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179 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. All of the following infectious disease services are offered through regional Public Health Services agencies EXCEPT:
a. Education b. Monitoring c. Screening d. Treatment |
D
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1. This is an abbreviation for an independent group of hospitals and physicians that offers services to employers at a discounted rate in exchange for a steady supply of patients.
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PPO
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The abbreviation for the current coding system for physician billing is called
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CPT
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This is an abbreviation for large organizations that contract with local providers to establish a complete network of services
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MCO
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4. A nationally endorsed principle ensuring that patients and their families understand their rights and responsibilities while in a healthcare facility comes from:
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The Patient Care Partnership
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Managed Care Organizations control costs by all of the following ways EXCEPT:
a. Encouraging healthy lifestyles b. Detecting risk factors early c. Limiting patient enrollment d. Offering patient education |
c
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This is the abbreviation for a classification system implemented in 2000 that is used to determine payment to hospitals for outpatient services.
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APC ambulatory patient classification
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This is the abbreviation for a classification system implemented in 2000 that is used to determine payment to hospitals for outpatient services.
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APC ambulatory patient classification
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Who has the responsibility for control of hospital-induced infections in the healthcare facility?
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Sr. Director Performance Excellence
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Who is responsible for the physicians who practice in the hospital?
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VP & Chief Medical Officer
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Which Director, Chief Officer, or vice President has the administrative responsibility for outpatient medical services?
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VP/ Chief Nursing Officer
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Which Director, Chief Officer, or vice President has the responsibility for quality performance and patient satisfaction?
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Sr. Director Performance Excellence
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Which phlebotomist’s duty involves TB and Cocci testing?
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point of care testing
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Which phlebotomist’s duty does not involve telephone etiquette?
a. Comply with instituted procedures b. Maintain patient confidentiality c. Perform quality control checks d. Promote good public relations |
C
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Which of the following is an agency that certifies phlebotomists?
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ASCP
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16. The primary duty of a phlebotomist is to:
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COLLECT BLOOD SPECIMENS
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17. Promoting good public relations is a part of the phlebotomist’s role for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
a. A phlebotomist is a representative of the laboratory b. Good public relations promotes harmonious relationships c. Patients equate experiences with overall caliber of care received. d. Skilled public relations can cover up inexperience and insecurity. > > > |
D
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18. Primum non nocere comes from the Hippocratic Oath and means:
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FIRST DO NO HARM
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19. Which of the following is an example of good work ethics?
a. Assertiveness b. Noncommunicative behavior c. Dependability d. Indifference toward others > > > |
C
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20. Phlebotomy is used as a therapeutic treatment for:
a. Diabetes b. Hypothyroidism c. Phlebitis d. Polycythemia > > > |
D
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21. All of the following are reasons for a phlebotomist to participate in continuing education programs EXCEPT:
a. Eliminate annual evaluations b. Learn new skills and techniques c. Renew licensure or certification d. Stay current in the latest procedures. > > > |
A
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22. The term “phlebotomy” is derived from Greek words that, literally translated, mean to:
a. Cut a vein b. Draw blood c. Stick a vein d. Withdraw blood > > > |
A
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23. One of a phlebotomist’s duties is to:
a. Assist with inserting IV cannulas b. Help nurses with direct patient care c. Inform patients of their test results d. Perform lab computer operations > > > |
D
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24. What are the credentials of an NCA-certified phlebotomist?
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CLPlb
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25. Which of the following ancient blood-letting instruments has a counterpart in a modern-day bleeding device?
a. Bleeding bowl b. Cup c. Fleam d. Syringe > > > |
C
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26. Proof of participation in a workshop to upgrade skills required by some agencies to renew certification is called:
a. Accreditation verification b. Continuing education units c. Essentials confirmation > > > |
B
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27. While staying in a healthcare facility, one patient expectation as listed in the Patient care Partnership brochure is the right to:
a. 1:1 patient-to-nurse ratio b. A quiet, private room c. Help with billing claims d. Information on roommates. > > > |
C
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28. Personal “zone of comfort” is a radius of:
>a. 1-18 inches b. 1 ½-4 feet c. 4-12 feet d. Over 12 feet > > > |
B
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29. All of the following are examples of barriers to effective communication EXCEPT:
>a. Does not speak English b. Is a very young child c. Is emotionally upset d. Is a mature male HCW. |
D
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30. Which of the following is an example of a confirming response to a patient?
