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233 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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If the amount of sodium in the blood decreases, what would a negative feedback control mechanism be expected to do?
A. Decrease the amount of sodium in the blood. B. Increase the amount of sodium in the blood. C. lease the amount of sodium unchanged D. Change the set point for sodium E. Inhibit the ingestion of more sodium |
B.Increase the amount of sodium in the blood.
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The hormone insulin enhances the transport of glucose into body cells. Its secretion is controlled by a negative feedback system between the concentration of glucose in the blood and the cells that secrete insulin.
A. A decrease in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn lower the blood glucose concentration still further. B. An increase in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn lower the blood glucose concentration. C. A decrease in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn increase the blood glucose concentration D. An increase in blood concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn increase the blood glucose concentration still further. |
B. An increase in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn lower the blood glucose concentration.
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The composition of the fluid bathing the cells of the body is the same as that within the cells. True or False
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False
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The fluid compartment with a high sodium concentration that contains only trace amounts of protein is called.
A. interstitial fluid B. plasma c. intracellular fluid d. extracellular fluid e. none of the above |
A. Interstitial fluid
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Changes in the external environment alter the , which is detected by the , and that information is sent to .
A. set point, regulated variable, integrating center b. sensor, integrating center, effector c. stimulus, sensor, effector d.regulated variable, sensor, integrating center |
d.regulated variable, sensor, integrating center
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Which is a covalent bond?
A. two atoms share inner-orbit electrons with each other B. a bond between water molecules C. a bond between two oppositely charged ions D. two atoms share outer orbit electrons with each other |
D. two atoms share outer orbit electrons with each other
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Carbohydrates:
A. have carbon and oxygen atoms in equal proportions. B. are the major organic molecules of the body by mass c. are nonpolar molecules d. are defined by the inclusion of nitrogen in their structure. e. are composed of only carbon and hydrogen atoms |
A. have carbon and oxygen atoms in equal proportions.
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What are the two main atoms in lipids, and what type of bonds connect them?
A. carbon and oxygen, connected by covalent bonds b. carbon and hydrogen, connected by covalent bonds c. carbon and hydrogen, connected by ionic bonds D. carbon and hydrogen, connected by hydrogen bonds E. oxygen and hydrogen, connected by hydrogen bonds |
b. carbon and hydrogen, connected by covalent bonds
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The atomic number of an element refers to the number of particles in its atomic nucleus. True or False
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False
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What type of molecule is shown in the figure?
A. monosaccharide b. disaccharide c. fatty acid d. phospholipid e. amino acid |
b. disaccharide
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NaCl is a molecule formed by the covalent bonding of a sodium atom to a chlorine atom. True or False
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False
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In general, polar molecules will dissolve in polar solvents, while non polar molecules cannot. true or False
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True
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Saturated fats contain carbon atoms linked by double bonds. True or False
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False
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The most common elements found in biomolecules are carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen and A. phosphorous B. calcium c. oxygen d. potassium e. chlorine |
c. Oxygen
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When the body needs to make the eicosanoid thromboxane for wound repair, what component of the plasma membrane does it use for their synthesis? A. fatty acid and phospholipid B. transmembrane and glycoprotein c. glycolipid d. cholesterol e. ATP |
A.Fatty acid and phospholipid
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Which of the following molecule types is not a polymer? a. protein b. fatty acid c. glycogen d. DNA e. RNA |
b. Fatty acid |
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Which of the following characteristics concerning ribosomes is false? a. contain protein b. contain rRNA c. are the site of protein synthesis d. can remain free in the cytosol e. can be located in the golgi apparatus |
e. can be located in the Golgi apparatus |
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What strand of mRNA would be transcribed from the following strand of DNA: AATG? a. TTUC b. TTAC c. UUGT d. UUAC |
d. UUAC |
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The strand of DNA that gets transcribed to mRNA is called the A. intron strand b. exon strand c. promoter sequence d. sense (template) sequence |
d. sense (template) sequence
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An anticodon is A. a 3-nucleotide series of tRNA that is complementary to the mRNA to which it binds B. the strand of DNA used to create mRNA c. the code for a particular amino acid d. the stop signal that does not code for an amino acid |
A. a 3-nucleotide series of tRNA that is complementary to the mRNA to which it binds |
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What happens at the P site of a ribosome? A. it contains the enzyme that catalyzes formation of a peptide bond B. it has the binding site for mRNA C. It holds the tRNA with the most recent amino acid that has been added to the polypeptide chain d. it holds the tRNA with the next amino acid to be added to the polypeptide chain |
C. It holds the tRNA with the most recent amino acid that has been added to the polypeptide chain |
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The enzyme catalase is located where? A. SER B. lysosomes c. mitochondria d. golgi complex e. peroxisomes |
e.peroxisomes
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What is a glycerol with 3 fatty acids attached? A. glycerolipid B. eicosanoid C. saturated fat D. triglyceride e. phospholipid |
D. triglyceride |
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A H is stripped from the amino end and a OH is stripped from the carboxyl end in dehydration synthesys. True or False |
True |
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Attraction to amino acids further away that produces bends and folds creating a specific 3D shape is the secondary structure of proteins. True or False |
False |
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Sucrose is a disaccharide composed of a glucose and a lactose molecule. True or False |
False |
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Thymine is a pyrimidine. True or False |
True |
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The exon is cut from the original mRNA sequence, leaving the intro as a portion of mRNA that leaves the nucleus to be translated into protein. True or False |
False |
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Which of the following is a correct description of an anabolic pathway? a. Proteins are transcribed from DNA in the nucleus b. Glycogen is synthesized in the cytosol from glucose c. Proteins are degraded by mRNA in the cytoplasm d. The primary site of the synthesis of triglycerides is in the liver |
b. Glycogen is synthesized in the cytosol from glucose
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In a reduction reaction which of the following is most likely added to reactants? a. Water b. neutrons c. oxygen d. electrons e. phosphate |
d.electrons
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Which of the following would not increase the rate of a chemical reaction? a. increasing the concentration of reactants b. increasing temperature c. increasing the activation energy barrier d. adding a catalyst e. adding an enzyme |
