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112 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What is the mechanism of action of Isoniazid (INH, a structural congener of pyridoxine) used in the treatment of mycobacterium tuberculosis?
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a. Inhibition of enzymes required for the synthesis of mycolic acids and mycobacterial cell walls.
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Patients taking which of the following antimycobacterial drugs might be advised to test their vision by reading the small print in the newspaper from time to time?
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d. Ethambutol
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Which of the following drugs remains the most active drug against M. leprae? The mechanism of action of this drug involves the inhibition of folic acid synthesis.
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a. Dapsone
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Which is the antifungal agent that interacts with ergosterol in fungal cell membranes to form artificial pores?
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b. Amphotericin B
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Which is the antifungal agent (active against dermatophytes) that inhibits mitosis by disrupting spindle formation (microtubule function)
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a. Griseofulvin
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Which is the drug that terminates DNA synthesis in viruses by inhibiting the enzyme reverse transcriptase (RNA directed DNA polymerase)?
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b. Lamivudine
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Which is the antiviral drug that inhibits neuraminidase that is essential for vial replication? This drug administered via oral inhalation is approved for uncomplicated influenza infection?
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a. Zanamivir
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Which is the drug that inhibits HIV-1 aspartate protease, an enzyme that cleaves viral precursor proteins that are critical to the production of mature infections virions?
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c. Indinavir
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Comsumption of ethanol along with which of the following drugs can cause nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, flushing and headache in some patients (sisulfram-like reactions)?
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d. Flagyl
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A human monoclonal antibody that prevents respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection.
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a. Palivizumab
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A monobactam active against gram negative organisms
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c. Aztreonam
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Which of the following agents is used in acute gonorrheal infections as an alternative for patients who are allergic to Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)?
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e. Spectinomycin
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Which of the following agents is an appropriate choice to treat vancomycin resistant Enterococcus faecium?
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c. Quinupristin-Dalfopristin
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Which of the following drugs, used in the treatment of chloroquine resistant P. falciparum infections may cause overdose abortions?
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a. Quinine sulfate
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Which of the following drugs is a broad-spectrum cephalosporin commonly used in the treatment of gonorrhea?
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d. Ceftriaxone
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What is the primary mechanism underlying the resistance of organisms to tetracyclines?
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c. Increased activity of the efflux mechanisms for active extrusion of the drug
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Which of the following agents that inhibits replication of influenza A is know for its CNS dopaminergic responses (treats Parkinsonism)?
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e. Amantadine
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Drugs that can dilate bronchi during an acute asthmatic attack can include all of the following except:
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c. Nedocromil
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The responsiveness of bronchial smooth muscle to beta agonists such as Ventolin can be restored by the administration of which following corticosteroids?
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b. Triamcinolone
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Which of the following is an anticholinergic bronchodilating agent that may not cause muscle tremors?
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c. Ipratropium
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Choose the prophylactic agent that appears to stabilize mast cells by inhibiting mast cells degranulation and histamine release:
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a. Cromolyn sodium
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Which of the following histamine receptor antagonists do not enter the central nervous system readily?
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c. Fexofenadine
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Which of the following H1 antihistamine has the least sedative effect or somnolence?
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b. Loratadine
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Which of the following is a nasal spray that treats allergic rhinitis by the combined mechanisms of H1 receptor antagoniam as well as by inhibiting mast cell histamine release?
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b. Azelastine
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Oral administration of which of the following agents is not recommended with antacids due to its action on calcium and other cations?
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b. Tetracyclines
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Which is the drug that interferes with bacterial DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA gyrase enzyme in bacteria? This DNA gyrase inhibitor blocks the relaxation of supercoiled DNA in bacteria and is bactericidal in action.
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a. Ciprofloxacin
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Which is the anti-herpetic drug that is a phosphate analogue?
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e. Foscarnet
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Ototoxicity is the major complication of which of the following classes of antibiotic drugs?
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a. Aminoglycoside
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Which of the following drugs is most effective orally for the treatment of UTI due to E. cole and pseudomonas aeruginosa (gram-negative rods)?
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c. Ciprofloxacin
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Which is the drug used in the treatment of plague and tularemia? When administered with other agents in TB, this drug delays the emergence of resistant mycobacterium?
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d. Streptomycin
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Which is the primary reason for the use of drug combinations in the treatment of TB?
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d. Delay or prevent the emergence of resistance
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A non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
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E. Delavirdine
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A nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
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A. Zalcitabine
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An Echinocandin that is active against Aspergillus
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B. Anidulafungin
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A streptogramin active against Vancomycin Resistant Enterococci?
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D. Quinupristin-Dalfopristin
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What is the mechanism of action of the non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), ibuprofen?