a. “I am on a tight schedule right now.” b. “I do not know what you mean.” c. “I have no idea how long it will take.” d. “I understand how you must be feeling.” |
D
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31. Which of the following is an example of negative kinesics:
a. Eye contact b. Frowning c. Good grooming d. Smiling |
B
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All of the following are good ways to earn a patient’s trust EXCEPT:
a. Act knowledgeably b. Convey sincerity c. Dismiss patient fears d. Look professional |
C
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33. Which one of the following represents improper telephone protocol?
a. Answer the phone promptly b. Clarify and record information c. Hang up on hostile individuals d. Restate information received |
C
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34. Proxemics is the study of an individual’s:
a. Body language b. Concept of space c. Facial expressions d. Verbal communication |
B
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35. Elements of good communication in healthcare involve all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Accepting the patient as a unique individual who has special needs. b. Allowing patients to feel a sense of control by expressing their wishes c. Disguising the truth to the patient with statements like “this won’t hurt” d. Listening thoughtfully and patiently while patients vent their emotions |
C
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36. The best way to handle a “difficult” or “bad” patient is to:
a. Help the patient to feel in control of the situation b. Leave the room without collecting the specimen c. Speak firmly to maintain charge of the situation |
A
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37. Which of the following is an example of proxemics?
a. Eye contact b. Facial expression c. Personal contact d. Personal hygiene |
C
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38. Which of the following situations allows patients to feel in control?
a. Agreeing with patients that it is their right to refuse a blood draw b. Informing patients that you are going to collect a blood sample c. Insisting that patients cooperate and let you draw needed samples d. Telling patients they are not to eat or drink anything during a test |
A
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39. Another term for outpatient care is:
a. Ambulatory care b. Nonambulatory care c. Nursing home care d. Rehabilitation care |
A
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40. Which laboratory department performs tests to identify abnormalities of the blood and blood-forming tissues?
a. Chemistry b. Hematology c. Microbiology d. Urinalysis |
B
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41. Which department is responsible for administering a patient’s oxygen therapy?
a. Cardiodiagnostics b. Electroencephalography c. Physical therapy d. Respiratory therapy |
D
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42. Which of the following tests would be performed in surgical pathology?
a. Compatibility testing b. Enzyme immunoassay c. Frozen section d. Triglycerides |
C
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43. The phlebotomist is asked to collect a specimen from a patient in the nephrology department. A patient in this department is most likely being treated for a disorder of the:
a. Joints b. Kidneys c. Lungs d. Nose |
B
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44. The phlebotomy supervisor asked a phlebotomist to collect a specimen in the otorhinolaryngology department. The phlebotomist proceeded to go to the department that provides treatment for:
a. Bone and joint disorders b. Ear, nose, and throat disorders c. Eye problems or diseases d. Skin problems and diseases. |
B
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45. Which of the following tests is performed in the coagulation department?
a. BUN b. CBC c. Glucose d. PT |
D
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Which medical specialty treats patients with tumors?
e. Geriatrics f. Oncology g. Ophthalmology h. Orthopedics |
F
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46. Another name for blood bank is:
a. Immunohematology b. Immunology c. Microbiology d. Serology |
A
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47. All of the following are hematology tests EXCEPT:
a. Glycosylated hemoglobin b. Hematocrit c. Platelet count d. Reticulocyte count |
A
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48. With which other hospital department would the laboratory coordinate therapeutic drug monitoring?
a. Nuclear medicine b. Pharmacy c. Physical therapy d. Radiology |
B
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49. Basic metabolic panels (BMPs) are performed in which department?
a. Chemistry b. Hematology c. Histology d. Microbiology |
A
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50. Which department performs blood cultures:
a. Hematology b. Microbiology c. Serology d. Urinalysis |
B
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51. Electrolyte testing includes:
a. Bilirubin and creatinine b. BUN and cholesterol c. Glucose and uric acid d. Sodium and potassium |
D
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52. A Pap smear is examined for the presence of cancer cells in this department.