c. increasing the activation energy barrier |
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In the induced-fit model for enzyme activity, the substrate alters the of the site on the enzyme. A. shape; allosteric b. conformation: inactive c. activity: active d. conformation: active |
d.conformation; active
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Identify the following chemical reaction by its type; Protein + Phosphate -----------> Protein-Phosphate a. hydrolysis b. condensation c. oxidation d. reduction e. phosphorylation |
e.phosphorylation
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An enzyme that catalyzes phosphorylation of a protein is called a . An enzyme that catalyzes dephosphorylation of a protein is called a . a. kinase: phosphatase b. phosphatase: kinase |
a.Kinase; phosphatase
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The following reaction is an example of oxidation: FAD +2H+ ------->2FADH2 True or False |
False |
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Cell A is a gland cell that makes and secretes proteins. Cell B is another type of cell that synthesizes and secretes steroids. If you were to look at electron micrographs of the two cells, what differences would you expect to see? A. Cell A would have more granular endoplasmic reticulum than cell B. B. Cell A would have fewer secretion granules than cell B C. cell A would have more agranular endoplasmic reticulum than cell B D. Cell B would hand more granular endoplasmic than cell A E. The two cells would most likely look identical |
A. Cell A would have more granular endoplasmic reticulum than cell B. |
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ATP is A. a nucleotide B. a lipid C. an amino acid D. a carbohydrate E. a steroid |
A. a nucleotide
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Once protein synthesis is completed, the protein that was synthesized may undergo further changes prior to its secretion or use within the cell. True or False |
True |
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In general, polar molecules diffuse more rapidly across cell membranes than do nonpolar molecules. True or False |
False |
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Which of the following would not increase the rate of simple diffusion across the plasma membrane? a. greater available surface area b. greater lipid solubility c. greater concentration gradient d. greater number of protein carrier e. smaller size |
d. greater number of protein carrier |
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Which of the following molecules is least likely to diffuse through the phospholipid bilayer of the plasma membrane. a. fatty acid b. water c. disaccharide d. oxygen e. steroids |
c. disaccharide |
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Which of the following transport mechanisms is passive? a. cotransport of glucose with sodium b. transport of sodium and potassium across the membrane by the Na/K pump c. movement of sodium through ion channels d. countertransport of hydrogen ions with sodium e. movement of calcium out of cytosol |
c. movement of sodium through ion channels
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In active transport, the affinity of a carrier protein for the molecule being transported is greater on which side of the membrane? a. always the side facing the intracellular fluid b. on the side where the molecule is in lower concentration c. on the side where the molecule is in greater concentration |
b. on the side where the molecule is in lower concentration |
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When the Na/K pump moves its bound molecules of sodium to the outside of the membrane, it a. immediately returns to the inside, ready to transport sodium back outside b.cannot return to inside empty-handed so it must bind two potassium first c. none of the above |
b.cannot return to inside empty-handed so it must bind two potassium first
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Which of the following statements about glucose cotransport with sodium is true? a. glucose moves into cell while sodium moves out b. glucose moves out while sodium moves into the cell c. glucose and sodium both move into the cell d. glucose and sodium both move out of the cell |
c.glucose and sodium both move into the cell
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When solute is actively transported across epithelium, what usually follows? a. water movement in the same direction b. water movement in the opposite direction |
a.water movement in the same direction
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Which condition exists when there are more solutes present in a solution? a. there is a lower thermal energy affecting diffusion b. there is a lower concentration of water in that solution c. there is a greater concentration of water to leave the solution d. there is a greater need for active transport |
b.there is a lower concentration of water in that solution
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The higher the osmolarity of a solution the higher the concentration of water in it. True or False |
False |
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The movement of water across the membrane is always a passive process. true or false |
True |
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The driving force for simple diffusion is moving up the concentration gradient. True or False |
False |
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The component of the plasma membrane that acts as a selective barrier to diffusion of polar molecules is the integral proteins. True or False |
True |
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Large differences of water concentration are required to drive water across membrane. True or False |
False |
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What is the primary role of Na/K pump? a. to produce ATP b. to pump Na and K down the concentration gradient c. The maintenance of Na and K concentrations on either side of the membrane |
c. The maintenance of Na and K concentrations on either side of the membrane |
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Which of the following solutions bathing a red blood cell would be considered hypotonic? A solution containing: a. 400 mOsm b. 200 mOsm |
b.200 mOsm
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Lisinopril is a medication that lowers high blood pressure back to within a desired range of function. The action of this medication is similar to that of a (n) in the human body. a. set point b. regulated variable c. negative feedback response d. positive feedback response |
c.negative feedback response
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The amphipathic property of phospholipids can be described as a a. nonpolar region facing the outside and a polar region facing the inside of a cell b. polar region that dissolves in water and a nonpolar region that repels water. c. nonpolar region that dissolves in water and a polar region that face one another |
b. polar region that dissolves in water and a nonpolar region that repels water. |
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This is an example of a catalyzed anabolic reation. Enzyme + Reactant ----E-R complex -----Product 1 + Product 2 + Enzyme True or False |
False |
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Put in order the major steps to convert DNA into a protein A. post Translational modification of protein chain B. Translation C. Gene activation D. Transcription E. mRNA processiong |
First-C Second-D Third-E Fourth-B Fifth-A |
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Matching A. Simple Diffusion B. Facilitated Diffusion C. None of the Above 1. Steroid hormone 2. Oxygen 3. Glucose 4. Water 5. Amino Acid |
1. A 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. B |
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Which is true about the structure and function of a gene? a. it is an uncoiled protein that contains information necessary for the synthesis of other proteins. b. it is a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that acts as an enzyme to digest proteins. c. it is composed of many molecules of DNA and contains information needed to make RNA. d. It is a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that contains information necessary for the synthesis of proteins |
d. It is a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that contains information necessary for the synthesis of proteins |
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What is the term for the segments of primary RNA that are cleaved and discarded? a. codons b. introns c. exons d. anticodons e. genes |
