbornD critical
ANSWER "A"Research has found that people are more likely to recall the first item (primacy effect) and the last item (recency effect) in a series of presented items. The relative magnitude of these two effects varies depending on the length of the time interval. Within the first few seconds after presentation of a series of items, the recency effect is more powerful. However, for longer intervals, the primacy effect has been shown to be stronger (A. Knoedler, K. Hellwig, & I. Neath, The shift from recency to primacy with increasing delay. Journal of Experimental Psychology: Learning, Memory, and Cognition, 1999, 25(2), 474-487).
Industrial/Organizational Psychology76. According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, an employee who is happy with which of the following job elements will most likely be satisfied with her job? A job contentB relationships with coworkersC payD job security
ANSWER "A"Herzberg's two-factor theory divides job elements into two types: hygiene factors and motivators. Hygiene factors result in job dissatisfaction when absent, but do not lead to job satisfaction when present. Motivators result in job satisfaction when present, but do not lead to dissatisfaction when absent. Of the choices listed, only job content is a motivator. According to the theory, motivators are intrinsic to the work (i.e., they have to do with the job itself), while hygiene factors are extrinsic to the work. The other three choices are not directly related to the job itself and are classified by Herzberg as hygiene factors.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology77. Two patients each meet DSM-IV-TR criteria for Borderline Personality Disorder; however, they only share one symptom. This is because the: A DSM-IV-TR uses a dimensional approach.B DSM-IV-TR uses criteria which are vague and poorly defined.C DSM-IV-TR uses a polythetic criteria set.D Clinicians misdiagnosed one or both of the patients.
ANSWER "C"Most of the diagnoses in the DSM-IV-TR include a polythetic criteria set, which means that, for a diagnosis to be made, a person may have some but not all of the possible diagnostic criteria. Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) requires the presence of five (or more) symptoms out of a list of nine items. Thus, two patients could each meet the criteria for BPD but only share one of the symptoms. For example, one patient could meet criteria # 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 and the other patient could meet criteria # 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9. In this case they would only share criteria # 5. Choice A is incorrect, because the DSM-IV-TR uses a categorical approach, rather than a dimensional approach. A categorical approach divides categories, in this case, mental disorders, based on criteria sets. A dimensional approach would quantify patients' symptoms based on severity. Contrary to Choice B, most of the DSM-IV-TR criteria are clear and well-defined. Choice D can be eliminated because the question stem indicates that both patients meet the DSM-IV criteria, which should be assumed to be a valid statement.
Research Design and Statistics78. A colleague of yours is interested in studying the effects of aging on IQ scores. He consults with you for some ideas regarding how to proceed with this research. Which of the following types of research designs would you recommend? A longitudinalB cross-sectionalC cross-sequentialD multiple baseline
ANSWER "C"The colleague is interested in conducting developmental research, in which the effects of development (e.g., aging) on a dependent variable (in this case, IQ scores) are investigated. Longitudinal, cross-sectional, and cross-sequential are all types of developmental research designs. Of these, cross-sequential research is the strongest from a scientific point of view. Cross-sequential research is a combination of cross-sectional and longitudinal research. In cross-sequential research, as in cross-sectional research, subjects are divided into age groups (e.g., young, middle-aged, and old). And, as in longitudinal research, subjects are assessed repeatedly on the dependent variable over time. Because cross-sequential research combines the methodology of the two strategies, it is not associated with the limitations of one or the other.
Clinical Psychology79. According to Atkinson, Sue, and Sue, the ideal outcome of racial/cultural identity development is A full acceptance of one's own culture.B giving individual identity priority over cultural identity.C recognizing that all cultures have acceptable and unacceptable aspects.D recognizing the impact of racial/cultural oppression on one's mental health.
ANSWER "C"The final stage in Atkinson et al.'s racial/cultural identity development model is referred to as the "integrative awareness stage." Individuals in this stage recognize that all cultures have both positive and negative aspects and decide which aspects they want to accept or reject.
Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy80. According to behavioral theory, depression is generally considered to result from: A negative punishmentB noncontingent punishmentC prolonged extinctionD having to make finer and finer stimulus discriminations
ANSWER "C"There are several behavioral models of depression but probably the oldest is the operant conditioning model, which describes it as the result of being on an extinction schedule for an extended period of time. The depressed person has had little or no access to reinforcement.
Developmental Psychology81. Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of diabetes for adolescents and children? A Adolescents are more likely than children to show noncompliance with the prescribed treatment regimen.B Children are more likely than adolescents to show noncompliance with the prescribed treatment regimen.C Adolescents and children are equally likely to show noncompliance with the prescribed treatment regimen.D Both children and adolescents are likely to have little or no problems with the prescribed treatment regimen.
ANSWER "A"When children with a disability or a chronic illness reach adolescence, problems often arise due to their increased awareness and understanding of the problem, coupled with an enhanced desire to be similar to their peers. Sometimes, the adolescent may become depressed and act-out in ways that, given the person's condition, are gravely dangerous. For instance, the adolescent may show reduced compliance with the prescribed treatment regimen.
Developmental Psychology82. Which of the following is the most valid predictor of post-divorce adjustment in children two years after the divorce? A whether children got to live with the parent they wantedB the degree to which parents fought before the divorceC whether or not parents are engaged in ongoing conflict after the divorceD how the children felt during the divorce process.
ANSWER "C"Many researchers have noted that continued exposure of children to parental conflict -- whether it be while their parents are married, during the divorce process, or after a divorce -- is associated with a variety of adverse effects and is a very high risk factor for maladjustment.
Research Design and Statistics83. Which one of the following is least likely to attenuate a measure of correlation? A restricted rangeB homoscedasticityC curvilinear relationshipD the use of unreliable measures
ANSWER "B"Homoscedasticity refers to even scatter around the regression line. Homoscedasticity is actually a good thing. It wouldn't attenuate the correlation at all. The other three choices list factors that would attenuate the correlation coefficient.
Neuropsychology84. Korsakoff's Syndrome is characterized by: A anterograde amnesia without retrograde amnesia.B anterograde amnesia and retrograde amnesia that involves a temporal gradient in which remote events are recalled better than recent events.C anterograde amnesia and retrograde amnesia that involves a temporal gradient in which recent events are recalled better than remote events.D anterograde amnesia and "flat" retrograde amnesia in which deficits in remote and recent memory are about the same.
ANSWER "B"
Research Design and Statistics85. A percentile rank is A a norm-referenced score, but not a standard score.B a standard score, but not a norm-referenced score.C a standard score and a norm-referenced score.D neither a standard score nor a norm-referenced score.
ANSWER "A"To answer this question, you have to be able to define and understand three terms: norm-referenced, standard score, and percentile rank. A norm-referenced score is one that is interpreted in terms of a comparison to others who have taken the same test. A standard score is a type of norm-referenced score that is interpreted in terms of how many standard deviation units a score falls above or below the mean. Examples include z-scores and T-scores. A percentile rank indicates the percentage of scores that fall below a given score. For example, a person who achieves a percentile rank of 90 on the SAT scored better than 90% of others who took the test. Since interpretation of percentile ranks involves a comparison between scorers, a percentile rank is a norm-referenced score. However, since it is not interpreted in terms of standard deviation units, it is not a standard score.
Clinical Psychology86. A culturally-encapsulated therapist: A exhibits a bias that involves interpreting all of the presenting problems of minority clients as the direct result of cultural factors. B has had little or no contact with members of minority groups and exhibits a lack of interest in working with these individuals in therapy.C attempts to overcome his or her cultural biases by adopting a "culture-blind" perspective that may or may not be appropriate.D tends to accept cultural stereotypes about members of minority groups without question and is unaware of his or her cultural biases.
ANSWER "D"The notion of cultural encapsulation was originally described by Wrenn in 1962. A primary characteristic of a culturally-encapsulated counselor is an acceptance (usually unconscious) of traditional cultural stereotypes.
School Psychology/Intelligence87. The primary function of a school psychologist is to A treat children with emotional and/or learning problems.B identify children who need special help and make appropriate referrals.C train classroom teachers in operant learning techniques.D assess, consult, and make recommendations.
ANSWER "D"This was a bit tough because both B and D are correct. However, B is a narrow answer; school psychologists have other functions besides evaluating children and making referrals. They assess children, report their findings, consult with parents and teachers, and make recommendations for further intervention. Their recommendations may or may not involve a referral; for instance, they may recommend an intervention aimed at the teacher or parent rather than the child. In sum, since school psychologists have broad functions, the broader answer is better in this case.
Industrial/Organizational Psychology88. Recent meta-analyses of the research on work-family conflict suggest that it is: A only a problem for married employees.B related more to job satisfaction for men than for women.C related to job satisfaction but not life satisfaction.D related more to life satisfaction for women than for men.
ANSWER "D"Meta-analyses indicate that work-family conflict has an impact on job satisfaction and life satisfaction for both men and women. However, there is some evidence that it's effects for women may be greater, especially in terms of life satisfaction.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology89. According to Brady, the best treatment for reducing a phobic anxiety reaction is one that entails: A actual in-vivo exposure to the anxiety-producing stimulus.B systematic desensitization and imagined exposure to the stimulus.C hierarchical implosion therapy.D graded participant modeling.
ANSWER "A"Research has supported the general principle that the more realistic the treatment situation, the better the result with phobias and fears.
Social Psychology90. The results of the Robber's Cave experiment (Sherif et al., 1961) indicated that: A emotional reactions are based upon cognitive interpretations of arousalB superordinate goals reduce hostility between groupsC we prefer to be right rather than happyD we tend to seek, interpret, and create information that verifies our existing beliefs
ANSWER "B"In Sherif's Robber's Cave Study, children in a summer camp were divided into two groups on an arbitrary basis and made to engage in competition with each other. This engendered intergroup hostility and dislike, which was found to be greatly reduced when a task requiring the two groups to cooperate (on superordinate goals) was introduced. Choice A represents Schachter's two-factor theory of emotion. Choice C is a conclusion of Self Verification Theory. And Choice D exemplifies the confirmatory bias.
Research Design and Statistics91. The Solomon four-group design is: A a quasi-experimental designB used to analyze the difference scores among four different treatment groupsC used to reduce practice effectsD used to evaluate the effects of pretesting
ANSWER "D"The Solomon four-group design is a true experimental design used to evaluate the effects of pretesting, since some groups are pretested and others are not.