a. Cytology b. Hematology c. Histology d. Microbiology |
A
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The prepaid group healthcare organizations in which members pay flat fees for defined services are called:
e. DRGs f. HMOs g. ICDs h. SNFs |
F
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53. Which department processes and stains tissue samples for microscopic analysis?
a. Chemistry b. Coagulation c. Histology d. Microbiology |
C
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54. All of the following personnel are required to have a college degree or equivalent EXCEPT:
a. Clinical laboratory scientist b. Medical technician c. Medical technologist d. Phlebotomist |
D
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55. All medical laboratories are regulated by:
a. AMT b. CLIA’88 c. HIPAA d. PHS |
B
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56. A specimen for ova and parasite testing would be sent to which department?
a. Chemistry b. Coagulation c. Microbiology d. Urinalysis |
C
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57. Which department performs C&S tests?
a. Blood bank b. Chemistry c. Immunology d. Microbiology |
D
culture & sensitivity |
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58. Blood typing and compatibility testing are performed in this department.
a. Blood bank b. Chemistry c. Coagulation d. Hematology |
A
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59. This department examines specimens microscopically for the presence of crystals, casts, bacteria, and blood cells.
a. Chemistry b. Hematology c. Microbiology d. Urinalysis |
D
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60. Reference laboratories are viable because they offer all of the following EXCEPT:
a. A fast turnaround time b. More accurate results c. Reduced test costs d. Specialized analysis |
B
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61. A Very busy phlebotomist misidentifies the patient when collecting a specimen for transfusion preparation. The possible misdiagnosis of blood type could cause the patient’s death. If the phlebotomist’s action results in injury, this wrongful act is called:
a. Assault b. Battery c. Fraud d. Negligence |
D
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62. A laboratory technician asked a phlebotomist to recollect a specimen on a patient. When the phlebotomist asked what was wrong with the specimen, the technician replied, “The specimen was OK, but the results were inconsistent.” How would the laboratory technician have decided that the results were questionable? The results did not:
a. Compare with previous results after a delta check b. Match results of patients with the same diagnosis c. Measure up to the results on the control specimens d. Relate well to other patients tested at the same time |
A
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63. Legal actions in which the alleged injured party sues for monetary damages are:
a. Civil action b. Criminal action c. Malpractice d. Vicarious liability |
A
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64. The level of care that a person of ordinary intelligence and good sense would exercise under the given circumstances is the definition of:
a. Due care b. Quality care c. Quality essentials d. Standard of care |
A
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65. An internal process focused on identifying and minimizing situations that pose danger to patients and employees is:
a. Facilitywide risk management b. Performance improvement plan c. Sentinel (early warning) events d. The delta check procedure |
A
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66. CLIA categorizes certificates for laboratories according to:
a. Complexity of testing b. Personnel qualifications c. Quality control standards d. Size of the laboratory |
A
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67. Guides used to monitor all aspects of patient care are called:
a. QA indicators b. QI core measurements c. Quality System Essentials d. Thresholds values |
A
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68. The abbreviation for a national agency that sets standards for phlebotomy procedures is:
a. ASCP b. CLSI c. NAACLS d. NCA |
C
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69. Which of the following is not an area of phlebotomy subject to quality control (QC) procedures?
a. Patient identification b. Patient IV adjustment c. Phlebotomy technique d. Specimen labeling |
B
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70. All of the following are steps in the risk management process EXCEPT:
a. Breach of confidentiality b. Education of employees c. Identification of risk d. Treatment of risk |
A
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71. Which of the following would not violate a patient’s right to confidentiality?
a. Indicating the nature of a patient’s disease on the door b. Keeping a list of HIV-positive patients posted in the laboratory c. Posting a patient’s lab results on a board in his or her room d. Sharing information on a “difficult draw” with a coworker |
D
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72. Malpractice is a claim of:
a. Breach of confidentiality b. Improper treatment c. Invasion of privacy d. Res ipsa loquitur |
B
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73. All of the following are examples of negligence EXCEPT when the phlebotomist:
a. Does not return a bedrail to the upright position b. Fails to report significant changes in a patient’s condition c. Forgets to put a needle in the sharps container d. Is unable to obtain a specimen from a combative patient |
D
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74. Drawing a patient’s blood without his or her permission can result in a charge of:
a. Assault and battery b. Breach of confidentiality c. Malpractice d. Negligence |
A
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75. A patient agrees to undergo treatment after the method, risks, and consequences are explained to him. This is an example of:
a. Implied consent b. Informed consent c. Respondent superior d. Standard of care |
B
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76. A phlebotomist explains to an inpatient that he has come to collect a blood specimen. The patient extends his arm and pushes up his sleeve. This is an example of:
a. Expressed consent b. Implied consent c. Informed consent d. Refusal of consent |
B
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77. An example of a QA indicator is:
a. All phlebotomists will follow standard precautions guidelines b. Laboratory personnel will not wear lab coats when on break c. No eating, drinking, or smoking is allowed in lab work areas. d. The contamination rate for BCs will not exceed the national rate. |
D
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78. What laboratory department describes in detail the steps to follow for specimen collection?