introns |
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Integral membrane proteins can form channels through which ions such as Na+ and K+ can diffuse. True or False |
True |
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Matching A. True B. False 1. Phosphorylation occurs in mitochondria 2. Peptide hormones synthesis in the RER 3. Breakdown of phagocytosed bacteria occurs in the peroxisomes 4. Packaging of secretory products into vesicles occurs in the Golgi complex 5. Calcium is stored in the SER |
1. A 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. A |
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Once protein synthesis is completed , the protein that was synthesized may undergo further changes prior to its secretion or use within the cell. True or False |
True |
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Because of the active transport of Na+ and K+ ,the intracellular concentration of Na+ is lower than the extracellular concentration, whereas the reverse is true for K+. True or False |
True |
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Which of the following components of the plasma membrane forms ion channels? a. phospholipids b. cholesterol c. peripheral proteins d. transmembrane glycolipids e. transmembrane proteins |
e.transmembrane proteins
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Where is the genetic code stored? a. brain b. heart c. nucleus d. cytoplasm e. vaults |
c.nucleus
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Oligopeptides are composed of up to 9 amino acids. True or False |
True |
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Which best describes the process of "adaptation" in sensory receptors? a. information from sensory receptors reaches the cerebral cortex and the person becomes aware of it. b. conversion of the energy of a stimulus into a pattern of electrical activity c. persistence of the sensation of a limb even after it has been severed from the body d. A decrease in receptor sensitivity despite continuation of a stimulus e. a depolarization of receptive membrane that increase in magnitude as the stimulus intensity increases |
d. A decrease in receptor sensitivity despite continuation of a stimulus |
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Which of the following is most important for the determination of stimulus type? a. the relative sensitivity of different receptors to different stimulus energies b. the intensity of a stimulus c. the location on the body where a stimulus is applied d. propagation of a signal along a nonspecific ascending pathway |
a.The relative sensitivity of different receptors to different stimulus energies
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Which of the following statements regarding the determination of stimulus intensity is true? a. stronger intensity stimuli cause rapid adaptation while weaker stimuli cause slower adaptation b. the amplitude of action potentials increases with increasing stimulus intensity. c. the duration of receptor potentials decreases with increasing stimulus intensity d. The frequency of action potentials increases with increasing stimulus intensity. e. the only means of detecting intensity changes is through recruitment of greater numbers of sensory units |
d. The frequency of action potentials increases with increasing stimulus intensity. |
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Which is an accurate description of the cortical association areas? a. they are all found in the parietal lobe of the cerebral cortex b.They integrate multiple types of sensory information and are responsible for complex processing of sensory information. c. their main input is sensory information arriving along neurons that project directly from the thalamus d. none of the above |
b.They integrate multiple types of sensory information and are responsible for complex processing of sensory information. |
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Which of the following statements regarding the precision (acuity) of locating a somatic stimulus is False? a. the precision is greater in the lips and fingers than on the back b. the precision is greater for the internal organs than for the skin |
b.The precision is greater for the internal organs than for the skin.
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Which of the following would NOT be categorized as a "somatic" sensation? a. pressure b. cold and warmth c. sound d. proprioception |
c.sound
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Which of the following statements regarding sensory pathways is correct? a. All somatic sensory information that reaches the cerebral cortex is first processed in the thalamus. b. somatic sensory information from the left side of the body projects to the left side of the somatosensory cortex c. all somatic sensory information travels together in a single tract in the spinal cord d. ascending pathways in the anterolateral column of the spinal cord carry information about fine touch discrimination e. ascending pathways in the dorsal column of the spinal cord carry information about pain from the back muscles |
a. All somatic sensory information that reaches the cerebral cortex is first processed in the thalamus. |
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Which of the following symptoms would a patient with a lesion (injury) that destroyed the right side of the spinal cord in the region of the neck be most likely to experience? a. loss of both pressure sense and pain in the right foot b. loss of both pressure sense and pain in the left foot c. loss of pressure sense in the right foot and pain in the left foot d. loss of pressure sense in the left foot and pain in the right foot |
c.loss of pressure sense in the right foot and pain in the left foot
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Accommodation for near vision requires: a. flattening of the lens b. contraction of the ciliary muscles c. activation of the sympathetic nervous system d. increased rounding of the cronea e. dilation of the pupil |
b.contraction of the ciliary muscles
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During normal viewing of a distant object, the: a. firing of parasympathetic nerves to ciliary muscles incrases b. suspensory ligaments are slackened c. lens flattens d. light rays striking the eyes are diverged by the cornea e. ciliary muscles are contracted |
c.lens flattens
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A person whose lens focuses light from distant objects "in front of" (rather than "on") the retina has a condition called: a. presbyopia b. hyperopia c. myopia d. cataract e. glaucoma |
c.myopia
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Which of the following statements about rods and cones in the retina is TRUE? a. cones enable us to see dim light; rods provide color vision b. rods and cones all have the same kind of opsin c. Cones are found in highest density in the fovea; rods are more prevalent near the edges of the retina. d. rods require brighter light to activate them than do cones e. rods provide higher visual acuity than do cones |
c. Cones are found in highest density in the fovea; rods are more prevalent near the edges of the retina.
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Which of these occurs when light strikes photoreceptors? a. The retina undergoes a change of shape. b. there is an increase in neurotransmitter release from photoreceptor cells c. the photoreceptor cell membrane becomes depolarized d. the concentration of cyclic GMP inside cells increases e. the photoreceptor cells are stimulated are fire action potentials |
a. The retina undergoes a change of shape. |
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The plasma membranes of rod and cone cells are: a. at their resting potential in the dark and depolarized in the the light b. at their resting potential in the dark and hyperpolarized in the light c. depolarized in the dark and hyperpolarized in the light d. hyperpolarized in the dark and at their resting potential in the light e. hyperpolarized in the dark and depolarized in the light |
c.depolarized in the dark and hyperpolarized in the light
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Each of the following statements regarding vision is true. Which statement best explains why we cannot see colors in dim light? a. the human eye has three kinds of cone photoreceptors b. there are six types of opponenet color cells in the lateral geniculate nucleus c. the human eye has only one kind of rod photoreceptor d. cone photoreceptors are concentrated in the fovea |
c.The human eye has only one kind of rod photoreceptor.