Clinical Psychology92. The tendency to attribute all behavioral, social and emotional problems to a diagnosis or psychopathology while alternative explanations and comorbid diagnoses are often not considered is referred to as: A diagnostic overshadowingB psychosocial maskingC intellectual distortionD baseline exaggeration
ANSWER "A"A. Research by Reiss et al. (1982) found mental disorders in individuals with mental retardation are often unrecognized, undiagnosed, and untreated. The underestimation was proposed to be the result of a phenomenon called "diagnostic overshadowing," where the presence of mental retardation decreases the diagnostic significance of an accompanying mental health disorder. Or as an example with slow learners there may be the reverse case of diagnostic overshadowing. That is, professionals ignore the real world influences of low intelligence such as poor coping skills, poor social skills, repeated failure experiences and the risk factors associated with poverty and attribute all behavioral, social and emotional problems to psychopathology. The other response choices are three of four non-specific factors associated with mental retardation that influence the diagnostic process: intellectual distortion (c.), emotional symptoms are difficult to elicit because of deficits in abstract thinking and in receptive and expressive language skills; psychosocial masking (b.), the effect of disabilities or limited social experiences on the content of psychiatric symptoms; cognitive disintegration, the tendency to become disorganized under emotional stress or a decreased ability to tolerate stress leading to anxiety-induced decompensation; and baseline exaggeration (d.), the fact that chronic maladaptive behaviors may significantly increase in severity or frequency during a period of emotional stress or after the onset of psychiatric illness. (See: Reiss, S., Levitan, G.W., Szyszko, J. (1982). Emotional Disturbance and Mental Retardation: Diagnostic Overshadowing. American Journal of Mental Deficiency, 86(6), 567-74.)
Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy93. Every time a 6-year-old child uses obscene language his mother reprimands him. Unfortunately, the child's use of obscene language increases. The mother's reprimands can best be described as: A positive reinforcementB negative reinforcementC positive punishmentD intermittent reinforcement
ANSWER "A"Despite the mother's intentions, her reprimands appear to result in an increase in her child's undesirable behavior. The application of a stimulus following a response that increases the frequency of that response is, by definition, positive reinforcement. Punishment, by definition, always decreases the frequency of a behavior – which did not occur in this case. And the mother's behavior is not an example of intermittent reinforcement (D) because she is reprimanding the child every time he uses obscene language.
Test Construction94. When using a rating scale, several psychologists agree on the same diagnosis for one patient. This is a sign that the scale is A reliable.B valid.C reliable and valid.D neither reliable nor valid.
ANSWER "A"The rating scale described by the question has good inter-rater reliability, or consistency across raters. However, it may or may not have good validity; that is, it may or may not measure what it purports to measure. The question illustrates that high reliability is a necessary but not a sufficient condition for high validity.
Neuropsychology95. Presbyopia, a common result of normal aging, is most likely to increase the near point from four inches at 20 years of age to _________ at 60 years of age. A 8 inchesB 12 inchesC 24 inchesD 48 inches
ANSWER "D"As we age the ability of our eyes to focus on objects declines due to a loss of elasticity in the lens of the eye. This condition, known as "presbyopia," typically increases the near point (the shortest distance at which we can focus) from four inches at 20 years of age to about four feet at 60 years of age. Although some people have different rates of decline, presbyopia eventually affects everyone.
Clinical Psychology96. From the perspective of humanistic schools of psychology, psychopathology would be seen as being due to: A man's irrational nature, which interferes with a disciplined course of behaviors to enhance personal growth.B defenses that interfere with one's own natural tendency toward personal growth.C biological factors that inhibit personal growth.D a lack of insight into one's past, which interferes with the tendency toward personal growth in the present.
ANSWER "B"The humanistic school of psychotherapy, which is exemplified by approaches to therapy such as person-centered therapy, Gestalt therapy, and transactional analysis, emphasizes human capacities and potentialities rather than deficiencies. From the humanistic perspective, we have a natural tendency toward self-actualization or personal growth. Neurosis or pathology occurs due to defensive distortions (e.g., blocks to awareness in Gestalt therapy, or conditions of worth in person-centered therapy) that prevent this natural tendency from operating.
Clinical Psychology97. According to Marlatt and Gordon, which of the following most increases the chance of relapse in a substance abuser? A life changesB negative affectsC physiological cravingsD decreased treatment durations due to the limits set by managed care companies
ANSWER "B"Marlatt and Gordon are best known for their Relapse Prevention Therapy which views substance dependence as a collection of maladaptive over-learned habits. According to their research, nearly 75% of all relapses are due to negative affects, interpersonal conflict, and social pressure.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology98. All of the following disorders occur more frequently in children with Tourette's Disorder than in the general population except A Generalized Anxiety Disorder.B Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder.C Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder.D Learning Disorders.
ANSWER "A"According to the DSM-IV, Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder and Learning Disorders are all associated more with children with Tourette's Disorder. However, Generalized Anxiety Disorder is not identified as such.
School Psychology/Intelligence99. A patient with Alzheimer's disease would be likely to obtain the lowest scores on which of the following factor indexes on the WAIS-III? A perceptual organization and processing speedB working memory and perceptual organizationC working memory and processing speedD verbal comprehension and processing speed
ANSWER "A"Patients with Alzheimer's disease do more poorly than "normals" on the WAIS-III, and they tend to obtain higher scores on the Verbal subtests than on the Performance subtests. The Verbal Comprehension and Working Memory factor indexes consist of verbal subtests only, while the Perceptual Organization and Processing Speed factor indexes are comprised of performance subtests, which explains why their performance is likely to be poorer on the latter two indexes. See, for example, The Psychological Corporation, WAIS-III and WMS-III Technical Manual, 1997, San Antonio, TX.
Social Psychology100. According to the Health Belief model, health behaviors such as participation in screening and prevention programs is most related to A societal norms.B a combination of genetic and early childhood environment factors.C the person's perceptions about things such as the threat and severity of illness, the likelihood of treatment success, and the barriers to effective treatment.D the person's intelligence level and skill in meeting the demands of daily life.
ANSWER "C"The Health Belief Model (HBM) is a psychological model that attempts to explain and predict health behaviors by focusing on the attitudes and beliefs of individuals. According to the model, a variety of perceptions influence health behavior, including perceived risk of contracting a given health condition, perceived severity of that condition, perceived effectiveness of strategies to reduce the threat or illness, and perceived consequences of taking a given health action.
Developmental Psychology101. As compared to children who speak one language, young children who speak a second language show A delayed mental abilities.B greater cognitive flexibility.C better psychological adjustment.D poorer peer relations.
ANSWER "B"Research suggests that compared to their monolingual counterparts, bilingual children perform better on tests of cognitive flexibility, analytical reasoning, concept formation, and metalinguistic awareness.
School Psychology/Intelligence102. The questions on the Mini-Mental Status Exam concentrate on: A abnormal mental experiencesB cognitive aspects of mental functionsC the form of thinkingD mood or affective aspects of mental functions
ANSWER "B"B. The Mini-Mental Status Exam (MMSE) is a simplified, scored form of the cognitive mental status examination. It is "mini" because it concentrates only on the cognitive aspects of mental functions, and unlike the Mental Status Exam, excludes questions concerning abnormal mental experiences (a.), the form of thinking (c.) and mood (d.). It is thorough within the cognitive realm assessing orientation, memory, attention and calculation, registration and language. The MMSE includes eleven questions, requires only 5-10 minutes to administer and is practical to use serially and routinely. It is especially useful for elderly patients, particularly those with delirium or dementia syndromes, or those who can cooperate well only for short periods.
Developmental Psychology103. Research on the relationship between self-esteem, biological sex and gender-role suggests: A biological sex has a greater impact than gender role on self-esteem in childrenB biological sex has a greater impact than gender role on self-esteem in males C a combination of masculine and feminine characteristics and preferences is associated with the highest levels of self-esteem in malesD a combination of masculine and feminine characteristics and preferences is associated with the highest levels of self-esteem in children
ANSWER "D"D. J. A. Hall and A. G. Halberstadt’s original research found gender-role identity to have a greater impact than biological sex on self-esteem in children and that androgyny (both masculine and feminine preferences and characteristics) is associated with the highest levels of self-esteem in both boys and girls (See: J. A. Hall & A. G. Halberstadt. Masculinity and femininity in children: Development of the Children’s Personal Attributes Questionnaire, Developmental Psychology, 1980, 16, 270-280]. Subsequent studies supported these findings and some have also found that masculinity, to a somewhat lesser degree, is associated with higher levels of self-esteem than femininity in both boys and girls.
Ethics and Professional Practice104. A psychologist is consulted by the parents of a child who was referred by a pediatrician for evaluation. During the interview with the parents, they report the girl suffered a severe head injury which they haven't told the pediatrician about. Assuming appropriate consents have been obtained, the psychologist: A should have the parents report this to the pediatrician.B should report this to the pediatrician.C should not report this until the parents tell the pediatrician first.D should keep this information to herself.
ANSWER "B"This question looks like one on confidentiality, and, indeed, there are some aspects of confidentiality embedded here. But, more than that, it's about professional relationships. You're told in the item stem that all consents have been obtained, so the confidentiality issue was already addressed. The question then is, "What should the psychologist do?" Since we're all here to help the patient, the most appropriate thing to do is to let the pediatrician know about your findings. You would call (probably call rather than write since calling is quicker) the pediatrician and report your findings. It was the pediatrician who made the referral in the first place, and you have the parents' consent.
Ethics and Professional Practice105. You see an elderly male in therapy. In the first session, he breaks down sobbing and admits that he has recently "helped" his wife, who was suffering from incurable cancer, to die. First you need to A comfort him as best you can and make a call to the police.B get the number of a trusted family member and alert them.C assess your client's potential for suicide.D suggest that your client call the police while still in your office.
ANSWER "C"First of all, this question is not about a Tarasoff situation. You are speaking to the husband after the fact of the wife's death so you do not have a mandated breach of confidentiality, and instead now need to decide what is in the best interest of your client. What you have is a bereaved client who is at a high risk for suicide. With his best interests and welfare in mind, you need to assess his potential for suicide and then decide if you want to get the number of a trusted family member and alert them (choice B). You would not be able to breach confidentiality as suggested in answer A and D for the purpose of "turning in" your client.