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b. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase enzyme
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Which of the following may be analgesic and/or antipyretic but not an anti-inflammatory agent?
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a. Acetaminophen
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Upon observation by a toxicologist, which of the following best describes a property or manifestation of opiod overdose?
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d. Miosis (papillary contriction)
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Which of the following statements is NOT accurate about benzodiazepines?
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e. Benzodiazepines may produce general anesthesia
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Which of the following is a short-acting barbiturate hypnotic with rapid onset of action?
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c. Thiopental
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Which of the following is an anticonvulsant agent (a sodium channel blocker) used in partial simple and complex seizures especially initial therapy?
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a. Carbamazepine
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Which of the following is a vasodilator used in the management of hypertension with Lupus-like symptoms as an adverse effect?
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a. Hydralazine
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Which of the following is a calcium channel blocker useful in treating in hypertension?
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a. Diltiazem (Cardizem)
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Which is the drug used sublingually for angina with very rapid onset and brief effect?
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d. Nitroglycerin pA54
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Matching:
an antiepileptic drug that is also used in the management of ventricular arrhythmias? |
c. Phenytoin
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Matching:
Used in the management of bed-wetting in young children |
b. Imipramine
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Matching:
A benzodiazepine used in seizures associated with alcoholism |
a. Clonazepam
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Matching:
A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant also used in treating bulimia nervosa |
d. Fluoxetine
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Matching:
A monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAO) used in atypical depression |
e. Phenelzine
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Which of the following statements about antidepressant agents is INACCURATE?
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c. Lithium is the least toxic of all antidepressive agents
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All of the following are H2-receptor blocking drugs EXCEPT:
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d. Loratadine
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Which one of the following statements on drugs used in GI disorders is FALSE?
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b. Eradication of H. pylori with a single antimicrobial agent such as amoxicillin is recommended in early stages of infection
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Which of the following statements on H2-histamine receptor blockers is not stated correctly?
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e. H2 receptor blockers are not useful in treating nocturnal acid secretions p. B20
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Which of the following drugs would you recommend for non-infectious traveler’s diarrhea?
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b. Diphenoxylate
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Which of the following is a glucocorticoid used in chemotherapy induced vomiting?
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a. Dexamethasone
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Which of the following is a drug that irreversibly inhibits the proton pump, H+/K+ ATPase in gastric parietal cells?
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d. Omeprazole
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Which of the following drugs is not recommended (used) today in the therapy of _____ peptic ulcer caused by gram negative H. pylori?
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a. Penicillin G
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Which of the following is a piperidine derivative, with powerful antidiarrheal actions (available as OTC) but does not penetrate the CNS?
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a. Loperamide
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Which of the following (on anti-nausea and entiemetic agents) is NOT correctly matched?
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b. Prochlorperazine – Dopamine D2 agonistic effects at Chemoreceptor trigger zone
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Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
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b. Metoclopramide (Reglan) causes persistent hiccups
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Which of the following is a lubricating agent that treats constipation?
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c. Mineral oil
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Which of the following is a bulk forming agent that treats constipation?
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a. Psyllium
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What is the mechanism of action of Sucralfate?
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a. Binds to injured tissue and protects by coating
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Matching:
An endogenous opioid peptide |
b. Beta-endorphin
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Matching:
An opiod agonist analgesic with high efficacy |
E. Acetaminophen
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Matching:
An opiod antitussive (anti-cough) |
C. Dexatromethorphan
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Matching:
An opiod antagonist |
D. Naloxone
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Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
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c. Protamine is added to insulin to make a less soluble complex decrease the rate of absorption of insulin
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Matching:
A meglitinide that causes release of insulin by binding to potassium channels |
B. Repaglinide
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Matching:
Reduces insulin resistance by binding to peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor-gamma (PPAR-gamma) |
A. Rosiglitazone
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Matching:
A biguanide that decreases hepatic glucose output increases glucose utilization |
C. Metformin
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Matching:
An alpha glucosidase enzyme inhibitor |
D. Acarbose
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Which of the following is the most accurate statement?
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b. Phenobarbital induces respiratory depression and alcohol may enhance this effect even leading to death b80
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Which of the following is a vasodilator used in the management of hypertension with Lupus-like symptoms as an adverse effect?
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a. Hydralazine pA97
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Which of the following is a calcium channel blocker useful in treating in hypertension?
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a. Diltiazem (Cardizem)
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Which is the drug used sublingually for angina with very rapid onset and brief effect?
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d. Nitroglycerin
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This drug is mainly used in hypertensive emergencies
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B. Nitroprusside
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The adverse effects of this drug are dry cough and fetal malformations?
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C. Captopril
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This is a calcium channel blocker that could be used in angina pectoris?
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D. Amiodipine
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This drug is known as a renin inhibitor?