a. OSHA safety manual b. Policy guidelines c. Procedure manual d. Quality control manual |
C
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79. The series of components that lead to infection are referred to as the:
a. Chain of infection b. Immune response c. Infection cycle d. Pathogenic series |
A
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he pathogen responsible for causing an infection is called the infectious:
a. Agent b. Host c. Vector d. Vehicle |
A
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81. Isolation procedures are used to separate patients from contact with others if they:
a. Are a carrier of a bloodborne pathogen b. Have highly transmissible infections c. Require blood or body fluid precautions d. Were exposed to a contagious disease |
B
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82. All of the following can leave a patient more susceptible to infection EXCEPT:
a. Antibiotic treatment b. Chemotherapy drugs c. Previous vaccination d. Surgical procedures |
C
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83. An individual who has little resistance to an infectious microbe is referred to as a susceptible:
a. Agent b. Host c. Pathway d. Reservoir |
B
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84. MSDS information includes:
a. General and emergency information b. Highly technical chemical formulas c. Information on competitor products d. Product manufacturing conditions |
A
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85. This type of precaution is required for a patient with Mycoplasma pneumonia:
a. Airborne b. Contact c. Droplet d. Standard |
C
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86. When the chain of infection is broken, an:
a. Individual is immune to that microbe b. Individual is susceptible to infection c. Infection is prevented from happening d. Infection will most likely be the result |
C
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87. Which type of precautions would be used for a patient who has pulmonary tuberculosis:
a. Airborne b. Droplet c. Contact d. Reverse |
A
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88. All pathogens are:
a. Communicable microorganisms b. Microbes that can cause disease c. Microorganisms that live in soil d. Normal flora found on the skin |
B
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89. An example of a disease requiring droplet isolation is:
a. Pertussis b. Rubeola c. Scabies d. Varicella |
A
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90. Standard precautions should be followed:
a. For anyone with hepatitis B b. If a patient is HIV positive c. While a patient is in isolation d. With all patients, at all times |
D
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91. Objects that can harbor and transmit infectious material are called:
a. Fomites b. Hosts c. Pathogens d. Vectors |
A
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92. All of the following can help break the chain of infection EXCEPT:
a. Implementing isolation procedures b. Opening exit pathways for pathogens c. Practicing stress reduction techniques d. Washing hands and wearing gloves |
B
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93. This equipment is required when collecting a specimen from a patient in airborne isolation:
a. Eye protection b. Full face shield c. Mask and goggles d. N95 respirator |
D
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94. The best course of action when entering an isolation room is:
a. Ask the patient’s nurse what to do b. Do whatever you did the last time c. Follow the posted precautions d. Put on gloves and a respirator |
C
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95. What is the first thing a phlebotomist should do if he or she is accidentally stuck by a needle used to draw blood from a patient?
a. Check the patient’s medical records for HIV test results b. Clean the site with soap and water for at least 30 seconds c. Go to the employee health service and get a tetanus booster d. Leave the area so the patient does not notice the injury |
B
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96. All of the following are links (components) in the chain of infection EXCEPT:
a. Exit pathway b. Reservoir c. Surveillance d. Susceptible host |
C
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97. nosocomial infection is one that is:
a. Caught by a healthcare worker b. Communicable in nature c. Healthcare facility acquired d. Present without symptoms |
C
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98. This mode of transmission involves contaminated food, water, drugs, or blood transfusions:
a. Airborne b. Contact c. Vector d. Vehicle |
D
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99. What term is used to describe a type of infection that can be spread from person to person?