Developmental Psychology106. According to Vygotsky, what has the greatest impact on the development of language? A social relationshipsB internal cognitive structuresC schemasD scaffoldings
ANSWER "A"For Vygotsky, language is originally and primarily social. Thus a child's language and cognitive processes are greatly influenced by his social relationships and culture. From these experiences the child formulates his language. This is in contrast to Piaget (answer B and C) who believed that universal internal cognitive structures or schema developed first within the child, and then were influenced by his surroundings. Answer D "scaffolding" is Vygotsky's term for the assistance adults give to children to help them learn about the world.
Ethics and Professional Practice107. A psychologist working for an Employee Assistance Program (EAP) has seen a client who was referred by her supervisor. The supervisor asks the psychologist if the employee has kept the appointment. The psychologist should A provide the supervisor only with this information but nothing else.B refuse to give the supervisor this information.C provide this information as well as any other information about the client the supervisor is interested in.D consult with the manager of the company.
ANSWER "A"When a mental health professional works as part of an EAP, the potential for confidentiality dilemmas is present. Employers, after all, often feel they have the right to know if employees are benefitting from EAPs, but mental health professionals must understand the importance of confidentiality — including, in most circumstances, the confidentiality of whether a person is or is not a client or patient. In the context of EAPs, however, it is considered acceptable to give the relevant information to relevant people; specifically, it's OK to tell the supervisor (or the referring person in the organization) if the employee keeps a scheduled appointment, if treatment is needed, and if the employee has agreed to and accepted treatment. All other information should be kept confidential (barring, of course, the employee's consent to release it).
Diagnosis and Psychopathology108. The behavior therapy technique for reducing arousal to inappropriate stimuli by first masturbating to orgasm while imagining appropriate stimuli and then continuing to masturbate while fantasizing about paraphilic images after orgasm is called: A Orgasmic Reconditioning B Satiation TherapyC Systematic DesensitizationD Aversive Conditioning
ANSWER "B"B. When treating individuals with paraphilias, behavior therapies are used based on the reasoning that maladaptive behavior has been learned and can therefore be unlearned. Orgasmic reconditioning (a.) instructs a client to begin masturbating while fantasizing about the inappropriate stimulus then switch from the paraphilic to more appropriate fantasies at the moment of masturbatory orgasm. Systematic desensitization (c.) pairs slow, systematic exposure to anxiety-inducing situations with relaxation training. Aversive conditioning (d.) substitutes a negative response for a positive response to inappropriate stimuli such as through pairing paraphilic urges with negative experiences, for example electric shocks or unpleasant odors.
Social Psychology109. When you look up to a person, are influenced by that person, identify with that person and hold them in high regard, that person has: A Expert powerB Coercive powerC Referent powerD Reward power
ANSWER "C"Referent power is based on a person's attraction to or desire to be like the holder of power. "A" Expert power is based on the belief that the power holder has special knowledge or expertise. "B" Coercive power results from the holder's ability to punish others. And finally, "D" reward power, results from the holder's ability to reward others.
Developmental Psychology110. To study attachment, a researcher has a mother of a one-year old stand on the deep side of the visual cliff, while the child is placed on the shallow side. The researcher finds that when a mother smiles, the child crosses to its mother, but, when the mother frowns, the child does not approach her and cries. This phenomenon is referred to as: A social distancing. B social referencing.C social facilitation/inhibition. D social comparison.
ANSWER "B"Even if you had never heard of social referencing, you may have been able to pick the right answer by the process of elimination (i.e., hopefully, you know what social facilitation, social inhibition, and social comparison are since they are topics that could appear on the exam and are covered in the study materials; social distancing is a ficticious term). Social referencing is considered a sign of attachment between a child and its caregiver.
Neuropsychology111. A patient with Parkinson's Disease is experiencing tremors. What transmitter is probably involved? A AcetylcholineB GlutamateC ZyprexaD Dopamine
ANSWER "D"A lack of norepinephrine at brain synapses is associated with depression, while excessive dopamine and norepinephrine are both associated with schizophrenia. Dopamine also plays a role in movement, and degeneration of neurons that secrete dopamine causes the muscular rigidity found in Parkinson's disease.
School Psychology/Intelligence112. According to Horn and Cattell (1966) A crystallized and fluid intelligence become more integrated in later adulthood.B crystallized and fluid intelligence are uncorrelated.C crystallized intelligence develops through the use of fluid intelligence.D fluid (but not crystallized) intelligence depends on exposure to particular cultural and educational experiences.
ANSWER "C"Cattell and Horn distinguish between fluid and crystallized intelligence. The former is independent of specific instruction and is relatively culture free, while the latter depends on exposure to education and is affected by cultural experiences. Cattell and Horn believed that these two aspects of intelligence are highly correlated and that crystallized intelligence develops through the use of fluid intelligence.
Ethics and Professional Practice113. Which of the following statements regarding therapy records is most consistent with the Ethics Code? A A patient's therapy records must be kept for at least three years after termination.B A patient's therapy records must be destroyed seven years after termination.C A therapist can destroy records before the legally required time period to keep them has elapsed if the therapist believes that doing so is necessary to prevent the use of obsolete records.D Records can be kept longer than is legally required, at the therapist's discretion.
ANSWER "D"To understand why choice D is correct, let's go through the other choices. State laws vary regarding how long therapy records must be kept following termination; some states do and some states don't have any laws that identify a minimum time period during which records must be maintained. The Ethics Code states that therapists must follow relevant laws, but they do not lay out any specific time guidelines for maintaining records. Therefore, since state laws vary, any option that identifies a specific time frame for maintaining records (such as choices A and B) has got to be wrong. Choice C implies that it is ethically permissible to violate the law. This is untrue, even if you believe that a violation of the law serves your client's best interests. This leaves choice D, which is correct. The state laws relating to this issue outline a minimum time period for maintaining records, but they don't identify a maximum. In other words, therapists can keep records as long as they want, as long as they follow other ethical standards related to records, such as preventing the misuse of obsolete records.
Neuropsychology114. The cingulate cortex is most associated with: A spatial memoryB emotions and motivationC somatosensory processingD balance and posture
ANSWER "B"The cingulate cortex is part of the limbic system and is believed to play an excitatory role in emotions and in motivating behaviors. It's also known as the satisfaction center – mediating feelings of satisfaction following eating and sex.
Clinical Psychology115. Asian-American students often outperform their non-Asian peers on various measures of academic achievement. Research suggests that the best predictor of higher achievement in Asian-Americans is: A estimate of ability.B fear of academic failure.C self-efficacy beliefs.D effort beliefs.
ANSWER "B"Asian-American and non-Asian students not only differ in terms of achievement but also in their attributions for academic success. Asian-Americans are more likely to cite fear of failure as the main contributor to academic success, while non-Asians are more likely to attribute successful performance to effort.
Developmental Psychology116. In Piaget's concrete operational stage the child is able to conserve due to the development of reversibility and decentration. Other achievements of this stage are: A Deferred imitationB Object permanenceC Propositional thoughtD Transitivity
ANSWER "D"Other achievements of the concrete operational stage are transitivity, or the ability to mentally sort objects; and hierarchical classification--the ability to sort object into classes and subclasses based on similarities and differences among groups. Deferred imitation and object permanence are achievements of the sensorimotor stage. Deferred imitation is the ability to imitate an observed act at a later point in time. Object permanence is the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they are not there. Finally, propositional thought (C) is developed in the Formal Operational Stage. It is the ability to evaluate the logical validity of verbal assertions without having to use real-world circumstances.
Social Psychology117. A psychologist is hired as a consultant by an agency which works with homosexual men whose behavior places them at very high risk for the HIV virus. The psychologist is asked to work with groups of the agency's clients, with the goal of decreasing high-risk activity in this population. Assuming the psychologist is familiar with the research in this area, she is most likely to take which of the following approaches? A attempting to engender a group norm of disapproval for high-risk activityB providing knowledge to the group about AIDSC threatening the group with punishment if they don't change their behaviorD taking a laissez-faire approach and letting the group learn on its own how dangerous its behavior is
ANSWER "B"Studies show that, among individuals who are at high-risk for the AIDS virus, knowledge about AIDS is a better predictor of less risk-taking behavior than perceived peer norms. Thus, choice B is the best answer. By contrast, among low-risk groups, perceived peer norms are a better predictor. So if this question was about the best strategy for low-risk groups, choice A would have been a better answer.
Research Design and Statistics118. The coefficient of determination indicates A the proportion of variability in one variable that is accounted for by variability in another variable.B the correlation between two variables with the effects of a third variable removed.C the correlation between two variables without the effects of a third variable removed.D the proportion of variability accounted for in a variable by all the factors in a factor analysis.
ANSWER "A"The coefficient of determination is calculated by squaring a correlation coefficient. As compared to the correlation coefficient, it provides a more direct way of interpreting the calculated relationship between two variables. Specifically, it indicates the proportion of variability shared by the two variables, or the proportion of variability in one variable that can be accounted for by variability in the other.
Social Psychology119. Based on Schachter's work, one would treat a client with an obesity problem by: A manipulating the external cues.B changing the client's self-attributions.C changing the social reinforcers for food consumption.D manipulating the internal cues.
ANSWER "A"The question relates to Schachter's classic research on obesity showing that obese people rely more on external than internal cues in their eating behaviors.
Clinical Psychology120. From a family systems perspective, all of the following statements are true, except A change in any one part of the family is associated with change in all other parts.B the system is composed of interrelated parts.C there is a constant dynamic toward chaos which is checked through family rituals and beliefs.D the system maintains a balance of periods of change and periods of stability.
ANSWER "C"A basic tenet of systems theory is that a system seeks homeostasis, or balance and stability. Consequently, the alternative description of a system as always tending toward chaos is actually opposite to what is the case. All the other alternatives are more or less true of the systems approach.
Industrial/Organizational Psychology121. The notion of social comparison is central to which of the following theories? A expectancy theoryB equity theoryC path-goal theoryD ERG theory
ANSWER "B"Of the theories listed in the responses, only one -- equity theory -- predicts that worker motivation is related to the comparisons we make between our own situation and that of others.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology122. Individuals with Generalized Anxiety Disorder vs. people with normal amounts of worry are characterized by: A Excessive concerns and inability to control themB Caffeine consumptionC Excessive concerns in a few areasD Lack of accompanying physical symptoms
ANSWER "A"Generalized anxiety disorder 300.02 is defined in DSM-IV parlance as having the essential feature of excessive anxiety and worry. In addition, the person finds it difficult to control the worry. Answer "A" is a fairly exact rendering of the DSM-IV' definition. This question indicates that you need to have a thorough mastery of the Diagnosis and Psychopathology section.
Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy123. Marital therapy based on the principles of social learning theory most often emphasizes A behavioral therapy combined with communication and problem-solving skills training.B individual exploratory therapy for each spouse combined with communication and problem-solving skills training.C group therapy combined with communication and problem-solving skills training.D group therapy combined with individual behavior-oriented therapy for each spouse.
ANSWER "A"Social learning theory has been applied to family therapy in the area of marital therapy as well as child management. In both cases, the emphasis is on behavioral methodology as well as on communication and problem-solving skills. For example, in marital therapy based on the principles of behavioral and social learning theory, typical methods include functional analysis of the spouses' behaviors, contracts stipulating specific behavioral changes, communication skills training, and directive advice regarding solutions to problems. Consistent with the principles of social learning theory, the therapist will often model healthy communication and interpersonal behavior for the couple.
Social Psychology124. Research on gender differences in judgments of sexual harassment indicate: A men and women are equally as likely to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment regardless of the severity of the behaviors.B men and women are equally as likely to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment but only in severe cases. C men are more likely than women to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment but only in severe cases.D women are more likely than men to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment regardless of the severity of the behaviors.
ANSWER "B"B. Sexual harassment research has consistently found that males and females are equally as likely to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment in severe cases; however, there are significant gender differences in judgments in mild to moderate cases of harassment. Studies have continually found females are more likely than males to rate mild to moderately severe or sexually-ambiguous behaviors as constituting sexual harassment. (See: C. W. Williams et al., An attributional (causal dimensional) analysis of perceptions of sexual harassment, Journal of Applied Social Psychology, 1995, 25, 1169-1183.)
Clinical Psychology125. The therapist intentionally stays neutral in which therapeutic approach? A psychoanalyticB cognitiveC realityD client-centered
ANSWER "A"The assumption in psychoanalytic psychotherapy is that the therapist’s neutrality allows the client to project onto the therapist positive or negative feelings he or she originally had for another significant person in the past. Analysis is the primary technique, and the primary targets of analysis are the client’s free associations, resistances, transferences, and dreams. In some forms of cognitive therapy (response “B”), the therapist may be quite confrontive and challenge a client’s cognitions and behaviors rather than remaining consistently neutral. Reality therapy (response “C”) is also a confrontive form of therapy: It strives to teach clients specific behaviors that will enable them to fulfill their needs and the therapist-client relationship is viewed as a crucial aspect of therapy. Reality therapists also model responsible behaviors for their clients. Finally, client-centered, or Rogerian, therapy (response “D”) is based on the assumption that if the right environment is provided by the therapist, a client will be able to achieve congruence between self and experience and be carried by his or her own innate tendency toward self-actualization. The “right environment” includes three facilitative conditions: unconditional positive regard, accurate empathic understanding, and genuineness or congruence.
Developmental Psychology126. Immigrant children who complete bilingual education programs, as compared to counterparts who are submerged in "English-only" education, end up A more deficient in both the native language and in English.B more proficient in the native language but more deficient in English.C more deficient in the native language.D at least equally proficient in English.
ANSWER "D"Research investigating outcomes of quality bilingual education programs shows that immigrant children in these programs learn English and subject matter as well as or better than immigrants in English-only programs.
Ethics and Professional Practice127. You work for a university on a panel set up to make personnel decisions. The panel is considering granting tenure to a professor who has an unproven charge of sexual harassment pending. You vote against granting the professor tenure. Your actions are: A ethical because the Ethics Code states that psychologists should do whatever they can to prevent sexual harassment.B ethical because, as a member of this panel, you have the right to vote however you please, regardless of your reasons.C unethical if the reason for your vote was the allegation of sexual harassment.D unethical regardless of the reasons for your vote.
ANSWER "C"The Ethics Code (Standard 1.08) explicitly states that a person cannot be denied tenure solely because he or she has made or is the subject of an ethics complaint. Therefore, it would be unethical for you to vote against tenure in this case if your only reason was that the professor has been accused of sexual harassment. If, however, the allegations had been proven, it would be ethical to vote against tenure.
Test Construction128. In computing test reliability, to control for practice effects one would use a(n):I. split-half reliability coefficient.II. alternative forms reliability coefficient.III. test-retest reliability coefficient.A I and III onlyB I and II onlyC II and III onlyD II only
ANSWER "B"The clue here is the practice effect. That means that if you give a test, just taking it will give the person practice so that next time, he or she is not a naive person. To control for that, we want to eliminate the situation where the person is administered the same test again. So we do not use test-retest. We can use the two other methods listed. We can use split-half since, here, only one administration is used (the two parts are thought of as two different tests). And, in the alternative forms method, a different test is given the second time, controlling for the effects of taking the same test twice.
Clinical Psychology129. All of the following statements are consistent with Minuchin's concept of enmeshed or disengaged families, except: A in an enmeshed family, parents may devote an excessive amount of attention to one symptomatic family member who serves as the "symptom bearer" for the entire family.B enmeshed parents tend to be loving and considerate and do a lot for their children.C in a disengaged family, excessive conflict prevents effective communication.D in a disengaged family, parents may not notice when their children need support or guidance.
ANSWER "C"According to Minuchin, boundaries in a family system can be described as enmeshed or disengaged; the two terms represent opposite ends of a continuum. Enmeshed boundaries are overly diffuse; the result is a family in which members are overly close and dependent. Disengagement describes boundaries that are overly rigid; members of a disengaged family tend to be isolated from each other. Contrary to choice C, members of disengaged families tend to avoid conflict. The other choices are true of enmeshed or disengaged families.
Ethics and Professional Practice130. To ensure that providers meet and maintain health plan participation requirements, managed care organizations (MCOs) use _____________________ as a review process. A clinical auditB concurrent reviewC credentialingD quality management
ANSWER "C"The formal process for determining if a provider meets and maintains the standards of qualification, as well as providing some legal protection for the managed care organization, is referred to as credentialing. Clinical audit (response “A”) is a quality assurance method. Concurrent review (response “B”) describes the utilization review conducted during the course of treatment. Quality management (response “D”) is another name for quality assurance.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology131. While Sleep Terror Disorder and Sleepwalking Disorder are similar in terms of sleep and EEG patterns, there are behavioral differences that distinguish them. Sleepwalking Disorder, in contrast to Sleep Terror Disorder,: A is accompanied by high levels of autonomic arousal during the episodeB is associated with prominent, organized motor activity during the episodeC is not associated with amnesia for the episode when the individual awakens in the morningD is not associated with a family history of Sleepwalking and/or Sleep Terror Disorder
ANSWER "B"B. Both Sleep Terror Disorder and Sleepwalking Disorder have been linked to a family history (d.) and are associated with amnesia for the episode upon awaking in the morning (c). Sleepwalking Disorder is usually associated with low levels of autonomic arousal (a.) and is characterized by prominent, organized motor activity such as walking around, talking, and eating. Both disorders do involve motor activity, although the activity associated with Sleep Terror Disorder is less organized and usually involves resisting being touched or held and sitting up.
Neuropsychology132. In females, the gonadotrophic hormones are released by the ________ on a regular cycle. A hypothalamusB pituitary glandC gonadsD adrenal glands
ANSWER "B"The gonadotropic hormones are the same in males and females but they stimulate the gonads to release their own hormones (estrogen in females, androgens in males). The gonadotropic hormones are released by the pituitary gland.
Neuropsychology133. The brain part or system that manages the circadian rhythm is located in the A caudate nucleus.B cerebellum.C reticular activating system. D hypothalamus.
ANSWER "D"You may have thought the answer was reticular activating system, which is involved in many functions related to sleep. However, the circadian rhythm, or the innate, 24-hour cycle of biological activity (i.e., the biological clock) is managed by the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), a group of cells found within the hypothalamus. The SCN gets information about day length via a pathway between it and light receptors in the retina. The SCN interprets this information and passes it to the pineal gland, which secretes the hormone melatonin in response (nighttime increases melatonin secretion, while daylight inhibits it). Destruction of the SCN causes circadian rhythms to disappear entirely.
Developmental Psychology134. You are holding your friend's one year old. Your friend leaves the room and her child continues to smile at you happily, and shows no interest in her mother when she returns. Most likely, your friend as a parent has been A neglectful.B smothering.C impatient.D either b or c.
ANSWER "D"Your friend's child is exhibiting an insecure/avoidant attachment as described by Ainsworth. Ainsworth found that babies with this type of pattern often had mothers who were either very impatient and nonresponsive, or alternatively overstimulating. Neglect (answer A) is most associated with a disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern.
Ethics and Professional Practice135. You are working as a psychologist in a hospital with a patient suffering from head trauma. In your presence, the patient develops Delirium. In this situation, you should: A bring more people into the room.B find a physician for a medication consultation.C stay with the person to provide support and help him remain calm.D recommend ECT treatment.
ANSWER "C"This is a difficult question because it requires you to know about clinical management of Delirium and then to choose between two choices that are not bad answers. General principles of addressing an episode of Delirium include providing environmental support, manipulating the patient's environment in order to reduce confusion and disorientation, and giving medication if the patient is agitated, psychotic, or has insomnia. In other words, both B and C are good answers to this question. However, C is better for the following reasons: 1) Not all Delirium patients require medication; only if the patient is agitated, psychotic, or can't sleep at night is medication necessary, and 2) choice B implies that you would leave the patient to go find a physician. You should not leave a patient with Delirium alone, and even if a nurse or somebody else were available to stay with the patient, you should avoid sudden changes in a Delirium patient's environment. Let's look at the other choices. Choice A, as phrased, is not a good idea -- bringing strange people into the room could increase the patient's sense of disorientation and confusion. Having a relative or other familiar person stay with the patient is a good idea, but choice A is not specific about what people you would bring into the room. Choice D, ECT, is actually used in rare cases for patients who do not respond to environmental manipulation or medication; however, you certainly would not recommend it right away. By the way, the primary treatment of Delirium -- addressing the underlying medical or substance-related disorder that is causing the symptom -- is not a choice here.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology136. Recent research indicates the most effective treatment for antisocial behavior in juvenile offenders is: A behavioral-reinforcement B structured family intervention with parental trainingC multi-systemic therapyD victims family therapy
ANSWER "C"Multisystemic Therapy (MST), targeting chronic, violent, or substance abusing juvenile offenders at high risk of out-of-home placement, is consistent with social-ecological models of behavior and findings from causal modeling studies of delinquency and drug use. The approach views individuals as being nested within a complex network of interconnected systems that encompass individual, family, and extrafamilial (peer, school, neighborhood) factors. MST is a goal-oriented, intensive family- and community-based treatment that addresses the multiple determinants and factors in each youth’s social network that are contributing to his or her antisocial behavior. It is provided using a home-based model of services delivery with a typical treatment duration of approximately 4 months. Intervention strategies include strategic family therapy, structural family therapy, behavioral parent training, and cognitive behavior therapies. MST interventions typically aim to improve caregiver discipline practices, enhance family affective relations, decrease youth association with deviant peers, increase youth association with prosocial peers, improve youth school or vocational performance, engage youth in prosocial recreational outlets, and develop an indigenous support network of extended family, neighbors, and friends to help caregivers achieve and maintain such changes. MST has demonstrated long-term reductions in criminal activity, drug-related arrests, violent offenses, and incarceration. Controlled studies also showed that MST outcomes were similar for youths across the adolescent age range (i.e., 12-17 years), for males and females, and for African-American vs. white youths and families. (See: Curtis, N. M., Ronan, K. R., & Borduin, C. M. (2004). Multisystemic treatment: A meta-analysis of outcome studies. Journal of Family Psychology, 18, 411-419.)