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In the visual pathway providing sensory action potentials to the brain, the first cells which are capable of initiating action potentials are: a. cone cells b. rod cells c. lateral geniculate cells d. ganglionic cells |
d.ganglionic cells
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The actual receptors for hearing are called a. baroreceptors b. nociceptors c. hair cells d. pacinian corpuscles e. somatic receptors |
c.hair cells
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Where are receptors for the chemical senses located? a. in the organ of corti and saccule b. in the cochlea and lateral geniculate nucleus c. in the skin and tendons d. in the tongue and nose e. in the fovea and semicircular canals |
d.in the tongue and nose
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The phenomenon know as referred pain a. is a perception of a false painful stimulus with no initiating stimulus; it is created in the mind b. is a direct association of an activity, which is on the verge of causing tissue damage to its specific location and cause in the body c. is the projected perception of pain as a sensation being experienced at a site other than that of the actual injured or diseased tissue d. is synonymous with the persistence of perceptions of painful stimuli long after the activity responsible for triggering them has ceased |
c. is the projected perception of pain as a sensation being experienced at a site other than that of the actual injured or diseased tissue |
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The process by which sensory receptors change various forms of energy into electrical energy is called translocation. True or False |
False |
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"Somatosensory" refers to the part of the cerebral cortex that receives synaptic input from specific ascending pathways originating only with receptors for touch. True or False |
False |
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In the somatosensory cortex, neuronal representation of body parts is proportional to the size of the body part. True or False |
False |
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The precision (acuity) of locating a somatosensory stimulus is greater in areas of the body that have small, overlapping receptive fields than in areas with large, nonoverlapping fields. True or False |
True |
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Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) is a major excitatory transmitter in the central nervous system. True or False |
False |
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The lateral axons of optic nerves from each eye cross at the optic chiasm, so all visual information from the right eye is received by the left side of the brain. True or False |
False |
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Axons of ganglion cells from the retina synapse in the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus on the way to the occipital lobes. True or False |
False |
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The photoreceptor cell(rods and cones) is different from other sensory receptors in that it is the only type that is actually depolarized at rest. True or False |
True |
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What cetegory of receptors do Pacinian corpuscles belong to? a. mechanoreceptors b. chemoreceptors c. nociceptors d. photoreceptors |
a.mechanoreceptors
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Which is False about neurons? a. a given neuron can be either a presynaptic neuron or a postsynaptic neuron b. an individual neuron can receive information from multiple other neurons c. an individual neuron can transmit information to multiple other neurons d. a neuron can simultaneously release more than one type of neurotransmitter. e.A neuron receives information on its axons and delivers it to other neurons through its dendrites. |
e.A neuron receives information on its axons and delivers it to other neurons through its dendrites.
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Which is TRUE about typical, resting neurons? a. the plasma membrane is most permeable to sodium ions b. the concentration of sodium ion is greater inside the cell than outside c. The permeability of the plasma membrane to potassium ions is much greater than its permeability to sodium ions. d. the plasma membrane is completely impermeable to sodium ions e. the plasma membrane is completely impermeable to potassium ions |
c. The permeability of the plasma membrane to potassium ions is much greater than its permeability to sodium ions. |
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A threshold stimulus applied to an excitable membrane is one that is just sufficient to: a. trigger an action potential b. be conducted to the axon hillock c. depolarize the dendrite |
a.trigger an action potential
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Which must happen in order for an action potential to begin? a. the membrane potential must be at the Na+ equilibrium potential b. Na+ influx must exceed K+ efflux c. the membrane must be out of the relative refractory period d. Na+ channels must all be inactivated |
b.Na+ influx must exceed K+ efflux
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During the rising (depolarizing) phase of a neuronal action potential a. permeability of K+ becomes much greater than permeability Na+ b. permeability Na+ becomes much greater than permeability K+ c. permeability K+ is the same as permeability Na+ d. Na+ efflux (flow out of cell) occurs e. K+ flows rapidly into the cell |
b. permeability Na+ becomes much greater than permeability K+ |
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Suppose that all calcium could be removed from the extracellular fluid surrounding a neuron. Such removal would inhibit the ability of a neuron to a. produce action potentials b. release neurotransmitter c. respond to the binding of a neurotransmitter to its receptor d. degrade neurotransmitter |
b. release neurotransmitter |
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Synaptic vesicles a. store calcium b. release NT by exocytosis c. degrade NT d. form gap junctions e. synthesizes NT |
b.release NT by exocytosis
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If Na+ channels closed in response to a stimulus, then a. the neuron would be depolarized b. the neuron would be hyperpolarized c. none of the above |
b.the neuron would by hyperpolarized
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Which is most directly responsible for the falling (repolarizing) phase of the action potential? a. voltage-gated Na+ channels are opened b. the Na+, K+ pump restores the ions to their original locations inside and outside of the cell c. the permeability to Na+ increases greatly d. ATPase destroys the energy supply that was maintaining the action potential at its peak e. the permeability to K+ increases greatly while that to Na+ decreases |
e.The permeability to K+ increases greatly while that to Na+ decreases
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Which of the following statements about the refractory period of a membrane is true? A. the absolute refractory period refers to the period of time during which another action potential cannot be initiated in that part of the membrane that is undergoing an action potential no matter how great the strength of the stimulus b. the refractory period prevents the action potential from spreading back over the part of the membrane that just underwent an action potential c. all of the above choices are correct |
c.All of the above choices are correct
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Which of the following statements regarding action potentials generated in a neuronal membrane is not True a. Action potential travel decrementally down the membrane b. an action potential generates a new action potential in an adjacent area of membrane c. an action potential generates a local current that depolarizes adjacent membrane to threshold potentials d. action potentials are usually initiated at the initial segment of a neuron e. an action potential generated by a threshold stimulus is the same size as one generated by a supra-threshold stimulus |
a. Action potential travel decrementally down the membrane |
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How is the strength of a stimulus encoded by neurons? a. by the size of action potentials b. by the frequency of action potentials c. by the duration of action potentials |
b.by the frequency of action potentials
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Which of the following statements concerning the rate of the action potential propagation is true? a. it is faster in small-diameter axons than in large-diameter axons b. it is faster for a strong stimulus than for a weak one c. it is faster in myelinated axons than in nonmyelinated axons d. it is faster in the dendrites than in the axon e. it occurs at the same rate in all axons, regardless of their diameter |
c. It is faster in myelinated axons than in nonmyelinated axons