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E. Aliskiren
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Which of the following is an adverse effect associated with nitroglycerin?
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b. Throbbing headache
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Which of the following is a recognized toxicity of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?
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c. Tissue injury and myalgia
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Lupus-like syndrome can be an adverse effect of which of the following anti-arrhythmic agents?
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a. Procainamide
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Which of the following statements about drugs that regulate hemostasis is NOT ACCURATE?
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c. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase enzyme
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Which of the following drugs used in hypertension does not oppose the vasoconstrictive effects mediated by antiotensin?
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c. Atenolol
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Which of the following is a ____ potassium sparing diuretic that works on collecting tubule ____ membrane in direct ____ of ____ receptors?
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a. Spironolactone
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Which of the following is not an action or effect of of organic nitrates used in the management of angina?
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C. Pentaerythritol (Peritrate) (Okay, the other answers are Nitrates ____ so pick the one that doesn't start with Nitrates)
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Which of the following drugs is correctly paired with its _____ mechanism of action?
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Amiodarone , Class 3 arrhythmic action, dose-related adverse effects
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WOT arrhythmic agents
maybe: Which of the following anti-arrhythmic drugs is used in the treatment of Malaria or overdose abortion? |
Quinidine (Quinidex, Cardioquin) Quinidine causes overdose abortion; it's a class IA drug for arrythmias. The question was probably, "Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of arrythmias can cause overdose abortion?" Quinine, it's steroisomer, is used to treat malaria.
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Which of the following agents is believed to be _____ in the management of _____?
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Adenosine? Well, Adenosine is used to manage reentrant paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardias(PSVT). Adenosine stimulates adenosine-sensitive potassium channels - the resulting outflow of potassium hyperpolarizes the atrial tissues, reducing the duration of the atrial action potential.
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Which of the following agents used in hypertension emergencies is known to have adrenergic alpha-blocking action as well as non-selective beta-blocking action?
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e. Labetalol A100 - Carvedilol is also an alpha- and beta-blocker
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Prolonged treatment with which of the following anti-hypertensive drugs may increase serum prolactin levels and lactation during therapy?
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d. Methyldopa
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An ionizable drug has a pKa of 3.8. The drug is now dissolved in water and was seen to contain equal amounts of ionized and non-ionized forms. What is the pH of the solution?
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b. 3.8
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Which of the following statements concerning characteristics of a particular route of administration is INCORRECT?
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a. Intravenous administration provides slow response.
It's immediate and 100% bioavailable! |
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Which route of administration is likely to have 100% bioavailability?
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c. Intravenous
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What is the mechanism of acton of Metoprolol (Lopressor) as an antihypertensive drug?
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c. Beta – 1 adrenergic receptor antagonism
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The study of the action of body on drugs
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B. Pharmokinetics
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The study of chromosomal factors in the variation of drug response
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C. Pharmacogenetics
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The study of bioactive substances of natural origin
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D. Pharmacognosy
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The study of the action of drugs on the body
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E. Pharmacodynamics
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Which of the following statement about Heparin is INACCURATE?
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b. Heparin is a drug that is known to cause teratogenicity (fetal malformation)
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Which of the following statements about warfarin is INACCURATE?
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b. Warfarin inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase enzyme
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Which of the following agents is used for REVERSAL of effect of heparin action?
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c. Protamine sulfate
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Classified under anticoagulant anti-platelet drugs, which of the following is a platelet inhibitor that inhibits ADP pathway?
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c. Clopidogrel (Plavix)
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Which of the following agents is a partial fatty-acid oxidation (PFox) inhibitor and is useful in the management of ischemic heart disease?
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a. Ranolazine (Ranexa)
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What is the mechanism of action of Digitalis glycosides used in the management of Congestive Heart Failure?
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a. Inhibition of Na+/K+ ATPase of the cell membrane
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What is the mechanism of action of aspirin (ASA) as an antiplatelet agent?
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d. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase enzyme
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Which of the following agents used in the management of lipidemia is a cholesterol ……. In the GI tract?
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a. Ezetimibe (Zetia)
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How would you describe Carvedilol (Coreg), a drug that is useful in the management of congestive heart failure?
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a. A non-selective beta-receptor blocker and alpha1-receptor blocker
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Which of the following is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that is contraindicated for concurrent use with nitrates due to the propensity for causing nitrate potentiation?
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b. Sildenafil (Viagra) -
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Which of the following agents is known to reduce blood pressure by central alpha 2 mechanisms?
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c. Clonidine (Catapres)
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Which is the drug used in depressed cardiac contractility and is known to be a cardio-specific inotropic beta adrenergic agonist and is not known to cause the release of endogenous norepinephrine?
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b. Dobutamine
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