Research Design and Statistics137. To determine the relationship between a dichotomous variable and a continuous variable, you would use which of the following correlation coefficients? A point biserialB biserialC Spearman's RhoD eta
ANSWER "A"You should memorize the different correlation coefficients and when they are used. The point-biserial coefficient is used when a dichotomous variable (e.g., gender) is correlated with continuous variable (e.g., IQ score). You might have thought the biserial coefficient is also correct, since it is used to correlate an artificial dichotomy with a continuous variable. An artificial dichotomy is one that is created arbitrarily by setting a cutoff score on a test; for instance, if you give the WAIS-III and classify everybody who scores over 110 as having "high intelligence" and everybody who scores below 110 as having "low intelligence," you have created an artificial dichotomy. Because an artificial dichotomy is not, in a pure sense, a dichotomous variable, choice B is not as good an answer as choice A.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology138. Of the "big 5" personality dimensions one would most expect a sociopathic personality to have the dimension of: A ExtraversionB OpennessC ConscientiousnessD Sensing
ANSWER "A"Extraversion. This is one of those where the right answer is a "rule out". The Big Five personality dimensions are extraversion, agreeableness, openness, emotional stability and conscientiousness. An antisocial personality is described as deceitful, impulsive, irritable, consistently irresponsible and with a lack or remorse. You might not always expect an antisocial person to be extroverted, but of the choices, it is what you would most expect.
Developmental Psychology139. In children with chronic illness, all of the following have been found to be correlated with the child's level of adjustment, except A the child' age.B parental support.C parental marital distress.D brain involvement in the child's illness.
ANSWER "A"This is one of those "research results" questions in which you can find support for any answer, depending on whose research you read. However, of the choices listed, there is less overall support for the notion that age is significantly correlated with level of adjustment in chronically ill children. It has been found that, in some cases, chronically ill adolescents (in particular adolescent boys with diabetes) are more likely to display behavioral problems than younger children. However, age is not correlated with overall adjustment problems -- chronic illness, especially severe chronic illness, is likely to cause some kind of adjustment problem, whether it be behavioral acting-out or psychological distress.Choices B, C, and D have all been shown to be correlated with adjustment in chronically ill children -- adjustment is better the higher the level of parental support, the lower the level of parental marital distress, and the lower the level of brain involvement in the child's illness.
Neuropsychology140. Chronic pain treatment with tricyclic antidepressants is most effective for: A neuropathic pain and headachesB neuropathic and musculoskeletal painC headaches and musculoskeletal painD neuropathic pain, headaches and musculoskeletal pain
ANSWER "A"A. Chronic pain research estimates 50-90% of patients can be expected to achieve at least 50% pain relief with antidepressants, with others achieving less pain relief. Tricyclic antidepressants, such as amitriptyline (Elavil), have been found to be most effective particularly if the pain is neuropathic (pain in a numb area, burning or shooting pain) or one of the headache syndromes. SSRI antidepressants have also been found to be effective at preventing headaches, including migraines, but are considered less effective. It is theorized these medications may reduce migraines by affecting the level of serotonin and other brain chemicals. Individuals do not have to have depression to take and benefit from these drugs. A therapeutic trial of antidepressants may follow the failure of conventional analgesics or be used in addition to conventional analgesics. This can be particularly effective in cancer patients who have pain at multiple pain sites, some nociceptive and some neuropathic. (See: McQuay, H. J., Tramer, M., Nye, B.A., Carroll, D., Wiffen, P. J., Moore, R. A. (2000). A systematic review of antidepressants in neuropathic pain. Pain. 1996, 68(2-3), 217-227. and Barkin, R.L., Fawcett, J. (2000). The management challenges of chronic pain: the role of antidepressants. American Journal of Therapy, 7(1),31-47.)
Test Construction141. A percentage score, as opposed to a percentile rank, is based on: A Total number of itemsB An examinee's score in comparison to other examinee's scoresC That there are one hundred test itemsD The number of items answered correctly
ANSWER "D"A percentage score indicates the number of items answered correctly. A percentile rank compares one examinee's score with all other examinee's scores.
Industrial/Organizational Psychology142. Which of the following models of leadership provides a "decision tree" to help a leader determine whether an autocratic, consultative, or consensual decision-making approach is best given the nature of the work situation? A Fiedler's contingency modelB Hersey and Blanchard's situational modelC Vroom and Yetton's normative modelD House's path-goal model
ANSWER "C"You may have been able to answer this one through the process of elimination if you knew that the models described by Fiedler, Hersey and Blanchard, and House don't include a decision-tree, which is provided by the Vroom and Yetton model.
Clinical Psychology143. The clinical scales of the MMPI-2 were developed using empirical criterion keying. This means that A items which distinguish between specific subgroups of people are retained for the final version of the test.B items that have high correlations with the previous version of the test are retained for the final version of the test.C items that have high correlations with other tests designed to measure similar constructs are retained for the final version of the test.D items which appear to measure what they are designed to measure are retained for the final version of the test.
ANSWER "A"In empirical criterion keying, items are assessed to determine how well they distinguish between prespecified criterion groups (e.g., between depressed and non-depressed individuals). The items that best distinguish between the groups are maintained for the final version of the scale or the test.
Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy144. After reading a best-selling book on parenting, a mother decides to stop using all forms of punishment on her child. By following her self-imposed rule, when her child misbehaves the mother could only continue to: A send the child to time-out, which previously resulted in an improvement in the child's behaviorB spank the child, which previously led to additional misbehaviorC yell "STOP!," which caused the child to discontinue misbehaving for a short period of timeD gently explain to the child why his behaviors are inappropriate, which previously resulted in an improvement in the child's behavior
ANSWER "B"This question requires you to have a clear understanding of the definitions of reinforcement and punishment. "Reinforcement" always increases the frequency or likelihood of the targeted response. "Punishment" always decreases the frequency or likelihood of the targeted response. "Positive" means that a stimulus is applied, and "negative" means that a stimulus is removed. Choice A is an example of negative punishment because time-out involves the removal of normal activities and because it previously decreased the misbehavior. Choice C involved the application of a stimulus (yelling "Stop!"); thus it is positive, and it resulted in a decreased frequency of the misbehavior, and therefore, it is also a form of punishment. Choice D involves the application of attention; thus it is positive and because it reduces the frequency of the misbehavior, it would also be a form of punishment. Ironically, only Choice B would be permitted by the mother's self-imposed rule because the spanking has resulted in further misbehavior; thus, it would be considered a reinforcement procedure. It would also be positive, because it involves the application of a stimulus.
Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy145. As part of an evaluation of a third-grade girl referred for her disruptive classroom behavior, the school psychologist interviewed the girl's father. The father related that, whenever the girl acted out at home, the parents would make every attempt to be understanding and accepting and would try to reason with her. The father reported that this usually worked in getting the daughter to stop. From a behavioral view, the psychologist would reason that: A the girl probably would be better off in a smaller class with less stimulation from competing sources.B parental attention might be reinforcing the girl's disruptive behaviors.C the parents' behavior was negatively reinforcing the girl.D the girl probably modeled her behavior after someone in the family.
ANSWER "B"In this situation, the child's behavior is increasing following the parent's intervention; in other words, the child is being reinforced. Reinforcement, by definition, increases a behavior. This is positive reinforcement, not (as in choice C) negative reinforcement. Negative reinforcement involves the removal of a stimulus; here, however, a stimulus is being applied.
Industrial/Organizational Psychology146. Which of the following is true about the use of biodata as a selection tool? A It has low validity apparently because it is so susceptible to faking.B A drawback of empirically-derived biodata forms is that they often lack face validity.C For most jobs, biodata is superior to cognitive ability tests for predicting job performance. D Biodata is a good predictor of job performance for white-collar jobs only.
ANSWER "B"Biodata is generally considered second to cognitive ability tests in terms of validity for predicting job performance. Although empirically-derived biodata forms are most valid, their questions sometimes lack face validity; i.e., they ask for information that doesn't seem to have anything to do with job performance. This can be a problem because it decreases applicants' motivation to fill out the forms accurately.
Clinical Psychology147. Cross's (1991) Black Racial (Nigresence) Identity Development Model includes the stage called Pre-Encounter. At this stage an African-American prefers a therapist A of their own race.B of the Caucasian race.C of a minority group; but not African-American.D that is African, but not American.
ANSWER "B"Cross's Identity Development Model includes four stages. The first stage is Pre-encounter in which whites are seen as the ideal, while African Americans are denigrated. The second stage or Encounter stage leads to an interest in developing an African-American identity and a preference for a therapist of one's own race. The third stage (Immersion/Emersion) involves a struggle between old and emerging ideas about race. There is an initial idealization of African-Americans and a denigrating of whites. Toward the end of this stage the person becomes less emotionally immersed and moves toward internalization of a new identity. In the fourth and final stage (Internalization/Commitment), the individual adopts an African-American world view.
Social Psychology148. The term "group polarization" refers to the tendency of groups to make decisions that are A more risky than those that might be made by individual members.B more conservative than those that might be made by individual members.C more risky or more conservative than those that might be made by individual members.D more illogical than those that might be made by individual members.