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Which of the following is not known to be an important neurotransmitter in the CNS? a. dopamine b. acetylcholine c. morphine d. glutamate |
c.morphine
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Which of the following statements about acetylcholine is correct a. Acetylcholine binds to nicotinic and muscarinic receptors. b. acetylcholine binds to adrenergic receptors c. acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released by most sympathetic postganglionic neurons d. acetylcholine is generally transported back into presynaptic nerve terminals without being enzymatically degraded. |
a. Acetylcholine binds to nicotinic and muscarinic receptors. |
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Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter and binds to adrenergic receptors True or False |
True |
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Nicotine is a. a cholinergic antagonist b. a neurotransmitter c. a cholinergic agonist |
c. a cholinergic agonist
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Which one of the most abundant excitatory neurotransmittors in the CNS? a. glutamate b. dopamine c. norepinephrine d. gamma-aminobutyric (GABA) |
a. Glutamate
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The portion of the peripheral nervous system that is composed of nerve fibers that innervate skeletal muscle is called the a. afferent nervous system b. sympathetic nervous system c. parasympathetic nervous system d. somatic motor nervous system e. autonomic nervous system |
d. somatic motor nervous system
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The maintenance of a resting potential in a neuron depends not only upon the functioning of the Na+-K+pumps in the membrane. True or False |
True |
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At an excitatory chemical synapse between two neurons, a. There is increased permeability of the postsynaptic cell to both Na+ and K+ b. a small hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane occurs when the synapse is activated c. an actionpotential in the presynaptic neuron always causes an actionpotential in the postsynaptic neuron d. excitation occurs because K+ enters the postsynaptic cell e. action potentials spread through gap junctions between cells |
a. There is increased permeability of the postsynaptic cell to both Na+ and K+ |
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An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) a. is produced by simultaneous increases in permeability to both Na+ and K+ b. occurs when a ligand-gated ion channel increases its permeability to K+ c. is a small depolarization in a postsynaptic cell d. can be summed with other IPSPs to trigger an action potential in the postsynaptic cell e. is produced by an increase inpermeability to only Na+ |
b.occurs when a ligand-gated ion channel increases its permeability to K+
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EPSPs depolarize postsynaptic cell membranes. True or False |
True |
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Which of these is a lipid soluble messenger? a. thyroid hormone b. protein kinase c. glucose d. sodium e. cyclic AMP |
a.Thyroid hormone
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Specificity is an important characteristic of intercellular communication and it occurs because protein chemical messengers are only expressed in specific target cells. True or False |
True |
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Direct comunication between cells in contact with one another is accomplished through a. ligands b. receptors c. gap junctions d. paracrine messengers e. endocrine hormones |
c.gap junctions
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The number of bound receptors on a target cell depends on the concentration of messenger and the cone receptors. True or false
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True |
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Which type of chemical messenger, when released, binds to receptors on the cell that released the chemical messenger? a. hormone b. autocrine c. neurotransmitter |
b.Autocrine
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Which of the following chemical messengers is lipophilic and therefore able to cross the cell membrane? a. amino acids b. amines (excluding thyroid hormone) c. peptides d. eicosnoids e. proteins |
d.eicosanoids
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The locationof receptors on a target cell depends on the solubility of the chemical messenger. Where would the receptors for lipophilic mesengers be located? a. on the outside of the cell b. on the inside of the cell c. only in the nucleus |
b.on the inside of the cell
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Lipophobic chemical messengers communicate a message to the target cell by binding to receptors on the cell's membrane. True or False |
True |
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In its active form, a G protein has a GDP bound to its alpha unit. True or False |
False |
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Put in order the components of the general pathway of a signal transduction A. Response B. Chemical messenger C. Target proteins D. Receptor proteins |
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A |
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Match the following chemical messengers to their chemical structure classification. A. Aldosterone B. Glycine C. Cathecolamines D. Thromboxanes E. Glucagon 1. Amines 2. Peptides 3. Eicosanoids 4. Steroids 5. Amino acids |
1. C 2. E 3. D 4. A 5. B |
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Tyrosine kinase catalyzes phosphorylation of intracellular protein. True or False |
True |
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Match A. Lipophobic messenger B. Lipophilic messenger 1. it dissolves in blood 2. it secreted by simple diffusion 3. It alters transcription of mRNA 4. It could be an amino acid, amines, or peptide 5. Receptors found in cytosol or nucleus |
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. B |
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Match the following terms to their definitions A. membrane potential B. resting membrane potential C. threshold potential D. Action potential E. Transduction 1. critical level where membrane potential is depolarized to initiate action potential 2. Difference of voltage between the inside and outside of the cell 3. Large and rapid changes in membrane potential, inside is more positive |
1. C 2. A 3. D |
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EPSPs can occur as either fast or slow responses. True or False |
True |
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When voltage-gated Ca++ channels open, Ca++ moves out of the cell. True or False |
False |
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A releasing hormone is a type of tropic hormone. True or False |
True |
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The only non-peptide/protein tropic hormone is dopamine. True or False |
True |
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Which pancreatic cell type secretes glucagon? a. gamma cells b. alpha neurons c. beta cells d. delta cells e. none of the above |
e.none of the above
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All of the following hormones are produced in the adrenal cortex except: a. aldosterone b. androgens c. epinephrine d. cortisol e. both male and female sex hormones precursors |
c.epinephrine
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A person with Cushing's disease is found to have a functioning adenoma in the anterior pituitary causing an increased ACTH secretion. Which of the following correctly describes the changes in plasma levels of hormones? a. decreased CRH, increased ACTH, and increased cortisol b. increased CHR, increased ACTH, and decreased cortisol c. decreased CRH, decreased ACTH, and decreased cortisol |
a.decreased CRH, increased ACTH, and increased cortisol
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Match the hormone with the primary agent that stimulates its secretion. A. epinephrine B. T3 and T4 C. FSH D. corticosteroids 1. TSH 2. ACTH 3. GnRH 4. sympathetic nerves |
1. B
2. D 3. C 4. A |
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Neurohormones attach to intracellular receptors in the plasma membrane of target cells. True or False |
False |
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Match each of the following characteristics to these types of hormones. A. Lipid soluble hormone B. water soluble hormone C. both A and B 1. Easily dissolved in teh extracellular fluid for transport 2. Almost all derived from cholesterol 3. Are released into the blood to travel to a distant target organ 4. Activate a second messenger 5. Transported in blood bound to protein carriers |
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. A |
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Put in order the following steps of secretion of cathecolamine hormones.