a. Communicable b. Nonpathogenic c. Nosocomial d. Systemic |
A
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100. Which mode of infection transmission involves transfer of an infective microbe to the mucous membranes of a susceptible individual by means of a cough or sneeze?
a. Contact b. Droplet c. Fomite d. Vehicle |
B
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APC
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ambulatory patient classification…outpatient payments to hosp
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CEUs
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continuing education units
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CLIA '88
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clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988, law mandates that all labs must be regulated by same standards regardless of location, type, or size
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cultural diversity
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belief and values, environments, customs and traditions, attitude
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Diagnosis codes
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ICD-9-CM
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DRGs
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diagnosis-related groups..hosp is reimbursed a set amount for ea procedure
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HIPAA
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Health Insurance Prorability and Accountability Act
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HMO's
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health maintenance org
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IDSs
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integrated health care delivery sys
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kinesic slip
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if verbal and nonverbal messages do not match
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kinesics
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nonverbal communication
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MCO's
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managed care org
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Patient care Partnership
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provide high quality care in a clean and safe environment, while also maintaining patients personal rights and dignity by being sensitive to cultural, racial, religious, gender,age and other differences also see box 1-2 pp 12
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Patients bill of rights
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right to concerned and sympathic care, and privacy
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PHI
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protected health information
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polycythemia
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overproduction of red blood cells
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PPO
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preferred provider org
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PPS
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prospective payment sys..medicare/medicade paid to hospitals
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proxemics
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individuals concept and use of space
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4 core measurements areas for hospitals
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Joint commission-acute myocardial infarction (heart attack), community-acquired pneumonia(includes blood culture before admin of antibiotics), pregnancy and related condititons, and heart failure-SCIP added Antibotic therapy given following heart surgery
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ASCP
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American society for clinical pathology-not for profit org for professionals in field of lab medicine
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CAP
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college of American Pathologists-influences quality improvement in phlebotomy through standards (an outgrowth of ASCP) offers proficiency testing and a continous form of lab inspection by team of pathologists and lab managers
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CLIA '88
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fed regulations- administered by CMS- requirements more stringent for labs that perform moderate to high complexity testing than waved testing
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CLIAC
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Clinical Laboratory Improvement Advisory Committee..developed ten QA recommendations for COW labs
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CLSI
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Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute(formerly NCCLS) global, non profit, standards developing org, representatives from profession-industry-govt who use a consensus process to develop voluntary guidelines and standards for all areas of the lab
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CMS
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centers for Medicare and Medicaid- agency that manages federal healthcare programs and establish high quality standards that apply to all facilities(including clinics and labs)
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delta checks
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check previous results against current results for descrepancies
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due care
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doing something that a reasonable person would not do or not doing something that a reasonable person would do)
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expressed consent
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required for treatment that involves, surgery, experimental drugs, high-risk procedure-verbal or written-written signed by both dr and pt and 3rd party witrness- verbal should be followed by entry in pt chart and cover what was discussed with pt, should cover the actual procedure not general form or carte blanche
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implied consent
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pt's actions imply consent, may be necessary in emergency procedures ..ie CPR to save life, laws enacted at state level and may differ from state to state
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Informed consent
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implies voluntary and competent permission, requires pt be given adequate information on method, risk, consequences, information in non-technical term and in his own language, permission or consent must be obtained before iniation of procedure, minors require permission of parent or legal guardians
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JCAHO
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joint commision on accrediation of health care organizations- key player-voluntary-non govt-establish standards for operation of hospitals and helth related facilities and services.
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NAACLS
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National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences-recognized by US Dept of Ed as an authority on educational quality-autonomous, nonprofit org..provides accrediation or approval for clinical lab ed programs- must meet competencies
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QA
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quality assurance - established polocies and procedures-defined as a program that guarantees quality patient care by tracking outcomes. Look at the appropriateness, applicability and timeliness of patient care
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QA for phlebotomy
What stage? 6 things regulated |
preanalytical stage. Pt must be prepared properly, pt identification, equipment (puncture devices, evacuated tubes, labeling) technique, collection priorities, Delta checks
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QA indicators
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guides to monitoe all aspects of pt care. Must be measurable, well defined, objective, specific, and clearly related to an important aspect of care. Can measure quality, adequacy, accuracy, timeliness, effectiveness of pt car , customer satisfaction and so on
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Quality control
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ensure the same process is always followed, checks and controls on quality. Defined: form of procedure control, consistently following national standards
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Res ipsa loquitur
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the thing speaks for itself-when a breach of duty is so obvious that it needs no further explanation
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respondent superior
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let the master respond- employer is liable (legally responsible) for action of employee, key points: employee is working within scope of employment and has had proper training to perform requied duties
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Risk Management
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internal process focused on identifying and minimizing situations that pose risk to pts and employees. Risk managed 2 ways: controlling risk to avoid incidents and paying for occurances after they have happened.