ANSWER "C"A group's decisions tend to be more extreme (in one direction or the other) than those that would be made by individuals in the group acting alone. This phenomenon is referred to as group polarization. One explanation for group polarization is that group members are more willing to support extreme decisions because, as group members, they won't have to take as much personal responsibility for their decisions as they would if they were acting alone.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology149. A cross dresser who only gets aroused when wearing women's clothing would be diagnosed with: A Transvestic fetishismB ExhibitionismC TransvestismD Gender identity disorder
ANSWER "A"According to DSM-IV, Transvetic Fetishism is diagnosed when a heterosexual male has recurrent intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors involving cross dressing. (B) Exhibitionism, involves the exposing of one's genitals to an unsuspecting stranger (C) Transvestism is not a DSM-IV term (D) Gender identity disorder includes a strong and persistent cross-gender identification with evidence of clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other areas of functioning.
Ethics and Professional Practice150. A new client comes to see you and you find his political views to be distasteful. In this situation, as an ethical psychologist, you should: A refer the client to someone else.B discuss your feelings with the client and assess to determine if his views are reflective of underlying psychopathology.C respect the client's political views and proceed with therapy.D seek consultation.
ANSWER "C"Ethical standard 1.09 applies to this situation. It states that "In their work-related activities, psychologists respect the rights of others to hold values, attitudes, and opinions that differ from their own." Therefore, C is the best answer, since it is most consistent with the ethical standards. A consultation or even a referral may be necessary if your ability to conduct therapy would be impaired. However, there is no reason why a difference of political opinion alone should interfere with therapy.
Developmental Psychology151. Play in children, as opposed to play in adolescents and adults A is solely a form of imitation.B contributes to mastery of the environment.C is basically a form of entertainment.D is for the purpose of competition and attaining power.
ANSWER "B"Many theorists and researchers have identified developmental benefits of children's play. Piaget, for instance, believed that pretend play was a form of learning about the world, whereby children assimilate new rules and objects into their cognitive schema. In other words, one of the developmental functions of play is to help children learn about and master their environment.
Industrial/Organizational Psychology152. Job commitment has the highest correlation with A job satisfaction.B absenteeism and turnover.C productivity.D quality of work.
ANSWER "B"The research on job commitment, or the degree to which a person identifies with an organization and is willing to work to help the organization reach its goals, suggests that it has a moderate to strong negative correlation with absenteeism and turnover. In this respect, it is similar to job satisfaction, which also is more highly correlated with absenteeism and turnover than with other variables (such as productivity) typically studied in the organizational psychology literature.
Ethics and Professional Practice153. When conducting a custody evaluation, a psychologist should: A advocate for the party that retained himB advocate for the party that retained him, unless retained by the court, in which case, he should remain impartialC remain impartial regardless of whether he is retained by the court or either party in the proceedingsD acknowledge the fallacy of impartiality in an adversarial legal system
ANSWER "C"According to "Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Divorce Proceedings," "The psychologist should be impartial regardless of whether he or she is retained by the court or by a party to the proceedings. If either the psychologist or the client cannot accept this neutral role, the psychologist should consider withdrawing from the case. If not permitted to withdraw, in such circumstances, the psychologist acknowledges past roles and other factors that could affect impartiality (American Psychologist, 49(7), 1994, 677-680).
Ethics and Professional Practice154. The legal basis of the Tarasoff decision was that A the protective privilege ends when the public peril begins.B psychologists have a legal and ethical responsibility to uphold the general welfare.C a psychotherapist's duty to enforce the law supercedes his or her duty to protect a patient's confidentiality.D a psychotherapy patient's right to confidentiality is absolute.
ANSWER "A"The California Supreme Court's Tarasoff decision established the duty of a psychotherapist to protect the intended victim whenever a patient poses a serious danger of violence to another. In ruling that the need to protect the intended victim supercedes a client's confidentiality rights, the Court wrote that "the protective privilege ends when the public peril begins."
Ethics and Professional Practice155. According to the ethical standards, fees charged to clients are A to be established as early as possible in the professional relationship.B to be established as a function of experience and expertise of the psychologist.C to be based on community standards.D are to be as low as practically possible.
ANSWER "A"Only A is stated in the Ethical Principles (see Standard 6.04[a]).
Clinical Psychology156. Of the following ethnic groups which group is not considered a race? A HispanicB Native AmericanC African-AmericanD Asian-American
ANSWER "A"Hispanics are an ethnic group like African-Americans, Asian-Americans, and Native Americans. Unlike these groups, Hispanics are not a specific race. According to the 1998 Census Bureau, the total Hispanic population of the US accounts for 11% of the total population. Sixty-three percent are of Mexican origin, 14.4% are of Central and South American origin, 10.6% of mainland Puerto Rican origin, 4.2% of Cuban origin, and 7.4% other (Alfredo Ardilis, Testing Hispanic Populations, Texas Psychologist, Winter 2000).
Community Psychology157. The “revolving door” phenomenon of deinstitutionalizing psychiatric patients refers to: A placing patients into different facilities, such as halfway houses, as symptomology changes B releasing patients to aftercare clinics for psychiatric services and community programs for rehabilitation services. C required readmission to psychiatric hospitals. D patients seeking services and support through community outreach programs only when symptoms increase.
ANSWER "C"C. Despite the continued popularity of policies for deinstitutionalization, research indicates that up to 80 percent of those released are readmitted within two years of discharge. Readmission rates have been attributed to lack of support in the community, inadequate coordination between the community programs and the hospitals, poor psychiatric follow-up, and a lack of governmental support and funding. Aggressive community outreach programs have shown to be effective when they are well-staffed and well-financed.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology158. According to Theodore Millon, people with Narcissistic Personality Disorder rely primarily on which of the following defense mechanisms? A repression, rationalization, and projectionB repression, displacement, and sublimationC rationalization, reaction formation, and sublimationD identification, intellectualization, and displacement
ANSWER "A"This is a difficult question unless you are a Theodore Millon fan. According to Millon, when narcissistic people experience personal failure and public humiliation, they resort to defense mechanisms -- first repression, and if that fails, then rationalization and projection.
Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy159. In an operant conditioning experiment, researchers flash a light to signal the subject that she will receive a dollar bill for finding the ace of spades in a deck of cards. This signal is called: A a reinforcement.B a stimulus.C fading.D a discriminative stimulus.
ANSWER "D"A discriminative stimulus is a cue indicating some contingency (reinforcement or punishment) will occur if a particular behavior is emitted. That's the case here -- the light is serving as a cue that the person will be reinforced for finding the ace of spades. The alternative "stimulus" is too vague because that term is much less specific than discriminative stimulus. The situation isn't reinforcement because a reinforcer always occurs after the behavior, not before. Finally, fading is related to the discriminative stimulus, but refers to a process in which the signal is slowly withdrawn before the behavior occurs.
Ethics and Professional Practice160. You are the only provider in a rural community and your spouse's coworker asks if he could schedule an appointment with you. Which of the following is the best course of action? A You must refer him.B You must schedule an appointment with him.C You should refer him if you believe that treating him would impair your objectivity.D You should discuss this with your spouse and this coworker to determine if this constitutes a dual relationship.
ANSWER "C"According to APA's Ethics Code regarding multiple relationships (3.05[a]), “A psychologist refrains from entering into a multiple relationship if the multiple relationship could reasonably be expected to impair the psychologist's objectivity, competence, or effectiveness in performing his or her functions as a psychologist, or otherwise risks exploitation or harm to the person with whom the professional relationship exists." Choice A is too prohibitive. Although it may be necessary to refer this person, if it appears unlikely that entering into a professional relationship would impair your objectivity or would otherwise be harmful to the person, you could treat him. Choice B can be eliminated because psychologists and other health professionals have no legal or ethical obligation to enter into a professional relationship. And Choice D can be eliminated because discussing the matter with your spouse would be a breach of confidentiality.
Test Construction161. When constructing an achievement test, which of the following would be useful for comparing total test scores of a sample of examinees to the proportion of examinees who answer each item correctly? A classical test theoryB item response theoryC generalizability theoryD item utility theory
ANSWER "B"The question describes the kind of information that is provided in an item response curve, which is constructed for each item to determine its characteristics when using item response theory as the basis for test development. (Note that there is no such thing as "item utility theory.")
Clinical Psychology162. All of the following are true regarding Feminist Object Relations Theory except: A it emphasizes the importance of the maternal relationship with the child.B it proposes that gender differences are the result of girls being taught to remain attached to their mothers while boys are taught to separate from their mothers.C it proposes that girls develop a healthier self-object when raised primarily by their father due to earlier separation from their mother.D it proposes that mothering "reproduces itself" since mothers perpetuate the oppressiveness of the division of labor.
ANSWER "C"Nancy Chodorow was one of the first to apply a feminist perspective to an Object Relations model. In The Reproduction of Mothering (Berkeley, University of California Press, 1978) she focused on the relationship between mother and child and how gender differences result from the mother being the primary caretaker. The division of labor which occurs in families (although less so in recent years), is characterized by women being more involved in affective, interpersonal relationships than men. This is inevitably passed on to both boys and girls who ‘reproduce' this sexual and familial division of labor.
Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy163. The best example of an intrinsic reward system is: A a person working hard 8 hours a day in order to obtain respect and recognition from his superiors.B a hyperactive child placed on a token-reward system of reinforcement.C studying hard to pass the psychology licensing exam.D a boy collecting stamps.
ANSWER "D"This question merely requires you to think about the word "intrinsic," which means internal. In choices A, B, and C, external rewards are motivating the behaviors; however, a boy collecting stamps is usually motivated by his own intrinsic interest in the hobby. You should know that problems occur when we take something that is intrinsically rewarding and provide extrinsic rewards for it. Then, the person typically stops working for the intrinsic rewards and attributes his behavior to the extrinsic rewards. That's been termed "turning play into work."
Neuropsychology164. You have a client who has been abusing cocaine. He has recently read an article about neurotransmitters and does not want to take any type of medication because he does not want to "mess with his brain." You provide him with the information to reduce his anxiety. You explain that cocaine affects the brain in following manner. A It increases epinephrine.B It increases glutamate.C It decreases serotonin.D It increases dopamine.
ANSWER "D"Cocaine is believed to block the reuptake of dopamine. As dopamine collects in the neurons of the limbic system, it continues to stimulate receiving cells.