A. first B. second C. Third D. Fourth E. Fifth 1. Ca++ voltage-gated channels open 2. Ligand Na+ channels open and depolarization occurs 3. Cathecolamines secreted by exocytosis and diffuse into blood 4. Ca++ goes inside the cell and secretory vesicles fuse to plasma membrane of cell 5. ACh bind to cholinergic N-n receptors in chromaffin cells |
1. C 2. B 3. E 4. D 5. A |
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Responsiveness of cells to hormones is determined by the presence or absence of specific hormone receptor proteins. True or False |
True |
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Thyroid hormones bind to receptors which a. activate tyrosine kinase b. regulate gene transcription c. stimulate production of cyclic AMP d. stimulate production of diacylglycerol (DAG) |
b.regulate gene transcription
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Inhibition of luteinizing hormone secretion would inhibit testosterone synthesis. True or False |
True |
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The posterior pituitary gland produces two hormones. True or False |
False |
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Prolonged stress may stimulate a. symptoms similar to Cushing's syndrome b. increased resistance to disease c. adrenal gland atrophy d. no apparent physiological changes |
a.symptoms similar to Cushing's syndrome
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Which of the following is NOT a response of the body to stress? a. increased secretion of ACTH b. increased secretion of glucocorticoids c. increased immune response d. increased secration of epinephrine and norephinephrine |
c.Increased immune response
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Longer, stronger muscles have motor units with very few fibers. True or False |
False |
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Cross-bridge formation occurs when myosin heads attach to actin molecules located in the thin filaments. True or False |
True |
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Myosin will not bind to actin unless ADP is bound to the myosin head. True or False |
True |
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During skeletal muscle contraction a. the H band increases in size b. Ca2+ associates with tropomyosin c. myosin heads interact with tropomyosin d. thin filaments slide across thick filaments |
d.thin filaments slide across thick filaments
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Which of the following does NOT occur during the cross bridge cycle? a. a second ATP binding causes cross bridges to release b. ADP is released at the end of the power stroke c. energized myosin heads bind Ca++ d. ATP hydrolysis allows for cross bridge formation |
C.energized myosin heads bind Ca++
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When a muscle is stimulated to contract, calcium release channels in the SR will release Ca2+ by A. active transport B. facilitated diffusion c. passive diffusion d. exocytosis e. none of the above |
B.facilitated diffusion
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What is the role of ATP in muscle contraction and relaxation? a. it is hydrolyzed from the myosin head to attach to actin b. it causes myosin head to detach from actin c. it powers the Ca2+ pumps to return Ca2+ to the SR d. all apply |
d.All apply
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Fast twitch fibers have the greatest resistance to fatigue. True or False |
False |
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Damage to the lower motor neurons would induce a. spastic paralysis b. babinski's sign c. flaccid paralysis |
c.
flaccid paralysis |
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The cerebellum directly influences motor activity. True or False |
False |
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Which of the following is needed for the myosin head to undergo a power stroke? a. release of Pi b. binding of ATP to the head c. splitting of ATP into ADP and Pi d. addition of Ca2+ to the head |
A.release of Pi
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pyramidal tracts include the and tracts. a. rubrospinal, lateral corticospinal b. reticulospinal, ventral corticospinal c. ventral corticospinal, lateral coriticospinal d. rubrospinal, reticulospinal |
C.
ventral corticospinal, lateral corticospinal |
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In cardiac muscle, calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum due to direct interaction with the voltage-gated L-type Ca2+ channels and RyR channels. True or False |
False |
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Match A. True B. False 1. Ca++ that is needed to activate cross-bridging in smooth muscle mainly comes from extracellular fluid 2. In smooth muscle cells, myoglobin functions in a manner analogous to troponin 3. Smooth muscle contraction requires the actions of myosinlight chain kinase 4. Myosin filaments are attached to dense bodies in smooth muscle cells. 5. Smooth muscle cells contain A and I bands |
1. A 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. B |
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Put in order the following events of crossbridge cycle. A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth E. Fifth 1. Power stroke 2. Rigor 3. cocking of myosin head 4. Binding of myosin and actin 5. Unbinding of myosin and actin |
1. B
2. C 3. E 4. A 5. D |
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Where do autonomic postganglionic neurons originate? a. brainstem b. gray matter of spinal cord c. peripheral ganglia d. all apply |
c. peripheral ganglia
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Damage to the gray rami communicantes would inhibit the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. True or False |
False
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. fibers have relatively slower nerve conduction because they are thin and unmyelinated. A. preganglionic autonomic sympathetic B. postganlionic autonomic sympathetic c. preganlionic somatic d. postganlionic somatic |
b.Postganlionic autonomic sympathetic
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Which of the following is Not a prevertebral ganglion? A. superior mesenteric b. hepatic c. celiac d. inferior mesnteric |
b.hepatic
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Four (II, VII, IX and X) of the twelve pairs of cranial nerves give rise to parasympathetic preganglionic nerves. True or False |
False |
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Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers are relatively long. True or False |
False |
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. ganglia are associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. a. paravertebral b. terminal c. collateral d. basal |
b.Terminal
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Cutaneous effectors such as blood vessels sweat glands, and errector pili muscles are innervated by a. only parasympathetic nerves b. both parasympathetic and sympathetic nerves c. only sympathetic nerves d. both parasympathetic and somatic nerves |