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sentinel event
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signals need for immediate investigation and response..ie..unfavorable event that is unexpected, results in death or serious physical or psychologic injury
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standard of care
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normal level of skill and care that a health care practitioner would be expected to adhere to in order to provide due care to pts.
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Airborne transmission
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dispersal of evaporated droplet nuclei containg infectious agent
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BBP
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blood borne pathogen-microbes present in blood and other body fluids and tissues
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Biohazard
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material or substace harmful to health
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BSI
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body substance isolation-gloves be worn when contact with any moist body substance
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chain of infection
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six key links: infectious agent, (bacteria, fungus)reservoir,(human, equipment) exit pathway,(blood secretions) means of transmission,(airborne , contact) entry pathway,(body orifices, broken skin) susceptible host (elderly, newborn)
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entry pathway
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way a pathogen is able to enter host,mucous membranes, orifices, breaks in skin, catheterization, venipuncture
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exit pathway
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way an infectious agent is able to leave a reservior host
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formites
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inanimate objects that can harbor microbes
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HICPAC
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Hospital infection control practices advisory committee- advises CDC on updating guidelines regarding nosocomial infections
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infectious/causative agent
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pathogenic microbe responsible for causing the infection
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microbe
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microorganism- bacteria, fungi, protozoa, viruses, many non-pathogenic(do not cause disease under normal conditions)
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MSDS
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material saftey data sheets- contain: general info, precautionary info, emergency info-any product with hazardous warning must have a MSDS to help ensure it is used safley and as intended
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neutropenic
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abnornally small amt of neutrophil(WBC's) cells in blood ( normal avg is 65%of total WBC count)
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NIOSH
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National Institute for occupational saftey and health-requires anyone who enters the room of a pt who has airborne disease to wear N95 respirator
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percutaneous
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through the skin(absorbed)
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permucosal
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through mucous membranes-eyes, nose mouth
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PPE
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personal protective equipment, includes: gloves, gowns, mask,respirators, goggles
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reservoir
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source of infection where it can survive grow or multiply
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reverse isolation
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also called protective-used when pt is highly susceptible to infection
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susceptible host
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someone with a decreased ability to resist infection- factors: age, health immune status
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work practice controls
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things you do
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Sr Director Performance excellence
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care mgmnt
patient rep infection control performance improvement |
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VP clinical and support svcs
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director of: Lab, midical imaging, pulmonary/respiratory/endoscopy svcs,
pharmacy guest svcs physical med/rehab |
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VP/Chief Nursing officer
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Director of:
Women and children svcs pediatrics and NICU perioperative svcs emergency and trauma svcs medical surgical svcs dialysis svcs Interm director of: ICU/Tele Patient access svcs/Hospital supervisors |
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Vp Community development
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director volunteers
interim director foundation retail svcs..ie..gift shop coffee shop..atm..florist |
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VP Chief medical Officer
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admin of physician's svcs
med director Trauma Manager Med staff svcs |
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Name Chain of Infection parts
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Infectious agent
Reservoir exit pathway means of transmission entry pathway susceptible host |
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example of infectious agent
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bacteria, fungus, protzoon, rickettsia, virus
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example of reservior (chain of infection)
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animal, human, equipment, food, soil, water
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example of exit pathway(chain of infection)
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blood, exudates, excreteions, secretions
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example of means of transmission
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airborne, contact, droplet, vector, vechicle
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entry pathway (chain of infection)
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body orifices, mucous membranes, broken skin
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susceptible host examples
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elderly, newborn, acute/chronically ill, immune supperssed, unvaccinated
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agents are in reserve to exit and transmit the entry host
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to remember chain of infection
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