Neuropsychology165. Gould and Gross (1999) found neurogenesis, the formation of new neurons or nerve cells, in all of the following areas, except: A the olfactory systemB the hippocampusC the prefrontal regionD the striate cortex
ANSWER "D"Traditionally it has been believed that no new neurons are added to the brain in maturity. In the last decade, evidence has accumulated for neurogenesis in several evolutionarily older parts of the brain such as the olfactory system and the hippocampus, which is believed to play role in memory formation. Gould and Gross, furthermore, identified neurogenesis in three areas of the cerebral cortex: 1) the prefrontal region, which controls executive decision making and short-term memory; 2) the inferior temporal region, which plays a crucial role in the visual recognition of objects and faces; and 3) the posterior parietal region, which is important for the representation of objects in space. The striate cortex, which handles the initial, and more rudimentary, steps of visual processing, had no sign of neurogenesis. (See: Gould, E., and Gross, C.G. (2002). Neurogenesis in Adult Mammals: Some Progress and Problems. The Journal of Neuroscience. 22, 619-623.)
Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy166. In order to get an infant's attention, a photographer shakes a rattle, which results in the infant turning toward the rattle and smiling. After numerous uses of this technique, the infant stops responding. This is most likely due to: A adaptationB extinctionC habituationD satiation
ANSWER "C"Habituation is defined as a decrease in response strength due to repeated stimulation. Satiation (D) occurs when a physiological need has been met, resulting in a decreased desire for that reinforcement. Extinction (B), in operant learning, involves eliminating reinforcement that previously followed a response. In classical conditioning, extinction refers to the presentation of a CS without the US. Neither of these two models adequately apply to this question.
Clinical Psychology167. In group therapy, which of the following situations is most likely to increase a given member's self-disclosure? A the group leader has made it clear that self-disclosure is expectedB a temporary and uncomfortable silence has pervaded the groupC other members of the group have freely self-disclosedD the group consists solely of verbal and intelligent individuals
ANSWER "C"This question is actually about social psychology as much as it is about group therapy. Research in social psychology has illustrated that we are more likely to talk openly about ourselves after someone else opens up about him or herself. This phenomenon has been termed "self-disclosure reciprocity."
Social Psychology168. If you hear arguments against your opinion, followed by arguments against the opposing opinion, what is likely to happen? A You will become very confused.B You will become more dogmatic in your original opinion.C You will change your opinion.D Your resistance to future opposing arguments will be increased.
ANSWER "D"This question is indirectly referencing McGuire's inoculation theory, which proposes that a particular attitude or belief can be strengthened by exposing someone to the opposing belief -- especially when the opposing argument is weak or the person is supplied with counter-arguments against the opposing belief. Note that this is analogous to medical inoculation, which involves injection of a weak form of a germ so the body can build up defenses against that germ.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology169. A young woman is very anxious because, lately, she finds that she frequently misperceives things in the environment, which has caused some embarrassing moments at work and elsewhere. For example, at work, she mistook the coat rack for the company president. As a result, she is not enjoying her job or usual social activities as much as she used to. The woman's symptoms are most suggestive of A hallucinations.B illusions.C agoraphobia.D social phobia.
ANSWER "B"Note that the woman is misperceiving actual stimuli and that her other symptoms are directly related to this misperception. A misperception of a real stimulus is referred to as an illusion.
Neuropsychology170. Symptoms of Bipolar Disorder are typically treated with lithium and/or any of the following medications EXCEPT: A phenelzine B carbamazepine C divalproex D valproic
ANSWER "A"A. Currently, lithium and/or an anti-seizure medication is the drug treatment-of-choice for Bipolar Disorder. Unlike the others, phenelzine is not used for the treatment of Bipolar Disorder as it is an MAOI antidepressant. Carbamazepine (Tegretol), divalproex (Depakote) and valproic acid (Depakene) are anti-seizure drugs that have been found to be useful for treating patients with Bipolar Disorder who have not responded well, or cannot tolerate, other treatments.
School Psychology/Intelligence171. The most frequently used projective test is the A Thematic Apperception TestB Draw-a-Person TestC Raven Progressive MatricesD Rorschach Inkblot Test
ANSWER "D"The Rorschach is the most frequently used projective test. The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) and the Draw-a-Person (DAP) are also both tests used to examine underlying unconscious processes. The Raven is a test of cognitive abililities.
Developmental Psychology172. In assessing perceptual abilities in a 3 or 4-month old infant you could use all of the following indicators except: A head turningB suckingC reachingD heart rate
ANSWER "A"Head turning does not become an appropriate measure of perception in infants until 5 ½ months of age. Sucking (B) is often used as a measure of perceptual abilities for infants aged 1 to 4 months. Reaching (C) is used at 12 weeks or older, and heart rate (D) can be a useful measure at any age.
Clinical Psychology173. Ethnic minority clients with a strong affiliation with their own culture tend to A not benefit from therapy.B drop out of therapy prematurely.C prefer ethnically similar therapists and counselors.D respond to therapy in the same way as non-minority clients, regardless of the therapist.
ANSWER "C"Research supports the notion that ethnic minority clients with a strong affiliation with their own culture tend to prefer ethnically similar counselors, and some research show that outcome for such clients is better when the counselor is ethnically similar.
Ethics and Professional Practice174. According to APA's Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing, test results should be reported A only to professionals trained in the interpretation of psychological tests.B using only raw scores.C using only confidence intervals or percentile bands.D in clear and simple language.
ANSWER "D"To reason this one out, you don't really have to be familiar with the language of the applicable standard, but here it is anyway: "Those responsible for testing programs should provide appropriate interpretations when test score information is released to students, parents, legal representatives, teachers, or the media. The interpretations should describe in simple language what the test covers, what scores mean, common misinterpretations of test scores, and how scores will be used" (standard 15.10). Other standards require that the standard error of measurement be reported so confidence intervals or percentile bands (choice C) can be constructed; however, the word "only" makes C incorrect.
Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy175. To reduce a client's fear of cats, a behavioral psychologist has the client imagine approaching a cat and then, when anxiety occurs, pair that image with deep muscle relaxation. This technique is known as: A covert sensitization.B guided imagery.C implosive therapy.D reciprocal inhibition.
ANSWER "D"You may have been looking for counterconditioning or systematic desensitization as the correct response. Both involve reducing anxiety by pairing it with relaxation or other incompatible response. This technique was originally described by Wolpe, who referred to it as reciprocal inhibition.
Ethics and Professional Practice176. Your client has moved out of state. She has called and left you a voice mail message requesting that you send her records to a new therapist. She leaves her new therapist's number and address but not her own. You have a current written release from her on file. You note that she has one outstanding balance of $200. You should A contact the therapist and try to get the client's number.B send all the records.C send a summary along with an invoice.D send the summary along with an invoice indicating the amount still owed.
ANSWER "A"This would be your best choice. It never hurts to take the most conservative approach, which in this case would be to try and contact your client and discuss the situation with her. It will be helpful to know the purpose of the request. Your client has a right to a copy of her records and a right to have them sent to where she chooses, but your best course of action would be to discuss the situation with her. You would not send her bill to another therapist.
Diagnosis and Psychopathology177. Research on electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT) suggests that: A memory deficits caused by ECT are cumulative and nearly always irreversible.B memory deficits occur only when ECT is delivered bilaterally.C memory deficits are largely reversible although some problems with autobiographical memory may persist for months. D memory deficits are largely reversible although problems with semantic memory may persist for months.
ANSWER "C"Memory deficits are the primary negative side effect associated with ECT. Although verbal memory deficits are reduced when ECT is delivered to the right hemisphere only, it still causes nonverbal memory problems. Further, while most memory problems are reversible, the person may continue to complain about loss of memory for personal (autobiographical) information for many months.
Research Design and Statistics178. A researcher inquires about the subjects’ performance expectations and beliefs about the purpose of the study at the conclusion of the experiment. The researcher finds the subjects’ actual performance is consistent with their beliefs and expectations when analyzing the data. The results of the study may be confounded by: A the Hawthorne effectB demand characteristics C carryover effectsD changing criteria
ANSWER "B"B. Demand characteristics are unintentional cues in the experimental environment or manipulation that affect or account for the results of the study. In this situation, the subjects’ may have acted in ways consistent with their expectations rather than simply in response to the experimental manipulation. The Hawthorne effect (a.) occurs when research subjects act differently because of the novelty of the situation and the special attention they receive as research participants. Carryover effects (c.) occur in repeated measures designs when the effects of one treatment have an impact on the effects of subsequent treatments.
Neuropsychology179. Damage to the prefrontal cortex is most likely to impair: A working memoryB long-term memoryC language comprehensionD motor functioning
ANSWER "A"The prefrontal cortex has been associated with many functions including decision-making, attention, planning, and most recently, working memory. [See J. D. Cohen, W. M. Perlstein, T.S. Braver, L. E. Nystrom, J. Jonides, E. E. Smith, & D. C. Noll, Temporal dynamics of brain activity during a working memory task. Nature, 386, 1997, 604-608].
Diagnosis and Psychopathology180. Which of the following accounts for the most cases of Mental Retardation? A pregnancy or perinatal problemsB early abnormalities in embryonic developmentC heredityD social and environmental factors operating in infancy and early childhood
ANSWER "B"According to DSM-IV, etiological factors in Mental Retardation may be primarily biological, primarily psychosocial, or a combination of both. Early alteration of embryonic development (e.g., Down's Syndrome, prenatal use of alcohol or drugs) is the single most common contributing factor, operating in about 30% of cases. Environmental influences and other mental disorders (e.g., deprivation of nurturance, severe mental disorders such as Autism) are a predisposing factor in about 15-20% of cases. Pregnancy and perinatal problems (e.g., fetal malnutrition, hypoxia, trauma) occur in about 10% of cases, and hereditary factors (e.g., Tay-Sachs Disease, fragile X syndrome) are the cause in about 5% of cases. In about 30-40% of cases, no clear etiology for the disorder can be determined.
Neuropsychology181. Which of the following brain structures could be described as a "satisfaction center"? A hippocampusB basal ganglliaC cingulate gyrusD reticular activating system
ANSWER "C"The cingulate gyrus acts as a "satisfaction center" and mediates the feelings of satisfaction that follow eating and sex. The hippocampus (choice A) is more associated with learning and memory consolidation. The basal ganglia (choice B) are important in the regulation of muscle tone and fine motor control, and the reticular activating system (answer D) is vital to consciousness and arousal.