c. only sympathetic nerves
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Students who suffer from test anxiety often have some of the following symptoms: the need to for frequent urination, dilated pupils, and a dry mouth. What branch of the ANS would cause these symptoms? a. somatic b. parasympathetic c. involuntary d. enteric e. sympathetic |
e. sympathetic
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parasympathetic stimulation increases the rate of passage of material in the small intestine. True or False |
True |
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Matching A. excitatory response B. inhibitory response 1. Muscarinic 1 and 3 receptors 2. Alpha 1 receptors 3. Nicotinic n receptors 4. Beta 2 receptors 5. Muscarinic 2 receptors |
1. A 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. B |
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Beta receptors are more sensitive to blood epinephrine. True or False |
True |
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All adrenergic receptors act via a. ligand-gated channels b. sodium-potassium pump c. H-proteins d. G-proteins |
d. G-proteins
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Beta-adrenergic receptors stimulate the production of cAMP. True or False |
True |
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Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors are mediated by a. cAMP b. Ca2+ c. K+ d. Na+ |
b. Ca2+
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Nicotinic agonists would bind cholinergic receptors on preganglionic autonomic neurons. True or False |
True |
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M2 receptors in the heart a. decrease heart rate b. increase heart rate c. cause increased cytosolic Ca2+ in heart cells d. cause increased spontaneous depolarization in the heart |
A. decrease heart rate
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Muscarinic antagonists, like atropine, stimulate pupillary diameter. A. increased b. decreased c. no change in |
A. increased
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Studies have indicated that aging is associated with increased levels of parasympathetic activity and tone. True or False |
False |
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Matching A. sympathetic NS B. parasympathetic NS 1. suppression of accommocation 2. Contraction of urinary bladder 3. Secretion of pancreatic and intestinal fluids 4. Bronchodilation 5. Ejaculation |
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. A |
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What converts the myosin head into the high energy state? A binding to ATP only b. binding to actin c. the condensation of ATP d. the hydrolysis of ATP e. binding to titin |
d. the hydrolysis of ATP
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Hypertension can be treated with drugs called beta-blockers such as propranolol, so named because they block the effects of NE and epinephrine at beta adrenergic receptors including those in the heart. What is/are the effects of these chemical messengers at beta 1 receptors found in cardiac muscle? a. increase heart rate in SA node b. increase conduction of velocity in AV node c. increase force of contraction d. decrease heart rate and conduction velocity e. a, b and c |
e) a, b and c
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Place the following in the order they occur causing a blood clot. A. Platelet and tissue factors (chemical messengers) are secreted B. Prothrombin is converted to thrombin C. Clotting factor X (#10) is activated D. Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin E. Tissues are damaged 1. first 2. second 3. third 4. fourth 5. fifth |
1. E 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. D |
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Matching A. occurs in pulmonary capillaries B. occurs in systemic capillaries 1. Hb-H + O2-->Hb-O2 + H+ 2. Hb-H + O2<--Hb-O2 + H+ 3. Hb-H + CO2 -->Hb-CO2 + H+ 4. CO2 +H2O--> H2CO3--> H+ + HCO3- 5. CO2 +H2O<-- H2CO3<-- H+ + HCO3- |
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. A |
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Place the following in the in the order they occur during quiet inhalation. A. air is drawn into lungs B. Diaphragm is pulled down C. Diaphragm contracts D. Lungs expand and the elastic connective tissue of lungs stretches E. parietal pleura of the diaphragm pulls on the visceral pleura of the lungs 1. first 2. second 3. third 4. fourth 5. fifth |
1. C 2. B 3. E 4. D 5. A |
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Matching A. the volume of air remaining in the lungs following a maximum expiration. B. The maximum volume of air that can be inspired following a quiet inspiration C. The volume of air exchanged during an unforced breath D. TV + IRV +ERV + RV E. TV + IRV + ERV 1. IRV 2. TV 3. VC 4. RV 5. TLC |
1. B 2. C 3. E 4. A 5. D |
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The elasticity of the lungs facilitates expansion during inspiration. True or False |
False
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Activation of the sympathetic nervous system causes bronchodilation. True or False |
True |
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What is the primary determinant of airway resistance? a. presence of mucus b. rate of air exhange c. compliance d. airway radius |
d.airway radius
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Which pressure is constant during the respiratory cycle? a. transpulmonary pressure b. intrapulmonary (intra-alveolar) pressure c. atmospheric pressure d. ventricular pressure |
c.atmospheric pressure
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What is the volume of the respiratory pathway that is not able to exchange gases called? a. inspiratory volume b. expiratory dead space c. functional residual volume d. residual volume e. dead space |
e. Dead space
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The surface tension of the alveoli is reduced by surfactant produced by what type of cells? A. goblet cell B. type 1 alveolar cell C. dust cell D. ciliated cell E. none of the above |
none of the above |
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Which of the following pressures is lower during inspiration than during expiration? a. both intra-alveolar and intrapleural pressure b. both transpulmonary and intrapulmonary pressure c. intrapleural pressure only d. transpulmonary pressure only e. intra-alveolar pressure only |
a. both intra-alveolar and intrapleural pressure
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What does contraction of the diaphragm cause? a. decrease in the volume of thoracic cavity and intrapulmonary pressure b. increase in volume of thoracic cavity and increase of intrapulmonary pressure c. increase in the volume of throacic cavity and decrease of intrapulmonary pressure d. decrease in the volume of thoracic cavity and increase of intrapulmonary pressure |
c.