Developmental Psychology182. A one-year-old has no vocabulary but can understand what you are saying. The parent should: A Do nothing; this reflects normal developmentB Consult with a speech pathologistC Refer to a pediatricianD Screen for the possibility of autism
ANSWER "A"These parents should relax. Undoubtedly this is their first child. First words typically occur anywhere from 10 to 16 months of age. From 18 months children begin to create "language" several words that represent a complete thought (Mike Tomasello 1992, First Verbs: A Case Study of Early Grammatical Development, Cambridge: Cambridge University Press).
Clinical Psychology183. Relying on the work of Heinz Kohut, a therapist would stress the use of which of the following when working with a narcissistic client? A coaching B empathyC congruenceD interpretation of drives
ANSWER "B"According to Kohut, a consistent lack of parental empathy is what leads to narcissism in a child in the first place. Therefore, to help the narcissistic client develop a more healthy, cohesive sense of self, the therapist must provide empathy.
Industrial/Organizational Psychology184. A high LPC leader A Treats his least favorite worker wellB Treats his least favorite worker poorlyC Treats his favorite worker like his least favorite workerD Has an ambivalent style toward his workers .
ANSWER "A"Fiedler's Contingency Theory proposed that in terms of a leader's style and the favorableness of a situation, the latter was determined by the degree to which the leader could control and influence their subordinate. Fiedler described a leader's style by his or her scores on his Least Preferred Coworker Scale. A high LPC leader describes their least preferred coworker in positive terms and these leaders are primarily relationship oriented. Note that the question talks about how a leader "treats" their worker rather than how they "describe" the worker.. While these are not exactly the same concepts, the EPPP will take these type of liberties so this is an example of choosing an answer that is in the "ballpark".
Developmental Psychology185. An infant born prematurely is most likely to eventually develop: A Poor social skillsB Poor academic performanceC Low adult body weightD None of the above
ANSWER "D"An infant born before 37 week gestation period is considered premature. Greenburg and Cmic (1988) found that with a supportive environment and appropriate medical attention premature infants without significant abnormalities often catch up with their peers, in terms of social and cognitive language skills, by two or three years of age. There is no known relationship between prematurity and adult body weight.
Neuropsychology186. Peripheral vision is processed in the: A frontal lobeB temporal lobeC anterior occipital lobeD posterior occipital lobe
ANSWER "C"You probably were able to narrow the choices down to C and D, knowing that vision is processed in the occipital lobe. However, you should also know that peripheral vision is processed in the anterior occipital lobe. Central vision is processed in the posterior occipital lobe.
Neuropsychology187. Alzheimer's is related to an under production of A serotoninB GABAC AcetylcholineD Glutamate
ANSWER "C"Acetylcholine plays a role in learning and memory. Loss of acetylcholine receptors in the cortex and hippocampus occur in Alzheimer's disease.
Ethics and Professional Practice188. In the last session, your gorgeous new client complimented you on how nice you look in your red outfit. You noticed you were very happy before this session–you even caught yourself singing, "Oh What a Beautiful Morning" while looking in the mirror to do a final ‘visual check" before seeing your client in. Ethically, A You need to cancel this sessionB You need to consult with a colleagueC You need to behave more appropriatelyD You need to get out more
ANSWER "B"While no Ethical Standards have been violated at this point; there is a strong indication that you are experiencing some type of "extra attraction" toward this client. You need to seek consultation and determine how to process and handle your countertransference. Cancelling the session may not be in the client's best interest.
Industrial/Organizational Psychology189. “Business necessity” and “job relatedness” are related to: A personnel trainingB adverse impactC comparable worth D truth in testing
ANSWER "B"B. According to the Americans with Disabilities Act and the Federal Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures, business necessity and job relatedness are conditions that may permit the use of a selection or other employment procedure that results in an adverse impact. If an employer can demonstrate that it is job related and a business necessity, despite having adverse impact, the employer may be able to continue using the procedure.
School Psychology/Intelligence190. A score of 85 on the Lie (L) Scale of the MMPI-2 may indicate: A most Lie (L) Scale items were answered as “true” B a lack of insight or denialC similar or identical items were answered in an inconsistent wayD acute psychological distress was experienced while taking the test
ANSWER "B"B. The Lie Scale is one of the original MMPI validity scales, which were designed to evaluate test-taking attitudes. A high Lie Scale score may indicate a lack of insight into one’s own behavior, denial, an attempt to create a favorable impression, or the tendency to answer items “false.” A low Lie Scale score may be the result of answering items as “true” (a.). Inconsistent responding (c.) is suggested by a high score on the VRIN scale. Acute psychological distress (d.) is associated with an extremely low score on the K (Correction) Scale.
Test Construction191. In a clinical trial of a new drug, the null hypothesis is the new drug is, on average, no better than the current drug. It is concluded that the two drugs produce the same effect when in fact the new drug is superior. This is: A corrected by reducing the power of the testB corrected by reducing the sample sizeC a Type I errorD a Type II error
ANSWER "D"Type II errors occur when the null hypothesis is not rejected when it is in fact false; Type I errors are often considered more serious as the null hypothesis is wrongly rejected. For example, in the clinical trial of a new drug, this would be concluding that the new drug was better when in fact it was not. Type I and II errors are inversely related: as the probability of a Type I error increases, the probability of a Type II error decreases, and vice versa.
Clinical Psychology192. Increased awareness is the primary goal of which of the following types of therapy? A Self PsychologyB Reality TherapyC Gestalt TherapyD Existential Therapy
ANSWER "C"Although increased awareness can be considered an important goal of many types of therapy, it is perhaps most central to Gestalt Therapy. Gestalt therapy strives to increase an individual's awareness of the self, the environment, and the nature of the self-environment boundary.
Industrial/Organizational Psychology193. Organizations that advocate individual responsibility, consensual-decision making, slow promotion, and holistic knowledge of the organization are using which of the following management philosophies: A Theory JB Theory AC Theory ZD TQM
ANSWER "C"Ouchi’s Theory Z is an organizational management philosophy that incorporates aspects from traditional American (Theory A) and Japanese (Theory J) management philosophies. The theory represents a middle ground, for example, emphasizing long-term employment versus short-term or lifelong and a moderately specialized career path instead of specialized or nonspecialized.
Industrial/Organizational Psychology194. In the context of expectancy theory, valence refers to: A the willingness of a worker to exert effort.B the strength of the worker's needs.C the desirability of the job itself.D the desirability of the consequences of performance.
ANSWER "D"Expectancy theory predicts that motivation is related to three phenomena: beliefs about the relationship between effort and performance; beliefs about the relationship between performance and outcomes; and the desirability of those outcomes. The latter is referred to as valence.
Neuropsychology195. Anticholinergic effects include all of the following EXCEPT: A constipationB diarrheaC blurred visionD dizziness
ANSWER "B"Anticholinergic (side) effects occur as a result of interference with acetylcholine in the brain and peripheral nervous system. Tricyclic antidepressants and antipsychotics often have anticholinergic effects which include dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, dizziness, urinary retention, tachycardia, and confusion.
Industrial/Organizational Psychology196. According to Edgar Schein, the concept of career anchor refers to: A the tendency to stay in a financially secure position regardless of personal interestB the motivation of priorities that define how people see themselves and their workC the motivation of advancement opportunities to stay with an organizationD the tendency to stay in a position regardless of advancement opportunities
ANSWER "B"A person’s career anchor is his or her self-concept consisting of self-perceived talents and abilities, basic values, motives, and needs as they pertain to the career. Schein says that people are primarily motivated by one of eight anchors — priorities that define how they see themselves and how they see their work. The eight anchors include: technical/functional competence – a desire to excel in a chosen line of work; general managerial competence – closely allied with the traditional career path of the corporation; autonomy/independence – individuals just want to be alone; security/stability – value predictable environment in which tasks and policies are clearly codified and defined; entrepreneurial creativity – desire to create something of own and run it; service/dedication to a cause – the need to focus work around a specific set of values; pure challenge – seek to solve or master challenges; and lifestyle – organized around an individual’s private life. (See: Schein, E. H. (1978). Career Dynamics: Matching Individual and Organizational Needs. Reading, MA.: Addison-Wesley; Schein, E. H. (1990). Career Anchors (Rev. Ed.). San Diego: Pfeiffer, Inc.)
Neuropsychology197. Your client comes to session and tells you that he is having trouble recognizing your face and those of others familiar to him. You realize that he may be suffering from prosopagnosia which is believed to be due to damage to the A central sulcus.B parieto-occipital sulcus.C bilateral occipitotemporal area.D optic chiasm.
ANSWER "C"Prosopagnosia involves deficits in both visual processing and memory. Since the temporal lobe mediates long term memory and the occipital lobe is involved in visual processing, you may have been able to figure out the correct answer to this question by putting this information together. The central sulcus (answer A) divides the parietal and frontal lobes. The parieto-occipital sulcus (answer B) separates the occipital lobes. The optic chasm (answer D) is the point at which the optic nerve from one eye partially crosses to join the other.
Ethics and Professional Practice198. A psychologist gets a call on a Friday night from a current patient who says she's feeling so depressed she is really thinking of suicide. The psychologist believes her and advises her to go to the hospital immediately. The psychologist is concerned and calls the next day and finds out that the patient did commit suicide. The psychologist's intervention was A unethical, because he should have consulted a psychiatrist before he suggested hospitalization.B ethical, since he made a referral for appropriate treatment.C unethical, because he should have been more active in assuring that the patient's needs were met.D ethical, since he did all that he could on a weekend.
ANSWER "C"If the psychologist believed that the patient was actively suicidal, it was unrealistic to assume that she'd get herself to the hospital. The psychologist should have been more active; for example, he could have called the police, called someone close to the patient, or gone to the patient's location.
Test Construction199. Which of the following item difficulty levels maximizes discrimination among test-takers? A .10B .25C .50D .90
ANSWER "C"If a test item has an item difficulty level of .50, this means that 50% of examinees answered the item correctly. Therefore, items with this difficulty level are most useful for discriminating between "high scoring" and "low scoring" groups.
Ethics and Professional Practice200. Your client is terminating your psychological services by mutual agreement after two years. She's going to be married the following May and would like you to be one of her wedding attendants. You should A explain to her that the two of you should have no further contact.B accept; but under condition that you participate in the wedding only and no other type of friendship can be pursued.C explain that you cannot have a friendship with her until two years have passed.D decline the invitation; explaining that this would be a multiple relationship.
ANSWER "D"The best solution in regard to the ethical standards is to avoid multiple relationships. It is possible that your client could need therapeutic services again and if you become her friend, you will no longer be able to offer her that option.