increase in the volume of thoracic cavity and decrease of intrapulmonary pressure |
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What is the enzyme that converts soluble fibrinogen to insoluble a. prothrombin b. thrombin c. thromboplastin d. plasmin |
B. thrombin
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Matching A. end diastolic volume (EDV) B. end systolic volume (ESV) C. Stroke volume (SV) D. Cardiac output (CO) 1. =SV x HR 2. Blood flow out of left ventricle each minute 3. Left ventricular volume at end of relaxtion 4. Left ventricular volume at end of contraction 5. Blood flow out of left ventricle each contraction |
1. D 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. C |
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Put in order A. clot removal B. Vasoconstriction C. Formation of fibrin mesh/web D. Formation of platelet plug 1. First 2. second 3. Third 4. Fourth |
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A |
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Respiratory alkalosis can occur during a. shortage of CO2 b. excess of CO2 |
A. shortage of CO2
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Place the following in the order they occur in cardiac pacemakers cells A) Depolarization (+) opens K+ channels causing repolarization (-) B) Depolarization (+) by Ca2+ opens Ca2+ L-channels C) Depolarization (+) by Na+ opens Ca2+ T-channels D) Repolarization (-) opens "F" type Na+ channels E) K+ channels close 1. first 2. second 3. third 4. fourth 5. fifth |
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. E |
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The majority of oxygen present within the blood is a. bound to Hb within the plasma b. bound to Hb in RBC c. dissolved within the plasma d. in the plasma as HCO3- e. bound to plasma proteins |
B. bound to Hb in RBC
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Hyperventilation will cause changes in pCO2 that are detected by the chemoreceptors which causes a (n) A. decrease in breathing rate only B. decrease in depth of breathing C. A and B |
C. A and B |
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A respiratory acidosis is caused by increased CO2 within the blood. True or False |
True |
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The inspiratory neurons of the ventral and dorsal respiratory groups stimulate motor neurons in the phrenic nerve, which stimulates contraction of the diaphragm. True or False |
True |
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As blood flows through systemic capillaries, carbonic acid (H2CO#) dissociates into bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) and a hydrogen ion (H+) within the RBC, the bicarbonate is moved out by the chloride shift while the hydrogen ion binds to hemoglobin. True or False |
True |
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A person goes to the doctor and is told his BP is 90/60 and his pulse is 80. Which of the following is false? A. systolic pressure is 90 mmHg B. pulse pressure is 80 mmHg C. MAP is 70 mmHg D. diastolic pressure is 60 mmHg E. HR is 80 |
B. pulse pressure is 80mmHg
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What is the driving force for blood flow through the systemic circuit? a. right atrial pressure b. capillary hydrostatic pressure c. central venous pressure d. mean arterial pressure |
d. mean arterial pressure
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Which of the following would decrease mean arterial pressure? a. increase in heart rate b. increase in venous return c. increase in stroke volume d. increase in TPR e. increase in arteriole diameter |
E. increase in arteriole diameter |
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which of the following would decrease central venous pressure? A. activity of skeletal muscles b. increased respiratory activity c. increased sympathetic activity d. standing up e. increased blood volume |
d. standing up
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Where is the cardiovascular control center? A. hypothalamus b. pons c. medulla oblongata d. adrenal medulla e. none of the above |
c. medulla oblongata
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Matching A) PQ (PR) interval B) QT interval C) QRS wave D) P wave E) T wave 1. corresponds to time of atrial contraction 2. measures depolarization of atrial muscle 3. measures depolarization of ventricular muscle 4. corresponds to time of ventricular contraction 5. measures repolarization of ventricular muscle |
1. A 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. E |
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Matching A) Flow=F B) MAP C) Compliance=C D) stroke volume=SV E) Resistance of airways=Raw 1. Prs/Fair 2. EDV-ESV 3. Pin-Pout/R 4. BV/MAP 5. (COxTPR)+CVP |
1. E 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. B |
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Place the following in the order they occur during renin-angiotensin control of blood vessels. A) liver produces angiotensinogen and kidneys produce renin B) Angiotensin II acts on receptors to cause vasodilation and vasocontriction C) Renin converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I D) ACE converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II 1. first 2. second 3. third 4. fourth |
1.A 2. C 3. D 4. B |
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During recording of an EKG, a depolarization that travels toward a positive lead will cause an upward deflection. True or False |
True |
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Trace the cardiac conduction signals through the heart. A) AV node B) SA node C) atrial conduction fibers D) AV bundle and branches E) Ventricular conduction fibers 1. first 2. second 3. third 4. fourth 5. fifth |
1.B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. E |
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Matching (cardiac cycle) A) ventricular contraction B) ventricular relaxation 1. ventricular pressure exceeds aortic pressure 2. AV valves are open, semilunar valves are closed 3. Pressure differential leads to 70% of ventricular filling 4. AV valves are closed, semilunar valves are open |
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. A |
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Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs when a. the mother has blood type A and the fetus has blood type O B. the mother has Rh+ blood and the fetus has Rh- blood C. the mother has Rh- blood and the fetus has Rh+ blood D. the mother has typ ABe blood and the fetus has type O |
C.the mother has Rh- blood and the fetus has Rh+ blood |
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Andrew has type B blood. Which type of antibodies are present in his plasma? A. anti-A B anti-B C. anti-A, and anti-B D. neither anti-A nor anti-B |
A. anti-A
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The ventricles pump an average of 50-60 mL of blood per minute.True or False |
False |
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Acetylcholine binds to receptors of the heart and causes the opening of channels. A. muscarinic, K+ B. nicotinic, K+ C. muscarinic, Na+ D. nicotinic, Na+ |
A. muscarinic, K+
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Stroke volume is affected by all of the following EXCEPT A. total peripheral resistance B. blood viscosity C. cardiac contractility D. end diastolic volume (EDV) |
B.blood viscosity
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Preload is the amount of blood in the ventricles right before they begin to contract. True or False |
True |
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Cardiac output would be increased by A. sympathetic antagonists B. parasympathetic agonists C. negative inotropic agents D. positive chronotropic agents |
D. positive chronotropic agents
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The heart spends more time in systole than diastole. True or False |
False |
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Endothelin-1 causes A. vasoconstriction b. vasodilation c. no effect |
A. vasoconstriction
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The mean arterial pressure of a person with a blood pressure of 138/78 would be A. 20 B. 60 C. 68 D. 98 |
D. 98
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The ventricles completely empty when they contract in systole. True or False |
False |
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The action potential of nonpacemaker cells is due to the A. inward diffusion of Na+ B. inward diffusion of Ca2+ C. inward diffusion of K+ D. outward diffusion of K+ |
A. inward diffusion of Na+
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Which hormone's release is ultimately affected by TRH? a. cortisol b. glucagon c. thyroid hormone d. TSH e. insulin |
c. thyroid hormone |
